Makefile0000664000175000017500000000117014627746122010702 0ustar jtnjtnbuild: echo "null build" clean: echo "null clean" dist: rm -f ../fccexam.orig.tar.gz tar zcvf ../fccexam.orig.tar.gz --exclude debian * install: mkdir -p $(DESTDIR)/usr/share cp -r share $(DESTDIR)/usr/share/fccexam mkdir -p $(DESTDIR)/usr/bin ln -s ../share/fccexam/fccexam $(DESTDIR)/usr/bin/fccexam mkdir -p $(DESTDIR)/usr/share/man/man1 gzip -c fccexam.1 > $(DESTDIR)/usr/share/man/man1/fccexam.1.gz mkdir -p $(DESTDIR)/usr/share/applications cp fccexam.desktop $(DESTDIR)/usr/share/applications/fccexam.desktop mkdir -p $(DESTDIR)/usr/share/pixmaps cp fccexam.png $(DESTDIR)/usr/share/pixmaps/fccexam.png fccexam.10000664000175000017500000000714414624216341010731 0ustar jtnjtn.TH HAMEXAM 1 .SH NAME fccexam \- Study guide for USA FCC commercial radio license examinations. .SH SYNOPSIS .B fccexam [option] .SH DESCRIPTION .B fccexam presents questions in random order from the selected question pool, and terminates when all questions have been answered correctly. The session may be interrupted with ^C, and resumed later. Some questions refer to figures. The figures for the selected question pool are displayed in a separate window using $HTML_VIEWER, if it is executable. If $HTML_VIEWER is undefined, xdg-open(1) will be used to choose the default browser. If $HTML_VIEWER is not an executable command (e.g. ""), then questions which refer to figures will be noted and skipped. Licenses are issued by the Federal Communications Commission (FCC), but examinations are administered by COLEM examiners. See http://wireless.fcc.gov/commoperators/index.htm?job=home for information regarding USA commercial radio licenses. .SH OPTIONS If no pool is specified, usage, version, and help information is displayed. To initialize the question pool, one of the element numbers may be specified: .IP .B 1 Element 1, Basic radio law and operating practice. .B 3 Element 3, General Radiotelephone; Electronic fundamentals and techniques required to adjust, repair, and maintain radio transmitters and receivers. .B 6 Element 6, Advanced technical, legal, and other matters applicable to the operation of all classes of radiotelegraph stations. .B 7 Element 7, GMDSS Radio Operating Practices. .B 7R Element 7R, Restricted GMDSS Radio Operating Practices. .B 8 Element 8, Ship Radar Techniques. .B 9 Element 9, GMDSS Radio Maintenance Practices and Procedures. The following abbreviations may be used to select multiple elements: .B T Radiotelegraph: elements 1, 6. .B GROL General Radiotelephone Operator License + Radar Endorsement: elements 1, 3, 8. .B MROP Marine Radio Operator Permit: element 1. .B GMDSS Global Maritime Distress Safety System Radio Operator: elements 1, 7. .B GMDSSM GMDSS Radio Maintainer + Radar: elements 1, 7, 9. .B RGMDSS Restricted GMDSS Radio Operator: elements 1, 7R. .B q The question pool is selected interactively. This is needed when starting the application from an icon. .SH FILES A directory ~/.fccexam is created to hold the names of the questions which remain to be answered correctly. .SH SEE ALSO For more information regarding licensing, ref. https://www.fcc.gov/wireless/bureau-divisions/mobility-division/commercial-radio-operator-license-program/examinations For information regarding amateur radio licensing (ham radio), see the package hamexam. .SH COPYRIGHT .B fccexam is Copyright (c) 2012-2024 John Nogatch . .B fccexam version 1.0.8, containing question pools as recent as 20-May-2024. This program is free software; you can redistribute it and/or modify it under the terms of the GNU General Public License as published by the Free Software Foundation; either version 2 of the License, or (at your option) any later version. This program is distributed in the hope that it will be useful, but WITHOUT ANY WARRANTY; without even the implied warranty of MERCHANTABILITY or FITNESS FOR A PARTICULAR PURPOSE. See the GNU General Public License for more details. .SH BUGS The question pools, and number of questions required, are sometimes modified; ref. https://www.fcc.gov/wireless/bureau-divisions/mobility-division/commercial-radio-operator-license-program/examinations Radiotelegraph Operator licenses also require Morse code proficiency elements, which are not provided by fccexam. .B fccexam does not automatically update the question pools from the FCC Web site. fccexam.desktop0000664000175000017500000000026111725442567012245 0ustar jtnjtn[Desktop Entry] Name=fccexam GenericName=fccexam Comment=FCC Radio Examination trainer Exec=fccexam q Icon=fccexam Terminal=true Type=Application Categories=Education;HamRadio; fccexam.png0000664000175000017500000000321011725443753011353 0ustar jtnjtnPNG  IHDR00WsBIT|d pHYsbb_'StEXtSoftwarewww.inkscape.org<IDATh{EҮ}`iPHM )*V0#S !HR HB Fc #p/N@O6:НSa5xO@R턹B<vo2 vkz(R-BH5 l{}[q|8܏o+>7 mtDWz(S7+^/?c{a`hW8`߃H<sp:&' k\DMD'FGGEiEE6؛ @qogOׇ`?1ϴ121ޙdhw6w^ c\لi~Y^`6Ȫ|Zvslm5sK~|ePͽH6oz('&n_DBrl vQyo\F˹+kZ}U6Vs]2N(.0[la[W ZpҒWgnZ+0+ة9X8ʶ~4752rM#r` 7f̬?Ki qܩw?2ԇkr7elbEMj͓(dcF?cC6]7K$kog+6DzQ#@Og-sĝASy< Z,|\!}[Vm{ +Z1q#h k\X&9XVh.4'kJt81nαyXa^Ɵ=UvT6z+kD#XWf v#FGFis-jnlZ.oƟ>/Gpȗ/EN4?0yLuiS=&#^pJ2;_gk2@xux2 S5ĝܨmOF`yOpA8sE`قsd~ps_~˄vQkpR=Ydo6#1%aR&P^?+x^ޅ##px Br r #b嗉 oW"}PBݧg8L)'7-.[$9Bds1Ď/S.j@64d.VNan <%\琩ť]Gy[ ȱ3{{ݔR image/svg+xml EXAM GROL GMDSS RADAR FCC share/0000775000175000017500000000000014630161124010330 5ustar jtnjtnshare/E3/0000775000175000017500000000000014623215450010603 5ustar jtnjtnshare/E3/3-29D10000664000175000017500000000040314621207566011311 0ustar jtnjtn3-29D1 A What is the approximate magnitude of the impedance of a parallel R-L-C circuit at resonance? A. Approximately equal to the circuit resistance. B. Approximately equal to XL. C. Low, as compared to the circuit resistance. D. Approximately equal to XC. share/E3/3-14B20000664000175000017500000000041114621207565011300 0ustar jtnjtn3-14B2 D) What is the meaning of the term "time constant of an RC circuit"? The time required to charge the capacitor in the circuit to: A. 23.7% of the supply voltage. B. 36.8% of the supply voltage. C. 57.3% of the supply voltage. D. 63.2% of the supply voltage. share/E3/3-50F30000664000175000017500000000040214621207566011306 0ustar jtnjtn3-50F3 B What is the term used to refer to the condition where the signals from a very strong station are superimposed on other signals being received? A. Intermodulation distortion. B. Cross-modulation interference. C. Receiver quieting. D. Capture effect. share/E3/3-5A20000664000175000017500000000025614621207565011226 0ustar jtnjtn3-5A2 B What limits the maximum forward current in a junction diode? A. The peak inverse voltage (PIV). B. The junction temperature. C. The forward voltage. D. The back EMF. share/E3/3-99Q60000664000175000017500000000031114621207567011341 0ustar jtnjtn3-99Q6 C If the MPE (Maximum Permissible Exposure) power is present, how often must the personnel accessing the affected area be trained and certified? A. Weekly. B. Monthly. C. Yearly. D. Not at all. share/E3/3-43F40000664000175000017500000000023714621207566011317 0ustar jtnjtn3-43F4 A Which type of oscillator circuit is commonly used in a VFO (variable frequency oscillator)? A. Colpitts. B. Pierce. C. Hartley. D. Negative feedback. share/E3/3-17B30000664000175000017500000000037514621207565011315 0ustar jtnjtn3-17B3 C In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network composed of a 400-ohm-reactance capacitor in series with a 300-ohm resistor? A. 240 ohms, /36.9 degrees B. 240 ohms, /-36.9 degrees C. 500 ohms, /-53.1 degrees D. 500 ohms, /53.1 degrees share/E3/3-63J20000664000175000017500000000075214621207566011325 0ustar jtnjtn3-63J2 A Why is the value of the radiation resistance of an antenna important? A. Knowing the radiation resistance makes it possible to match impedances for maximum power transfer. B. Knowing the radiation resistance makes it possible to measure the near-field radiation density from transmitting antenna. C. The value of the radiation resistance represents the front-to-side ratio of the antenna. D. The value of the radiation resistance represents the front-to-back ratio of the antenna. share/E3/3-17B10000664000175000017500000000044014621207565011304 0ustar jtnjtn3-17B1 D What is the impedance of a network composed of a 100-picofarad capacitor in parallel with a 4000-ohm resistor, at 500 KHz? Specify your answer in polar coordinates. A. 2490 ohms, /51.5 degrees B. 4000 ohms, /38.5 degrees C. 5112 ohms, /-38.5 degrees D. 2490 ohms, /-51.5 degrees share/E3/3-91O10000664000175000017500000000032414621207567011326 0ustar jtnjtn3-91O1 A The ATR box: A. Prevents the received signal from entering the transmitter. B. Protects the receiver from strong RADAR signals. C. Turns off the receiver when the transmitter is on. D. All of the above. share/E3/3-91O50000664000175000017500000000041714621207567011335 0ustar jtnjtn3-91O5 B Digital signal processing (DSP) of RADAR signals (compared with analog) causes: A. Improved display graphics. B. Improved weak signal or target enhancement. C. Less interference with SONAR systems. D. Less interference with other radio communications equipment. share/E3/3-54G30000664000175000017500000000044614621207566011323 0ustar jtnjtn3-54G3 A What is the resonant frequency in an electrical circuit? A. The frequency at which capacitive reactance equals inductive reactance. B. The highest frequency that will pass current. C. The lowest frequency that will pass current. D. The frequency at which power factor is at a minimum. share/E3/3-26C60000664000175000017500000000054014621207566011314 0ustar jtnjtn3-26C6 D When an NPN transistor is operating as a Class A amplifier, the base-emitter junction: A. And collector-base junction are both forward biased. B. And collector-base junction are both reverse biased. C. Is reverse biased and the collector-base junction is forward biased. D. Is forward biased and the collector-base junction is reverse biased. share/E3/3-89N40000664000175000017500000000023014621207567011333 0ustar jtnjtn3-89N4 A In an NMEA 2000 device, a load equivalence number (LEN) of 1 is equivalent to how much current consumption? A. 50 mA B. 10 mA C. 25 mA D. 5 mA share/E3/3-79L30000664000175000017500000000026214621207566011333 0ustar jtnjtn3-79L3 D What is the proper way to cut plastic wire ties? A. With scissors. B. With a knife. C. With semi-flush diagonal pliers. D. With flush-cut diagonal pliers and cut flush. share/E3/3-31D10000664000175000017500000000042714621207566011310 0ustar jtnjtn3-31D1 A What frequency synthesizer circuit uses a phase comparator, look-up table, digital-to-analog converter, and a low-pass antialias filter? A. A direct digital synthesizer. B. Phase-locked-loop synthesizer. C. A diode-switching matrix synthesizer. D. A hybrid synthesizer. share/E3/3-34E20000664000175000017500000000054714621207566011320 0ustar jtnjtn3-34E2 D What is a characteristic of a NAND gate? A. Produces a logic "0" at its output only when all inputs are logic "0". B. Produces a logic "1" at its output only when all inputs are logic "1". C. Produces a logic "0" at its output if some but not all of its inputs are logic "1". D. Produces a logic "0" at its output only when all inputs are logic "1". share/E3/3-62I10000664000175000017500000000031214621207566011312 0ustar jtnjtn3-62I1 D What occurs if the load is removed from an operating series DC motor? A. It will stop running. B. Speed will increase slightly. C. No change occurs. D. It will accelerate until it falls apart. share/E3/3-74L30000664000175000017500000000056414621207566011333 0ustar jtnjtn3-74L3 A What is the purpose of a series multiplier resistor used with a voltmeter? A. It is used to increase the voltage-indicating range of the voltmeter. B. A multiplier resistor is not used with a voltmeter. C. It is used to decrease the voltage-indicating range of the voltmeter. D. It is used to increase the current-indicating range of an ammeter, not a voltmeter. share/E3/3-36E50000664000175000017500000000016014621207566011314 0ustar jtnjtn3-36E5 C How many R-S flip-flops would be required to construct an 8 bit storage register? A. 2 B. 4 C. 8 D. 16 share/E3/3-31D50000664000175000017500000000031414621207566011307 0ustar jtnjtn3-31D5 B In a direct digital synthesizer, what are the unwanted components on its output? A. Broadband noise. B. Spurs at discrete frequencies. C. Digital conversion noise. D. Nyquist limit noise pulses. share/E3/3-59H30000664000175000017500000000035214621207566011325 0ustar jtnjtn3-59H3 D What is the name of the type of modulation in which the modulating signal varies the duration of the transmitted pulse? A. Amplitude modulation. B. Frequency modulation. C. Pulse-height modulation. D. Pulse-width modulation. share/E3/3-32D50000664000175000017500000000013714621207566011313 0ustar jtnjtn3-32D5 C In Figure 3D10 with a square wave input what would be the output? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 share/E3/3-48F20000664000175000017500000000022614621207566011320 0ustar jtnjtn3-48F2 B Which circuit is used to detect FM-phone signals? A. Balanced modulator. B. Frequency discriminator. C. Product detector. D. Phase splitter. share/E3/3-74L60000664000175000017500000000026014621207566011327 0ustar jtnjtn3-74L6 C What instrument may be used to verify proper radio antenna functioning? A. Digital ohm meter. B. Hewlett-Packard frequency meter. C. An SWR meter. D. Different radio. share/E3/3-38E60000664000175000017500000000047614621207566011331 0ustar jtnjtn3-38E6 B What is the name of the random-accessed semiconductor memory IC that must be refreshed periodically to maintain reliable data storage in its memory matrix? A. ROM - Read-Only Memory. B. DRAM - Dynamic Random-Access Memory. C. PROM - Programmable Read-Only Memory. D. PRAM - Programmable Random-Access Memory. share/E3/3-87N60000664000175000017500000000053714621207566011344 0ustar jtnjtn3-87N6 C What statement is true regarding 406 MHz EPIRB transmissions? A. Allows immediate voice communications with the RCC. B. Coding permits the SAR authorities to know if manually or automatically activated. C. Transmits a unique hexadecimal identification number. D. Radio Operator programs an I.D. into the SART immediately prior to activation. share/E3/3-80L10000664000175000017500000000015014621207566011315 0ustar jtnjtn3-80L1 D What color is the binder for pairs 51-75 in a 100-pair cable? A. Red B. Blue C. Black D. Green share/E3/3-47F10000664000175000017500000000017314621207566011317 0ustar jtnjtn3-47F1 B A good crystal band-pass filter for a single-sideband phone would be? A. 5 KHz. B. 2.1 KHz. C. 500 Hz. D. 15 KHz. share/E3/3-72K30000664000175000017500000000036314621207566011325 0ustar jtnjtn3-72K3 A What is the frequency range of an aircraft's Very High Frequency (VHF) communications? A. 118.000 MHz to 136.975 MHz (worldwide up to 151.975 MHz). B. 108.00 MHz to 117.95 MHz. C. 329.15 MHz to 335.00 MHz. D. 2.000 MHz to 29.999 MHz. share/E3/3-79L40000664000175000017500000000026214621207566011334 0ustar jtnjtn3-79L4 A The ideal method of removing insulation from wire is: A. The thermal stripper. B. The pocket knife. C. A mechanical wire stripper. D. The scissor action stripping tool. share/E3/3-73K60000664000175000017500000000121414621207566011325 0ustar jtnjtn3-73K6 B What is the function of a commercial aircraft's SELCAL installation? SELCAL is a type of aircraft communications __________. A. Device that allows an aircraft's receiver to be continuously calibrated for signal selectivity. B. System where a ground-based transmitter can call a selected aircraft or group of aircraft without the flight crew monitoring the ground-station frequency. C. Transmission that uses sequential logic algorithm encryption to prevent public "eavesdropping" of crucial aircraft flight data. D. System where an airborne transmitter can selectively calculate the line-of-sight distance to several ground-station receivers. share/E3/3-76L30000664000175000017500000000023514621207566011330 0ustar jtnjtn3-76L3 D What stage determines the maximum frequency response of an oscilloscope? A. Time base. B. Horizontal sweep. C. Power supply. D. Vertical amplifier. share/E3/3-60I40000664000175000017500000000022314621207566011314 0ustar jtnjtn3-60I4 C What is the total voltage when 12 Nickel-Cadmium batteries are connected in series? A. 12 volts. B. 12.6 volts. C. 15 volts. D. 72 volts. share/E3/3-42F20000664000175000017500000000037014621207566011312 0ustar jtnjtn3-42F2 C What is the primary purpose of an RF amplifier in a receiver? A. To provide most of the receiver gain. B. To vary the receiver image rejection by utilizing the AGC. C. To improve the receiver's noise figure. D. To develop the AGC voltage. share/E3/3-57H60000664000175000017500000000035314621207566011327 0ustar jtnjtn3-57H6 C In an FM-phone signal, what is the term for the maximum deviation from the carrier frequency divided by the maximum audio modulating frequency? A. Deviation index. B. Modulation index. C. Deviation ratio. D. Modulation ratio. share/E3/3-22C20000664000175000017500000000052714621207565011310 0ustar jtnjtn3-22C2 C A switching electronic voltage regulator: A. Varies the conduction of a control element in direct proportion to the line voltage or load current. B. Provides more than one output voltage. C. Switches the control device on or off, with the duty cycle proportional to the line or load conditions. D. Gives a ramp voltage at its output. share/E3/3-15B10000664000175000017500000000027714621207565011312 0ustar jtnjtn3-15B1 D What is the time constant of a circuit having two 220-microfarad capacitors and two 1-megohm resistors all in parallel? A. 22 seconds. B. 44 seconds. C. 440 seconds. D. 220 seconds. share/E3/3-40E60000664000175000017500000000014114621207566011307 0ustar jtnjtn3-40E6 A In binary numbers, how would you note the quantity TWO? A. 0010 B. 0002 C. 2000 D. 0020 share/E3/3-79L20000664000175000017500000000040414621207566011330 0ustar jtnjtn3-79L2 B Which of the following is the preferred method of cleaning solder from plated-through circuit-board holes? A. Use a dental pick. B. Use a vacuum device. C. Use a soldering iron tip that has a temperature above 900 degrees F. D. Use an air jet device. share/E3/3-32D20000664000175000017500000000022714621207566011310 0ustar jtnjtn3-32D2 C Which lamps would be lit in the circuit shown in Figure 3D8? A. 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6. B. 5, 6, 8 and 9. C. 2, 3, 4, 7 and 8. D. 1, 3, 5, 7 and 8. share/E3/3-94O50000664000175000017500000000027014621207567011335 0ustar jtnjtn3-94O5 B Exposure to microwave energy from RADAR or other electronics devices is limited by U.S. Health Department regulations to _______ mW/centimeter. A. 0.005 B. 5.0 C. 0.05 D. 0.5 share/E3/3-49F30000664000175000017500000000015514621207566011323 0ustar jtnjtn3-49F3 D What makes a Digital Coded Squelch work? A. Noise. B. Tones. C. Absence of noise. D. Digital codes. share/E3/3-65J60000664000175000017500000000014314621207566011325 0ustar jtnjtn3-65J6 A To lengthen an antenna electrically, add a: A. Coil. B. Resistor. C. Battery. D. Conduit. share/E3/3-27C10000664000175000017500000000023114621207566011305 0ustar jtnjtn3-27C1 B What type of bias is required for an LED to produce luminescence? A. Reverse bias. B. Forward bias. C. Logic 0 (Lo) bias. D. Logic 1 (Hi) bias. share/E3/3-73K30000664000175000017500000000033714621207566011327 0ustar jtnjtn3-73K3 D Typical airborne HF transmitters usually provide a nominal RF power output to the antenna of ____ watts, compared with ____ watts RF output from a typical VHF transmitter. A. 10, 50 B. 50, 10 C. 20, 100 D. 100, 20 share/E3/3-48F60000664000175000017500000000046614621207566011332 0ustar jtnjtn3-48F6 B What is the definition of detection in a radio receiver? A. The process of masking out the intelligence on a received carrier to make an S-meter operational. B. The recovery of intelligence from the modulated RF signal. C. The modulation of a carrier. D. The mixing of noise with the received signal. share/E3/3-45F50000664000175000017500000000035214621207566011320 0ustar jtnjtn3-45F5 B What is an undesirable effect of using too wide a filter bandwidth in the IF section of a receiver? A. Output-offset overshoot. B. Undesired signals will reach the audio stage. C. Thermal-noise distortion. D. Filter ringing. share/E3/3-4A60000664000175000017500000000026314621207565011227 0ustar jtnjtn3-4A6 C How might you reduce the inductance of an antenna coil? A. Add additional turns. B. Add more core permeability. C. Reduce the number of turns. D. Compress the coil turns. share/E3/3-59H40000664000175000017500000000054114621207566011326 0ustar jtnjtn3-59H4 A Which of the following best describes a pulse modulation system? A. The peak transmitter power is normally much greater than the average power. B. Pulse modulation is sometimes used in SSB voice transmitters. C. The average power is normally only slightly below the peak power. D. The peak power is normally twice as high as the average power. share/E3/3-55G60000664000175000017500000000021714621207566011323 0ustar jtnjtn3-55G6 A What would be the voltage across a 50-ohm dummy load dissipating 1,200 watts? A. 245 volts. B. 692 volts. C. 346 volts. D. 173 volts. share/E3/3-73K50000664000175000017500000000054214621207566011327 0ustar jtnjtn3-73K5 B What type of antenna is used in an aircraft's Very High Frequency Omnidirectional Range (VOR) and Localizer (LOC) installations? A. Vertically polarized antenna that radiates an omnidirectional antenna pattern. B. Horizontally polarized omnidirection reception antenna. C. Balanced loop transmission antenna. D. Folded dipole reception antenna. share/E3/3-58H20000664000175000017500000000021714621207566011323 0ustar jtnjtn3-58H2 B In Figure 3H17, which block diagram symbol (labeled 1 through 4) represents where audio intelligence is inserted? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 share/E3/3-5A10000664000175000017500000000043714621207565011226 0ustar jtnjtn3-5A1 D What are the two most commonly-used specifications for a junction diode? A. Maximum forward current and capacitance. B. Maximum reverse current and PIV (peak inverse voltage). C. Maximum reverse current and capacitance. D. Maximum forward current and PIV (peak inverse voltage). share/E3/3-37E60000664000175000017500000000030714621207566011321 0ustar jtnjtn3-37E6 C What wave form would appear on the voltage outputs at the collectors of an astable, multivibrator, common-emitter stage? A. Sine wave. B. Sawtooth wave. C. Square wave. D. Half-wave pulses. share/E3/3-92O50000664000175000017500000000041414621207567011333 0ustar jtnjtn3-92O5 C What pulse width and repetition rate should you use at short ranges? A. Wide pulse width and fast repetition rate. B. Narrow pulse width and slow repetition rate. C. Narrow pulse width and fast repetition rates. D. Wide pulse width and slow repetition rates. share/E3/3-91O20000664000175000017500000000074214621207567011333 0ustar jtnjtn3-91O2 B What is the purpose or function of the RADAR duplexer/circulator? It is a/an: A. Coupling device that is used in the transition from a rectangular waveguide to a circular waveguide. B. Electronic switch that allows the use of one antenna for both transmission and reception. C. Modified length of waveguide that is used to sample a portion of the transmitted energy for testing purposes. D. Dual section coupling device that allows the use of a magnetron as a transmitter. share/E3/3-76L60000664000175000017500000000027414621207566011336 0ustar jtnjtn3-76L6 D What instrument is used to check the signal quality of a single-sideband radio transmission? A. Field strength meter. B. Signal level meter. C. Sidetone monitor. D. Oscilloscope. share/E3/3-69K30000664000175000017500000000040414621207566011327 0ustar jtnjtn3-69K3 D What is the frequency range of the ground-based Very-high-frequency Omnidirectional Range (VOR) stations used for aircraft navigation? A. 108.00 kHz to 117.95 kHz. B. 329.15 MHz to 335.00 MHz. C. 329.15 kHz to 335.00 kHz. D. 108.00 MHz to 117.95 MHz. share/E3/3-84M40000664000175000017500000000045414621207566011334 0ustar jtnjtn3-84M4 C Which is the code used for SITOR-A and -B transmissions? A. The 5 bit baudot telex code. B. Each character consists of 7 bits with 3 "zeros" and 4 "ones". C. Each character consists of 7 bits with 4 "zeros" and 3 "ones". D. Each character has 7 bits of data and 3 bits for error correction. share/E3/3-70K30000664000175000017500000000054614621207566011326 0ustar jtnjtn3-70K3 B Which of the following is a required component of an Instrument Landing System (ILS)? A. Altimeter: shows aircraft height above sea-level. B. Localizer: shows aircraft deviation horizontally from center of runway. C. VHF Communications: provide communications to aircraft. D. Distance Measuring Equipment: shows aircraft distance to VORTAC station. share/E3/3-13B60000664000175000017500000000024114621207565011304 0ustar jtnjtn3-13B6 B What does the power factor equal in an R-L circuit having a 30 degree phase angle between the voltage and the current? A. 1.73 B. 0.866 C. 0.5 D. 0.577 share/E3/3-33E30000664000175000017500000000021014621207566011303 0ustar jtnjtn3-33E3 D What is the common power supply voltage for TTL series integrated circuits? A. 12 volts. B. 13.6 volts. C. 1 volt. D. 5 volts. share/E3/3-99Q40000664000175000017500000000025014621207567011341 0ustar jtnjtn3-99Q4 A At what aggregate power level is an MPE (Maximum Permissible Exposure) study required? A. 1000 Watts ERP. B. 500 Watts ERP. C. 100 Watts ERP. D. Not required. share/E3/3-3A50000664000175000017500000000030014621207565011215 0ustar jtnjtn3-3A5 D Corrosion resulting from electric current flow between dissimilar metals is called: A. Electrolysis. B. Stray current corrosion. C. Oxygen starvation corrosion. D. Galvanic corrosion. share/E3/3-43F10000664000175000017500000000035314621207566011313 0ustar jtnjtn3-43F1 C Why is the Colpitts oscillator circuit commonly used in a VFO (variable frequency oscillator)? A. It can be phase locked. B. It can be remotely tuned. C. It is stable. D. It has little or no effect on the crystal's stability. share/E3/3-87N20000664000175000017500000000042014621207567011330 0ustar jtnjtn3-87N2 D How should the signal from a Search And Rescue RADAR Transponder appear on a RADAR display? A. A series of dashes. B. A series of spirals all originating from the range and bearing of the SART. C. A series of twenty dashes. D. A series of 12 equally spaced dots. share/E3/3-3A10000664000175000017500000000023314621207565011216 0ustar jtnjtn3-3A1 C What metal is usually employed as a sacrificial anode for corrosion control purposes? A. Platinum bushing. B. Lead bar. C. Zinc bar. D. Brass rod. share/E3/3-93O60000664000175000017500000000024514621207567011337 0ustar jtnjtn3-93O6 B To couple energy into and out of a waveguide use: A. Wide copper sheeting. B. A thin piece of wire as an antenna. C. An LC circuit. D. Capacitive coupling. share/E3/3-20C60000664000175000017500000000043414621207565011307 0ustar jtnjtn3-20C6 A What is the purpose of a coupling capacitor? A. It blocks direct current and passes alternating current. B. It blocks alternating current and passes direct current. C. It increases the resonant frequency of the circuit. D. It decreases the resonant frequency of the circuit. share/E3/3-85N30000664000175000017500000000015614621207566011334 0ustar jtnjtn3-85N3 C What VHF Channel is used for Digital Selective Calling and acknowledgement? A. 16 B. 21A C. 70 D. 68 share/E3/3-66J50000664000175000017500000000035014621207566011325 0ustar jtnjtn3-66J5 C Referred to the fundamental frequency, a shorted stub line attached to the transmission line to absorb even harmonics could have a wavelength of: A. 1.41 wavelength. B. 1/2 wavelength. C. 1/4 wavelength. D. 1/6 wavelength. share/E3/3-34E50000664000175000017500000000051214621207566011313 0ustar jtnjtn3-34E5 B What is a characteristic of a NOT gate? A. Does not allow data transmission when its input is high. B. Produces a logic "0" at its output when the input is logic "1" and vice versa. C. Allows data transmission only when its input is high. D. Produces a logic "1" at its output when the input is logic "1" and vice versa. share/E3/3-88N10000664000175000017500000000044414621207567011336 0ustar jtnjtn3-88N1 C What is facsimile? A. The transmission of still pictures by slow-scan television. B. The transmission of characters by radioteletype that form a picture when printed. C. The transmission of printed pictures for permanent display on paper. D. The transmission of video by television. share/E3/3-28C50000664000175000017500000000033114621207566011313 0ustar jtnjtn3-28C5 D An electrical relay is a: A. Current limiting device. B. Device used for supplying 3 or more voltages to a circuit. C. Component used mainly with HF audio amplifiers. D. Remotely controlled switching device. share/E3/3-17B40000664000175000017500000000044014621207565011307 0ustar jtnjtn3-17B4 A In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network composed of a 300-ohm-reactance capacitor, a 600-ohm-reactance inductor, and a 400-ohm resistor, all connected in series? A. 500 ohms, /37 degrees B. 400 ohms, /27 degrees C. 300 ohms, /17 degrees D. 200 ohms, /10 degrees share/E3/3-2A10000664000175000017500000000034414621207565011220 0ustar jtnjtn3-2A1 D What determines the strength of the magnetic field around a conductor? A. The resistance divided by the current. B. The ratio of the current to the resistance. C. The diameter of the conductor. D. The amount of current. share/E3/3-53G10000664000175000017500000000033614621207566011316 0ustar jtnjtn3-53G1 C What is the modulation index in an FM phone signal having a maximum frequency deviation of 3,000 Hz on either side of the carrier frequency when the modulating frequency is 1,000 Hz? A. 0.3 B. 3,000 C. 3 D. 1,000 share/E3/3-84M30000664000175000017500000000065314621207566011334 0ustar jtnjtn3-84M3 A Which statement best describes the code used for GMDSS-DSC transmissions? A. A 10 bit error correcting code starting with bits of data followed by a 3 bit error correcting code. B. A 10 bit error correcting code starting with a 3 bit error correcting code followed by 7 bits of data. C. An 8 bit code with 7 bits of data followed by a single parity bit. D. A 7 bit code that is transmitted twice for error correction. share/E3/3-13B40000664000175000017500000000053014621207565011303 0ustar jtnjtn3-13B4 A In a circuit where the AC voltage and current are out of phase, how can the true power be determined? A. By multiplying the apparent power times the power factor. B. By subtracting the apparent power from the power factor. C. By dividing the apparent power by the power factor. D. By multiplying the RMS voltage times the RMS current. share/E3/3-99Q10000664000175000017500000000045014621207567011340 0ustar jtnjtn3-99Q1 A Compliance with MPE, or Maximum Permissible Exposure to RF levels (as defined in FCC Part 1, OET Bulletin 65) for "controlled" environments, are averaged over _______ minutes, while "uncontrolled" RF environments are averaged over ______ minutes. A. 6, 30. B. 30, 6. C. 1, 15. D. 15, 1. share/E3/3-62I40000664000175000017500000000030014621207566011312 0ustar jtnjtn3-62I4 D What is the line current of a 7 horsepower motor operating on 120 volts at full load, a power factor of 0.8, and 95% efficient? A. 4.72 amps. B. 13.03 amps. C. 56 amps. D. 57.2 amps. share/E3/3-64J10000664000175000017500000000021514621207566011317 0ustar jtnjtn3-64J1 B What is the current flowing through a 52 ohm line with an input of 1,872 watts? A. 0.06 amps. B. 6 amps. C. 28.7 amps. D. 144 amps. share/E3/3-41F40000664000175000017500000000063314621207566011315 0ustar jtnjtn3-41F4 C What is meant by the term noise figure of a communications receiver? A. The level of noise entering the receiver from the antenna. B. The relative strength of a received signal 3 kHz removed from the carrier frequency. C. The level of noise generated in the front end and succeeding stages of a receiver. D. The ability of a receiver to reject unwanted signals at frequencies close to the desired one. share/E3/3-48F30000664000175000017500000000042514621207566011322 0ustar jtnjtn3-48F3 C What is the process of detection in a radio diode detector circuit? A. Breakdown of the Zener voltage. B. Mixing with noise in the transition region of the diode. C. Rectification and filtering of RF. D. The change of reactance in the diode with respect to frequency. share/E3/3-39E60000664000175000017500000000025514621207566011325 0ustar jtnjtn3-39E6 C What circuit interconnects the microprocessor with the memory and input/output system? A. Control logic bus. B. PLL line. C. Data bus line. D. Directional coupler. share/E3/3-46F30000664000175000017500000000027714621207566011325 0ustar jtnjtn3-46F3 D What is the primary purpose of the first IF amplifier stage in a receiver? A. Noise figure performance. B. Tune out cross-modulation distortion. C. Dynamic response. D. Selectivity. share/E3/3-30D30000664000175000017500000000041414621207566011305 0ustar jtnjtn3-30D3 B Gain of a closed-loop op-amp circuit is determined by? A. The maximum operating frequency divided by the square root of the load impedance. B. The op-amp's external feedback network. C. Supply voltage and slew rate. D. The op-amp's internal feedback network. share/E3/3-48F40000664000175000017500000000033414621207566011322 0ustar jtnjtn3-48F4 A What is a frequency discriminator in a radio receiver? A. A circuit for detecting FM signals. B. A circuit for filtering two closely adjacent signals. C. An automatic band switching circuit. D. An FM generator. share/E3/3-47F40000664000175000017500000000057014621207566011323 0ustar jtnjtn3-47F4 D What is an m-derived filter? A. A filter whose input impedance varies widely over the design bandwidth. B. A filter whose product of the series- and shunt-element impedances is a constant for all frequencies. C. A filter whose schematic shape is the letter "M". D. A filter that uses a trap to attenuate undesired frequencies too near cutoff for a constant-k filter. share/E3/3-42F60000664000175000017500000000024014621207566011312 0ustar jtnjtn3-42F6 B In what stage of a VHF receiver would a low noise amplifier be most advantageous? A. IF stage. B. Front end RF stage. C. Audio stage. D. Power supply. share/E3/3-63J60000664000175000017500000000050714621207566011327 0ustar jtnjtn3-63J6 B What is meant by the term antenna bandwidth? A. Antenna length divided by the number of elements. B. The frequency range over which an antenna can be expected to perform well. C. The angle between the half-power radiation points. D. The angle formed between two imaginary lines drawn through the ends of the elements. share/E3/3-77L40000664000175000017500000000033214621207566011330 0ustar jtnjtn3-77L4 D What instrument is most accurate when checking antennas and transmission lines at the operating frequency of the antenna? A. Time domain reflectometer. B. Wattmeter. C. DMM. D. Frequency domain reflectometer. share/E3/3-83M20000664000175000017500000000041114621207566011322 0ustar jtnjtn3-83M2 A The GSM (Global System for Mobile Communications) uses what type of CODEC for digital mobile radio system communications? A. Regular-Pulse Excited (RPE). B. Code-Excited Linear Predictive (CLEP). C. Multi-Pulse Excited (MPE). D. Linear Excited Code (LEC). share/E3/3-58H50000664000175000017500000000045114621207566011326 0ustar jtnjtn3-58H5 D How can a double-sideband phone signal be produced? A. By using a reactance modulator. B. By varying the voltage to the varactor in an oscillator circuit. C. By using a phase detector, oscillator, and filter in a feedback loop. D. By modulating the supply voltage to a class C amplifier. share/E3/3-96P20000664000175000017500000000071714621207567011343 0ustar jtnjtn3-96P2 C Which of the following describes the INMARSAT Satellite system? A. AOR at 35 degrees W, POR-E at 165 degrees W, POR-W at 155 degrees E and IOR at 56.5 degrees E. B. AOR-E at 25 degrees W, AOR-W at 85 degrees W, POR at 175 degrees W and IOR at 56.5 degrees E. C. AOR-E at 15.5 degrees W, AOR-W at 54 degrees W, POR at 178 degrees E and IOR at 64.5 degrees E. D. AOR at 40 degrees W, POR at 178 degrees W, IOR-E at 109 degrees E and IOR-W at 46 degrees E. share/E3/3-23C10000664000175000017500000000035114621207566011304 0ustar jtnjtn3-23C1 C How might two similar SCRs be connected to safely distribute the power load of a circuit? A. In series. B. In parallel, same polarity. C. In parallel, reverse polarity. D. In a combination series and parallel configuration. share/E3/3-2A50000664000175000017500000000036214621207565011224 0ustar jtnjtn3-2A5 C What is meant by the term "back EMF"? A. A current equal to the applied EMF. B. An opposing EMF equal to R times C (RC) percent of the applied EMF. C. A voltage that opposes the applied EMF. D. A current that opposes the applied EMF. share/E3/3-56G30000664000175000017500000000060214621207566011317 0ustar jtnjtn3-56G3 D What is the name of the condition that occurs when the signals of two transmitters in close proximity mix together in one or both of their final amplifiers, and unwanted signals at the sum and difference frequencies of the original transmissions are generated? A. Amplifier desensitization. B. Neutralization. C. Adjacent channel interference. D. Intermodulation interference. share/E3/3-55G30000664000175000017500000000034414621207566011321 0ustar jtnjtn3-55G3 C In a single-sideband phone signal, what determines the PEP-to-average power ratio? A. The frequency of the modulating signal. B. The degree of carrier suppression. C. The speech characteristics. D. The amplifier power. share/E3/3-68K50000664000175000017500000000043214621207566011331 0ustar jtnjtn3-68K5 D What radio navigation aid determines the distance from an aircraft to a selected VORTAC station by measuring the length of time the radio signal takes to travel to and from the station? A. RADAR. B. Loran C. C. Distance Marking (DM). D. Distance Measuring Equipment (DME). share/E3/3-4A40000664000175000017500000000047014621207565011225 0ustar jtnjtn3-4A4 C What is the purpose of a bypass capacitor? A. It increases the resonant frequency of the circuit. B. It removes direct current from the circuit by shunting DC to ground. C. It removes alternating current by providing a low impedance path to ground. D. It forms part of an impedance transforming circuit. share/E3/3-46F50000664000175000017500000000045114621207566011321 0ustar jtnjtn3-46F5 C What are the distinguishing features of a Chebyshev filter? A. It has a maximally flat response over its passband. B. It only requires inductors. C. It allows ripple in the passband. D. A filter whose product of the series- and shunt-element impedances is a constant for all frequencies. share/E3/3-50F50000664000175000017500000000023014621207566011307 0ustar jtnjtn3-50F5 D In Figure 3F15 at what point in the circuit (labeled 1 through 4) could a DC voltmeter be used to monitor signal strength? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 share/E3/3-42F40000664000175000017500000000041214621207566011311 0ustar jtnjtn3-42F4 D Too much gain in a VHF receiver front end could result in this: A. Local signals become weaker. B. Difficult to match receiver impedances. C. Dramatic increase in receiver current. D. Susceptibility of intermodulation interference from nearby transmitters. share/E3/3-85N50000664000175000017500000000047014621207566011335 0ustar jtnjtn3-85N5 B What is the reason for the USA-INT control or function? A. It changes channels that are normally simplex channels into duplex channels. B. It changes some channels that are normally duplex channels into simplex channels. C. When the control is set to "INT" the range is increased. D. None of the above. share/E3/3-56G40000664000175000017500000000035114621207566011321 0ustar jtnjtn3-56G4 A What term describes a wide-bandwidth communications system in which the RF carrier varies according to some pre-determined sequence? A. Spread-spectrum communication. B. AMTOR. C. SITOR. D. Time-domain frequency modulation. share/E3/3-64J50000664000175000017500000000031514621207566011324 0ustar jtnjtn3-64J5 B An antenna radiates a primary signal of 500 watts output. If there is a 2nd harmonic output of 0.5 watt, what attenuation of the 2nd harmonic has occurred? A. 10 dB. B. 30 dB. C. 40 dB. D. 50 dB. share/E3/3-25C20000664000175000017500000000026214621207566011310 0ustar jtnjtn3-25C2 B What are the three terminals of a bipolar transistor? A. Cathode, plate and grid. B. Base, collector and emitter. C. Gate, source and sink. D. Input, output and ground. share/E3/3-8A50000664000175000017500000000050214621207565011226 0ustar jtnjtn3-8A5 D How do you compute true power (power dissipated in the circuit) in a circuit where AC voltage and current are out of phase? A. Multiply RMS voltage times RMS current. B. Subtract apparent power from the power factor. C. Divide apparent power by the power factor. D. Multiply apparent power times the power factor. share/E3/3-81L30000664000175000017500000000023314621207566011322 0ustar jtnjtn3-81L3 A A common method of programming portable or mobile radios is to use a: A. A laptop computer. B. Dummy load. C. A wattmeter. D. A signal generator. share/E3/3-23C60000664000175000017500000000030314621207565011305 0ustar jtnjtn3-23C6 B What circuit might contain a SCR? A. Filament circuit of a tube radio receiver. B. A light-dimming circuit. C. Shunt across a transformer primary. D. Bypass capacitor circuit to ground. share/E3/3-77L60000664000175000017500000000036114621207566011334 0ustar jtnjtn3-77L6 C What instrument is commonly used by radio service technicians to monitor frequency, modulation, check receiver sensitivity, distortion, and to generate audio tones? A. Oscilloscope. B. Spectrum analyzer. C. Service monitor. D. DMM. share/E3/3-98P30000664000175000017500000000012314621207567011335 0ustar jtnjtn3-98P3 C How many GPS satellites are normally in operation? A. 8 B. 18 C. 24 D. 36 share/E3/3-49F40000664000175000017500000000021514621207566011321 0ustar jtnjtn3-49F4 A What causes a squelch circuit to function? A. Presence of noise. B. Absence of noise. C. Received tones. D. Received digital codes. share/E3/3-75L10000664000175000017500000000077014621207566011331 0ustar jtnjtn3-75L1 D How is a frequency counter used? A. To provide reference points on an analog receiver dial thereby aiding in the alignment of the receiver. B. To heterodyne the frequency being measured with a known variable frequency oscillator until zero beat is achieved, thereby indicating the unknown frequency. C. To measure the deviation in an FM transmitter in order to determine the percentage of modulation. D. To measure the time between events, or the frequency, which is the reciprocal of the time. share/E3/3-8A60000664000175000017500000000061214621207565011231 0ustar jtnjtn3-8A6 B Assuming a power source to have a fixed value of internal resistance, maximum power will be transferred to the load when: A. The load impedance is greater than the source impedance. B. The load impedance equals the internal impedance of the source. C. The load impedance is less than the source impedance. D. The fixed values of internal impedance are not relative to the power source. share/E3/3-92O20000664000175000017500000000043614621207567011334 0ustar jtnjtn3-92O2 C When a RADAR is being operated on the 6 mile range setting what is the most appropriate pulse width and pulse repetition rate? A. 1.0 microseconds PW and 500 pps. B. 2.0 microseconds PW and 3,000 pps. C. 0.25 microseconds PW and 1,000 pps. D. 0.01 microseconds PW and 500 pps. share/E3/3-19C30000664000175000017500000000035314621207565011314 0ustar jtnjtn3-19C3 D What does the photoconductive effect in crystalline solids produce a noticeable change in? A. The capacitance of the solid. B. The inductance of the solid. C. The specific gravity of the solid. D. The resistance of the solid. share/E3/3-18B30000664000175000017500000000026414621207565011313 0ustar jtnjtn3-18B3 C Given a power supply with a no load voltage of 12 volts and a full load voltage of 10 volts, what is the percentage of voltage regulation? A. 17 % B. 80 % C. 20 % D. 83 % share/E3/3-64J60000664000175000017500000000031614621207566011326 0ustar jtnjtn3-64J6 C There is an improper impedance match between a 30 watt transmitter and the antenna, with 5 watts reflected. How much power is actually radiated? A. 35 watts. B. 30 watts. C. 25 watts. D. 20 watts. share/E3/3-96P40000664000175000017500000000052414621207567011341 0ustar jtnjtn3-96P4 A When engaging in voice communications via an INMARSAT-B terminal, what techniques are used? A. CODECs are used to digitize the voice signal. B. Noise-blanking must be selected by the operator. C. The voice signal must be compressed to fit into the allowed bandwidth. D. The voice signal will be expanded at the receiving terminal. share/E3/3-76L10000664000175000017500000000024714621207566011331 0ustar jtnjtn3-76L1 B What is used to decrease circuit loading when using an oscilloscope? A. Dual input amplifiers. B. 10:1 divider probe. C. Inductive probe. D. Resistive probe. share/E3/3-16B40000664000175000017500000000032414621207565011307 0ustar jtnjtn3-16B4 B In rectangular coordinates, what is the impedance of a network composed of a 1.0-millihenry inductor in series with a 200-ohm resistor, at 30 kHz? A. 200 - j188 B. 200 + j188 C. 188 + j200 D. 188 - j200 share/E3/3-69K20000664000175000017500000000022114621207566011323 0ustar jtnjtn3-69K2 B The rate that the transmitted VOR variable signal rotates is equivalent to how many revolutions per second? A. 60 B. 30 C. 2400 D. 1800 share/E3/3-26C30000664000175000017500000000042614621207566011314 0ustar jtnjtn3-26C3 D An emitter-follower amplifier has: A. More voltage gain than common emitter or common base. B. More power gain than common emitter or common base. C. Lowest input impedance of the three amplifier configurations. D. More current gain than common emitter or common base. share/E3/3-83M30000664000175000017500000000024214621207566011325 0ustar jtnjtn3-83M3 D Which of the following codes has gained the widest acceptance for exchange of data from one computer to another? A. Gray. B. Baudot. C. Morse. D. ASCII. share/E3/3-9B20000664000175000017500000000016314621207565011230 0ustar jtnjtn3-9B2 B Which of the following Ohms Law formulas is incorrect? A. I = E / R B. I = R / E C. E = I x R D. R = E / I share/E3/3-36E20000664000175000017500000000016314621207566011314 0ustar jtnjtn3-36E2 C What is a flip-flop circuit? A binary sequential logic element with ___stable states. A. 1 B. 4 C. 2 D. 8 share/E3/3-45F40000664000175000017500000000023414621207566011316 0ustar jtnjtn3-45F4 A A receiver selectivity of 10 KHz in the IF circuitry is optimum for what type of signals? A. Double-sideband AM. B. SSB voice. C. CW. D. FSK RTTY. share/E3/3-65J50000664000175000017500000000027314621207566011330 0ustar jtnjtn3-65J5 B What happens to the bandwidth of an antenna as it is shortened through the use of loading coils? A. It is increased. B. It is decreased. C. No change occurs. D. It becomes flat. share/E3/3-51G60000664000175000017500000000030014621207566011310 0ustar jtnjtn3-51G6 D Which class of amplifier has an operating angle of more than 180 degrees but less than 360 degrees when driven by a sine wave signal? A. Class A. B. Class B. C. Class C. D. Class AB. share/E3/3-33E60000664000175000017500000000024014621207566011311 0ustar jtnjtn3-33E6 B What do the initials TTL stand for? A. Resistor-transistor logic. B. Transistor-transistor logic. C. Diode-transistor logic. D. Emitter-coupled logic. share/E3/3-44F40000664000175000017500000000047314621207566011322 0ustar jtnjtn3-44F4 C What are the principal frequencies that appear at the output of a mixer circuit? A. Two and four times the original frequency. B. The sum, difference and square root of the input frequencies. C. The original frequencies and the sum and difference frequencies. D. 1.414 and 0.707 times the input frequency. share/E3/3-12B10000664000175000017500000000023314621207565011277 0ustar jtnjtn3-12B1 D At pi/3 radians, what is the amplitude of a sine-wave having a peak value of 5 volts? A. -4.3 volts. B. -2.5 volts. C. +2.5 volts. D. +4.3 volts. share/E3/3-38E20000664000175000017500000000031114621207566011311 0ustar jtnjtn3-38E2 B What is the name of the semiconductor IC that has a fixed pattern of digital data stored in its memory matrix? A. RAM - Random-Access Memory. B. ROM - Read-Only Memory. C. Register. D. Latch. share/E3/3-16B10000664000175000017500000000033314621207565011304 0ustar jtnjtn3-16B1 C What is the impedance of a network composed of a 0.1-microhenry inductor in series with a 20-ohm resistor, at 30 MHz? Specify your answer in rectangular coordinates. A. 20 -j19 B. 19 +j20 C. 20 +j19 D. 19 -j20 share/E3/3-70K40000664000175000017500000000056114621207566011324 0ustar jtnjtn3-70K4 C What type of antenna is used in an aircraft's Instrument Landing System (ILS) glideslope installation? A. A vertically polarized antenna that radiates an omnidirectional antenna pattern. B. A balanced loop reception antenna. C. A folded dipole reception antenna. D. An electronically steerable phased-array antenna that radiates a directional antenna pattern. share/E3/3-61I40000664000175000017500000000036014621207566011317 0ustar jtnjtn3-61I4 C If a marine radiotelephone receiver uses 75 watts of power and a transmitter uses 325 watts, how long can they both operate before discharging a 50 ampere-hour 12 volt battery? A. 40 minutes. B. 1 hour. C. 1 1/2 hours. D. 6 hours. share/E3/3-21C60000664000175000017500000000044214621207565011307 0ustar jtnjtn3-21C6 D A power transformer has a primary winding of 200 turns of #24 wire and a secondary winding consisting of 500 turns of the same size wire. When 20 volts are applied to the primary winding, the expected secondary voltage will be: A. 500 volts. B. 25 volts. C. 10 volts. D. 50 volts. share/E3/3-59H20000664000175000017500000000025414621207566011325 0ustar jtnjtn3-59H2 B In a pulse-width modulation system, what parameter does the modulating signal vary? A. Pulse frequency. B. Pulse duration. C. Pulse amplitude. D. Pulse intensity. share/E3/3-52G30000664000175000017500000000030414621207566011312 0ustar jtnjtn3-52G3 A The class C amplifier output is present for what portion of the input cycle? A. Less than 180 degrees. B. Exactly 180 degrees. C. 360 degrees. D. More than 180 but less than 360 degrees. share/E3/3-74L20000664000175000017500000000032214621207566011322 0ustar jtnjtn3-74L2 D A 50 microampere meter movement has an internal resistance of 2,000 ohms. What applied voltage is required to indicate half-scale deflection? A. 0.01 volts B. 0.10 volts C. 0.005 volts. D. 0.05 volts. share/E3/3-44F50000664000175000017500000000050414621207566011316 0ustar jtnjtn3-44F5 B If a receiver mixes a 13.8 MHz VFO with a 14.255 MHz receive signal to produce a 455 kHz intermediate frequency signal, what type of interference will a 13.345 MHz signal produce in the receiver? A. Local oscillator interference. B. An image response. C. Mixer interference. D. Intermediate frequency interference. share/E3/3-6A30000664000175000017500000000020614621207565011223 0ustar jtnjtn3-6A3 D What is the RMS voltage at a common household electrical power outlet? A. 331-V AC. B. 82.7-V AC. C. 165.5-V AC. D. 117-V AC. share/E3/3-5A40000664000175000017500000000027514621207565011231 0ustar jtnjtn3-5A4 A What are the two basic types of junction field-effect transistors? A. N-channel and P-channel. B. High power and low power. C. MOSFET and GaAsFET. D. Silicon FET and germanium FET. share/E3/3-11B50000664000175000017500000000034214621207565011303 0ustar jtnjtn3-11B5 B What is the most the actual transmitter frequency could differ from a reading of 156,520,000 Hertz on a frequency counter with a time base accuracy of +/- 10 ppm? A. 146.52 Hz. B. 1565.20 Hz. C. 10 Hz. D. 156.52 kHz. share/E3/3-78L60000664000175000017500000000022614621207566011335 0ustar jtnjtn3-78L6 B What is the maximum FM deviation for voice operation of a normal wideband channel on VHF and UHF? A. 2.5 kHz B. 5.0 kHz C. 7.5 kHz D. 10 kHz share/E3/3-90O10000664000175000017500000000022514621207567011325 0ustar jtnjtn3-90O1 D What is the normal range of pulse repetition rates? A. 2,000 to 4,000 pps. B. 1,000 to 3,000 pps. C. 500 to 1,000 pps. D. 500 to 2,000 pps. share/E3/3-37E20000664000175000017500000000046414621207566011321 0ustar jtnjtn3-37E2 D What is an astable multivibrator? A. A circuit that alternates between two stable states. B. A circuit that alternates between a stable state and an unstable state. C. A circuit set to block either a 0 pulse or a 1 pulse and pass the other. D. A circuit that alternates between two unstable states. share/E3/3-7A60000664000175000017500000000026314621207565011232 0ustar jtnjtn3-7A6 C What type of wave is characterized by a rise time significantly faster than the fall time (or vice versa)? A. Cosine wave. B. Square wave. C. Sawtooth wave. D. Sine wave. share/E3/3-65J20000664000175000017500000000041614621207566011324 0ustar jtnjtn3-65J2 B The resonant frequency of a Hertz antenna can be lowered by: A. Lowering the frequency of the transmitter. B. Placing an inductance in series with the antenna. C. Placing a condenser in series with the antenna. D. Placing a resistor in series with the antenna. share/E3/3-99Q20000664000175000017500000000032614621207567011343 0ustar jtnjtn3-99Q2 B Sites having multiple transmitting antennas must include antennas with more than _______% of the maximum permissible power density exposure limit when evaluating RF site exposure. A. Any B. 5 C. 1 D. 12.5 share/E3/3-85N40000664000175000017500000000020514621207566011330 0ustar jtnjtn3-85N4 A Maximum allowable frequency deviation for VHF marine radios is: A. +/- 5 kHz. B. +/- 15 kHz. C. +/- 2.5 kHz. D. +/- 25 kHz. share/E3/3-23C30000664000175000017500000000027714621207566011315 0ustar jtnjtn3-23C3 D Which of the following devices acts as two SCRs connected back to back, but facing in opposite directions and sharing a common gate? A. JFET. B. Dual-gate MOSFET. C. DIAC. D. TRIAC. share/E3/3-79L10000664000175000017500000000050514621207566011331 0ustar jtnjtn3-79L1 A When soldering or working with CMOS electronics products or equipment, a wrist strap: A. Must have less than 100,000 ohms of resistance to prevent static electricity. B. Cannot be used when repairing TTL devices. C. Must be grounded to a water pipe. D. Does not work well in conjunction with anti-static floor mats. share/E3/3-71K10000664000175000017500000000031514621207566011317 0ustar jtnjtn3-71K1 A What is the frequency range of an aircraft's Automatic Direction Finding (ADF) equipment? A. 190 kHz to 1750 kHz. B. 190 MHz to 1750 MHz. C. 108.10 MHz to 111.95 MHz. D. 108.00 MHz to 117.95 MHz. share/E3/3-55G10000664000175000017500000000031414621207566011314 0ustar jtnjtn3-55G1 D What will occur when a non-linear amplifier is used with a single-sideband phone transmitter? A. Reduced amplifier efficiency. B. Increased intelligibility. C. Sideband inversion. D. Distortion. share/E3/3-66J30000664000175000017500000000033314621207566011324 0ustar jtnjtn3-66J3 D Nitrogen is placed in transmission lines to: A. Improve the "skin-effect" of microwaves. B. Reduce arcing in the line. C. Reduce the standing wave ratio of the line. D. Prevent moisture from entering the line. share/E3/3-30D60000664000175000017500000000050514621207566011311 0ustar jtnjtn3-30D6 A In the op-amp oscillator circuit shown in Figure 3D6, what would be the most noticeable effect if the capacitance of C were suddenly doubled? A. Frequency would be lower. B. Frequency would be higher. C. There would be no change. The inputs are reversed, therefore the circuit cannot function. D. None of the above. share/E3/3-33E40000664000175000017500000000026714621207566011320 0ustar jtnjtn3-33E4 A TTL inputs left open develop what logic state? A. A high-logic state. B. A low-logic state. C. Open inputs on a TTL device are ignored. D. Random high- and low-logic states. share/E3/3-71K30000664000175000017500000000054214621207566011323 0ustar jtnjtn3-71K3 A What are the transmit and receive frequencies of an aircraft's mode C transponder operating in the Air Traffic Control RADAR Beacon System (ATCRBS)? A. Transmit at 1090 MHz, and receive at 1030 MHz B. Transmit at 1030 kHz, and receive at 1090 kHz C. Transmit at 1090 kHz, and receive at 1030 kHz D. Transmit at 1030 MHz, and receive at 1090 MHz share/E3/3-59H10000664000175000017500000000041114621207566011317 0ustar jtnjtn3-59H1 A What is an important factor in pulse-code modulation using time-division multiplex? A. Synchronization of transmit and receive clock pulse rates. B. Frequency separation. C. Overmodulation and undermodulation. D. Slight variations in power supply voltage. share/E3/3-21C50000664000175000017500000000055614621207565011314 0ustar jtnjtn3-21C5 B A power transformer has a single primary winding and three secondary windings producing 5.0 volts, 12.6 volts, and 150 volts. Assuming similar wire sizes, which of the three secondary windings will have the highest measured DC resistance? A. The 12.6 volt winding. B. The 150 volt winding. C. The 5.0 volt winding. D. All will have equal resistance values. share/E3/3-60I20000664000175000017500000000037514621207566011322 0ustar jtnjtn3-60I2 C A battery with a terminal voltage of 12.5 volts is to be trickle-charged at a 0.5 A rate. What resistance should be connected in series with the battery to charge it from a 110-V DC line? A. 95 ohms. B. 300 ohms. C. 195 ohms. D. None of these. share/E3/3-35E20000664000175000017500000000045614621207566011320 0ustar jtnjtn3-35E2 B For the logic input levels shown in Figure 3E12, what are the logic levels of test points A, B and C in this circuit? (Assume positive logic.) A. A is high, B is low and C is low. B. A is low, B is high and C is high. C. A is high, B is high and C is low. D. A is low, B is high and C is low. share/E3/3-11B20000664000175000017500000000015014621207565011275 0ustar jtnjtn3-11B2 B The second harmonic of a 380 kHz frequency is: A. 2 MHz. B. 760 kHz. C. 190 kHz. D. 144.4 GHz. share/E3/3-12B20000664000175000017500000000023214621207565011277 0ustar jtnjtn3-12B2 C At 150 degrees, what is the amplitude of a sine-wave having a peak value of 5 volts? A. -4.3 volts. B. -2.5 volts. C. +2.5 volts. D. +4.3 volts. share/E3/3-88N50000664000175000017500000000026614621207567011344 0ustar jtnjtn3-88N5 D Which of the following is the primary frequency that is used exclusively for NAVTEX broadcasts internationally? A. 2187.5 kHz. B. 4209.5 kHz. C. VHF channel 16. D. 518 kHz. share/E3/3-38E10000664000175000017500000000046614621207566011323 0ustar jtnjtn3-38E1 C What is the name of the semiconductor memory IC whose digital data can be written or read, and whose memory word address can be accessed randomly? A. ROM - Read-Only Memory. B. PROM - Programmable Read-Only Memory. C. RAM - Random-Access Memory. D. EPROM - Electrically Programmable Read-Only Memory. share/E3/3-65J10000664000175000017500000000027214621207566011323 0ustar jtnjtn3-65J1 D A vertical 1/4 wave antenna receives signals: A. In the microwave band. B. In one vertical direction. C. In one horizontal direction. D. Equally from all horizontal directions. share/E3/3-12B50000664000175000017500000000021614621207565011304 0ustar jtnjtn3-12B5 C What is the RMS value of a 340-volt peak-to-peak pure sine wave? A. 170 volts AC. B. 240 volts AC. C. 120 volts AC. D. 350 volts AC. share/E3/3-17B20000664000175000017500000000036214621207565011310 0ustar jtnjtn3-17B2 B In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network composed of a 100-ohm-reactance inductor in series with a 100-ohm resistor? A. 121 ohms, /35 degrees B. 141 ohms, /45 degrees C. 161 ohms, /55 degrees D. 181 ohms, /65 degrees share/E3/3-19C60000664000175000017500000000033214621207565011314 0ustar jtnjtn3-19C6 C What is the description of an optocoupler? A. A resistor and a capacitor. B. Two light sources modulated onto a mirrored surface. C. An LED and a photosensitive device. D. An amplitude modulated beam encoder. share/E3/3-1A60000664000175000017500000000025414621207565011224 0ustar jtnjtn3-1A6 D What is the term for the out-of-phase power associated with inductors and capacitors? A. Effective power. B. True power. C. Peak envelope power. D. Reactive power. share/E3/3-1A40000664000175000017500000000021114621207565011213 0ustar jtnjtn3-1A4 C What device is used to store electrical energy in an electrostatic field? A. Battery. B. Transformer. C. Capacitor. D. Inductor. share/E3/3-2A20000664000175000017500000000034714621207565011224 0ustar jtnjtn3-2A2 C What will produce a magnetic field? A. A DC source not connected to a circuit. B. The presence of a voltage across a capacitor. C. A current flowing through a conductor. D. The force that drives current through a resistor. share/E3/3-51G40000664000175000017500000000016414621207566011316 0ustar jtnjtn3-51G4 C Which class of amplifier provides the highest efficiency? A. Class A. B. Class B. C. Class C. D. Class AB. share/E3/3-39E30000664000175000017500000000015214621207566011316 0ustar jtnjtn3-39E3 D Which of the following is not part of a MCU processor? A. RAM B. ROM C. I/O D. Voltage Regulator share/E3/3-34E40000664000175000017500000000054214621207566011315 0ustar jtnjtn3-34E4 C What is a characteristic of a NOR gate? A. Produces a logic "0" at its output only if all inputs are logic "0". B. Produces a logic "1" at its output only if all inputs are logic "1". C. Produces a logic "0" at its output if any or all inputs are logic "1". D. Produces a logic "1" at its output if some but not all of its inputs are logic "1". share/E3/3-30D10000664000175000017500000000060214621207566011302 0ustar jtnjtn3-30D1 D What is the main advantage of using an op-amp audio filter over a passive LC audio filter? A. Op-amps are largely immune to vibration and temperature change. B. Most LC filter manufacturers have retooled to make op-amp filters. C. Op-amps are readily available in a wide variety of operational voltages and frequency ranges. D. Op-amps exhibit gain rather than insertion loss. share/E3/3-10B10000664000175000017500000000022414621207565011275 0ustar jtnjtn3-10B1 D What is the peak-to-peak RF voltage on the 50 ohm output of a 100 watt transmitter? A. 70 volts. B. 100 volts. C. 140 volts. D. 200 volts. share/E3/3-41F50000664000175000017500000000023214621207566011311 0ustar jtnjtn3-41F5 B Which stage of a receiver primarily establishes its noise figure? A. The audio stage. B. The RF stage. C. The IF strip. D. The local oscillator. share/E3/3-30D20000664000175000017500000000047714621207566011315 0ustar jtnjtn3-30D2 C What are the characteristics of an inverting operational amplifier (op-amp) circuit? A. It has input and output signals in phase. B. Input and output signals are 90 degrees out of phase. C. It has input and output signals 180 degrees out of phase. D. Input impedance is low while the output impedance is high. share/E3/3-95P20000664000175000017500000000024414621207567011335 0ustar jtnjtn3-95P2 B What frequency band is used by the Iridium system for telephone and messaging? A. 965 - 985 MHz. B. 1616 -1626 MHz. C. 1855 -1895 MHz. D. 2415 - 2435 MHz. share/E3/3-72K20000664000175000017500000000056614621207566011331 0ustar jtnjtn3-72K2 C What type of antenna is used in an aircraft's Instrument Landing System (ILS) marker beacon installation? A. An electronically steerable phased-array antenna that radiates a directional antenna pattern. B. A folded dipole reception antenna. C. A balanced loop reception antenna. D. A horizontally polarized antenna that radiates an omnidirectional antenna pattern. share/E3/3-71K20000664000175000017500000000122714621207566011323 0ustar jtnjtn3-71K2 B What is meant by the term "night effect" when using an aircraft's Automatic Direction Finding (ADF) equipment? Night effect refers to the fact that: A. All Non Directional Beacon (NDB) transmitters are turned-off at dusk and turned-on at dawn. B. Non Directional Beacon (NDB) transmissions can bounce-off the Earth's ionosphere at night and be received at almost any direction. C. An aircraft's ADF transmissions will be slowed at night due to the increased density of the Earth's atmosphere after sunset. D. An aircraft's ADF antennas usually collect dew moisture after sunset which decreases their effective reception distance from an NDB transmitter. share/E3/3-54G10000664000175000017500000000031614621207566011315 0ustar jtnjtn3-54G1 B What is an L-network? A. A low power Wi-Fi RF network connection. B. A network consisting of an inductor and a capacitor. C. A "lossy" network. D. A network formed by joining two low pass filters. share/E3/3-23C40000664000175000017500000000032014621207565011302 0ustar jtnjtn3-23C4 A What is the transistor called that is fabricated as two complementary SCRs in parallel with a common gate terminal? A. TRIAC. B. Bilateral SCR. C. Unijunction transistor. D. Field effect transistor. share/E3/3-37E40000664000175000017500000000016314621207566011317 0ustar jtnjtn3-37E4 D What is a bistable multivibrator circuit commonly named? A. AND gate. B. OR gate. C. Clock. D. Flip-flop. share/E3/3-10B40000664000175000017500000000015414621207565011302 0ustar jtnjtn3-10B4 C In Figure 3B1, what is the voltage drop across R1? A. 9 volts. B. 7 volts. C. 5 volts. D. 3 volts. share/E3/3-30D40000664000175000017500000000043014621207566011304 0ustar jtnjtn3-30D4 C Where is the external feedback network connected to control the gain of a closed-loop op-amp circuit? A. Between the differential inputs. B. From output to the non-inverting input. C. From output to the inverting input. D. Between the output and the differential inputs. share/E3/3-18B40000664000175000017500000000026214621207565011312 0ustar jtnjtn3-18B4 A What turns ratio does a transformer need in order to match a source impedance of 500 ohms to a load of 10 ohms? A. 7.1 to 1. B. 14.2 to 1. C. 50 to 1. D. None of these. share/E3/3-28C40000664000175000017500000000051314621207566011314 0ustar jtnjtn3-28C4 A What is the piezoelectric effect? A. Mechanical vibration of a crystal by the application of a voltage. B. Mechanical deformation of a crystal by the application of a magnetic field. C. The generation of electrical energy by the application of light. D. Reversed conduction states when a P-N junction is exposed to light. share/E3/3-89N20000664000175000017500000000043014621207567011333 0ustar jtnjtn3-89N2 B How should shielding be grounded on an NMEA 0183 data line? A. Unterminated at both ends. B. Terminated to ground at the talker and unterminated at the listener. C. Unterminated at the talker and terminated at the listener. D. Terminated at both the talker and listener. share/E3/3-49F50000664000175000017500000000014514621207566011324 0ustar jtnjtn3-49F5 B What makes a CTCSS squelch work? A. Noise. B. Tones. C. Absence of noise. D. Digital codes. share/E3/3-52G40000664000175000017500000000033614621207566011320 0ustar jtnjtn3-52G4 D What is the approximate DC input power to a Class AB RF power amplifier stage in an unmodulated carrier transmitter when the PEP output power is 500 watts? A. 250 watts. B. 600 watts. C. 800 watts. D. 1000 watts. share/E3/3-70K60000664000175000017500000000034514621207566011326 0ustar jtnjtn3-70K6 A On runway approach, an ILS Localizer shows: A. Deviation left or right of runway center line. B. Deviation up and down from ground speed. C. Deviation percentage from authorized ground speed. D. Wind speed along runway. share/E3/3-46F20000664000175000017500000000035514621207566011321 0ustar jtnjtn3-46F2 C What factors should be considered when selecting an intermediate frequency? A. Cross-modulation distortion and interference. B. Interference to other services. C. Image rejection and selectivity. D. Noise figure and distortion. share/E3/3-32D10000664000175000017500000000023314621207566011304 0ustar jtnjtn3-32D1 D Given the combined DC input voltages, what would the output voltage be in the circuit shown in Figure 3D7? A. 150 mV B. 5.5 V C. -15 mv D. -5.5 V share/E3/3-13B10000664000175000017500000000024114621207565011277 0ustar jtnjtn3-13B1 C What does the power factor equal in an R-L circuit having a 60 degree phase angle between the voltage and the current? A. 0.414 B. 0.866 C. 0.5 D. 1.73 share/E3/3-38E30000664000175000017500000000023614621207566011320 0ustar jtnjtn3-38E3 C What does the term "IO" mean within a microprocessor system? A. Integrated oscillator. B. Integer operation. C. Input-output. D. Internal operation. share/E3/3-32D40000664000175000017500000000056714621207566011321 0ustar jtnjtn3-32D4 D In Figure 3D9, determine if there is a problem with this regulated power supply and identify the problem. A. R1 value is too low which would cause excessive base current and instantly destroy TR 1. B. D1 and D2 are reversed. The power supply simply would not function. C. TR1 is shown as an NPN and must be changed to a PNP. D. There is no problem with the circuit. share/E3/3-81L20000664000175000017500000000063114623215450011314 0ustar jtnjtn3-81L2 B The tachometer of a building's elevator circuit experiences interference caused by the radio system nearby. What is a common potential "fix" for the problem? A. Replace the tachometer of the elevator. B. Add a .01 microfarad capacitor across the motor/tachometer leads. C. Add a 200 microfarad capacitor across the motor/tachometer leads. D. Add an isolating resistor in series with the motor leads. share/E3/3-30D50000664000175000017500000000022014621207566011302 0ustar jtnjtn3-30D5 D Which of the following op-amp circuits is operated open-loop? A. Non-inverting amp. B. Inverting amp. C. Active filter. D. Comparator. share/E3/3-97P40000664000175000017500000000016614621207567011344 0ustar jtnjtn3-97P4 D Which INMARSAT systems offer High Speed Data at 64/54 kbps? A. C. B. B and C. C. Mini-M. D. B, M4 and Fleet. share/E3/3-69K40000664000175000017500000000020614621207566011330 0ustar jtnjtn3-69K4 A Lines drawn from the VOR station in a particular magnetic direction are: A. Radials. B. Quadrants. C. Bearings. D. Headings. share/E3/3-35E50000664000175000017500000000040714621207566011317 0ustar jtnjtn3-35E5 A Given the input levels shown in Figure 3E14 and assuming positive logic devices, what would the output be? A. A is low, B is high and C is high. B. A is high, B is high and C is low. C. A is low, B is low and C is high. D. None of the above are correct. share/E3/3-75L20000664000175000017500000000046114621207566011327 0ustar jtnjtn3-75L2 B What is a frequency standard? A. A well-known (standard) frequency used for transmitting certain messages. B. A device used to produce a highly accurate reference frequency. C. A device for accurately measuring frequency to within 1 Hz. D. A device used to generate wide-band random frequencies. share/E3/3-4A30000664000175000017500000000033314621207565011222 0ustar jtnjtn3-4A3 A Which of the 4 groups of metals listed below are the best low-resistance conductors? A. Gold, silver, and copper. B. Stainless steel, bronze, and lead. C. Iron, lead, and nickel. D. Bronze, zinc, and manganese. share/E3/3-94O10000664000175000017500000000035114621207567011331 0ustar jtnjtn3-94O1 B The permanent magnetic field that surrounds a traveling-wave tube (TWT) is intended to: A. Provide a means of coupling. B. Prevent the electron beam from spreading. C. Prevent oscillations. D. Prevent spurious oscillations. share/E3/3-97P10000664000175000017500000000042214621207567011334 0ustar jtnjtn3-97P1 B What is the best description for the INMARSAT-C system? A. It provides slow speed telex and voice service. B. It is a store-and-forward system that provides routine and distress communications. C. It is a real-time telex system. D. It provides world-wide coverage. share/E3/3-15B50000664000175000017500000000030314621207565011304 0ustar jtnjtn3-15B5 B What is the time constant of a circuit having two 100-microfarad capacitors and two 470-kilohm resistors all in parallel? A. 470 seconds. B. 47 seconds. C. 4.7 seconds. D. 0.47 seconds. share/E3/3-86N50000664000175000017500000000102714621207566011335 0ustar jtnjtn3-86N5 C The sequence ARQ, FEC, SFEC best corresponds to which of the following sequences? A. One-way communications to a single station, one-way communications to all stations, two-way communications. B. One-way communications to all stations, two-way communications, one-way communications to a single station. C. Two way communications, one-way communications to all stations, one-way communications to a single station. D. Two way communications, one-way communications to a single station, one-way communications to all stations. share/E3/3-66J60000664000175000017500000000036714621207566011336 0ustar jtnjtn3-66J6 D If a transmission line has a power loss of 6 dB per 100 feet, what is the power at the feed point to the antenna at the end of a 200 foot transmission line fed by a 100 watt transmitter? A. 70 watts. B. 50 watts. C. 25 watts. D. 6 watts. share/E3/3-53G20000664000175000017500000000027514621207566011321 0ustar jtnjtn3-53G2 A What is the modulation index of a FM phone transmitter producing a maximum carrier deviation of 6 kHz when modulated with a 2 kHz modulating frequency? A. 3 B. 6,000 C. 2,000 D. 1 share/E3/3-94O60000664000175000017500000000027514621207567011343 0ustar jtnjtn3-94O6 C RADAR collision avoidance systems utilize inputs from each of the following except your ship's: A. Gyrocompass. B. Navigation position receiver. C. Anemometer. D. Speed indicator. share/E3/3-59H50000664000175000017500000000037614621207566011335 0ustar jtnjtn3-59H5 B In a pulse-position modulation system, what parameter does the modulating signal vary? A. The number of pulses per second. B. The time at which each pulse occurs. C. Both the frequency and amplitude of the pulses. D. The duration of the pulses. share/E3/3-43F20000664000175000017500000000020714621207566011312 0ustar jtnjtn3-43F2 A What is the oscillator stage called in a frequency synthesizer? A. VCO. B. Divider. C. Phase detector. D. Reference standard. share/E3/3-24C50000664000175000017500000000031714621207566011313 0ustar jtnjtn3-24C5 B What type of semiconductor diode varies its internal capacitance as the voltage applied to its terminals varies? A. Tunnel diode. B. Varactor diode. C. Silicon-controlled rectifier. D. Zener diode. share/E3/3-3A40000664000175000017500000000061514621207565011225 0ustar jtnjtn3-3A4 A Skin effect is the phenomenon where: A. RF current flows in a thin layer of the conductor, closer to the surface, as frequency increases. B. RF current flows in a thin layer of the conductor, closer to the surface, as frequency decreases. C. Thermal effects on the surface of the conductor increase the impedance. D. Thermal effects on the surface of the conductor decrease the impedance. share/E3/3-2A60000664000175000017500000000054214621207565011225 0ustar jtnjtn3-2A6 B Permeability is defined as: A. The magnetic field created by a conductor wound on a laminated core and carrying current. B. The ratio of magnetic flux density in a substance to the magnetizing force that produces it. C. Polarized molecular alignment in a ferromagnetic material while under the influence of a magnetizing force. D. None of these. share/E3/3-70K10000664000175000017500000000045414621207566011322 0ustar jtnjtn3-70K1 D What is the frequency range of the localizer beam system used by aircraft to find the centerline of a runway during an Instrument Landing System (ILS) approach to an airport? A. 108.10 kHz to 111.95 kHz. B. 329.15 MHz to 335.00 MHz. C. 329.15 kHz to 335.00 kHz. D. 108.10 MHz to 111.95 MHz. share/E3/3-98P40000664000175000017500000000057014621207567011344 0ustar jtnjtn3-98P4 A What best describes the GPS Satellites orbits? A. They are in six orbital planes equally spaced and inclined about 55 degrees to the equator. B. They are in four orbital planes spaced 90 degrees in a polar orbit. C. They are in a geosynchronous orbit equally spaced around the equator. D. They are in eight orbital planes at an altitude of approximately 1,000 miles. share/E3/3-77L50000664000175000017500000000031114621207566011326 0ustar jtnjtn3-77L5 A What test instrument can be used to display spurious signals in the output of a radio transmitter? A. A spectrum analyzer. B. A wattmeter. C. A logic analyzer. D. A time domain reflectometer. share/E3/3-24C20000664000175000017500000000036514621207566011313 0ustar jtnjtn3-24C2 D What is a common use of a hot-carrier diode? A. Balanced inputs in SSB generation. B. Variable capacitance in an automatic frequency control circuit. C. Constant voltage reference in a power supply. D. VHF and UHF mixers and detectors. share/E3/3-91O60000664000175000017500000000022514621207567011333 0ustar jtnjtn3-91O6 D The component or circuit providing the transmitter output power for a RADAR system is the: A. Thyratron. B. SCR. C. Klystron. D. Magnetron. share/E3/3-45F60000664000175000017500000000052514621207566011323 0ustar jtnjtn3-45F6 A How should the filter bandwidth of a receiver IF section compare with the bandwidth of a received signal? A. Slightly greater than the received-signal bandwidth. B. Approximately half the received-signal bandwidth. C. Approximately two times the received-signal bandwidth. D. Approximately four times the received-signal bandwidth. share/E3/3-92O60000664000175000017500000000044314621207567011336 0ustar jtnjtn3-92O6 B When a RADAR is being operated on the 1.5 mile range setting, what is the most appropriate pulse width and pulse repetition rate? A. 0.25 microseconds PW and 1,000 pps. B. 0.05 microseconds PW and 2,000 pps. C. 1.0 microseconds PW and 500 pps. D. 2.5 microseconds PW and 2,500 pps. share/E3/3-98P20000664000175000017500000000024114621207567011335 0ustar jtnjtn3-98P2 B The GPS transmitted frequencies are: A. 1626.5 MHz and 1644.5 MHz. B. 1227.6 MHz and 1575.4 MHz. C. 2245.4 and 2635.4 MHz. D. 946.2 MHz and 1226.6 MHz. share/E3/3-33E20000664000175000017500000000031214621207566011305 0ustar jtnjtn3-33E2 A What is the voltage range considered to be a valid logic high input in a TTL device operating at 5.0 volts? A. 2.0 to 5.5 volts. B. 1.5 to 3.0 volts. C. 1.0 to 1.5 volts. D. 5.2 to 34.8 volts. share/E3/3-58H30000664000175000017500000000046214621207566011326 0ustar jtnjtn3-58H3 C What kind of input signal could be used to test the amplitude linearity of a single-sideband phone transmitter while viewing the output on an oscilloscope? A. Whistling in the microphone. B. An audio frequency sine wave. C. A two-tone audio-frequency sine wave. D. An audio frequency square wave. share/E3/3-87N50000664000175000017500000000077614621207566011350 0ustar jtnjtn3-87N5 A Which of the following statements concerning satellite EPIRBs is true? A. Once activated, these EPIRBs transmit a signal for use in identifying the vessel and for determining the position of the beacon. B. The coded signal identifies the nature of the distress situation. C. The coded signal only identifies the vessel's name and port of registry. D. If the GMDSS Radio Operator does not program the EPIRB, it will transmit default information such as the follow-on communications frequency and mode. share/E3/3-92O30000664000175000017500000000051214621207567011330 0ustar jtnjtn3-92O3 A We are looking at a target 25 miles away. When a RADAR is being operated on the 25 mile range setting what is the most appropriate pulse width and pulse repetition rate? A. 1.0 microseconds PW and 500 pps. B. 0.25 microseconds PW and 1,000 pps. C. 0.01 microseconds PW and 500 pps. D. 0.05 microseconds PW and 2,000 pps. share/E3/3-61I50000664000175000017500000000033614621207566011323 0ustar jtnjtn3-61I5 B A 6 volt battery with 1.2 ohms internal resistance is connected across two light bulbs in parallel whose resistance is 12 ohms each. What is the current flow? A. 0.57 amps. B. 0.83 amps. C. 1.0 amps. D. 6.0 amps. share/E3/3-42F30000664000175000017500000000057014621207566011315 0ustar jtnjtn3-42F3 A How much gain should be used in the RF amplifier stage of a receiver? A. Sufficient gain to allow weak signals to overcome noise generated in the first mixer stage. B. As much gain as possible short of self oscillation. C. Sufficient gain to keep weak signals below the noise of the first mixer stage. D. It depends on the amplification factor of the first IF stage. share/E3/3-49F60000664000175000017500000000043414621207566011326 0ustar jtnjtn3-49F6 C What radio circuit samples analog signals, records and processes them as numbers, then converts them back to analog signals? A. The pre-emphasis audio stage. B. The squelch gate circuit. C. The digital signal processing circuit. D. The voltage controlled oscillator circuit. share/E3/3-25C60000664000175000017500000000041414621207566011313 0ustar jtnjtn3-25C6 A What does it mean for a transistor to be fully saturated? A. The collector current is at its maximum value. B. The collector current is at its minimum value. C. The transistor's Alpha is at its maximum value. D. The transistor's Beta is at its maximum value. share/E3/3-51G50000664000175000017500000000021514621207566011314 0ustar jtnjtn3-51G5 B What class of amplifier is distinguished by the bias being set well beyond cutoff? A. Class A. B. Class C. C. Class B. D. Class AB. share/E3/3-52G60000664000175000017500000000022314621207566011315 0ustar jtnjtn3-52G6 B What class of amplifier is characterized by conduction for 180 degrees of the input wave? A. Class A. B. Class B. C. Class C. D. Class D. share/E3/3-52G20000664000175000017500000000030714621207566011314 0ustar jtnjtn3-52G2 C What input-amplitude parameter is most valuable in evaluating the signal-handling capability of a Class A amplifier? A. Average voltage. B. RMS voltage. C. Peak voltage. D. Resting voltage. share/E3/3-95P60000664000175000017500000000062214621207567011341 0ustar jtnjtn3-95P6 A How does the COSPAS-SARSAT satellite system determine the position of a ship in distress? A. By measuring the Doppler shift of the 406 MHz signal taken at several different points in its orbit. B. The EPIRB always transmits its position which is relayed by the satellite to the Local User Terminal. C. It takes two different satellites to establish an accurate position. D. None of the above. share/E3/3-90O50000664000175000017500000000031214621207567011326 0ustar jtnjtn3-90O5 D The pulse repetition rate (prr) of a RADAR refers to the: A. Reciprocal of the duty cycle. B. Pulse rate of the local oscillator. C. Pulse rate of the klystron. D. Pulse rate of the magnetron. share/E3/3-43F30000664000175000017500000000032414621207566011313 0ustar jtnjtn3-43F3 D What are three major oscillator circuits found in radio equipment? A. Taft, Pierce, and negative feedback. B. Colpitts, Hartley, and Taft. C. Taft, Hartley, and Pierce. D. Colpitts, Hartley, and Pierce. share/E3/3-72K50000664000175000017500000000026214621207566011325 0ustar jtnjtn3-72K5 C What is the frequency range of an aircraft's radio altimeter? A. 962 MHz to 1213 MHz. B. 329.15 MHz to 335.00 MHz. C. 4250 MHz to 4350 MHz. D. 108.00 MHz to 117.95 MHz. share/E3/3-75L30000664000175000017500000000024714621207566011332 0ustar jtnjtn3-75L3 C What equipment may be useful to track down EMI aboard a ship or aircraft? A. Fluke multimeter. B. An oscilloscope. C. Portable AM receiver. D. A logic probe. share/E3/3-86N40000664000175000017500000000065514621207566011342 0ustar jtnjtn3-86N4 A Which of the following statements concerning SITOR communications is true? A. ARQ message transmissions are made in data groups consisting of three-character blocks. B. ARQ transmissions are acknowledged by the Information Receiving Station only at the end of the message. C. ARQ communications rely upon error correction by time diversity transmission and reception. D. Forward error correction is an interactive mode. share/E3/3-57H20000664000175000017500000000030714621207566011322 0ustar jtnjtn3-57H2 D What is the deviation ratio for an FM phone signal having a maximum frequency deviation of plus or minus 5 kHz and accepting a maximum modulation rate of 3 kHz? A. 60 B. 0.16 C. 0.6 D. 1.66 share/E3/3-68K30000664000175000017500000000045314621207566011332 0ustar jtnjtn3-68K3 C The Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) ground station has a built-in delay between reception of an interrogation and transmission of the reply to allow: A. Someone to answer the call. B. The VOR to make a mechanical hook-up. C. Operation at close range. D. Clear other traffic for a reply. share/E3/3-35E10000664000175000017500000000025214621207566011311 0ustar jtnjtn3-35E1 D In a negative-logic circuit, what level is used to represent a logic 0? A. Low level. B. Positive-transition level. C. Negative-transition level. D. High level. share/E3/3-64J20000664000175000017500000000041714621207566011324 0ustar jtnjtn3-64J2 D The voltage produced in a receiving antenna is: A. Out of phase with the current if connected properly. B. Out of phase with the current if cut to 1/3 wavelength. C. Variable depending on the station's SWR. D. Always proportional to the received field strength. share/E3/3-60I60000664000175000017500000000017314621207566011322 0ustar jtnjtn3-60I6 A A nickel-cadmium cell has an operating voltage of about: A. 1.25 volts. B. 1.4 volts. C. 1.5 volts. D. 2.1 volts. share/E3/3-80L50000664000175000017500000000033414621207566011325 0ustar jtnjtn3-80L5 D What tolerance off of plumb should a single base station radio rack be installed? A. No tolerance allowed. B. Just outside the bubble on a level. C. All the way to one end. D. Just inside the bubble on a level. share/E3/3-29D20000664000175000017500000000040214621207566011311 0ustar jtnjtn3-29D2 B What is the approximate magnitude of the impedance of a series R-L-C circuit at resonance? A. High, as compared to the circuit resistance. B. Approximately equal to the circuit resistance. C. Approximately equal to XL. D. Approximately equal to XC. share/E3/3-71K40000664000175000017500000000044714621207566011330 0ustar jtnjtn3-71K4 C In addition to duplicating the functions of a mode C transponder, an aircraft's mode S transponder can also provide: A. Primary RADAR surveillance capabilities. B. Long range lightning detection. C. Mid-Air collision avoidance capabilities. D. Backup VHF voice communication abilities. share/E3/3-70K20000664000175000017500000000164314621207566011324 0ustar jtnjtn3-70K2 C What is the frequency range of the marker beacon system used to indicate an aircraft's position during an Instrument Landing System (ILS) approach to an airport's runway? A. The outer, middle, and inner marker beacons' UHF frequencies are unique for each ILS equipped airport to provide unambiguous frequency-protected reception areas in the 329.15 to 335.00 MHz range. B. The outer marker beacon's carrier frequency is 400 MHz, the middle marker beacon's carrier frequency is 1300 MHz, and the inner marker beacon's carrier frequency is 3000 MHz. C. The outer, the middle, and the inner marker beacon's carrier frequencies are all 75 MHz but the marker beacons are 95% tone-modulated at 400 Hz (outer), 1300 Hz (middle), and 3000 Hz (inner). D. The outer, marker beacon's carrier frequency is 3000 kHz, the middle marker beacon's carrier frequency is 1300 kHz, and the inner marker beacon's carrier frequency is 400 kHz. share/E3/3-26C50000664000175000017500000000052414621207566011315 0ustar jtnjtn3-26C5 C For current to flow in an NPN silicon transistor's emitter-collector junction, the base must be: A. At least 0.4 volts positive with respect to the emitter. B. At a negative voltage with respect to the emitter. C. At least 0.7 volts positive with respect to the emitter. D. At least 0.7 volts negative with respect to the emitter. share/E3/3-44F20000664000175000017500000000051014621207566011310 0ustar jtnjtn3-44F2 D What is the mixing process in a radio receiver? A. The elimination of noise in a wideband receiver by phase comparison. B. The elimination of noise in a wideband receiver by phase differentiation. C. Distortion caused by auroral propagation. D. The combination of two signals to produce sum and difference frequencies. share/E3/3-7A50000664000175000017500000000024714621207565011233 0ustar jtnjtn3-7A5 A What type of wave is made up of sine waves at the fundamental frequency and all the harmonics? A. Sawtooth wave. B. Square wave. C. Sine wave. D. Cosine wave. share/E3/3-44F10000664000175000017500000000031414621207566011311 0ustar jtnjtn3-44F1 B What is the image frequency if the normal channel is 151.000 MHz, the IF is operating at 11.000 MHz, and the LO is at 140.000 MHz? A. 131.000 MHz. B. 129.000 MHz. C. 162.000 MHz. D. 150.000 MHz. share/E3/3-48F10000664000175000017500000000040714621207566011320 0ustar jtnjtn3-48F1 C What is a product detector? A. It provides local oscillations for input to the mixer. B. It amplifies and narrows the band-pass frequencies. C. It uses a mixing process with a locally generated carrier. D. It is used to detect cross-modulation products. share/E3/3-69K10000664000175000017500000000021114621207566011321 0ustar jtnjtn3-69K1 A All directions associated with a VOR station are related to: A. Magnetic north. B. North pole. C. North star. D. None of these. share/E3/3-43F50000664000175000017500000000030614621207566011315 0ustar jtnjtn3-43F5 D What condition must exist for a circuit to oscillate? It must: A. Have a gain of less than 1. B. Be neutralized. C. Have sufficient negative feedback. D. Have sufficient positive feedback. share/E3/3-73K40000664000175000017500000000056314621207566011331 0ustar jtnjtn3-73K4 A Before ground testing an aircraft RADAR, the operator should: A. Ensure that the area in front of the antenna is clear of other maintenance personnel to avoid radiation hazards. B. Be sure the receiver has been properly shielded and grounded. C. First test the transmitter connected to a matched load. D. Measure power supply voltages to prevent circuit damage. share/E3/3-39E40000664000175000017500000000015014621207566011315 0ustar jtnjtn3-39E4 A What portion of a microprocessor circuit is the pulse generator? A. Clock B. RAM C. ROM D. PLL share/E3/3-78L40000664000175000017500000000047014621207566011334 0ustar jtnjtn3-78L4 A What is the common method for determining the exact sensitivity specification of a receiver? A. Measure the recovered audio for 12 dB of SINAD. B. Measure the recovered audio for 10 dB of quieting. C. Measure the recovered audio for 10 dB of SINAD. D. Measure the recovered audio for 25 dB of quieting. share/E3/3-57H30000664000175000017500000000031014621207566011315 0ustar jtnjtn3-57H3 A What is the deviation ratio of an FM-phone signal having a maximum frequency swing of plus or minus 7.5 kHz and accepting a maximum modulation rate of 3.5 kHz? A. 2.14 B. 0.214 C. 0.47 D. 47 share/E3/3-67J30000664000175000017500000000035414621207566011330 0ustar jtnjtn3-67J3 A What is the effective radiated power of a repeater with 75 watts transmitter power output, 5 dB feedline loss, 4 dB duplexer and circulator loss, and 6 dB antenna gain? A. 37.6 watts. B. 237 watts. C. 150 watts. D. 23.7 watts. share/E3/3-55G20000664000175000017500000000033114621207566011314 0ustar jtnjtn3-55G2 B To produce a single-sideband suppressed carrier transmission it is necessary to ____ the carrier and to ____ the unwanted sideband. A. Filter, filter. B. Cancel, filter. C. Filter, cancel. D. Cancel, cancel. share/E3/3-37E50000664000175000017500000000014414621207566011317 0ustar jtnjtn3-37E5 A What is a bistable multivibrator circuit? A. Flip-flop. B. AND gate. C. OR gate. D. Clock. share/E3/3-22C40000664000175000017500000000027114621207565011306 0ustar jtnjtn3-22C4 D In a regulated power supply, what type of component will most likely be used to establish a reference voltage? A. Tunnel Diode. B. Battery. C. Pass Transistor. D. Zener Diode. share/E3/3-58H10000664000175000017500000000032614621207566011323 0ustar jtnjtn3-58H1 C In Figure 3H17, the block labeled 4 would indicate that this schematic is most likely a/an: A. Audio amplifier. B. Shipboard RADAR. C. SSB radio transmitter. D. Wireless LAN (local area network) computer. share/E3/3-100Q40000664000175000017500000000030014621207567011374 0ustar jtnjtn3-100Q4 C What class of fire is one that is caused by an electrical short circuit and what is the preferred substance used to extinguish that type of fire? A. FE28. B. FE29. C. FE30. D. FE31. share/E3/3-45F30000664000175000017500000000024314621207566011315 0ustar jtnjtn3-45F3 C A receiver selectivity of 2.4 kHz in the IF circuitry is optimum for what type of signals? A. CW. B. Double-sideband AM voice. C. SSB voice. D. FSK RTTY. share/E3/3-57H10000664000175000017500000000050614621207566011322 0ustar jtnjtn3-57H1 B The deviation ratio is the: A. Audio modulating frequency to the center carrier frequency. B. Maximum carrier frequency deviation to the highest audio modulating frequency. C. Carrier center frequency to the audio modulating frequency. D. Highest audio modulating frequency to the average audio modulating frequency. share/E3/3-49F20000664000175000017500000000053314621207566011322 0ustar jtnjtn3-49F2 B What is the purpose of de-emphasis in the receiver audio stage? A. When coupled with the transmitter pre-emphasis, flat audio is achieved. B. When coupled with the transmitter pre-emphasis, flat audio and noise reduction is received. C. No purpose is achieved. D. To conserve bandwidth by squelching no-audio periods in the transmission. share/E3/3-73K10000664000175000017500000000122514621207566011322 0ustar jtnjtn3-73K1 C Some aircraft and avionics equipment operates with a prime power line frequency of 400 Hz. What is the principle advantage of a higher line frequency? A. 400 Hz power supplies draw less current than 60 Hz supplies allowing more current available for other systems on the aircraft. B. A 400 Hz power supply generates less heat and operates much more efficiently than a 60 Hz power supply. C. The magnetic devices in a 400 Hz power supply such as transformers, chokes and filters are smaller and lighter than those used in 60 Hz power supplies. D. 400 Hz power supplies are much less expensive to produce than power supplies with lower line frequencies. share/E3/3-93O50000664000175000017500000000037014621207567011335 0ustar jtnjtn3-93O5 D Conductance takes place in a waveguide: A. By interelectron delay. B. Through electrostatic field reluctance. C. In the same manner as a transmission line. D. Through electromagnetic and electrostatic fields in the walls of the waveguide. share/E3/3-98P50000664000175000017500000000015114621207567011340 0ustar jtnjtn3-98P5 D How many satellites must be received to provide complete position and time? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 share/E3/3-46F40000664000175000017500000000030714621207566011320 0ustar jtnjtn3-46F4 A What parameter must be selected when designing an audio filter using an op-amp? A. Bandpass characteristics. B. Desired current gain. C. Temperature coefficient. D. Output-offset overshoot. share/E3/3-27C40000664000175000017500000000017414621207566011316 0ustar jtnjtn3-27C4 D What would be the maximum current to safely illuminate a LED? A. 1 amp. B. 1 microamp. C. 500 milliamps. D. 20 mA. share/E3/3-58H40000664000175000017500000000031614621207566011325 0ustar jtnjtn3-58H4 A What does a two-tone test illustrate on an oscilloscope? A. Linearity of a SSB transmitter. B. Frequency of the carrier phase shift. C. Percentage of frequency modulation. D. Sideband suppression. share/E3/3-93O10000664000175000017500000000032014621207567011324 0ustar jtnjtn3-93O1 C How does the gain of a parabolic dish antenna change when the operating frequency is doubled? A. Gain does not change. B. Gain is multiplied by 0.707. C. Gain increases 6 dB. D. Gain increases 3 dB. share/E3/3-80L60000664000175000017500000000024614621207566011330 0ustar jtnjtn3-80L6 A What type of wire would connect an SSB automatic tuner to an insulated backstay? A. GTO-15 high-voltage cable. B. RG8U. C. RG213. D. 16-gauge two-conductor. share/E3/3-6A40000664000175000017500000000023414621207565011225 0ustar jtnjtn3-6A4 A What is the easiest voltage amplitude to measure by viewing a pure sine wave signal on an oscilloscope? A. Peak-to-peak. B. RMS. C. Average. D. DC. share/E3/3-31D60000664000175000017500000000064014621207566011312 0ustar jtnjtn3-31D6 D What is the definition of a phase-locked loop (PLL) circuit? A. A servo loop consisting of a ratio detector, reactance modulator, and voltage-controlled oscillator. B. A circuit also known as a monostable multivibrator. C. A circuit consisting of a precision push-pull amplifier with a differential input. D. A servo loop consisting of a phase detector, a low-pass filter and voltage-controlled oscillator. share/E3/3-29D60000664000175000017500000000046314621207566011324 0ustar jtnjtn3-29D6 C What is the relationship between current through a resonant circuit and the voltage across the circuit? A. The current and voltage are 180 degrees out of phase. B. The current leads the voltage by 90 degrees. C. The voltage and current are in phase. D. The voltage leads the current by 90 degrees. share/E3/3-56G20000664000175000017500000000030014621207566011311 0ustar jtnjtn3-56G2 C How can parasitic oscillations be eliminated in a power amplifier? A. By tuning for maximum SWR. B. By tuning for maximum power output. C. By neutralization. D. By tuning the output. share/E3/3-86N60000664000175000017500000000100414621207566011331 0ustar jtnjtn3-86N6 D Which of the following statements concerning SITOR communications is true? A. Communication is established on the working channel and answerbacks are exchanged before FEC broadcasts can be received. B. In the ARQ mode each character is transmitted twice. C. Weather broadcasts cannot be made in FEC because sending each character twice would cause the broadcast to be prohibitively long. D. Two-way communication with the coast radio station using FEC is not necessary to be able to receive the broadcasts. share/E3/3-22C10000664000175000017500000000056614621207565011312 0ustar jtnjtn3-22C1 D In a linear electronic voltage regulator: A. The output is a ramp voltage. B. The pass transistor switches from the "off" state to the "on"" state. C. The control device is switched on or off, with the duty cycle proportional to the line or load conditions. D. The conduction of a control element is varied in direct proportion to the line voltage or load current. share/E3/3-57H50000664000175000017500000000046214621207566011327 0ustar jtnjtn3-57H5 A What is meant by the term modulation index? A. The ratio between the deviation of a frequency modulated signal and the modulating frequency. B. The processor index. C. The FM signal-to-noise ratio. D. The ratio of the maximum carrier frequency deviation to the highest audio modulating frequency. share/E3/3-88N40000664000175000017500000000041514621207567011337 0ustar jtnjtn3-88N4 A Which of the following statements about NAVTEX is true? A. Receives MSI broadcasts using SITOR-B or FEC mode. B. The ship station transmits on 518 kHz. C. The ship receives MSI broadcasts using SITOR-A or ARQ mode. D. NAVTEX is received on 2182 kHz using SSB. share/E3/3-74L40000664000175000017500000000053614621207566011333 0ustar jtnjtn3-74L4 C What is the purpose of a shunt resistor used with an ammeter? A. A shunt resistor is not used with an ammeter. B. It is used to decrease the ampere indicating range of the ammeter. C. It is used to increase the ampere indicating range of the ammeter. D. It is used to increase the voltage indicating range of the voltmeter, not the ammeter. share/E3/3-88N60000664000175000017500000000060614621207567011343 0ustar jtnjtn3-88N6 B What determines whether a NAVTEX receiver does not print a particular type of message content? A. The message does not concern your vessel. B. The subject indicator matches that programmed for rejection by the operator. C. The transmitting station ID covering your area has not been programmed for rejection by the operator. D. All messages sent during each broadcast are printed. share/E3/3-23C50000664000175000017500000000025514621207565011312 0ustar jtnjtn3-23C5 D What are the three terminals of a TRIAC? A. Emitter, base 1, and base 2. B. Base, emitter, and collector. C. Gate, source, and sink. D. Gate, anode 1, and anode 2. share/E3/3-94O40000664000175000017500000000041514621207567011335 0ustar jtnjtn3-94O4 C Which of the following is NOT a precaution that should be taken to ensure the magnetron is not weakened: A. Keep metal tools away from the magnet. B. Do not subject it to excessive heat. C. Keep the TR properly tuned. D. Do not subject it to shocks and blows. share/E3/3-11B40000664000175000017500000000034614621207565011306 0ustar jtnjtn3-11B4 C What is the most the actual transmitter frequency could differ from a reading of 156,520,000 hertz on a frequency counter with a time base accuracy of +/- 1.0 ppm? A. 165.2 Hz. B. 15.652 kHz. C. 156.52 Hz. D. 1.4652 MHz. share/E3/3-56G10000664000175000017500000000064314621207566011322 0ustar jtnjtn3-56G1 B How can intermodulation interference between two transmitters in close proximity often be reduced or eliminated? A. By using a Class C final amplifier with high driving power. B. By installing a terminated circulator or ferrite isolator in the feed line to the transmitter and duplexer. C. By installing a band-pass filter in the antenna feed line. D. By installing a low-pass filter in the antenna feed line. share/E3/3-39E10000664000175000017500000000045714621207566011324 0ustar jtnjtn3-39E1 A In a microprocessor-controlled two-way radio, a "watchdog" timer: A. Verifies that the microprocessor is executing the program. B. Assures that the transmission is exactly on frequency. C. Prevents the transmitter from exceeding allowed power out. D. Connects to the system RADAR presentation. share/E3/3-63J40000664000175000017500000000032314621207566011321 0ustar jtnjtn3-63J4 A What is an advantage of using a trap antenna? A. It may be used for multiband operation. B. It has high directivity in the high-frequency bands. C. It has high gain. D. It minimizes harmonic radiation. share/E3/3-96P30000664000175000017500000000046014621207567011337 0ustar jtnjtn3-96P3 D What are the directional characteristics of the INMARSAT-C SES antenna? A. Highly directional parabolic antenna requiring stabilization. B. Wide beam width in a cardioid pattern off the front of the antenna. C. Very narrow beam width straight-up from the top of the antenna. D. Omnidirectional. share/E3/3-11B60000664000175000017500000000033614621207565011307 0ustar jtnjtn3-11B6 D What is the most the actual transmitter frequency could differ from a reading of 462,100,000 hertz on a frequency counter with a time base accuracy of +/- 1.0 ppm? A. 46.21 MHz. B. 10 Hz. C. 1.0 MHz. D. 462.1 Hz. share/E3/3-76L50000664000175000017500000000043214621207566011331 0ustar jtnjtn3-76L5 C An oscilloscope can be used to accomplish all of the following except: A. Measure electron flow with the aid of a resistor. B. Measure phase difference between two signals. C. Measure velocity of light with the aid of a light emitting diode. D. Measure electrical voltage. share/E3/3-25C50000664000175000017500000000045014621207566011312 0ustar jtnjtn3-25C5 B The beta cutoff frequency of a bipolar transistor is the frequency at which: A. Base current gain has increased to 0.707 of maximum. B. Emitter current gain has decreased to 0.707 of maximum. C. Collector current gain has decreased to 0.707. D. Gate current gain has decreased to 0.707. share/E3/3-67J60000664000175000017500000000035414621207566011333 0ustar jtnjtn3-67J6 C What is the effective radiated power of a repeater with 50 watts transmitter power output, 5 dB feedline loss, 4 dB duplexer and circulator loss, and 7 dB antenna gain? A. 300 watts. B. 315 watts. C. 31.5 watts. D. 69.9 watts. share/E3/3-54G60000664000175000017500000000020714621207566011321 0ustar jtnjtn3-54G6 C Which network provides the greatest harmonic suppression? A. L network. B. Pi network. C. Pi-L network. D. Inverse L network. share/E3/3-40E30000664000175000017500000000041514621207566011310 0ustar jtnjtn3-40E3 B What is the function of a decade counter digital IC? A. Decode a decimal number for display on a seven-segment LED display. B. Produce one output pulse for every ten input pulses. C. Produce ten output pulses for every input pulse. D. Add two decimal numbers. share/E3/3-50F60000664000175000017500000000056714621207566011325 0ustar jtnjtn3-50F6 A Pulse type interference to automobile radio receivers that appears related to the speed of the engine can often be reduced by: A. Installing resistances in series with spark plug wires. B. Using heavy conductors between the starting battery and the starting motor. C. Connecting resistances in series with the battery. D. Grounding the negative side of the battery. share/E3/3-100Q60000664000175000017500000000043414621207567011406 0ustar jtnjtn3-100Q6 A What is a GFI electrical socket used for? A. To prevent electrical shock by sensing ground path current and shutting the circuit down. B. As a gold plated socket. C. To prevent children from sticking objects in the socket. D. To increase the current capacity of the socket. share/E3/3-57H40000664000175000017500000000042014621207566011320 0ustar jtnjtn3-57H4 D How can an FM-phone signal be produced in a transmitter? A. By modulating the supply voltage to a class-B amplifier. B. By modulating the supply voltage to a class-C amplifier. C. By using a balanced modulator. D. By feeding the audio directly to the oscillator. share/E3/3-97P60000664000175000017500000000043214621207567011342 0ustar jtnjtn3-97P6 C What services are provided by the INMARSAT-M service? A. Data and Fax at 4.8 kbps plus e-mail. B. Voice at 3 kHz, Fax at 9.6 kbps and Data at 4.8 kbps. C. Voice at 6.2 kbps, Data at 2.4 kbps, Fax at 2.4 kbps and e-mail. D. Data at 4.8 kbps and Fax at 9.6 kbps plus e-mail. share/E3/3-91O30000664000175000017500000000023614621207567011332 0ustar jtnjtn3-91O3 A What device can be used to determine the performance of a RADAR system at sea? A. Echo box. B. Klystron. C. Circulator. D. Digital signal processor. share/E3/3-46F60000664000175000017500000000057114621207566011325 0ustar jtnjtn3-46F6 D When would it be more desirable to use an m-derived filter over a constant-k filter? A. When the response must be maximally flat at one frequency. B. When the number of components must be minimized. C. When high power levels must be filtered. D. When you need more attenuation at a certain frequency that is too close to the cut-off frequency for a constant-k filter. share/E3/3-73K20000664000175000017500000000017214621207566011323 0ustar jtnjtn3-73K2 A Aviation services use predominantly ____ microphones. A. Dynamic B. Carbon C. Condenser D. Piezoelectric crystal share/E3/3-19C50000664000175000017500000000043314621207565011315 0ustar jtnjtn3-19C5 B What happens to the conductivity of a photosensitive semiconductor junction when it is illuminated? A. The junction resistance is unchanged. B. The junction resistance decreases. C. The junction resistance becomes temperature dependent. D. The junction resistance increases share/E3/3-53G50000664000175000017500000000042214621207566011316 0ustar jtnjtn3-53G5 D How can a single-sideband phone signal be generated? A. By driving a product detector with a DSB signal. B. By using a reactance modulator followed by a mixer. C. By using a loop modulator followed by a mixer. D. By using a balanced modulator followed by a filter. share/E3/3-34E60000664000175000017500000000021714621207566011316 0ustar jtnjtn3-34E6 C Which of the following logic gates will provide an active high out when both inputs are active high? A. NAND. B. NOR. C. AND. D. XOR. share/E3/3-97P50000664000175000017500000000104614621207567011343 0ustar jtnjtn3-97P5 A When INMARSAT-B and INMARSAT-C terminals are compared: A. INMARSAT-C antennas are small and omni-directional, while INMARSAT-B antennas are larger and directional. B. INMARSAT-B antennas are bulkier but omni-directional, while INMARSAT-C antennas are smaller and parabolic, for aiming at the satellite. C. INMARSAT-B antennas are parabolic and smaller for higher gain, while INMARSAT-C antennas are larger but omni-directional. D. INMARSAT-C antennas are smaller but omni-directional, while INMARSAT-B antennas are parabolic for lower gain. share/E3/3-90O60000664000175000017500000000032114621207567011327 0ustar jtnjtn3-90O6 A If the elapsed time for a RADAR echo is 62 microseconds, what is the distance in nautical miles to the object? A. 5 nautical miles. B. 87 nautical miles. C. 37 nautical miles. D. 11.5 nautical miles. share/E3/3-15B40000664000175000017500000000026714621207565011314 0ustar jtnjtn3-15B4 A What is the time constant of a circuit having a 220-microfarad capacitor and a 1-megohm resistor in parallel? A. 220 seconds. B. 22 seconds. C. 2.2 seconds. D. 0.22 seconds. share/E3/3-15B60000664000175000017500000000027614621207565011316 0ustar jtnjtn3-15B6 A What is the time constant of a circuit having two 220-microfarad capacitors and two 1-megohm resistors all in series? A. 220 seconds. B. 55 seconds. C. 110 seconds. D. 440 seconds. share/E3/3-53G30000664000175000017500000000024414621207566011316 0ustar jtnjtn3-53G3 D What is the total bandwidth of a FM phone transmission having a 5 kHz deviation and a 3 kHz modulating frequency? A. 3 kHz. B. 8 kHz. C. 5 kHz. D. 16 kHz. share/E3/3-33E10000664000175000017500000000031014621207566011302 0ustar jtnjtn3-33E1 C What is the voltage range considered to be valid logic low input in a TTL device operating at 5 volts? A. 2.0 to 5.5 volts. B. -2.0 to -5.5 volts. C. Zero to 0.8 volts. D. 5.2 to 34.8 volts. share/E3/3-44F30000664000175000017500000000015114621207566011312 0ustar jtnjtn3-44F3 A In what radio stage is the image frequency normally rejected? A. RF. B. IF. C. LO. D. Detector. share/E3/3-26C40000664000175000017500000000066614621207566011323 0ustar jtnjtn3-26C4 A What conditions exists when a transistor is operating in saturation? A. The base-emitter junction and collector-base junction are both forward biased. B. The base-emitter junction and collector-base junction are both reverse biased. C. The base-emitter junction is reverse biased and the collector-base junction is forward biased. D. The base-emitter junction is forward biased and the collector-base junction is reverse biased. share/E3/3-14B60000664000175000017500000000024414621207565011310 0ustar jtnjtn3-14B6 B After two time constants, the capacitor in an RC circuit is discharged to what percentage of the starting voltage? A. 86.5 % B. 13.5 % C. 63.2 % D. 36.8 % share/E3/3-83M40000664000175000017500000000052614621207566011333 0ustar jtnjtn3-83M4 A The International Organization for Standardization has developed a seven-level reference model for a packet-radio communications structure. What level is responsible for the actual transmission of data and handshaking signals? A. The physical layer. B. The transport layer. C. The communications layer. D. The synchronization layer. share/E3/3-59H60000664000175000017500000000077014621207566011334 0ustar jtnjtn3-59H6 C What is one way that voice is transmitted in a pulse-width modulation system? A. A standard pulse is varied in amplitude by an amount depending on the voice waveform at that instant. B. The position of a standard pulse is varied by an amount depending on the voice waveform at that instant. C. A standard pulse is varied in duration by an amount depending on the voice waveform at that instant. D. The number of standard pulses per second varies depending on the voice waveform at that instant. share/E3/3-96P50000664000175000017500000000074014621207567011342 0ustar jtnjtn3-96P5 C Which of the following statements concerning INMARSAT geostationary satellites is true? A. They are in a polar orbit, in order to provide true global coverage. B. They are in an equatorial orbit, in order to provide true global coverage. C. They provide coverage to vessels in nearly all of the world's navigable waters. D. Vessels sailing in equatorial waters are able to use only one satellite, whereas other vessels are able to choose between at least two satellites. share/E3/3-21C20000664000175000017500000000044114621207565011302 0ustar jtnjtn3-21C2 B A transformer used to step up its input voltage must have: A. More turns of wire on its primary than on its secondary. B. More turns of wire on its secondary than on its primary. C. Equal number of primary and secondary turns of wire. D. None of the above statements are correct. share/E3/3-1A20000664000175000017500000000013114621207565011212 0ustar jtnjtn3-1A2 B What is the basic unit of electrical power? A. Ohm. B. Watt. C. Volt. D. Ampere. share/E3/3-75L60000664000175000017500000000042214621207566011330 0ustar jtnjtn3-75L6 A Which of the following contains a multirange AF voltmeter calibrated in dB and a sharp, internal 1000 Hz bandstop filter, both used in conjunction with each other to perform quieting tests? A. SINAD meter. B. Reflectometer. C. Dip meter. D. Vector-impedance meter. share/E3/3-26C20000664000175000017500000000037614621207566011317 0ustar jtnjtn3-26C2 C What does it mean for a transistor to be cut off? A. There is no base current. B. The transistor is at its Class A operating point. C. There is no current between emitter and collector. D. There is maximum current between emitter and collector. share/E3/3-63J50000664000175000017500000000050714621207566011326 0ustar jtnjtn3-63J5 D What is meant by the term radiation resistance of an antenna? A. Losses in the antenna elements and feed line. B. The specific impedance of the antenna. C. The resistance in the trap coils to received signals. D. An equivalent resistance that would dissipate the same amount of power as that radiated from an antenna. share/E3/3-47F20000664000175000017500000000046714621207566011326 0ustar jtnjtn3-47F2 D Which statement is true regarding the filter output characteristics shown in Figure 3F16? A. C is a low pass curve and B is a band pass curve. B. B is a high pass curve and D is a low pass curve. C. A is a high pass curve and B is a low pass curve. D. A is a low pass curve and D is a band stop curve. share/E3/3-20C20000664000175000017500000000033514621207565011303 0ustar jtnjtn3-20C2 C In Figure 3C4, if a small variable capacitor were installed in place of the dashed line, it would? A. Increase gain. B. Increase parasitic oscillations. C. Decrease parasitic oscillations. D. Decrease crosstalk. share/E3/3-29D30000664000175000017500000000023114621207566011312 0ustar jtnjtn3-29D3 D How could voltage be greater across reactances in series than the applied voltage? A. Resistance. B. Conductance. C. Capacitance. D. Resonance. share/E3/3-51G10000664000175000017500000000032014621207566011305 0ustar jtnjtn3-51G1 A What class of amplifier is distinguished by the presence of output throughout the entire signal cycle and the input never goes into the cutoff region? A. Class A. B. Class B. C. Class C. D. Class D. share/E3/3-5A50000664000175000017500000000033214621207565011224 0ustar jtnjtn3-5A5 B A common emitter amplifier has: A. Lower input impedance than a common base. B. More voltage gain than a common collector. C. Less current gain than a common base. D. Less voltage gain than a common collector. share/E3/3-35E30000664000175000017500000000045614621207566011321 0ustar jtnjtn3-35E3 C For the logic input levels given in Figure 3E13, what are the logic levels of test points A, B and C in this circuit? (Assume positive logic.) A. A is low, B is low and C is high. B. A is low, B is high and C is low. C. A is high, B is high and C is high. D. A is high, B is low and C is low. share/E3/3-39E20000664000175000017500000000027114621207566011317 0ustar jtnjtn3-39E2 B What does the term "DAC" refer to in a microprocessor circuit? A. Dynamic access controller. B. Digital to analog converter. C. Digital access counter. D. Dial analog control. share/E3/3-50F10000664000175000017500000000026014621207566011306 0ustar jtnjtn3-50F1 D Where would you normally find a low-pass filter in a radio receiver? A. In the AVC circuit. B. In the Oscillator stage. C. In the Power Supply. D. A and C, but not B. share/E3/3-80L30000664000175000017500000000042714621207566011326 0ustar jtnjtn3-80L3 B Why should you not use white or translucent plastic tie wraps on a radio tower? A. White tie wraps are not FAA approved. B. UV radiation from the Sun deteriorates the plastic very quickly. C. The white color attracts wasps D. The black tie wraps may cause electrolysis. share/E3/3-82M50000664000175000017500000000060114621207566011325 0ustar jtnjtn3-82M5 C Which of the following statements about SSB voice transmissions is correct? A. They use A3E emission which are produced by modulating the final amplifier. B. They use F3E emission which is produced by phase shifting the carrier. C. They normally use J3E emissions, which consists of one sideband and a suppressed carrier. D. They may use A1A emission to suppress the carrier. share/E3/3-31D30000664000175000017500000000035314621207566011310 0ustar jtnjtn3-31D3 A RF input to a mixer is 200 MHz and the local oscillator frequency is 150 MHz. What output would you expect to see at the IF output prior to any filtering? A. 50, 150, 200 and 350 MHz. B. 50 MHz. C. 350 MHz. D. 50 and 350 MHz. share/E3/3-71K60000664000175000017500000000146714621207566011335 0ustar jtnjtn3-71K6 D Choose the only correct statement about an aircraft's Automatic Direction Finding (ADF) equipment. A. An aircraft's ADF transmission exhibits primarily a line-of-sight range to the ground-based target station and will not follow the curvature of the Earth. B. Only a single omnidirectional sense antenna is required to receive an NDB transmission and process the signal to calculate the aircraft's bearing to the selected ground station. C. All frequencies in the ADF's operating range except the commercial standard broadcast stations (550 to 1660 kHz) can be utilized as a navigational Non Directional Beacon (NDB) signal. D. An aircraft's ADF antennas can receive transmissions that are over the Earth's horizon (sometimes several hundred miles away) since these signals will follow the curvature of the Earth. share/E3/3-62I60000664000175000017500000000027414621207566011326 0ustar jtnjtn3-62I6 B The output of a separately-excited AC generator running at a constant speed can be controlled by: A. The armature. B. The amount of field current. C. The brushes. D. The exciter. share/E3/3-100Q20000664000175000017500000000053614621207567011405 0ustar jtnjtn3-100Q2 C What is the purpose of not putting sharp corners on the ground leads within a building? A. No reason. B. It is easier to install. C. Lightning will jump off of the ground lead because it is not able to make sharp bends. D. Ground leads should always be made to look good in an installation, including the use of sharp bends in the corners. share/E3/3-25C40000664000175000017500000000026114621207566011311 0ustar jtnjtn3-25C4 A What are the elements of a unijunction transistor? A. Base 1, base 2, and emitter. B. Gate, cathode, and anode. C. Gate, base 1, and base 2. D. Gate, source, and sink. share/E3/3-55G40000664000175000017500000000030714621207566011321 0ustar jtnjtn3-55G4 A What is the approximate ratio of peak envelope power to average power during normal voice modulation peak in a single-sideband phone signal? A. 2.5 to 1. B. 1 to 1. C. 25 to 1. D. 100 to 1. share/E3/3-89N50000664000175000017500000000035714621207567011346 0ustar jtnjtn3-89N5 B An NMEA 2000 system with devices in a single location may be powered using this method: A. Dual mid-powered network. B. End-powered network. C. Individual devices individually powered. D. No 12 volts needed for NMEA 2000 devices. share/E3/3-40E40000664000175000017500000000016314621207566011311 0ustar jtnjtn3-40E4 C What integrated circuit device converts an analog signal to a digital signal? A. DAC B. DCC C. ADC D. CDC share/E3/3-10B60000664000175000017500000000024014621207565011300 0ustar jtnjtn3-10B6 A What is the maximum rated current-carrying capacity of a resistor marked "2000 ohms, 200 watts"? A. 0.316 amps. B. 3.16 amps. C. 10 amps. D. 100 amps. share/E3/3-51G30000664000175000017500000000020314621207566011307 0ustar jtnjtn3-51G3 A Which class of amplifier has the highest linearity and least distortion? A. Class A. B. Class B. C. Class C. D. Class AB. share/E3/3-78L20000664000175000017500000000050414621207566011330 0ustar jtnjtn3-78L2 B Which of the following answers is true? A. The RF Power reading on a CDMA (code division multiple access) radio will be very accurate on an analog power meter. B. The RF Power reading on a CDMA radio is not accurate on an analog power meter. C. Power cannot be measured using CDMA modulation. D. None of the above. share/E3/3-100Q50000664000175000017500000000034614621207567011407 0ustar jtnjtn3-100Q5 D Do shorted-stub lightning protectors work at all frequencies? A. Yes. B. No, the short also kills the radio signals. C. No, the short enhances the radio signal at the tuned band. D. No, only at the tuned frequency band. share/E3/3-12B60000664000175000017500000000033414621207565011306 0ustar jtnjtn3-12B6 B Determine the phase relationship between the two signals shown in Figure 3B3. A. A is lagging B by 90 degrees. B. B is lagging A by 90 degrees. C. A is leading B by 180 degrees. D. B is leading A by 90 degrees. share/E3/3-93O20000664000175000017500000000023714621207567011334 0ustar jtnjtn3-93O2 A What type of antenna or pickup device is used to extract the RADAR signal from the wave guide? A. J-hook. B. K-hook. C. Folded dipole. D. Circulator. share/E3/3-8A30000664000175000017500000000025214621207565011226 0ustar jtnjtn3-8A3 C Halving the cross-sectional area of a conductor will: A. Not affect the resistance. B. Quarter the resistance. C. Double the resistance. D. Halve the resistance. share/E3/3-27C50000664000175000017500000000026114621207566011314 0ustar jtnjtn3-27C5 A An LED facing a photodiode in a light-tight enclosure is commonly known as a/an: A. Optoisolator. B. Seven segment LED. C. Optointerrupter. D. Infra-red (IR) detector. share/E3/3-90O20000664000175000017500000000035514621207567011332 0ustar jtnjtn3-90O2 C The RADAR range in nautical miles to an object can be found by measuring the elapsed time during a RADAR pulse and dividing this quantity by: A. 0.87 seconds. B. 1.15 microseconds. C. 12.346 microseconds. D. 1.073 microseconds. share/E3/3-16B60000664000175000017500000000033014621207565011306 0ustar jtnjtn3-16B6 D In rectangular coordinates, what is the impedance of a network composed of a 0.001-microfarad capacitor in series with a 400-ohm resistor, at 500 kHz? A. 318 - j400 B. 400 + j318 C. 318 + j400 D. 400 - j318 share/E3/3-60I10000664000175000017500000000035314621207566011315 0ustar jtnjtn3-60I1 D When a lead-acid storage battery is being charged, a harmful effect to humans is: A. Internal plate sulfation may occur under constant charging. B. Emission of oxygen. C. Emission of chlorine gas. D. Emission of hydrogen gas. share/E3/3-84M60000664000175000017500000000032514621207566011333 0ustar jtnjtn3-84M6 C What principle allows multiple conversations to be able to share one radio channel on a GSM channel? A. Frequency Division Multiplex. B. Double sideband. C. Time Division Multiplex. D. None of the above. share/E3/3-28C20000664000175000017500000000045014621207566011312 0ustar jtnjtn3-28C2 B Why are special precautions necessary in handling FET and CMOS devices? A. They have fragile leads that may break off. B. They are susceptible to damage from static charges. C. They have micro-welded semiconductor junctions that are susceptible to breakage. D. They are light sensitive. share/E3/3-21C40000664000175000017500000000023314621207565011303 0ustar jtnjtn3-21C4 C What is the ratio of the output frequency to the input frequency of a single-phase full-wave rectifier? A. 1:1. B. 1:2. C. 2:1. D. None of these. share/E3/3-15B20000664000175000017500000000030114621207565011277 0ustar jtnjtn3-15B2 B What is the time constant of a circuit having two 100-microfarad capacitors and two 470-kilohm resistors all in series? A. 470 seconds. B. 47 seconds. C. 4.7 seconds. D. 0.47 seconds. share/E3/3-53G40000664000175000017500000000052314621207566011317 0ustar jtnjtn3-53G4 A How does the modulation index of a phase-modulated emission vary with RF carrier frequency? A. It does not depend on the RF carrier frequency. B. Modulation index increases as the RF carrier frequency increases. C. It varies with the square root of the RF carrier frequency. D. It decreases as the RF carrier frequency increases. share/E3/3-41F10000664000175000017500000000036114621207566011310 0ustar jtnjtn3-41F1 A What is the limiting condition for sensitivity in a communications receiver? A. The noise floor of the receiver. B. The power supply output ripple. C. The two-tone intermodulation distortion. D. The input impedance to the detector. share/E3/3-29D40000664000175000017500000000021014621207566011310 0ustar jtnjtn3-29D4 A What is the characteristic of the current flow in a series R-L-C circuit at resonance? A. Maximum. B. Minimum. C. DC. D. Zero. share/E3/3-21C10000664000175000017500000000032514621207565011302 0ustar jtnjtn3-21C1 A A capacitor is sometimes placed in series with the primary of a power transformer to: A. Improve the power factor. B. Improve output voltage regulation. C. Rectify the primary windings. D. None of these. share/E3/3-86N30000664000175000017500000000024114621207566011330 0ustar jtnjtn3-86N3 D What type of wire connects an SSB automatic tuner to an insulated backstay? A. RG8U. B. RG213. C. 16-gauge two-conductor. D. GTO-15 high-voltage cable. share/E3/3-38E40000664000175000017500000000022414621207566011316 0ustar jtnjtn3-38E4 A What is the name for a microprocessor's sequence of commands and instructions? A. Program. B. Sequence. C. Data string. D. Data execution. share/E3/3-77L10000664000175000017500000000050114621207566011323 0ustar jtnjtn3-77L1 B A(n) ____ and ____ can be combined to measure the characteristics of transmission lines. Such an arrangement is known as a time-domain reflectometer (TDR). A. Frequency spectrum analyzer, RF generator. B. Oscilloscope, pulse generator. C. AC millivolt meter, AF generator. D. Frequency counter, linear detector. share/E3/3-10B30000664000175000017500000000041114621207565011275 0ustar jtnjtn3-10B3 B A 500-ohm, 2-watt resistor and a 1500-ohm, 1-watt resistor are connected in parallel. What is the maximum voltage that can be applied across the parallel circuit without exceeding wattage ratings? A. 22.4 volts. B. 31.6 volts. C. 38.7 volts. D. 875 volts. share/E3/3-81L60000664000175000017500000000034714621207566011333 0ustar jtnjtn3-81L6 D What steps must be taken to activate the DSC emergency signaling function on a marine VHF? A. Separate 12 volts to the switch. B. Secondary DSC transmit antenna. C. GPS position input. D. Input of registered 9-digit MMSI. share/E3/3-24C40000664000175000017500000000024614621207566011313 0ustar jtnjtn3-24C4 C What special type of diode is capable of both amplification and oscillation? A. Zener diodes. B. Point contact diodes. C. Tunnel diodes. D. Junction diodes. share/E3/3-7A40000664000175000017500000000051314621207565011226 0ustar jtnjtn3-7A4 D What is the description of a square wave? A. A wave with only 300 degrees in one cycle. B. A wave whose periodic function is always negative. C. A wave whose periodic function is always positive. D. A wave that abruptly changes back and forth between two voltage levels and stays at these levels for equal amounts of time. share/E3/3-81L40000664000175000017500000000103614621207566011325 0ustar jtnjtn3-81L4 C In a software-defined transceiver, what would be the best way for a technician to make a quick overall evaluation of the radio's operational condition? A. Set up a spectrum analyzer and service monitor and manually verify the manufacturer's specifications. B. Use another radio on the same frequency to check the transmitter. C. Use the built-in self-test feature. D. Using on-board self-test routines are strictly prohibited by the FCC in commercial transmitters. Amateur Radio is the only service currently authorized to use them. share/E3/3-97P20000664000175000017500000000032114621207567011333 0ustar jtnjtn3-97P2 D The INMARSAT mini-M system is a: A. Marine SONAR system. B. Marine global satellite system. C. Marine depth finder. D. Satellite system utilizing spot beams to provide for small craft communications. share/E3/3-16B30000664000175000017500000000032314621207565011305 0ustar jtnjtn3-16B3 A In rectangular coordinates, what is the impedance of a network composed of a 10-microhenry inductor in series with a 40-ohm resistor, at 500 MHz? A. 40 +j31400 B. 40 -j31400 C. 31400 +j40 D. 31400 -j40 share/E3/3-2A30000664000175000017500000000034114621207565011217 0ustar jtnjtn3-2A3 A When induced currents produce expanding magnetic fields around conductors in a direction that opposes the original magnetic field, this is known as: A. Lenz's law. B. Gilbert's law. C. Maxwell's law. D. Norton's law. share/E3/3-19C20000664000175000017500000000046514621207565011317 0ustar jtnjtn3-19C2 B What is the photoconductive effect? A. The conversion of photon energy to electromotive energy. B. The increased conductivity of an illuminated semiconductor junction. C. The conversion of electromotive energy to photon energy. D. The decreased conductivity of an illuminated semiconductor junction. share/E3/3-62I30000664000175000017500000000044614621207566011324 0ustar jtnjtn3-62I3 A The expression "voltage regulation" as it applies to a shunt-wound DC generator operating at a constant frequency refers to: A. Voltage fluctuations from load to no-load. B. Voltage output efficiency. C. Voltage in the secondary compared to the primary. D. Rotor winding voltage ratio share/E3/3-82M60000664000175000017500000000031614621207566011331 0ustar jtnjtn3-82M6 B What are the two most-used PCS (Personal Communications Systems) coding techniques used to separate different calls? A. QPSK and QAM. B. CDMA and GSM. C. ABCD and SYZ. D. AM and Frequency Hopping. share/E3/3-9B40000664000175000017500000000024514621207565011233 0ustar jtnjtn3-9B4 A If a 100-ohm resistor is connected across 200 volts, what is the current through the resistor? A. 2 amperes. B. 1 ampere. C. 300 amperes. D. 20,000 amperes. share/E3/3-84M50000664000175000017500000000055214621207566011334 0ustar jtnjtn3-84M5 B Which of the following statements is true? A. The Signal Repetition character (1001100) is used as a control signal in SITOR-ARQ. B. The Idle Signal (a) (0000111) is used for FEC Phasing Signal 1. C. The Idle Signal (b) (0011001) is used for FEC Phasing Signal 2. D. The Control Signal 1 (0101100) is used to determine the time displacement in SITOR-B. share/E3/3-75L50000664000175000017500000000030314621207566011325 0ustar jtnjtn3-75L5 B Which of the following frequency standards is used as a time base standard by field technicians? A. Quartz Crystal. B. Rubidium Standard. C. Cesium Beam Standard. D. LC Tank Oscillator. share/E3/3-26C10000664000175000017500000000044014621207566011306 0ustar jtnjtn3-26C1 B A common base amplifier has: A. More current gain than common emitter or common collector. B. More voltage gain than common emitter or common collector. C. More power gain than common emitter or common collector. D. Highest input impedance of the three amplifier configurations. share/E3/3-50F20000664000175000017500000000042314621207566011310 0ustar jtnjtn3-50F2 C How can ferrite beads be used to suppress ignition noise? Install them: A. In the resistive high voltage cable every 2 years. B. Between the starter solenoid and the starter motor. C. Install them in the primary and secondary ignition leads. D. In the antenna lead. share/E3/3-66J10000664000175000017500000000063614621207566011330 0ustar jtnjtn3-66J1 B What is the meaning of the term velocity factor of a transmission line? A. The ratio of the characteristic impedance of the line to the terminating impedance. B. The velocity of the wave on the transmission line divided by the velocity of light in a vacuum. C. The velocity of the wave on the transmission line multiplied by the velocity of light in a vacuum. D. The index of shielding for coaxial cable. share/E3/3-31D40000664000175000017500000000035414621207566011312 0ustar jtnjtn3-31D4 C What spectral impurity components might be generated by a phase-locked-loop synthesizer? A. Spurs at discrete frequencies. B. Random spurs which gradually drift up in frequency. C. Broadband noise. D. Digital conversion noise. share/E3/3-37E10000664000175000017500000000030614621207566011313 0ustar jtnjtn3-37E1 B The frequency of an AC signal can be divided electronically by what type of digital circuit? A. Free-running multivibrator. B. Bistable multivibrator. C. OR gate. D. Astable multivibrator. share/E3/3-5A60000664000175000017500000000064514621207565011234 0ustar jtnjtn3-5A6 A How does the input impedance of a field-effect transistor compare with that of a bipolar transistor? A. An FET has high input impedance; a bipolar transistor has low input impedance. B. One cannot compare input impedance without first knowing the supply voltage. C. An FET has low input impedance; a bipolar transistor has high input impedance. D. The input impedance of FETs and bipolar transistors is the same. share/E3/3-78L10000664000175000017500000000031414621207566011326 0ustar jtnjtn3-78L1 C Can a P25 radio system be monitored with a scanner? A. Yes , regardless if it has P25 decoding or not. B. No. C. Yes, if the scanner has P25 decoding. D. Yes, but it must also have P26 decoding. share/E3/3-18B20000664000175000017500000000055214621207565011312 0ustar jtnjtn3-18B2 B A 1-watt, 10-volt Zener diode with the following characteristics: Imin. = 5 mA; Imax. = 95 mA; and Z = 8 ohms, is to be used as part of a voltage regulator in a 20-V power supply. Approximately what size currentlimiting resistor would be used to set its bias to the midpoint of its operating range? A. 100 ohms. B. 200 ohms. C. 1 kilohms. D. 2 kilohms. share/E3/3-70K50000664000175000017500000000150114621207566011320 0ustar jtnjtn3-70K5 D Choose the only correct statement about the localizer beam system used by aircraft to find the centerline of a runway during an Instrument Landing System (ILS) approach to an airport. The localizer beam system: A. Operates within the assigned frequency range of 108.10 to 111.95 GHz. B. Produces two amplitude modulated antenna patterns; one pattern above and one pattern below the normal 2.5 degree approach glide path of the aircraft. C. Frequencies are automatically tuned-in when the proper glide slope frequency is selected on the aircraft's Navigation and Communication (NAV/COMM) transceiver. D. Produces two amplitude modulated antenna patterns; one pattern with an audio frequency of 90 Hz and one pattern with an audio frequency of 150 Hz, one left of the runway centerline and one right of the runway centerline. share/E3/3-92O10000664000175000017500000000045414621207567011333 0ustar jtnjtn3-92O1 D When a RADAR is being operated on the 48 mile range setting, what is the most appropriate pulse width (PW) and pulse repetition rate (pps)? A. 1.0 microseconds PW and 2,000 pps. B. 0.05 microseconds PW and 2,000 pps. C. 2.5 microseconds PW and 2,500 pps. D. 1.0 microseconds PW and 500 pps. share/E3/3-100Q10000664000175000017500000000034214621207567011377 0ustar jtnjtn3-100Q1 D What device can protect a transmitting station from a direct lightning hit? A. Lightning protector. B. Grounded cabinet. C. Short lead in. D. There is no device to protect a station from a direct hit from lightning. share/E3/3-18B10000664000175000017500000000033114621207565011304 0ustar jtnjtn3-18B1 C What is the magnitude of the impedance of a series AC circuit having a resistance of 6 ohms, an inductive reactance of 17 ohms, and zero capacitive reactance? A. 6.6 ohms. B. 11 ohms. C. 18 ohms. D. 23 ohms. share/E3/3-39E50000664000175000017500000000024514621207566011323 0ustar jtnjtn3-39E5 B In a microprocessor, what is the meaning of the term "ALU"? A. Automatic lock/unlock. B. Arithmetical logic unit. C. Auto latch undo. D. Answer local unit. share/E3/3-21C30000664000175000017500000000026414621207565011306 0ustar jtnjtn3-21C3 A A transformer primary of 2250 turns connected to 120 VAC will develop what voltage across a 500-turn secondary? A. 26.7 volts. B. 2300 volts. C. 1500 volts. D. 5.9 volts. share/E3/3-23C20000664000175000017500000000024714621207566011311 0ustar jtnjtn3-23C2 A What are the three terminals of an SCR? A. Anode, cathode, and gate. B. Gate, source, and sink. C. Base, collector, and emitter. D. Gate, base 1, and base 2. share/E3/3-86N20000664000175000017500000000026014621207566011330 0ustar jtnjtn3-86N2 C What might contribute to apparent low voltage on marine SSB transmitting? A. Blown red fuse. B. Too much grounding. C. Blown black negative fuse. D. Antenna mismatch. share/E3/3-58H60000664000175000017500000000062014621207566011325 0ustar jtnjtn3-58H6 B What type of signals are used to conduct an SSB two-tone test? A. Two audio signals of the same frequency, but shifted 90 degrees in phase. B. Two non-harmonically related audio signals that are within the modulation band pass of the transmitter. C. Two different audio frequency square wave signals of equal amplitude. D. Any two audio frequencies as long as they are harmonically related. share/E3/3-3A30000664000175000017500000000031314621207565011217 0ustar jtnjtn3-3A3 D Which metal object may be least affected by galvanic corrosion when submerged in seawater? A. Aluminum outdrive. B. Bronze through-hull. C. Exposed lead keel. D. Stainless steel propeller shaft. share/E3/3-66J20000664000175000017500000000027014621207566011323 0ustar jtnjtn3-66J2 C What determines the velocity factor in a transmission line? A. The termination impedance. B. The line length. C. Dielectrics in the line. D. The center conductor resistivity. share/E3/3-40E50000664000175000017500000000016014621207566011307 0ustar jtnjtn3-40E5 D What integrated circuit device converts digital signals to analog signals? A. ADC B. DCC C. CDC D. DAC share/E3/3-1A30000664000175000017500000000022714621207565011221 0ustar jtnjtn3-1A3 A What is the term used to express the amount of electrical energy stored in an electrostatic field? A. Joules. B. Coulombs. C. Watts. D. Volts. share/E3/3-35E40000664000175000017500000000024614621207566011317 0ustar jtnjtn3-35E4 A In a positive-logic circuit, what level is used to represent a logic 1? A. High level B. Low level C. Positive-transition level D. Negative-transition level share/E3/3-67J50000664000175000017500000000035614621207566011334 0ustar jtnjtn3-67J5 A What is the effective radiated power of a repeater with 100 watts transmitter power output, 5 dB feedline loss, 4 dB duplexer and circulator loss, and 10 dB antenna gain? A. 126 watts. B. 800 watts. C. 12.5 watts. D. 1260 watts. share/E3/3-75L40000664000175000017500000000105514621207566011331 0ustar jtnjtn3-75L4 A On an analog wattmeter, what part of the scale is most accurate and how much does that accuracy extend to the rest of the reading scale? A. The accuracy is only at full scale, and that absolute number reading is carried through to the rest of the range. The upper 1/3 of the meter is the only truly calibrated part. B. The accuracy is constant throughout the entire range of the meter. C. The accuracy is only there at the upper 5% of the meter, and is not carried through at any other reading. D. The accuracy cannot be determined at any reading. share/E3/3-60I50000664000175000017500000000020214621207566011312 0ustar jtnjtn3-60I5 D The average fully-charged voltage of a lead-acid storage cell is: A. 1 volt. B. 1.2 volts. C. 1.56 volts. D. 2.06 volts. share/E3/3-42F50000664000175000017500000000035114621207566011314 0ustar jtnjtn3-42F5 C What is the advantage of a GaAsFET preamplifier in a modern VHF radio receiver? A. Increased selectivity and flat gain. B. Low gain but high selectivity. C. High gain and low noise floor. D. High gain with high noise floor. share/E3/3-67J10000664000175000017500000000035414621207566011326 0ustar jtnjtn3-67J1 B What is the effective radiated power of a repeater with 50 watts transmitter power output, 4 dB feedline loss, 3 dB duplexer and circulator loss, and 6 dB antenna gain? A. 158 watts. B. 39.7 watts. C. 251 watts. D. 69.9 watts. share/E3/3-86N10000664000175000017500000000043014621207566011326 0ustar jtnjtn3-86N1 B What is a common occurrence when voice-testing an SSB aboard a boat? A. Ammeter fluctuates down with each spoken word. B. Voltage panel indicator lamps may glow with each syllable. C. Automatic tuner cycles on each syllable. D. Minimal voltage drop seen at power source. share/E3/3-97P30000664000175000017500000000051014621207567011334 0ustar jtnjtn3-97P3 A What statement best describes the INMARSAT-B services? A. Voice at 16 kbps, Fax at 14.4 kbps and high-speed Data at 64/54. B. Store and forward high speed data at 36/48 kbps. C. Voice at 3 kHz, Fax at 9.6 kbps and Data at 4.8 kbps. D. Service is available only in areas served by highly directional spot beam antennas. share/E3/3-63J30000664000175000017500000000033614621207566011324 0ustar jtnjtn3-63J3 D A radio frequency device that allows RF energy to pass through in one direction with very little loss but absorbs RF power in the opposite direction is a: A. Circulator. B. Wave trap. C. Multiplexer. D. Isolator. share/E3/3-49F10000664000175000017500000000030714621207566011320 0ustar jtnjtn3-49F1 A What is the digital signal processing term for noise subtraction circuitry? A. Adaptive filtering and autocorrelation. B. Noise blanking. C. Noise limiting. D. Auto squelch noise reduction. share/E3/3-99Q50000664000175000017500000000043514621207567011347 0ustar jtnjtn3-99Q5 B Why must you never look directly into a fiber optic cable? A. High power light waves can burn the skin surrounding the eye. B. An active fiber signal may burn the retina and infra-red light cannot be seen. C. The end is easy to break. D. The signal is red and you can see it. share/E3/3-82M10000664000175000017500000000042214621207566011322 0ustar jtnjtn3-82M1 D What term describes a wide-bandwidth communications system in which the RF carrier frequency varies according to some predetermined sequence? A. Amplitude compandored single sideband. B. SITOR. C. Time-domain frequency modulation. D. Spread spectrum communication. share/E3/3-84M20000664000175000017500000000021414621207566011324 0ustar jtnjtn3-84M2 D What does the DSP not do in a modern DSP radio? A. Control frequency. B. Control modulation. C. Control detection. D. Control SWR. share/E3/3-68K10000664000175000017500000000044114621207566011325 0ustar jtnjtn3-68K1 C What is the frequency range of the Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) used to indicate an aircraft's slant range distance to a selected ground-based navigation station? A. 108.00 MHz to 117.95 MHz. B. 108.10 MHz to 111.95 MHz. C. 962 MHz to 1213 MHz. D. 329.15 MHz to 335.00 MHz. share/E3/3-72K10000664000175000017500000000061214621207566011320 0ustar jtnjtn3-72K1 D What type of antenna pattern is radiated from a ground station phased-array directional antenna when transmitting the PPM pulses in a Mode S interrogation signal of an aircraft's Traffic alert and Collision Avoidance System (TCAS) installation? A. 1090 MHz directional pattern. B. 1030 MHz omnidirectional pattern. C. 1090 MHz omnidirectional pattern. D. 1030 MHz directional pattern. share/E3/3-100Q30000664000175000017500000000026314621207567011403 0ustar jtnjtn3-100Q3 B Should you use a power drill without eye protection? A. Yes. B. No. C. It's okay as long as you keep your face away from the drill bit. D. Only in an extreme emergency. share/E3/3-20C40000664000175000017500000000016714621207565011310 0ustar jtnjtn3-20C4 C In Figure 3C5, which capacitor (labeled 1 through 4) is being used as a bypass capacitor? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 share/E3/3-82M30000664000175000017500000000052714621207566011332 0ustar jtnjtn3-82M3 A What is the term used to describe a spread spectrum communications system where the center frequency of a conventional carrier is altered many times per second in accordance with a pseudo-random list of channels? A. Frequency hopping. B. Direct sequence. C. Time-domain frequency modulation. D. Frequency compandored spread spectrum. share/E3/3-7A20000664000175000017500000000020314621207565011220 0ustar jtnjtn3-7A2 D How many degrees are there in one complete sine wave cycle? A. 90 degrees. B. 270 degrees. C. 180 degrees. D. 360 degrees. share/E3/3-41F60000664000175000017500000000032214621207566011312 0ustar jtnjtn3-41F6 D What is the term for the ratio between the largest tolerable receiver input signal and the minimum discernible signal? A. Intermodulation distortion. B. Noise floor. C. Noise figure. D. Dynamic range. share/E3/3-61I10000664000175000017500000000034014621207566011312 0ustar jtnjtn3-61I1 A When an emergency transmitter uses 325 watts and a receiver uses 50 watts, how many hours can a 12.6 volt, 55 ampere-hour battery supply full power to both units? A. 1.8 hours. B. 6 hours. C. 3 hours. D. 1.2 hours. share/E3/3-32D30000664000175000017500000000047314621207566011314 0ustar jtnjtn3-32D3 A What will occur if an amplifier input signal coupling capacitor fails open? A. No amplification will occur, with DC within the circuit measuring normal. B. Improper biasing will occur within the amplifier stage. C. Oscillation and thermal runaway may occur. D. An AC hum will appear on the circuit output. share/E3/3-50F40000664000175000017500000000047614621207566011322 0ustar jtnjtn3-50F4 C What is cross-modulation interference? A. Interference between two transmitters of different modulation type. B. Interference caused by audio rectification in the receiver preamp. C. Modulation from an unwanted signal heard in addition to the desired signal. D. Harmonic distortion of the transmitted signal. share/E3/3-46F10000664000175000017500000000025414621207566011316 0ustar jtnjtn3-46F1 B What is the primary purpose of the final IF amplifier stage in a receiver? A. Dynamic response. B. Gain. C. Noise figure performance. D. Bypass undesired signals. share/E3/3-20C50000664000175000017500000000025214621207565011304 0ustar jtnjtn3-20C5 D In Figure 3C5, the 1 microfarad capacitor is connected to a potentiometer that is used to: A. Increase gain. B. Neutralize amplifier. C. Couple. D. Adjust tone. share/E3/3-6A60000664000175000017500000000020414621207565011224 0ustar jtnjtn3-6A6 D What is the peak voltage at a common household electrical outlet? A. 234 volts. B. 117 volts. C. 331 volts. D. 165.5 volts. share/E3/3-87N40000664000175000017500000000036114621207566011335 0ustar jtnjtn3-87N4 D Which piece of required GMDSS equipment is the primary source of transmitting locating signals? A. Radio Direction Finder (RDF). B. A SART transmitting on 406 MHz. C. Survival Craft Transceiver. D. An EPIRB transmitting on 406 MHz. share/E3/3-8A10000664000175000017500000000034314621207565011225 0ustar jtnjtn3-8A1 C What is the term used to identify an AC voltage that would cause the same heating in a resistor as a corresponding value of DC voltage? A. Cosine voltage. B. Power factor. C. Root mean square (RMS). D. Average voltage. share/E3/3-94O30000664000175000017500000000036714621207567011342 0ustar jtnjtn3-94O3 A In the term "ARPA RADAR," ARPA is the acronym for which of the following? A. Automatic RADAR Plotting Aid. B. Automatic RADAR Positioning Angle. C. American RADAR Programmers Association. D. Authorized RADAR Programmer and Administrator. share/E3/3-74L10000664000175000017500000000034714621207566011330 0ustar jtnjtn3-74L1 B What is a 1/2 digit on a DMM? A. Smaller physical readout on the left side of the display. B. Partial extended accuracy on lower part of the range. C. Smaller physical readout on the right side. D. Does not apply to DMMs. share/E3/3-96P60000664000175000017500000000061014621207567011337 0ustar jtnjtn3-96P6 D Which of the following conditions can render INMARSAT -B communications impossible? A. An obstruction, such as a mast, causing disruption of the signal between the satellite and the SES antenna when the vessel is steering a certain course. B. A satellite whose signal is on a low elevation, below the horizon. C. Travel beyond the effective radius of the satellite. D. All of these. share/E3/3-88N20000664000175000017500000000033614621207567011337 0ustar jtnjtn3-88N2 B What is the standard scan rate for high-frequency 3 MHz - 23 MHz weather facsimile reception from shore stations? A. 240 lines per minute. B. 120 lines per minute. C. 150 lines per second. D. 60 lines per second. share/E3/3-36E40000664000175000017500000000014714621207566011320 0ustar jtnjtn3-36E4 A How many bits of information can be stored in a single flip-flop circuit? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 share/E3/3-54G20000664000175000017500000000037614621207566011324 0ustar jtnjtn3-54G2 D What is a pi-network? A. A network consisting of a capacitor, resistor and inductor. B. The Phase inversion stage. C. An enhanced token ring network. D. A network consisting of one inductor and two capacitors or two inductors and one capacitor. share/E3/3-95P40000664000175000017500000000050414621207567011336 0ustar jtnjtn3-95P4 A Which of the following statements about the Iridium system is true? A. There are 48 spot beams per satellite with a footprint of 30 miles in diameter. B. There are 48 satellites in orbit in 4 orbital planes. C. The inclination of the orbital planes is 55 degrees. D. The orbital period is approximately 85 minutes. share/E3/3-47F30000664000175000017500000000031114621207566011313 0ustar jtnjtn3-47F3 A What are the three general groupings of filters? A. High-pass, low-pass and band-pass. B. Inductive, capacitive and resistive. C. Audio, radio and capacitive. D. Hartley, Colpitts and Pierce. share/E3/3-1A50000664000175000017500000000027214621207565011223 0ustar jtnjtn3-1A5 B What formula would determine the inductive reactance of a coil if frequency and coil inductance are known? A. XL = pi f L B. XL = 2 pi f L C. XL = 1 / 2 pi f C D. XL = 1 / R2+X2 share/E3/3-13B50000664000175000017500000000024014621207565011302 0ustar jtnjtn3-13B5 D What does the power factor equal in an R-L circuit having a 45 degree phase angle between the voltage and the current? A. 0.866 B. 1.0 C. 0.5 D. 0.707 share/E3/3-91O40000664000175000017500000000051714621207567011335 0ustar jtnjtn3-91O4 C What is the purpose of a synchro transmitter and receiver? A. Synchronizes the transmitted and received pulse trains. B. Prevents the receiver from operating during the period of the transmitted pulse. C. Transmits the angular position of the antenna to the indicator unit. D. Keeps the speed of the motor generator constant. share/E3/3-68K20000664000175000017500000000035414621207566011331 0ustar jtnjtn3-68K2 B The Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) measures the distance from the aircraft to the DME ground station. This is referred to as: A. DME bearing. B. The slant range. C. Glide Slope angle of approach. D. Localizer course width. share/E3/3-90O30000664000175000017500000000032714621207567011332 0ustar jtnjtn3-90O3 B What is the normal range of pulse widths? A. .05 microseconds to 0.1 microseconds. B. .05 microseconds to 1.0 microseconds. C. 1.0 microseconds to 3.5 microseconds. D. 2.5 microseconds to 5.0 microseconds. share/E3/3-82M20000664000175000017500000000030714621207566011325 0ustar jtnjtn3-82M2 C Name two types of spread spectrum systems used in most RF communications applications? A. AM and FM. B. QPSK or QAM. C. Direct Sequence and Frequency Hopping. D. Frequency Hopping and APSK. share/E3/3-45F10000664000175000017500000000022314621207566011311 0ustar jtnjtn3-45F1 D What degree of selectivity is desirable in the IF circuitry of a wideband FM phone receiver? A. 1 kHz. B. 2.4 kHz. C. 4.2 kHz. D. 15 kHz. share/E3/3-4A50000664000175000017500000000031514621207565011224 0ustar jtnjtn3-4A5 B How would you calculate the total capacitance of three capacitors in parallel? A. CT = C1 + C2 / C1 - C2 + C3. B. CT = C1 + C2 + C3. C. CT = C1 + C2 / C1 x C2 + C3. D. CT = 1 / C1+1 / C2 + 1 / C3. share/E3/3-81L10000664000175000017500000000050614621207566011323 0ustar jtnjtn3-81L1 A On a 150 watt marine SSB HF transceiver, what would be indicated by a steady output of 75 watts when keying the transmitter on? A. There is probably a defect in the system causing the carrier to be transmitted. B. One of the sidebands is missing. C. Both sidebands are being transmitting. D. The operation is normal. share/E3/3-95P10000664000175000017500000000022714621207567011335 0ustar jtnjtn3-95P1 D What is the orbiting altitude of the Iridium satellite communications system? A. 22,184 miles. B. 11,492 miles. C. 4,686 miles. D. 485 miles. share/E3/3-53G60000664000175000017500000000045014621207566011320 0ustar jtnjtn3-53G6 B What is a balanced modulator? A. An FM modulator that produces a balanced deviation. B. A modulator that produces a double sideband, suppressed carrier signal. C. A modulator that produces a single sideband, suppressed carrier signal. D. A modulator that produces a full carrier signal. share/E3/3-80L20000664000175000017500000000054314621207566011324 0ustar jtnjtn3-80L2 C What is most important when routing cables in a mobile unit? A. That cables be cut to the exact length. B. Assuring accessibility of the radio for servicing from outside the vehicle. C. Assuring radio or electronics cables do not interfere with the normal operation of the vehicle. D. Assuring cables are concealed under floor mats or carpeting. share/E3/3-78L30000664000175000017500000000044314621207566011333 0ustar jtnjtn3-78L3 C What is a common method used to program radios without using a "wired" connection? A. Banding. B. Using the ultraviolet from a programmed radio to repeat the programming in another. C. Infra-red communication. D. Having the radio maker send down a programming signal via satellite. share/E3/3-61I30000664000175000017500000000040214621207566011313 0ustar jtnjtn3-61I3 A A ship RADAR unit uses 315 watts and a radio uses 50 watts. If the equipment is connected to a 50 ampere-hour battery rated at 12.6 volts, how long will the battery last? A. 1 hour 43 minutes. B. 28.97 hours. C. 29 minutes. D. 10 hours, 50 minutes. share/E3/3-87N30000664000175000017500000000016614621207567011340 0ustar jtnjtn3-87N3 A In which frequency band does a search and rescue transponder operate? A. 9 GHz B. 3 GHz C. S-band D. 406 MHz share/E3/3-31D20000664000175000017500000000057314621207566011313 0ustar jtnjtn3-31D2 B A circuit that compares the output of a voltage-controlled oscillator (VCO) to a frequency standard and produces an error voltage that is then used to adjust the capacitance of a varactor diode used to control frequency in that same VCO is called what? A. Doubly balanced mixer. B. Phase-locked loop. C. Differential voltage amplifier. D. Variable frequency oscillator. share/E3/3-3A60000664000175000017500000000020514621207565011222 0ustar jtnjtn3-3A6 B Which of these will be most useful for insulation at UHF frequencies? A. Rubber. B. Mica. C. Wax impregnated paper. D. Lead. share/E3/3-83M50000664000175000017500000000012314621207566011325 0ustar jtnjtn3-83M5 D What CODEC is used in Phase 2 P25 radios? A. IWCE B. IMBC C. IMMM D. AMBE share/E3/3-67J20000664000175000017500000000035414621207566011327 0ustar jtnjtn3-67J2 D What is the effective radiated power of a repeater with 75 watts transmitter power output, 4 dB feedline loss, 3 dB duplexer and circulator loss, and 10 dB antenna gain? A. 600 watts. B. 75 watts. C. 18.75 watts. D. 150 watts. share/E3/3-9B10000664000175000017500000000032714621207565011231 0ustar jtnjtn3-9B1 A What value of series resistor would be needed to obtain a full scale deflection on a 50 microamp DC meter with an applied voltage of 200 volts DC? A. 4 megohms. B. 2 megohms. C. 400 kilohms. D. 200 kilohms. share/E3/3-14B10000664000175000017500000000035314621207565011304 0ustar jtnjtn3-14B1 B) What is the term for the time required for the capacitor in an RC circuit to be charged to 63.2% of the supply voltage? A. An exponential rate of one. B. One time constant. C. One exponential period. D. A time factor of one. share/E3/3-32D60000664000175000017500000000025014621207566011310 0ustar jtnjtn3-32D6 B With a pure AC signal input to the circuit shown in Figure 3D11, what output wave form would you expect to see on an oscilloscope display? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 share/E3/3-68K60000664000175000017500000000036614621207566011340 0ustar jtnjtn3-68K6 B The majority of airborne Distance Measuring Equipment systems automatically tune their transmitter and receiver frequencies to the paired __ / __ channel. A. VOR/marker beacon. B. VOR/LOC. C. Marker beacon/glideslope. D. LOC/glideslope. share/E3/3-28C60000664000175000017500000000017614621207566011323 0ustar jtnjtn3-28C6 B In which oscillator circuit would you find a quartz crystal? A. Hartley. B. Pierce C. Colpitts. D. All of the above. share/E3/3-96P10000664000175000017500000000020414621207567011331 0ustar jtnjtn3-96P1 B What is the orbital altitude of INMARSAT Satellites? A. 16, 436 miles. B. 22,177 miles. C. 10, 450 miles. D. 26,435 miles. share/E3/3-61I60000664000175000017500000000035614621207566011326 0ustar jtnjtn3-61I6 D A 12.6 volt, 8 ampere-hour battery is supplying power to a receiver that uses 50 watts and a RADAR system that uses 300 watts. How long will the battery last? A. 100.8 hours. B. 27.7 hours. C. 1 hour. D. 17 minutes or 0.3 hours. share/E3/3-12B40000664000175000017500000000064314621207565011307 0ustar jtnjtn3-12B4 D What is the equivalent to the root-mean-square value of an AC voltage? A. AC voltage is the square root of the average AC value. B. The DC voltage causing the same heating in a given resistor at the peak AC voltage. C. The AC voltage found by taking the square of the average value of the peak AC voltage. D. The DC voltage causing the same heating in a given resistor as the RMS AC voltage of the same value. share/E3/3-36E30000664000175000017500000000014114621207566011311 0ustar jtnjtn3-36E3 D How many flip-flops are required to divide a signal frequency by 4? A. 1 B. 4 C. 8 D. 2 share/E3/3-9B50000664000175000017500000000023214621207565011230 0ustar jtnjtn3-9B5 B If a current of 3 amperes flows through a resistor connected to 90 volts, what is the resistance? A. 3 ohms. B. 30 ohms. C. 93 ohms. D. 270 ohms. share/E3/3-90O40000664000175000017500000000014114621207567011325 0ustar jtnjtn3-90O4 C Shipboard RADAR is most commonly operated in what band? A. VHF. B. UHF. C. SHF. D. EHF. share/E3/3-44F60000664000175000017500000000037714621207566011327 0ustar jtnjtn3-44F6 C What might occur in a receiver if excessive amounts of signal energy overdrive the mixer circuit? A. Automatic limiting occurs. B. Mixer blanking occurs. C. Spurious mixer products are generated. D. The mixer circuit becomes unstable and drifts. share/E3/3-78L50000664000175000017500000000053314621207566011335 0ustar jtnjtn3-78L5 D A communications technician would perform a modulation-acceptance bandwidth test in order to: A. Ascertain the audio frequency response of the receiver. B. Determine whether the CTCSS in the receiver is operating correctly. C. Verify the results from a 12 dB SINAD test. D. Determine the effective bandwidth of a communications receiver. share/E3/3-55G50000664000175000017500000000033214621207566011320 0ustar jtnjtn3-55G5 B What is the output peak envelope power from a transmitter as measured on an oscilloscope showing 200 volts peak-to-peak across a 50-ohm load resistor? A. 1,000 watts. B. 100 watts. C. 200 watts. D. 400 watts. share/E3/3-13B30000664000175000017500000000036114621207565011304 0ustar jtnjtn3-13B3 D 746 watts, corresponding to the lifting of 550 pounds at the rate of one-foot-per-second, is the equivalent of how much horsepower? A. One-quarter horsepower. B. One-half horsepower. C. Three-quarters horsepower. D. One horsepower. share/E3/3-76L40000664000175000017500000000055514621207566011336 0ustar jtnjtn3-76L4 A What factors limit the accuracy, frequency response, and stability of an oscilloscope? A. Sweep oscillator quality and deflection amplifier bandwidth. B. Tube face voltage increments and deflection amplifier voltage. C. Sweep oscillator quality and tube face voltage increments. D. Deflection amplifier output impedance and tube face frequency increments. share/E3/3-28C30000664000175000017500000000031214621207566011310 0ustar jtnjtn3-28C3 C What do the initials CMOS stand for? A. Common mode oscillating system. B. Complementary mica-oxide silicon. C. Complementary metal-oxide semiconductor. D. Complementary metal-oxide substrate. share/E3/3-47F60000664000175000017500000000044614621207566011327 0ustar jtnjtn3-47F6 C What are the distinguishing features of a Butterworth filter? A. A filter whose product of the series- and shunt-element impedances is a constant for all frequencies. B. It only requires capacitors. C. It has a maximally flat response over its passband. D. It requires only inductors. share/E3/3-84M10000664000175000017500000000016514621207566011330 0ustar jtnjtn3-84M1 B What is a SDR? A. Software Deviation Ratio. B. Software Defined Radio. C. SWR Meter. D. Static Dynamic Ram. share/E3/3-19C10000664000175000017500000000027414621207565011314 0ustar jtnjtn3-19C1 A What happens to the conductivity of photoconductive material when light shines on it? A. It increases. B. It decreases. C. It stays the same. D. It becomes temperature dependent. share/E3/3-17B50000664000175000017500000000037714621207565011321 0ustar jtnjtn3-17B5 B In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network comprised of a 400-ohm-reactance inductor in parallel with a 300-ohm resistor? A. 240 ohms, /-36.9 degrees B. 240 ohms, /36.9 degrees C. 500 ohms, /53.1 degrees D. 500 ohms, /-53.1 degrees share/E3/3-25C30000664000175000017500000000045314621207566011313 0ustar jtnjtn3-25C3 C What is the meaning of the term "beta" with regard to bipolar transistors? The change of: A. Base current with respect to emitter current. B. Collector current with respect to emitter current. C. Collector current with respect to base current. D. Base current with respect to gate current. share/E3/3-93O40000664000175000017500000000016514621207567011336 0ustar jtnjtn3-93O4 A A common shipboard RADAR antenna is the: A. Slotted array. B. Dipole. C. Stacked Yagi. D. Vertical Marconi. share/E3/3-6A50000664000175000017500000000030514621207565011225 0ustar jtnjtn3-6A5 C By what factor must the voltage measured in an AC circuit, as indicated on the scale of an AC voltmeter, be multiplied to obtain the average voltage value? A. 0.707 B. 1.414 C. 0.9 D. 3.14 share/E3/3-17B60000664000175000017500000000046114621207565011314 0ustar jtnjtn3-17B6 D Using the polar coordinate system, what visual representation would you get of a voltage in a sinewave circuit? A. To show the reactance which is present. B. To graphically represent the AC and DC component. C. To display the data on an XY chart. D. The plot shows the magnitude and phase angle. share/E3/3-6A10000664000175000017500000000024614621207565011225 0ustar jtnjtn3-6A1 B An AC ammeter indicates: A. Effective (TRM) values of current. B. Effective (RMS) values of current. C. Peak values of current. D. Average values of current. share/E3/3-93O30000664000175000017500000000045114621207567011333 0ustar jtnjtn3-93O3 D What happens to the beamwidth of an antenna as the gain is increased? The beamwidth: A. Increases geometrically as the gain is increased. B. Increases arithmetically as the gain is increased. C. Is essentially unaffected by the gain of the antenna. D. Decreases as the gain is increased. share/E3/3-66J40000664000175000017500000000030314621207566011322 0ustar jtnjtn3-66J4 A A perfect (no loss) coaxial cable has 7 dB of reflected power when the input is 5 watts. What is the output of the transmission line? A. 1 watt. B. 1.25 watts. C. 2.5 watts. D. 5 watts. share/E3/3-95P50000664000175000017500000000043514621207567011342 0ustar jtnjtn3-95P5 B What is the main function of the COSPAS-SARSAT satellite system? A. Monitor 121.5 MHz for voice distress calls. B. Monitor 406 MHz for distress calls from EPIRBs. C. Monitor 1635 MHz for coded distress calls. D. Monitor 2197.5 kHz for hexadecimal coded DSC distress messages. share/E3/3-10B20000664000175000017500000000024414621207565011300 0ustar jtnjtn3-10B2 C What is the maximum DC or RMS voltage that may be connected across a 20 watt, 2000 ohm resistor? A. 10 volts. B. 100 volts. C. 200 volts. D. 10,000 volts. share/E3/3-60I30000664000175000017500000000050014621207566011311 0ustar jtnjtn3-60I3 B What capacity in amperes does a storage battery need to be in order to operate a 50 watt transmitter for 6 hours? Assume a continuous transmitter load of 70% of the key-locked demand of 40 A, and an emergency light load of 1.5 A. A. 100 ampere-hours. B. 177 ampere-hours. C. 249 ampere-hours. D. None of these. share/E3/3-54G40000664000175000017500000000042014621207566011314 0ustar jtnjtn3-54G4 C Which three network types are commonly used to match an amplifying device to a transmission line? A. Pi-C network, pi network and T network. B. T network, M network and Z network. C. L network, pi network and pi-L network. D. L network, pi network and C network. share/E3/3-72K60000664000175000017500000000065114621207566011330 0ustar jtnjtn3-72K6 B What type of antenna is attached to an aircraft's Mode C transponder installation and used to receive 1030 MHz interrogation signals from the Air Traffic Control Radar Beacon System (ATCRBS)? A. An electronically steerable phased-array directional antenna. B. An L-band monopole blade-type omnidirectional antenna. C. A folded dipole reception antenna. D. An internally mounted, mechanically rotatable loop antenna. share/E3/3-24C30000664000175000017500000000031614621207566011310 0ustar jtnjtn3-24C3 A Structurally, what are the two main categories of semiconductor diodes? A. Junction and point contact. B. Electrolytic and junction. C. Electrolytic and point contact. D. Vacuum and point contact. share/E3/3-29D50000664000175000017500000000024714621207566011323 0ustar jtnjtn3-29D5 B What is the characteristic of the current flow within the parallel elements in a parallel R-L-C circuit at resonance? A. Minimum. B. Maximum. C. DC. D. Zero. share/E3/3-77L30000664000175000017500000000016714621207566011335 0ustar jtnjtn3-77L3 A What does the vertical axis of a spectrum analyzer display? A. Amplitude. B. Duration. C. Frequency. D. Time. share/E3/3-65J30000664000175000017500000000030414621207566011321 0ustar jtnjtn3-65J3 C An excited 1/2 wavelength antenna produces: A. Residual fields. B. An electro-magnetic field only. C. Both electro-magnetic and electro-static fields. D. An electro-flux field sometimes. share/E3/3-74L50000664000175000017500000000022414621207566011326 0ustar jtnjtn3-74L5 B What instrument is used to indicate high and low digital voltage states? A. Ohmmeter. B. Logic probe. C. Megger. D. Signal strength meter. share/E3/3-88N30000664000175000017500000000032314621207567011334 0ustar jtnjtn3-88N3 C What would be the bandwidth of a good crystal lattice band-pass filter for weather facsimile HF (high frequency) reception? A. 500 Hz at -6 dB. B. 6 kHz at -6 dB. C. 1 kHz at -6 dB. D. 15 kHz at -6 dB. share/E3/3-12B30000664000175000017500000000023214621207565011300 0ustar jtnjtn3-12B3 A At 240 degrees, what is the amplitude of a sine-wave having a peak value of 5 volts? A. -4.3 volts. B. -2.5 volts. C. +2.5 volts. D. +4.3 volts. share/E3/3-38E50000664000175000017500000000027714621207566011327 0ustar jtnjtn3-38E5 D How many individual memory cells would be contained in a memory IC that has 4 data bus input/output pins and 4 address pins for connection to the address bus? A. 8 B. 16 C. 32 D. 64 share/E3/3-18B60000664000175000017500000000031514621207565011313 0ustar jtnjtn3-18B6 B What is the conductance (G) of a circuit if 6 amperes of current flows when 12 volts DC is applied? A. 0.25 Siemens (mhos). B. 0.50 Siemens (mhos). C. 1.00 Siemens (mhos). D. 1.25 Siemens (mhos). share/E3/3-67J40000664000175000017500000000035214621207566011327 0ustar jtnjtn3-67J4 D What is the effective radiated power of a repeater with 100 watts transmitter power output, 4 dB feedline loss, 3 dB duplexer and circulator loss, and 7 dB antenna gain? A. 631 watts. B. 400 watts. C. 25 watts. D. 100 watts. share/E3/3-22C50000664000175000017500000000045614621207565011314 0ustar jtnjtn3-22C5 C A three-terminal regulator: A. Supplies three voltages with variable current. B. Supplies three voltages at a constant current. C. Contains a voltage reference, error amplifier, sensing resistors and transistors, and a pass element. D. Contains three error amplifiers and sensing transistors. share/E3/3-6A20000664000175000017500000000027114621207565011224 0ustar jtnjtn3-6A2 C By what factor must the voltage of an AC circuit, as indicated on the scale of an AC voltmeter, be multiplied to obtain the peak voltage value? A. 0.707 B. 0.9 C. 1.414 D. 3.14 share/E3/3-80L40000664000175000017500000000035714621207566011331 0ustar jtnjtn3-80L4 C What is the 6th pair color code in a 25 pair switchboard cable as is found in building telecommunications interconnections? A. Blue/Green, Green/Blue. B. Red/Blue, White/Violet. C. Red/Blue, Blue/Red. D. White/Slate, Slate/White. share/E3/3-77L20000664000175000017500000000017514621207566011333 0ustar jtnjtn3-77L2 D What does the horizontal axis of a spectrum analyzer display? A. Amplitude. B. Voltage. C. Resonance. D. Frequency. share/E3/3-20C30000664000175000017500000000016614621207565011306 0ustar jtnjtn3-20C3 B In Figure 3C4, which component (labeled 1 through 4) is used to provide a signal ground? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 share/E3/3-16B20000664000175000017500000000030214621207565011301 0ustar jtnjtn3-16B2 D In rectangular coordinates, what is the impedance of a network composed of a 0.1-microhenry inductor in series with a 30-ohm resistor, at 5 MHz? A. 30 -j3 B. 3 +j30 C. 3 -j30 D. 30 +j3 share/E3/3-33E50000664000175000017500000000022214621207566011310 0ustar jtnjtn3-33E5 D Which of the following instruments would be best for checking a TTL logic circuit? A. VOM. B. DMM. C. Continuity tester. D. Logic probe. share/E3/3-62I20000664000175000017500000000032714621207566011321 0ustar jtnjtn3-62I2 C If a shunt motor running with a load has its shunt field opened, how would this affect the speed of the motor? A. It will slow down. B. It will stop suddenly. C. It will speed up. D. It will be unaffected. share/E3/3-36E10000664000175000017500000000015014621207566011307 0ustar jtnjtn3-36E1 B A flip-flop circuit is a binary logic element with how many stable states? A. 1 B. 2 C. 4 D. 8 share/E3/3-62I50000664000175000017500000000025714621207566011326 0ustar jtnjtn3-62I5 C A 3 horsepower, 100 V DC motor is 85% efficient when developing its rated output. What is the current? A. 8.545 amps. B. 20.345 amps. C. 26.300 amps. D. 25.000 amps. share/E3/3-27C20000664000175000017500000000036714621207566011320 0ustar jtnjtn3-27C2 D What determines the visible color radiated by an LED junction? A. The color of a lens in an eyepiece. B. The amount of voltage across the device. C. The amount of current through the device. D. The materials used to construct the device. share/E3/3-22C60000664000175000017500000000027414621207565011313 0ustar jtnjtn3-22C6 B What is the range of voltage ratings available in Zener diodes? A. 1.2 volts to 7 volts. B. 2.4 volts to 200 volts and above. C. 3 volts to 2000 volts. D. 1.2 volts to 5.6 volts. share/E3/3-8A20000664000175000017500000000050714621207565011230 0ustar jtnjtn3-8A2 B What happens to reactive power in a circuit that has both inductors and capacitors? A. It is dissipated as heat in the circuit. B. It alternates between magnetic and electric fields and is not dissipated. C. It is dissipated as inductive and capacitive fields. D. It is dissipated as kinetic energy within the circuit. share/E3/3-36E60000664000175000017500000000056014621207566011321 0ustar jtnjtn3-36E6 D An R-S flip-flop is capable of doing all of the following except: A. Accept data input into R-S inputs with CLK initiated. B. Accept data input into PRE and CLR inputs without CLK being initiated. C. Refuse to accept synchronous data if asynchronous data is being input at same time. D. Operate in toggle mode with R-S inputs held constant and CLK initiated. share/E3/3-79L60000664000175000017500000000033414621207566011336 0ustar jtnjtn3-79L6 C When repairing circuit board assemblies it is most important to: A. Use a dental pick to clear plated-through holes. B. Bridge broken copper traces with solder. C. Wear safety glasses. D. Use a holding fixture. share/E3/3-9B60000664000175000017500000000032314621207565011232 0ustar jtnjtn3-9B6 C A relay coil has 500 ohms resistance, and operates on 125 mA. What value of resistance should be connected in series with it to operate from 110 V DC? A. 150 ohms. B. 220 ohms. C. 380 ohms. D. 470 ohms. share/E3/3-81L50000664000175000017500000000040514621207566011325 0ustar jtnjtn3-81L5 B How might an installer verify correct GPS sentence to marine DSC VHF radio? A. Press and hold the red distress button. B. Look for latitude and longitude on the display. C. Look for GPS confirmation readout. D. Ask for VHF radio check position report. share/E3/3-54G50000664000175000017500000000036514621207566011325 0ustar jtnjtn3-54G5 B What is a pi-L network? A. A Phase Inverter Load network. B. A network consisting of two inductors and two capacitors. C. A network with only three discrete parts. D. A matching network in which all components are isolated from ground. share/E3/3-11B10000664000175000017500000000033414621207565011300 0ustar jtnjtn3-11B1 A What is the most the actual transmit frequency could differ from a reading of 462,100,000 Hertz on a frequency counter with a time base accuracy of +/- 0.1 ppm? A. 46.21 Hz. B. 0.1 MHz. C. 462.1 Hz. D. 0.2 MHz. share/E3/3-18B50000664000175000017500000000026214621207565011313 0ustar jtnjtn3-18B5 D Given a power supply with a full load voltage of 200 volts and a regulation of 25%, what is the no load voltage? A. 150 volts. B. 160 volts. C. 240 volts. D. 250 volts. share/E3/3-83M60000664000175000017500000000046314621207566011335 0ustar jtnjtn3-83M6 B The International Organization for Standardization has developed a seven-level reference model for a packet-radio communications structure. The _______ level arranges the bits into frames and controls data flow. A. Transport layer. B. Link layer. C. Communications layer. D. Synchronization layer. share/E3/3-98P10000664000175000017500000000021214621207567011332 0ustar jtnjtn3-98P1 C Global Positioning Service (GPS) satellite orbiting altitude is: A. 4,686 miles. B. 24,184 miles. C. 12,554 miles. D. 247 miles. share/E3/3-7A30000664000175000017500000000022614621207565011226 0ustar jtnjtn3-7A3 A What type of wave is made up of sine waves of the fundamental frequency and all the odd harmonics? A. Square. B. Sine. C. Cosine. D. Tangent. share/E3/3-5A30000664000175000017500000000035014621207565011222 0ustar jtnjtn3-5A3 C MOSFETs are manufactured with THIS protective device built into their gate to protect the device from static charges and excessive voltages: A. Schottky diode. B. Metal oxide varistor (MOV). C. Zener diode. D. Tunnel diode. share/E3/3-1A10000664000175000017500000000022614621207565011216 0ustar jtnjtn3-1A1 A The product of the readings of an AC voltmeter and AC ammeter is called: A. Apparent power. B. True power. C. Power factor. D. Current power. share/E3/3-7A10000664000175000017500000000051214621207565011222 0ustar jtnjtn3-7A1 B What is a sine wave? A. A constant-voltage, varying-current wave. B. A wave whose amplitude at any given instant can be represented by the projection of a point on a wheel rotating at a uniform speed. C. A wave following the laws of the trigonometric tangent function. D. A wave whose polarity changes in a random manner. share/E3/3-85N20000664000175000017500000000013114621207566011324 0ustar jtnjtn3-85N2 B What VHF channel is assigned for distress and calling? A. 70 B. 16 C. 21A D. 68 share/E3/3-40E20000664000175000017500000000020714621207566011306 0ustar jtnjtn3-40E2 C What does the term "BCD" mean? A. Binaural coded digit. B. Bit count decimal. C. Binary coded decimal. D. Broad course digit. share/E3/3-99Q30000664000175000017500000000040114621207567011336 0ustar jtnjtn3-99Q3 D RF exposure from portable radio transceivers may be harmful to the eyes because: A. Magnetic fields blur vision. B. RF heating polarizes the eye lens. C. The magnetic field may attract metal particles to the eye. D. RF heating may cause cataracts. share/E3/3-89N10000664000175000017500000000022214621207567011331 0ustar jtnjtn3-89N1 A What data language is bi-directional, multi-transmitter, multi-receiver network? A. NMEA 2000. B. NMEA 0181. C. NMEA 0182. D. NMEA 0183. share/E3/3-89N60000664000175000017500000000023414621207567011341 0ustar jtnjtn3-89N6 C What voltage drop at the end of the last segment will satisfy NMEA 2000 network cabling plans? A. 0.5 volts B. 2.0 volts C. 1.5 volts D. 3.0 volts share/E3/3-40E10000664000175000017500000000055614621207566011314 0ustar jtnjtn3-40E1 D What is the purpose of a prescaler circuit? A. Converts the output of a JK flip-flop to that of an RS flip-flop. B. Multiplies an HF signal so a low-frequency counter can display the operating frequency. C. Prevents oscillation in a low frequency counter circuit. D. Divides an HF signal so that a low-frequency counter can display the operating frequency. share/E3/3-89N30000664000175000017500000000046414621207567011343 0ustar jtnjtn3-89N3 D What might occur in NMEA 2000 network topology if one device in line should fail? A. The system shuts down until the device is removed. B. Other electronics after the failed device will be inoperable. C. The main fuse on the backbone may open. D. There will be no interruption to all other devices. share/E3/3-24C10000664000175000017500000000020714621207566011305 0ustar jtnjtn3-24C1 B What is one common use for PIN diodes? A. Constant current source. B. RF switch. C. Constant voltage source. D. RF rectifier. share/E3/3-52G10000664000175000017500000000030714621207566011313 0ustar jtnjtn3-52G1 D The class B amplifier output is present for what portion of the input cycle? A. 360 degrees. B. Greater than 180 degrees and less than 360 degrees. C. Less than 180 degrees. D. 180 degrees. share/E3/3-95P30000664000175000017500000000032514621207567011336 0ustar jtnjtn3-95P3 C What services are provided by the Iridium system? A. Analog voice and Data at 4.8 kbps. B. Digital voice and Data at 9.6 kbps. C. Digital voice and Data at 2.4 kbps. D. Analog voice and Data at 9.6 kbps. share/E3/3-71K50000664000175000017500000000046314621207566011327 0ustar jtnjtn3-71K5 B What type of encoding is used in an aircraft's mode C transponder transmission to a ground station of the Air Traffic Control RADAR Beacon System (ATCRBS)? A. Differential phase shift keying. B. Pulse position modulation. C. Doppler effect compressional encryption. D. Amplitude modulation at 95%. share/E3/3-22C30000664000175000017500000000023614621207565011306 0ustar jtnjtn3-22C3 A What device is usually used as a stable reference voltage in a linear voltage regulator? A. Zener diode. B. Tunnel diode. C. SCR. D. Varactor diode. share/E3/3-24C60000664000175000017500000000030414621207566011310 0ustar jtnjtn3-24C6 C What is the principal characteristic of a tunnel diode? A. High forward resistance. B. Very high PIV(peak inverse voltage). C. Negative resistance region. D. High forward current rating. share/E3/3-87N10000664000175000017500000000045514621207567011337 0ustar jtnjtn3-87N1 B What causes the SART to begin a transmission? A. When activated manually, it begins radiating immediately. B. After being activated the SART responds to RADAR interrogation. C. It is either manually or water activated before radiating. D. It begins radiating only when keyed by the operator. share/E3/3-35E60000664000175000017500000000057014621207566011321 0ustar jtnjtn3-35E6 A What is a truth table? A. A list of input combinations and their corresponding outputs that characterizes a digital device's function. B. A table of logic symbols that indicate the high logic states of an op-amp. C. A diagram showing logic states when the digital device's output is true. D. A table of logic symbols that indicates the low logic states of an op-amp. share/E3/3-98P60000664000175000017500000000037214621207567011346 0ustar jtnjtn3-98P6 B What is DGPS? A. Digital Ground Position System. B. A system to provide additional correction factors to improve position accuracy. C. Correction signals transmitted by satellite. D. A system for providing altitude corrections for aircraft. share/E3/3-19C40000664000175000017500000000035614621207565011320 0ustar jtnjtn3-19C4 A What is the description of an optoisolator? A. An LED and a photosensitive device. B. A P-N junction that develops an excess positive charge when exposed to light. C. An LED and a capacitor. D. An LED and a lithium battery cell. share/E3/3-64J30000664000175000017500000000016114621207566011321 0ustar jtnjtn3-64J3 A Which of the following represents the best standing wave ratio (SWR)? A. 1:1. B. 1:1.5. C. 1:3. D. 1:4. share/E3/3-15B30000664000175000017500000000027014621207565011305 0ustar jtnjtn3-15B3 C What is the time constant of a circuit having a 100-microfarad capacitor and a 470-kilohm resistor in series? A. 4700 seconds. B. 470 seconds. C. 47 seconds. D. 0.47 seconds. share/E3/3-14B30000664000175000017500000000034614621207565011310 0ustar jtnjtn3-14B3 A) What is the term for the time required for the current in an RL circuit to build up to 63.2% of the maximum value? A. One time constant. B. An exponential period of one. C. A time factor of one. D. One exponential rate. share/E3/3-45F20000664000175000017500000000033214621207566011313 0ustar jtnjtn3-45F2 B Which one of these filters can be used in micro-miniature electronic circuits? A. High power transmitter cavity. B. Receiver SAW IF filter. C. Floppy disk controller. D. Internet DSL to telephone line filter. share/E3/3-8A40000664000175000017500000000045114621207565011230 0ustar jtnjtn3-8A4 A Which of the following groups is correct for listing common materials in order of descending conductivity? A. Silver, copper, aluminum, iron, and lead. B. Lead, iron, silver, aluminum, and copper. C. Iron, silver, aluminum, copper, and silver. D. Silver, aluminum, iron, lead, and copper. share/E3/3-4A20000664000175000017500000000024514621207565011223 0ustar jtnjtn3-4A2 D Good conductors with minimum resistance have what type of electrons? A. Few free electrons. B. No electrons. C. Some free electrons. D. Many free electrons. share/E3/3-34E10000664000175000017500000000051514621207566011312 0ustar jtnjtn3-34E1 B What is a characteristic of an AND gate? A. Produces a logic "0" at its output only if all inputs are logic "1". B. Produces a logic "1" at its output only if all inputs are logic "1". C. Produces a logic "1" at its output if only one input is a logic "1". D. Produces a logic "1" at its output if all inputs are logic "0". share/E3/3-68K40000664000175000017500000000113314621207566011327 0ustar jtnjtn3-68K4 A What is the main underlying operating principle of an aircraft's Distance Measuring Equipment (DME)? A. A measurable amount of time is required to send and receive a radio signal through the Earth's atmosphere. B. The difference between the peak values of two DC voltages may be used to determine an aircraft's distance to another aircraft. C. A measurable frequency compression of an AC signal may be used to determine an aircraft's altitude above the earth. D. A phase inversion between two AC voltages may be used to determine an aircraft's distance to the exit ramp of an airport's runway. share/E3/3-14B50000664000175000017500000000023514621207565011307 0ustar jtnjtn3-14B5 C After two time constants, the capacitor in an RC circuit is charged to what percentage of the supply voltage? A. 36.8 % B. 63.2 % C. 86.5 % D. 95 % share/E3/3-72K40000664000175000017500000000023714621207566011326 0ustar jtnjtn3-72K4 D Aircraft Emergency Locator Transmitters (ELT) operate on what frequencies? A. 121.5 MHz. B. 243 MHz. C. 121.5 and 243 MHz. D. 121.5, 243 and 406 MHz. share/E3/3-85N10000664000175000017500000000015614621207566011332 0ustar jtnjtn3-85N1 D What is the channel spacing used for VHF marine radio? A. 10 kHz. B. 12.5 kHz. C. 20 kHz. D. 25 kHz. share/E3/3-76L20000664000175000017500000000124114621207566011325 0ustar jtnjtn3-76L2 C How does a spectrum analyzer differ from a conventional oscilloscope? A. The oscilloscope is used to display electrical signals while the spectrum analyzer is used to measure ionospheric reflection. B. The oscilloscope is used to display electrical signals in the frequency domain while the spectrum analyzer is used to display electrical signals in the time domain. C. The oscilloscope is used to display electrical signals in the time domain while the spectrum analyzer is used to display electrical signals in the frequency domain. D. The oscilloscope is used for displaying audio frequencies and the spectrum analyzer is used for displaying radio frequencies. share/E3/3-65J40000664000175000017500000000024514621207566011326 0ustar jtnjtn3-65J4 A To increase the resonant frequency of a 1/4 wavelength antenna: A. Add a capacitor in series. B. Lower capacitor value. C. Cut antenna. D. Add an inductor. share/E3/3-64J40000664000175000017500000000042614621207566011326 0ustar jtnjtn3-64J4 C At the ends of a half-wave antenna, what values of current and voltage exist compared to the remainder of the antenna? A. Equal voltage and current. B. Minimum voltage and maximum current. C. Maximum voltage and minimum current. D. Minimum voltage and minimum current. share/E3/3-61I20000664000175000017500000000031714621207566011317 0ustar jtnjtn3-61I2 B What current will flow in a 6 volt storage battery with an internal resistance of 0.01 ohms, when a 3-watt, 6-volt lamp is connected? A. 0.4885 amps. B. 0.4995 amps. C. 0.5566 amps. D. 0.5795 amps. share/E3/3-13B20000664000175000017500000000024714621207565011306 0ustar jtnjtn3-13B2 A If a resistance to which a constant voltage is applied is halved, what power dissipation will result? A. Double. B. Halved. C. Quadruple. D. Remain the same. share/E3/3-2A40000664000175000017500000000024614621207565011224 0ustar jtnjtn3-2A4 D The opposition to the creation of magnetic lines of force in a magnetic circuit is known as: A. Eddy currents. B. Hysteresis. C. Permeability. D. Reluctance. share/E3/3-25C10000664000175000017500000000046314621207566011312 0ustar jtnjtn3-25C1 D What is the meaning of the term "alpha" with regard to bipolar transistors? The change of: A. Collector current with respect to base current. B. Base current with respect to collector current. C. Collector current with respect to gate current. D. Collector current with respect to emitter current. share/E3/3-27C30000664000175000017500000000016614621207566011316 0ustar jtnjtn3-27C3 A What is the approximate operating current of a light-emitting diode? A. 20 mA. B. 5 mA. C. 10 mA. D. 400 mA. share/E3/3-51G20000664000175000017500000000050714621207566011315 0ustar jtnjtn3-51G2 B What is the distinguishing feature of a Class A amplifier? A. Output for less than 180 degrees of the signal cycle. B. Output for the entire 360 degrees of the signal cycle. C. Output for more than 180 degrees and less than 360 degrees of the signal cycle. D. Output for exactly 180 degrees of the input signal cycle. share/E3/3-10B50000664000175000017500000000016214621207565011302 0ustar jtnjtn3-10B5 D In Figure 3B2, what is the voltage drop across R1? A. 1.2 volts. B. 2.4 volts. C. 3.7 volts. D. 9 volts. share/E3/3-56G50000664000175000017500000000033014621207566011317 0ustar jtnjtn3-56G5 C How can even-order harmonics be reduced or prevented in transmitter amplifier design? A. By using a push-push amplifier. B. By operating class C. C. By using a push-pull amplifier. D. By operating class AB. share/E3/3-69K60000664000175000017500000000115614621207566011337 0ustar jtnjtn3-69K6 C What is the main underlying operating principle of the Very-high-frequency Omnidirectional Range (VOR) aircraft navigational system? A. A definite amount of time is required to send and receive a radio signal. B. The difference between the peak values of two DC voltages may be used to determine an aircraft's altitude above a selected VOR station. C. A phase difference between two AC voltages may be used to determine an aircraft's azimuth position in relation to a selected VOR station. D. A phase difference between two AC voltages may be used to determine an aircraft's distance from a selected VOR station. share/E3/3-28C10000664000175000017500000000026414621207566011314 0ustar jtnjtn3-28C1 C What describes a diode junction that is forward biased? A. It is a high impedance. B. It conducts very little current. C. It is a low impedance. D. It is an open circuit. share/E3/3-4A10000664000175000017500000000023214621207565011216 0ustar jtnjtn3-4A1 B What formula would calculate the total inductance of inductors in series? A. LT = L1 / L2 B. LT = L1 + L2 C. LT = 1 / L1 + L2 D. LT = 1 / L1 x L2 share/E3/3-41F30000664000175000017500000000032514621207566011312 0ustar jtnjtn3-41F3 A What is the term used to refer to a reduction in receiver sensitivity caused by unwanted high-level adjacent channel signals? A. Desensitizing. B. Intermodulation distortion. C. Quieting. D. Overloading. share/E3/3-11B30000664000175000017500000000016614621207565011305 0ustar jtnjtn3-11B3 A What is the second harmonic of SSB frequency 4146 kHz? A. 8292 kHz. B. 4.146 MHz. C. 2073 kHz. D. 12438 kHz. share/E3/3-56G60000664000175000017500000000024314621207566011323 0ustar jtnjtn3-56G6 D What is the modulation type that can be a frequency hopping of one carrier or multiple simultaneous carriers? A. SSB. B. FM. C. OFSK. D. Spread spectrum. share/E3/3-92O40000664000175000017500000000041114621207567011327 0ustar jtnjtn3-92O4 D What pulse width and repetition rate should you use at long ranges? A. Narrow pulse width and slow repetition rate. B. Narrow pulse width and fast repetition rate. C. Wide pulse width and fast repetition rate. D. Wide pulse width and slow repetition rate. share/E3/3-79L50000664000175000017500000000035414621207566011337 0ustar jtnjtn3-79L5 B A "hot gas bonder" is used: A. To apply solder to the iron tip while it is heating the component. B. For non-contact melting of solder. C. To allow soldering both sides of the PC board simultaneously. D. To cure LCA adhesives. share/E3/3-82M40000664000175000017500000000026614621207566011333 0ustar jtnjtn3-82M4 D A TDMA radio uses what to carry the multiple conversations sequentially? A. Separate frequencies. B. Separate pilot tones. C. Separate power levels. D. Separate time slots. share/E3/3-47F50000664000175000017500000000046114621207566011323 0ustar jtnjtn3-47F5 A What is an advantage of a constant-k filter? A. It has high attenuation of signals at frequencies far removed from the pass band. B. It can match impedances over a wide range of frequencies. C. It uses elliptic functions. D. The ratio of the cutoff frequency to the trap frequency can be varied. share/E3/3-27C60000664000175000017500000000026614621207566011322 0ustar jtnjtn3-27C6 C What circuit component must be connected in series to protect an LED? A. Bypass capacitor to ground. B. Electrolytic capacitor. C. Series resistor. D. Shunt coil in series. share/E3/3-41F20000664000175000017500000000053214621207566011311 0ustar jtnjtn3-41F2 B What is the definition of the term "receiver desensitizing"? A. A burst of noise when the squelch is set too low. B. A reduction in receiver sensitivity because of a strong signal on a nearby frequency. C. A burst of noise when the squelch is set too high. D. A reduction in receiver sensitivity when the AF gain control is turned down. share/E3/3-43F60000664000175000017500000000020714621207566011316 0ustar jtnjtn3-43F6 B In Figure 3F15, which block diagram symbol (labeled 1 through 4) is used to represent a local oscillator? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 share/E3/3-20C10000664000175000017500000000062414621207565011303 0ustar jtnjtn3-20C1 D What factors determine the capacitance of a capacitor? A. Voltage on the plates and distance between the plates. B. Voltage on the plates and the dielectric constant of the material between the plates. C. Amount of charge on the plates and the dielectric constant of the material between the plates. D. Distance between the plates and the dielectric constant of the material between the plates. share/E3/3-69K50000664000175000017500000000074514621207566011341 0ustar jtnjtn3-69K5 B The amplitude modulated variable phase signal and the frequency modulated reference phase signal of a Very-high-frequency Omnidirectional Range (VOR) station used for aircraft navigation are synchronized so that both signals are in phase with each other at ____________ of the VOR station. A. 180 degrees South, true bearing position. B. 360 degrees North, magnetic bearing position. C. 180 degrees South, magnetic bearing position. D. 0 degrees North, true bearing position. share/E3/3-85N60000664000175000017500000000042214621207566011333 0ustar jtnjtn3-85N6 A How might an installer verify correct GPS sentence to marine DSC VHF radio? A. Look for latitude and longitude, plus speed, on VHF display. B. Press and hold the red distress button. C. Look for GPS confirmation readout. D. Ask for VHF radio check position report. share/E3/3-3A20000664000175000017500000000011614621207565011217 0ustar jtnjtn3-3A2 A What is the relative dielectric constant for air? A. 1 B. 2 C. 4 D. 0 share/E3/3-83M10000664000175000017500000000042414621207566011325 0ustar jtnjtn3-83M1 C What is a CODEC? A. A device to read Morse code. B. A computer operated digital encoding compandor. C. A coder/decoder IC or circuitry that converts a voice signal into a predetermined digital format for encrypted transmission. D. A voice amplitude compression chip. share/E3/3-14B40000664000175000017500000000057214621207565011312 0ustar jtnjtn3-14B4 C What is the meaning of the term "time constant of an RL circuit"? The time required for the: A. Current in the circuit to build up to 36.8% of the maximum value. B. Voltage in the circuit to build up to 63.2% of the maximum value. C. Current in the circuit to build up to 63.2% of the maximum value. D. Voltage in the circuit to build up to 36.8% of the maximum value. share/E3/3-48F50000664000175000017500000000034714621207566011327 0ustar jtnjtn3-48F5 D In a CTCSS controlled FM receiver, the CTCSS tone is filtered out after the: A. IF stage but before the mixer. B. Mixer but before the IF. C. IF but before the discriminator. D. Discriminator but before the audio section. share/E3/3-16B50000664000175000017500000000033014621207565011305 0ustar jtnjtn3-16B5 C In rectangular coordinates, what is the impedance of a network composed of a 0.01-microfarad capacitor in parallel with a 300-ohm resistor, at 50 kHz? A. 150 - j159 B. 150 + j159 C. 159 - j150 D. 159 + j150 share/E3/3-52G50000664000175000017500000000030414621207566011314 0ustar jtnjtn3-52G5 C The class AB amplifier output is present for what portion of the input cycle? A. Exactly 180 degrees. B. 360 degrees C. More than 180 but less than 360 degrees. D. Less than 180 degrees. share/E3/3-9B30000664000175000017500000000024214621207565011227 0ustar jtnjtn3-9B3 D If a current of 2 amperes flows through a 50-ohm resistor, what is the voltage across the resistor? A. 25 volts. B. 52 volts. C. 200 volts. D. 100 volts. share/E3/3-34E30000664000175000017500000000047114621207566011315 0ustar jtnjtn3-34E3 A What is a characteristic of an OR gate? A. Produces a logic "1" at its output if any input is logic "1". B. Produces a logic "0" at its output if any input is logic "1". C. Produces a logic "0" at its output if all inputs are logic "1". D. Produces a logic "1" at its output if all inputs are logic "0". share/E3/3-94O20000664000175000017500000000040014621207567011325 0ustar jtnjtn3-94O2 D Prior to testing any RADAR system, the operator should first: A. Check the system grounds. B. Assure the display unit is operating normally. C. Inform the airport control tower or ship's master. D. Assure no personnel are in front of the antenna. share/E3/3-37E30000664000175000017500000000070714621207566011322 0ustar jtnjtn3-37E3 A What is a monostable multivibrator? A. A circuit that can be switched momentarily to the opposite binary state and then returns after a set time to its original state. B. A "clock" circuit that produces a continuous square wave oscillating between 1 and 0. C. A circuit designed to store one bit of data in either the 0 or the 1 configuration. D. A circuit that maintains a constant output voltage, regardless of variations in the input voltage. share/E3/3-63J10000664000175000017500000000033114621207566011315 0ustar jtnjtn3-63J1 C Which of the following could cause a high standing wave ratio on a transmission line? A. Excessive modulation. B. An increase in output power. C. A detuned antenna coupler. D. Low power from the transmitter. share/E3/3-42F10000664000175000017500000000036614621207566011316 0ustar jtnjtn3-42F1 D How can selectivity be achieved in the front-end circuitry of a communications receiver? A. By using an audio filter. B. By using an additional RF amplifier stage. C. By using an additional IF amplifier stage. D. By using a preselector. share/E7/0000775000175000017500000000000014621747122010613 5ustar jtnjtnshare/E7/7-56H20000664000175000017500000000104014621747036011325 0ustar jtnjtn7-56H2 C How is a MSI (Maritime Safety Information) broadcast received by an Inmarsat-C SES that is engaged in communications? A. The broadcast message is missed and the Radio Operator must request a retransmission. B. The broadcast message is stored in the EGC memory and will automatically be printed at the conclusion of the ongoing traffic. C. There is no loss of information since broadcasts of "vital" messages will be repeated. D. The radio operator can request retransmission of messages missing from numeric serial number succession. share/E7/7-9B20000664000175000017500000000041614621747036011243 0ustar jtnjtn7-9B2 B What statement best describes demodulation? A. Detuning the receiver to remove interfering signals. B. Extracting intelligence from the radio carrier signal. C. Removing atmospheric noise from the signal. D. Separating the TELEX signals from the voice signals. share/E7/7-56H50000664000175000017500000000043614621747036011340 0ustar jtnjtn7-56H5 D What services are available through Enhanced Group Calls? A. Maritime Safety Information and vessel traffic lists. B. Hourly NOAA weather broadcasts from the NWS. C. Coastal weather broadcasts. D. Maritime Safety Information and messages to pre-defined groups of subscribers. share/E7/7-43F40000664000175000017500000000063114621747036011326 0ustar jtnjtn7-43F4 B Which of the following is normally part of 406 MHz satellite EPIRBs? A. A strobe light, automatic float-free bracket, 1-watt 406-MHz alert beacon. B. A 5-watt 406-MHz alert beacon, Automatic Hydrostatic Release (ARM), strobe light. C. Automatic float-free bracket, 5-watt 121.5 MHz homing beacon, strobe light. D. Automatic Hydrostatic Release (ARM), 1-watt 121.5 MHz alerting beacon, strobe light. share/E7/7-15C40000664000175000017500000000064214621747036011324 0ustar jtnjtn7-15C4 B Which of the following service or maintenance functions may NOT be performed by the holder of a GMDSS Radio Operator License? A. Reset tripped circuit breakers or replace defective fuses. B. Any adjustments or maintenance that may affect the proper operation of the station. C. Routine battery maintenance if used as part of the GMDSS station. D. Replacement of consumable items such as paper, ribbons, etc. share/E7/7-37E10000664000175000017500000000075214621747036011331 0ustar jtnjtn7-37E1 A Which of the following frequencies and modes is allocated for Distress alerting in GMDSS? A. 406 MHz via EPIRB, 1626.5-1645.5 MHz via Inmarsat and Channel 70 DSC plus six (6) MF/HF DSC frequencies. B. 1626.5-1645.5 MHz via Inmarsat, VHF CH-16 plus six (6) MF/HF DSC frequencies, 406 MHz via EPIRB. C. Channel 70 DSC plus six (6) MF/HF DSC frequencies, 7 voice follow-on and 6 telex follow-on frequencies. D. Mayday on VHF Channel 70 and the other six voice follow-on frequencies. share/E7/7-90J40000664000175000017500000000137314621747037011341 0ustar jtnjtn7-90J4 C For ARQ communications with a Public Correspondence Coast Station, which sequence of events best describes reaching the point in time where the text of TELEX communications should be sent. A. Transceiver setup, SELCAL selection, Initiate Call, wait for exchange of answer-backs (WRU-AAB), OPR+, operator entry of the appropriate automatic TELEX code. B. Transceiver setup, wait for exchange of answer-backs (WRU-AAB), OPR+, operator entry of the appropriate automatic TELEX code. C. Transceiver setup, SELCAL selection, Initiate Call, wait for exchange of answer-backs (WRU-AAB), GA+?, enter DIRTLX xy+, MOM, MSG+? and exchange of terminal answerbacks. D. Transceiver setup, wait for exchange of answer-backs (WRU-AAB), GA+? and then send message text. share/E7/7-100J20000664000175000017500000000075214621747037011407 0ustar jtnjtn7-100J2 C Which would indicate a malfunction in a 2182 kHz radiotelephone system? A. No discernable traffic has been heard on the 2182 kHz during the radiotelephone silent periods. B. Dramatic increase in noise level observed during night and early morning hours. C. Failure to contact another station 60 miles distant during daytime operation. D. The visual indication of power to the antenna fluctuates while testing the radiotelephone alarm signal generator into an artificial antenna. share/E7/7-4A30000664000175000017500000000111114621747035011226 0ustar jtnjtn7-4A3 D GMDSS-equipped ships will be required to perform which of the following communications functions? A. Distress alerting, MSI, SAR and On-scene communications & receipt of satellite alerts from other vessels. B. SAR and On-scene communications, Bridge-to-Bridge and general radio communications, MSI and relay of satellite alerts from other vessels. C. Bridge-to-Bridge and general radio communications, RDF of EPIRB homing signals, Distress alerting and MSI. D. Transmit distress alerts, SAR and On-scene communications, MSI, Bridge-to-Bridge and general radio communications. share/E7/7-20C20000664000175000017500000000060714621747036011317 0ustar jtnjtn7-20C2 C Which of the following statements is FALSE? A. Key letters or abbreviations may be used in GMDSS Radio Logbooks if their meaning is explained. B. Urgency communications may need to be entered in the GMDSS radio log. C. Distress communications heard do not require entries if the vessel did not participate in SAR activity. D. Log entries of VHF Safety broadcasts are not required. share/E7/7-96J40000664000175000017500000000066414621747037011351 0ustar jtnjtn7-96J4 A GMDSS operators should routinely focus on the factors affecting propagation in what priority? A. Distance & time of day, seasonal variations, sunspot cycle, solar flare alerts. B. Sunspot cycle, distance & time of day, seasonal variations, solar flare alerts. C. Solar flare alerts, distance & time of day, sunspot cycle, seasonal variations. D. Solar flare alerts, sunspot cycle, seasonal variations, distance & time of day. share/E7/7-29E10000664000175000017500000000070714621747036011332 0ustar jtnjtn7-29E1 A What is usually the first step for a GMDSS Radio Operator to take when initiating a Distress priority message via Inmarsat? A. By pressing a "Distress Button" or "Distress Hot Key(s)" on the equipment. B. By dialing the correct code on the telephone remote unit. C. By contacting the LES operator and announcing a Distress condition is in existence. D. By contacting the LES operator using the radiotelephone Distress procedure "Mayday"... etc. share/E7/7-15C50000664000175000017500000000077214621747036011331 0ustar jtnjtn7-15C5 B What are the conditions, under GMDSS, whereby a ship is NOT allowed to depart from any port? A. The vessel is carrying more than the required number of qualified GMDSS radio operators. B. The vessel is not capable of performing all required Distress and Safety functions. C. The vessel has a temporary waiver of its radio license and Safety Certificate. D. The vessel is not carrying a GMDSS radio maintainer, but has provided for shoreside maintenance plus duplication of equipment if required. share/E7/7-39F30000664000175000017500000000063014621747036011331 0ustar jtnjtn7-39F3 A How can a SART's detection and effective range be maximized? A. The SART should be held or mounted as high as possible and in a vertical position. B. The SART should be placed in water immediately so it will begin transmitting. C. Switch the SART into the "high" power position. D. If possible, the SART should be mounted horizontally so that its signal matches that of the searching radar signal. share/E7/7-17C30000664000175000017500000000041414621747036011322 0ustar jtnjtn7-17C3 C Which term describes the source of energy required to supply the GMDSS console with power if the ship's source of main or emergency energy fails? A. Emergency power B. Ship's emergency diesel generator C. Reserve Source of Energy D. Ship's standby generator share/E7/7-17C40000664000175000017500000000060314621747036011323 0ustar jtnjtn7-17C4 D What characteristics describe the GMDSS Reserve Source of Energy (RSE)? A. Supplies independent HF and MF installations at the same time. B. Cannot be independent of the propelling power of the ship. C. Must be incorporated into the ship's electrical system. D. Must be independent of the ship's electrical system when the RSE is needed to supply power to the GMDSS equipment. share/E7/7-98J60000664000175000017500000000051214621747037011345 0ustar jtnjtn7-98J6 D An incoming DSC Distress alert on 8414.5 kHz will have what result? A. The DSC controller will emit both an audible and visual alarm. B. The particulars of the alert may be printed out. C. The Distress information contained in the alert will be sent to the data directory. D. All of these answers would typically occur. share/E7/7-54H20000664000175000017500000000117614621747036011335 0ustar jtnjtn7-54H2 A What action should a GMDSS Radio Operator take when SafetyNETTM Distress or Urgency messages are received by the vessel's EGC receiver? A. Aural and/or visual alarms are activated and require manual deactivation. B. No immediate action is required, as an audible tone will be generated at the beginning and end of the transmission and a paper printout of the message will be generated. C. No immediate action is required by the operator, since the transmission will be automatically acknowledged by the receiving vessel. D. A periodic alarm tone will be heard until the radio operator prints the message from the unit's memory. share/E7/7-91J30000664000175000017500000000044514621747037011340 0ustar jtnjtn7-91J3 A What sequence of ARQ codes matches the following: Send synoptic weather, switch control from a station currently transmitting over to the receiving station, terminate phasing with coast station. A. OBS+, +?, BRK+ B. OBS+, WRU then Here is, BRK+ C. OBS+, GA+?, KKKK D. AMV+, +?, KKKK share/E7/7-50G20000664000175000017500000000033214621747036011321 0ustar jtnjtn7-50G2 A Which channel is utilized for the required Bridge-to-Bridge watch? A. VHF-FM on Ch-13 in most areas of the continental United States. B. DSC on Ch-70 C. VHF-FM on Ch-16 D. The vessel's VHF working frequency. share/E7/7-33E50000664000175000017500000000057014621747036011327 0ustar jtnjtn7-33E5 A What action should you take after sending a false or mistaken Distress alert on 12577.0 kHz? A. Make an "ALL STATIONS" call on the associated 12 MHz J3E frequency canceling the alert. B. No action is necessary. C. Make an "ALL STATIONS" call on all 5 H.F. TELEX frequencies canceling the alert. D. Send a message to the nearest RCC via Inmarsat canceling the alert. share/E7/7-16C20000664000175000017500000000131214621747036011316 0ustar jtnjtn7-16C2 C Which of the following statements concerning GMDSS Radio Operator requirements is FALSE? A. Each compulsory vessel must carry at least two licensed GMDSS Radio Operators at all times while at sea. B. Each compulsory vessel must carry at least two licensed GMDSS Radio Operators at all times while at sea and may elect to carry a GMDSS Radio Maintainer as well. C. All communications involving Safety of life at sea must be logged as long as the compulsory vessel was not involved in such communications. D. While at sea, adjustments to, and the maintaining of, GMDSS equipment may be performed by the GMDSS Radio Operator as long as the work is supervised by an on-board licensed GMDSS Radio Maintainer. share/E7/7-92J20000664000175000017500000000144014621747037011334 0ustar jtnjtn7-92J2 C What statement is true regarding the exchange between two parties engaged in SITOR (NBDP) communications? A. In ARQ, each character is transmitted twice, with the second displaced in time from the first. B. In ARQ, the "sending" station transmits a block of three characters and the "receiving" station responds with a one character Repeat Request. Following this the "transmitting" station will send a new block. C. In ARQ, the ISS transmits a block of 3 characters and the IRS checks for parity. If the received block is correct a one-character control signal is sent notifying the ISS to proceed with the next block. If the parity check fails the block must be resent. D. Broadcasts of Maritime Safety Information, traffic lists, etc. can be copied by the receiving station in ARQ mode. share/E7/7-10B40000664000175000017500000000034614621747036011317 0ustar jtnjtn7-10B4 C What is the signal transmitted in H3E mode? A. Two sidebands, upper and lower. B. A reduced carrier and the lower sideband. C. A full carrier and the upper sideband. D. A full carrier and both upper and lower sidebands. share/E7/7-40F20000664000175000017500000000153714621747036011327 0ustar jtnjtn7-40F2 C What radar display changes indicate the correct approach to a SART and what care should be taken in a SAR situation? A. The line of dots indicate the SART's position, the dots become increasing arcs as the distance to the SART lessens, rescuing vessels should increase speed to reach Distress more quickly. B. A line of dots on a radar screen rotates to indicate the SART's position along its line of bearing; rescuing vessels should steer for the center of the line of dots. C. The line of dots indicate the SART's position, the dots become increasing arcs as the distance to the SART lessens, rescuing vessels should reduce speed as the arcs get greater in degree. D. The line of dots indicate the SART's position, the dots become decreasing arcs as the distance to the SART lessens, rescuing vessels should reduce speed as the arcs lessen in degree. share/E7/7-1A20000664000175000017500000000050014621747035011223 0ustar jtnjtn7-1A2 B The primary purpose of the GMDSS is: A. Allow more effective control of SAR situations by vessels. B. Automate and improve emergency communications for the world's shipping industry. C. Provide additional shipboard systems for more effective company communications. D. Effective and inexpensive communications. share/E7/7-16C50000664000175000017500000000126214621747036011325 0ustar jtnjtn7-16C5 D Which of the following are personnel, functional, or equipment FCC requirements of the GMDSS? A. One FCC licensed GMDSS radio operator in sea areas A1 & A2, two FCC licensed GMDSS radio operators in sea areas A3 & A4 and equipment carriage based on intended sea area of operations. B. Distress alerting and response, two USCG STCW GMDSS watchstanders, equipment carriage based on intended sea area of operations. C. Equipment carriage reduced for sea areas A3 & A4, Distress alerting and response and two FCC licensed GMDSS radio operators. D. Equipment carriage based on intended sea area of operations, distress alerting and response and two FCC licensed GMDSS radio operators. share/E7/7-41F20000664000175000017500000000102114621747036011314 0ustar jtnjtn7-41F2 B Why is it important to limit the duration of testing a SART? A. Excessive testing causes "burn in" on the vessel's radar display. B. Testing in port or even at sea may cause interference to other radars or a test signal may be misinterpreted as a genuine Distress situation. C. To prevent overheating, a SART requires sufficient ventilation that is significantly reduced when the SART is being tested. D. If another SART is testing at the same time, the two signals will cause damage to the unit that transmitted them. share/E7/7-17C50000664000175000017500000000077414621747036011335 0ustar jtnjtn7-17C5 A What is the requirement for emergency and reserve power in GMDSS radio installations? A. Compulsory ships must have emergency and reserve power sources for radio communications. B. An emergency power source for radio communications is not required if a vessel has proper reserve power (batteries). C. A reserve power source is not required for radio communications. D. Only one of the above is required if a vessel is equipped with a second 406 EPIRB as a backup means of sending a Distress alert. share/E7/7-52H30000664000175000017500000000105514621747036011330 0ustar jtnjtn7-52H3 D Which of the following statements is true? A. No NAVTEX receiver can be programmed to reject category A, B, D and L messages since they are mandatory to be received via NAVTEX. B. Upon entering a new NAVTEX station's broadcast range, the GMDSS Radio Operator enters the station's SELCAL number. C. The GMDSS Radio Operator can select the "None" option in the message category menu. D. A GMDSS Radio Operator may choose to program certain NAVTEX receivers to reject category A, B, D and L messages if they are being received by another MSI system. share/E7/7-77I10000664000175000017500000000113614621747037011337 0ustar jtnjtn7-77I1 A Upon receipt of SafetyNETTM messages of the Distress or Urgency category on the ship's EGC receiver, what action is required by the GMDSS Radio Operator? A. Manually reset the alarm. B. No immediate action is required as an audible tone will be generated at the beginning and end of the transmission and a paper printout of the message will be generated. C. No immediate action is required by the operator since the transmission will be automatically acknowledged by the receiving vessel. D. A periodic alarm tone will be heard until the radio operator prints the message from the unit's memory. share/E7/7-10B30000664000175000017500000000025214621747036011312 0ustar jtnjtn7-10B3 B How many sidebands are present in the J3E mode? A. Two sidebands and a carrier. B. One upper sideband. C. One lower sideband. D. Two carriers and one sideband. share/E7/7-4A20000664000175000017500000000123614621747035011235 0ustar jtnjtn7-4A2 C Which GMDSS communication functions must all compulsory vessels be capable of performing to meet International Maritime Organization requirements? A. Distress alerting and receipt of Maritime Safety Information via Inmarsat for all vessels intending to operate in Sea Area A4. B. Distress alerting and receipt of MSI in Sea Areas A1, A2, A3, and A4 regardless of the vessel's intended area of operation. C. Distress alerting, general communications and receipt of Maritime Safety Information in the vessel's intended area of operation. D. General communications via Inmarsat and receipt of Maritime Safety Information via Enhanced Group Calling in Sea Area A4. share/E7/7-5A10000664000175000017500000000102014621747036011225 0ustar jtnjtn7-5A1 A Which statement is true regarding a vessel equipped with GMDSS equipment that will remain in Sea Area A1 at all times? A. The vessel must be provided with a radio installation capable of initiating the transmission of ship-to-shore Distress alerting from the position from which the ship is normally navigated. B. VHF DSC alerting may be the sole means of Distress alerting. C. HF or MF DSC may satisfy the equipment requirement. D. HF SSB with 2182 kHz automatic alarm generator may satisfy the equipment requirement. share/E7/7-98J50000664000175000017500000000027214621747037011347 0ustar jtnjtn7-98J5 C An incoming Distress priority 16 MHz DSC call requesting J3E emission might automatically switch to what frequency? A. 16420.0 MHz B. 16696.5 kHz C. 16420.0 kHz D. 16804.5 kHz share/E7/7-12B20000664000175000017500000000071314621747036011315 0ustar jtnjtn7-12B2 C Why is an antenna coupler/tuner required for MF-HF transmissions? A. The antenna coupler/tuner calculates the proper spectrum band for the operator to use. B. To ensure transmissions are restricted to legal marine frequencies. C. The length of the physically-fixed antenna must be electrically matched to the intended frequency of operation. D. The antenna coupler/tuner indicates whether the ionosphere is ready to reflect a transmission properly. share/E7/7-8B30000664000175000017500000000024114621747036011237 0ustar jtnjtn7-8B3 D Which of the following systems is least susceptible to fading or static interference? A. HF SITOR (NBDP) B. MF-HF DSC Controller C. VHF ARQ D. Inmarsat share/E7/7-91J40000664000175000017500000000101714621747037011335 0ustar jtnjtn7-91J4 B A manual ship-ship ARQ message would typically begin with what sequence of ARQ procedures? A. Initiate call with CS selcal, observe exchange of answer-backs (WRU-AAB), send message. B. Initiate call with ship selcal, enter "HERE IS" then "WRU" commands and send message. C. After phasing with the other vessel, observe exchange of answer-backs (WRU-AAB), send message and then KKKK to end the transmission. D. After phasing with the other vessel then send GA+? to determine if they are ready to receive your message. share/E7/7-25D60000664000175000017500000000037214621747036011330 0ustar jtnjtn7-25D6 B Which of the following would indicate an Inmarsat-C terminal? A. A 9-digit number beginning with the MID. B. A 9-digit number always starting with 4. C. A 9 digit number always starting with 970. D. A 9-digit number always starting with 3. share/E7/7-81J30000664000175000017500000000040414621747037011332 0ustar jtnjtn7-81J3 C For general communications purposes, paired frequencies are: A. Normally used with private coast stations. B. Normally used between ship stations. C. Normally used with public coast stations. D. Normally used between private coast and ship stations. share/E7/7-96J20000664000175000017500000000115414621747037011342 0ustar jtnjtn7-96J2 C GMDSS operators should learn which of the following propagation "rules of thumb"? A. Longer distance = lower frequency, Shorter distance = higher frequency; Daytime = higher frequency, nighttime = lower frequency. B. Longer distance = lower frequency, Shorter distance = lower frequency, Daytime = lower frequency, nighttime = higher frequency. C. Longer distance = higher frequency, Shorter distance = lower frequency, Daytime = higher frequency, nighttime = lower frequency. D. Longer distance = higher frequency, Shorter distance = higher frequency, Daytime = lower frequency, nighttime = higher frequency. share/E7/7-7B50000664000175000017500000000017014621747036011241 0ustar jtnjtn7-7B5 B What is the frequency range for Super High Frequency? A. 30-300 GHz B. 3-30 GHz C. 300-3,000 MHz D. 30-300 MHz share/E7/7-45F30000664000175000017500000000060514621747036011330 0ustar jtnjtn7-45F3 C Equipment for radiotelephony use in survival craft stations under GMDSS must have what characteristics? A. Permanently-affixed antenna, watertight, power 1W or 25W. B. Watertight, power a minimum of 1W, operation on CH-16, Ch-13 & Ch-70. C. Operation on Ch-16, watertight, permanently-affixed antenna. D. Operation on Ch-16, Ch-13 & Ch-70, power 1W, permanently-affixed antenna. share/E7/7-63I10000664000175000017500000000054414621747036011333 0ustar jtnjtn7-63I1 C Iridium satellites are in what sort of orbits? A. 4 satellites in near polar orbit to provide true global coverage. B. 66 satellites in geo-stationary orbit to provide true global coverage. C. 66 satellites in near polar orbit to provide true global coverage. D. 6 geo-stationary satellites providing coverage between 70N & 70S degrees latitude. share/E7/7-54H50000664000175000017500000000027214621747036011334 0ustar jtnjtn7-54H5 C SafetyNETTM messages can be received by which of the following shipboard equipment? A. NAVTEX B. MF and HF SITOR (NBDP) C. Inmarsat-C EGC receiver D. Inmarsat F77 EGC receiver share/E7/7-38E50000664000175000017500000000136014621747036011332 0ustar jtnjtn7-38E5 C Which statement is true regarding Distress communications under GMDSS? A. Distress communications by (SITOR) NBDP should be in the BFEC mode when in two-way communications with the Coast Guard or other coast radio stations. B. The Rescue Coordination Center may not appoint another station to coordinate Distress traffic relating to the incident. C. The Rescue Coordination Center (RCC) is responsible for controlling a search and rescue operation, will coordinate the Distress traffic relating to the incident and may appoint another station to manage the Distress traffic. D. Initial Distress communications by (SITOR) NBDP should be in the ARQ mode to broadcast them to the Coast Guard, other coast radio stations and other ship stations. share/E7/7-85J30000664000175000017500000000147514621747037011347 0ustar jtnjtn7-85J3 C What is the best procedure for calling another ship station using HF radiotelephone when the signals are weak but readable? A. Give the name of the ship being called three times, and the words "this is" followed by the name of the ship initiating the call three times, and ending with "over." B. Instruct the nearest public correspondence station to add the desired ship's call sign to the station's traffic list. C. On a properly selected ITU channel, give the call sign of the ship being called three times using phonetics, then "this is" followed by the call sign of the ship initiating the call three times, using phonetics, and ending with "over." D. Notify the local vessel traffic service control station of your intention to contact a specific vessel and request the VTS operator place the call on channel 22A. share/E7/7-21D40000664000175000017500000000015514621747036011321 0ustar jtnjtn7-21D4 D Which of the following is the call sign for a U.S.C.G. coast station? A. NERK B. KPH C. WCC D. NMN share/E7/7-59I50000664000175000017500000000066714621747036011352 0ustar jtnjtn7-59I5 B On an Inmarsat-C system, what is the importance of a successful "SYNC" indication after power up? A. The system is not yet locked on to the NCS signal until a log-in command is performed. B. Sufficient signal strength on the NCS common channel is being received. C. There is company telex traffic being received on the NCS common channel. D. The NCS has confirmed log-in status is on so routine traffic can be sent and received. share/E7/7-49G20000664000175000017500000000027114621747036011333 0ustar jtnjtn7-49G2 B At mid-day, what would be the best choice in attempting to communicate with a shore station 15 miles distant? A. 16 MHz band B. 156-164 MHz band C. 12 MHz band D. 22 MHz band share/E7/7-36E60000664000175000017500000000047714621747036011341 0ustar jtnjtn7-36E6 A Which of the following situations would normally use the Safety priority? A. A scenario concerning an important navigational or meteorological warning. B. A serious medical situation involving a crewmember. C. A crewmember falling over the side. D. Important company communications involving weather routing. share/E7/7-46F50000664000175000017500000000030714621747036011332 0ustar jtnjtn7-46F5 C "On-scene" communications would best be represented by? A. Using Inmarsat-C "hot-key" function B. Sending DSC alert on VHF Ch-70 C. SITOR (NBDP) on 2174.5 kHz D. SITOR (NBDP) on 4125.0 kHz share/E7/7-70I60000664000175000017500000000070714621747037011340 0ustar jtnjtn7-70I6 D What is an advantage of the Iridium system for placing ship-ship calls? A. Iridium terminals are compatible with the Inmarsat system for maximum flexibility. B. All ship-ship calls are passed through Iridium ground stations and then forwarded to the other ship. C. Ships-ship calls are routed through the satellites and passed through ground stations. D. Iridium satellites can pass the calls directly to the other ship using gateway signaling. share/E7/7-65I50000664000175000017500000000062514621747036011341 0ustar jtnjtn7-65I5 A With an Inmarsat-C LES, how are messages routed to receiving stations? A. All messages are forwarded via a store and forward network. B. Direct connections are made to the receiving stations via gateways. C. Intermediary stations are used to connect the sending station with the receiving station in a real-time mode. D. Messages are stored until the network is polled by the receiving station. share/E7/7-100J50000664000175000017500000000072614621747037011413 0ustar jtnjtn7-100J5 D Your antenna coupler/tuner becomes totally inoperative. What would you do to obtain operation on 2 HF bands? A. Without an operating antenna coupler/tuner, transmission is impossible. B. It is impossible to obtain operation on 2 different HF bands, without an operating antenna coupler/tuner. C. Bypass the antenna coupler/tuner and shorten the whip to 15 ft. D. Bypass the antenna coupler/tuner. Use a straight whip or wire antenna approximately 30 ft long. share/E7/7-5A20000664000175000017500000000056614621747036011244 0ustar jtnjtn7-5A2 B What statement is true regarding the additional equipment carriage requirement imposed for the survival craft of vessels over 500 gross tons? A. Additional carriage of two radio equipped lifeboats aft. B. A second radar transponder is required. C. Four additional portable VHF radios are required. D. The ability to communicate in all modes with any shore station. share/E7/7-50G40000664000175000017500000000077614621747036011337 0ustar jtnjtn7-50G4 C The USA-INT control on VHF units: A. Selects duplex operations for U.S. coastal waters and simplex operations in non-U.S. waters, on the "alpha" channels. B. Ensures that the "alpha" channels are correctly set to duplex for use in U.S. waters & on VTS channels. C. Changes selected international duplex channels to simplex channels for use in U.S. waters, on the "alpha" channels. D. Changes selected international simplex channels to duplex channels for use in U.S. waters, on the "alpha" channels. share/E7/7-99J50000664000175000017500000000054314621747037011351 0ustar jtnjtn7-99J5 B What is the effect of temperature on the specific gravity of lead acid batteries? A. Higher temperature results in a higher specific gravity reading. B. Higher temperature results in a lower specific gravity reading. C. Temperature has no effect on the specific gravity reading. D. Lower temperature results in a lower specific gravity reading. share/E7/7-55H50000664000175000017500000000103314621747036011331 0ustar jtnjtn7-55H5 B To receive all mandatory MSI using the SafetyNETTM system the vessel must: A. Notify the NAVAREA coordinator you are using SafetyNETTM for the receipt of MSI (Maritime Safety Information). B. Log-in and ensure the position is accurate to receive MSI for the NAVAREA the vessel is currently within. C. Set the receiver to your destination Inmarsat Ocean Region. D. Notify the NAVAREA coordinator you are using SafetyNETTM for the receipt of MSI (Maritime Safety Information) and set the receiver to your destination Ocean Region. share/E7/7-6A40000664000175000017500000000110114621747036011231 0ustar jtnjtn7-6A4 C What statement is correct regarding the maintenance requirements for A3 ships under GMDSS? A. If the vessel selects at-sea maintenance no additional parts and spares are required. B. On-board maintenance provided by a person holding a GMDSS Maintainer's license will fully meet the requirements. C. Redundancy of functions of certain equipment and on-board maintenance provided by a person holding a GMDSS Maintainer's license will partially meet this requirement. D. Shoreside maintenance and scheduled tests and inspections will not partially meet this requirement. share/E7/7-46F40000664000175000017500000000034214621747036011330 0ustar jtnjtn7-46F4 C Which of the following frequencies has NOT been designated for GMDSS "On-scene" or SAR communications? A. VHF Ch-16 B. MF radiotelephony on 2182.0 kHz C. SITOR (NBDP) on 2182.0 kHz D. HF radiotelephony on 4125.0 kHz share/E7/7-18C20000664000175000017500000000070314621747036011323 0ustar jtnjtn7-18C2 A Which statement concerning the testing of a compulsory radiotelephone station is FALSE? A. Calling the USCG on VHF CH-16 or 2182.0 kHz is the most effective method. B. Tests may be accomplished by using the equipment for normal business. C. A daily test is necessary unless the equipment was used for routine traffic. D. The test may not interfere with communications in progress and must wait or be suspended if a request to do so is made. share/E7/7-99J60000664000175000017500000000076614621747037011361 0ustar jtnjtn7-99J6 C What would be an indication of a malfunction on a GMDSS station with a 24 VDC battery system? A. All of these symptoms would indicate a potential battery charger malfunction. B. After testing the station on battery power, a voltmeter reading of 30 volts for a brief period followed by a steady 26 volt reading. C. A constant 30 volt reading on the GMDSS console voltmeter. D. After testing the station on battery power, the ammeter reading indicates a high rate of charge that then declines. share/E7/7-28D60000664000175000017500000000016714621747036011335 0ustar jtnjtn7-28D6 A How many HF DSC Distress watch channels must be guarded by a compulsory vessel underway. A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 6 share/E7/7-15C10000664000175000017500000000054414621747036011322 0ustar jtnjtn7-15C1 C Which of the following maintenance functions is NOT the responsibility of the GMDSS Radio Operator? A. Visual inspection of equipment, including the antenna and associated components. B. Perform on-the-air verification checks. C. Aligning the power output stage for maximum power. D. Perform scheduled testing of the battery's charged condition. share/E7/7-86J50000664000175000017500000000115614621747037011346 0ustar jtnjtn7-86J5 C To make a call to another vessel requesting voice communications regarding important company business, the GMDSS operator should: A. Select Routine priority, enter other vessel's MMSI, specify legal alternate frequency, J2B emission and transmit the properly formatted DSC call. B. Select Routine priority, enter own vessel's MMSI, specify legal alternate frequency, J3E emission and transmit the properly formatted DSC call. C. None of these answers is correct. D. Select Urgency priority, enter other vessel's MMSI, specify legal alternate frequency, F1B emission and transmit the properly formatted DSC call. share/E7/7-29E50000664000175000017500000000073714621747036011341 0ustar jtnjtn7-29E5 A For a MF/HF DSC Distress alert which statement is FALSE? A. It always requests J3E Voice follow-on communications so other vessels can hear the Mayday. B. It will send the minimal necessary information using the "Distress Button" or "Distress Hot Key." C. It will send a more detailed Distress format if time permits and operator data entries are correctly performed. D. It does not contain all the information normally of interest in On-scene Distress communications. share/E7/7-75I40000664000175000017500000000077714621747037011352 0ustar jtnjtn7-75I4 B What is the best way to use Iridium to alert an RCC of a Distress and then follow-up with voice SAR communications? A. Using the combo Alert/voice feature and then dial the telephone number of the RCC. B. Using the combo Alert/Voice feature. The terminal will initiate a Distress voice call to the RCC, C. It is necessary to wait until the RCC receives the Alert requesting they initiate a voice call to the vessel. D. First use the Alert feature and then wait for the RCC to call back to the vessel. share/E7/7-98J10000664000175000017500000000070414621747037011343 0ustar jtnjtn7-98J1 D The Distress Alarm sounds and the screen readout no longer contains the particulars of the Distress: A. The particulars are rarely routed to the printer so it is of no use to examine the printer. B. Examine the Transmitted Data Directory or the printer to recover the information. C. Call the Distress vessel on the DSC frequency and request a retransmission. D. Examine the Received Data Directory or the printer to recover the information. share/E7/7-58H10000664000175000017500000000022514621747036011332 0ustar jtnjtn7-58H1 D Which NAVAREA is associated with the western North Atlantic and the Caribbean Sea? A. NAVAREA X B. NAVAREA XI C. NAVAREA XII D. NAVAREA IV share/E7/7-69I30000664000175000017500000000060314621747037011340 0ustar jtnjtn7-69I3 C To request medical assistance from Inmarsat via voice what would be the correct procedure? A. Enter 36# and then the phone number for the Inmarsat medical advisory system. B. Enter 32# and then the phone number for the Inmarsat medical advisory system. C. Enter 32# to request the Inmarsat medical advisory system. D. Enter 32+ to request the Inmarsat medical advisory system. share/E7/7-85J40000664000175000017500000000126714621747037011347 0ustar jtnjtn7-85J4 D What is the correct procedure for calling a coast radio station using HF radiotelephone? A. On a properly selected ITU channel, give the name of the coast radio station being called three times, and the words "this is" followed by the name of the ship initiating the call three times, and ending with "over". B. Contact the nearest U.S.C.G. station to add the desired ship's call sign to the station's traffic list. C. Request the VTS operator place the call on channel 22A. D. On a correct ITU channel, give the call sign of the coast radio station three times using phonetics, the words "this is", followed by the ship's call sign three times using phonetics and ending with "over". share/E7/7-92J40000664000175000017500000000035414621747037011341 0ustar jtnjtn7-92J4 A Which of the following is true of SITOR (NBDP) ARQ mode? A. This is an interactive mode. B. Each character is repeated three times. C. Each character is transmitted twice. D. This mode is generally used to broadcast messages. share/E7/7-29E40000664000175000017500000000026114621747036011330 0ustar jtnjtn7-29E4 D Repetition of a DSC Distress alert is normally automatic if not acknowledged after a delay of: A. 2 - 5 minutes B. 10-15 minutes C. 1 - 2 minutes D. 3.5 - 4.5 minutes share/E7/7-90J20000664000175000017500000000074714621747037011343 0ustar jtnjtn7-90J2 A During SITOR (NBDP) ARQ operations through a coast station, what should the GMDSS operator do during the "Automatic Exchange of Answerbacks"? A. Do nothing other than wait for a GA+? prompt and then issue the desired command. B. Send a "WRU" then a "Here is" when requested to do so by the coast station. C. Send the necessary message file and then wait for time and charges. D. Wait for the coast station to transmit a menu of possible commands and select the desired action. share/E7/7-96J10000664000175000017500000000055714621747037011347 0ustar jtnjtn7-96J1 B The "short rules" of propagation necessary to select the appropriate frequency band are: A. Shorter distance = Higher Frequency, Daytime = Higher Frequency. B. Shorter distance = Lower Frequency, Daytime = Higher Frequency. C. Shorter distance = Higher Frequency, Daytime = Lower Frequency. D. Shorter distance = Lower Frequency, Daytime = Lower Frequency. share/E7/7-68I20000664000175000017500000000064014621747036011336 0ustar jtnjtn7-68I2 C Which Inmarsat Earth stations would be available for Inmarsat-C traffic if the vessel is off the Atlantic Coast of the United States and tracking the AOR-E satellite? A. Fucino (Italy), Nakhoda (Russia) or Haiphong (Vietnam). B. Santa Paula (USA), Beijing (P.R.C.), Sentosa (Singapore). C. Southbury (USA), Burum (Netherlands), or EIK (Norway). D. Haiphong (Vietnam), Burum (Netherlands), or EIK (Norway). share/E7/7-79I60000664000175000017500000000044414621747037011347 0ustar jtnjtn7-79I6 C Which functions may the holder of a GMDSS Radio Operator License not perform on the Inmarsat-C equipment? A. Selection of LES for routine traffic. B. Maintain the antenna clear of soot, paint, etc. C. Adjust the azimuth and elevation values. D. Logon, traffic and logoff functions. share/E7/7-5A50000664000175000017500000000055314621747035011242 0ustar jtnjtn7-5A5 A If operating within Ocean Area A1, and outside of NAVTEX coverage, a GMDSS-equipped vessel must carry: A. Equipment capable of reception of Maritime Safety Information by the Inmarsat enhanced group call system, or HF SITOR (NBDP). B. A GPS receiver. C. Equipment capable of maintaining a continuous DSC watch on 2187.5 kHz. D. An Inmarsat-F77 terminal. share/E7/7-100J60000664000175000017500000000066214621747037011413 0ustar jtnjtn7-100J6 A Your MF-HF whip antenna breaks off and is carried away in a storm. What would you do to regain operation on MF-HF frequencies? A. Rig a wire antenna approximately 35-40 ft long per the equipment instruction manual. B. Rig a wire antenna 10-15 ft long from the antenna coupler/tuner to the highest vertical support. C. Rig a horizontal, center-fed dipole antenna 40 ft long. D. Rig a long wire antenna at least 200 ft long. share/E7/7-83J10000664000175000017500000000051214621747037011332 0ustar jtnjtn7-83J1 C Which statement regarding bandwidth and channel spacing is correct: A. Bandwidth values are a function of channel spacing values. B. Channel spacing values are not a function of bandwidth values. C. Channel spacing values are a function of bandwidth values. D. Bandwidth & channel values do not vary with emission mode. share/E7/7-54H30000664000175000017500000000040114621747036011324 0ustar jtnjtn7-54H3 B What system can provide an automated service in coastal waters where it may not be feasible to establish the NAVTEX service or where shipping density is too low to warrant its implementation? A. AMVER B. SafetyNETTM C. VHF DSC D. ARQ SITOR (NBDP) share/E7/7-42F50000664000175000017500000000072414621747036011331 0ustar jtnjtn7-42F5 C Which of the following statements concerning the EPIRB system is true? A. GOES weather satellites will provide alerting with complete worldwide coverage. B. COSPAS-SARSAT satellites always provides a distress alert and position report within 10 minutes of reception. C. 406 MHz EPIRBs equipped with GPS receivers will transmit a distress alert and position. D. The GPS satellite system will relay an alert and position report within 20 minutes of reception. share/E7/7-56H30000664000175000017500000000034614621747036011336 0ustar jtnjtn7-56H3 D Which of the following provides a unique automated system capable of addressing messages to predetermined groups of ships or all vessels in both fixed and variable geographic areas? A. NAVTEX B. AFRTS C. NAVAREAs D. EGC share/E7/7-76I20000664000175000017500000000107014621747037011334 0ustar jtnjtn7-76I2 C What information should be sent in a detailed satellite Distress message that was not included in the initial "hot-key" Distress Alert? A. Name/Call sign of vessel, vessel position, vessel description, all vessel I.D. numbers, LES code for Distress traffic. B. POB, vessel description, all vessel I.D. numbers, shore contact numbers, vessel position. C. Name/Call sign of vessel, POB, vessel description, all vessel I.D. numbers and shore contact numbers. D. Name/Call sign of vessel, nature of Distress, POB, vessel description and all vessel I.D. numbers. share/E7/7-84J10000664000175000017500000000060414621747037011335 0ustar jtnjtn7-84J1 B For RF communications, "modulation" is best defined as: A. Using a single carrier frequency with the proper power level. B. The combination of information or intelligence on to a radio carrier frequency. C. Setting up the transceiver with the correct bandwidth to ensure proper communications. D. The combination of the received frequency and oscillator frequency in the mixer. share/E7/7-1A10000664000175000017500000000103714621747035011230 0ustar jtnjtn7-1A1 A What is the fundamental concept of the GMDSS? A. GMDSS utilizes automated systems and satellite technology to improve emergency communications for the world's shipping industry. B. It is intended to automate and improve existing digital selective calling procedures and techniques. C. It is intended to provide more effective but lower cost commercial communications. D. It is intended to provide compulsory vessels with a collision avoidance system when they are operating in waters that are also occupied by non-compulsory vessels. share/E7/7-18C50000664000175000017500000000057414621747036011334 0ustar jtnjtn7-18C5 C The best way to test the MF-HF SITOR (NBDP) system is: A. Make a radiotelephone call to a coast station. B. Initiate an ARQ call to demonstrate that the transmitter and antenna are working. C. Initiate an ARQ call to a Coast Station and wait for the automatic exchange of answerbacks. D. Initiate an FEC call to demonstrate that the transmitter and antenna are working. share/E7/7-27D30000664000175000017500000000127414621747036011331 0ustar jtnjtn7-27D3 A What does the DSC control unit do if the GMDSS Radio Operator fails to insert updated information when initiating a DSC Distress alert? A. It will initiate the DSC Distress alert and default information will automatically be transmitted. B. It will abort the transmission and set off an audible alarm that must be manually reset. C. It will initiate the DSC Distress alert but, as no information will be transmitted, rescue personnel will not be able to identify the vessel, its position, or its situation. D. It will initiate the DSC Distress alert, but any station receiving it will have to establish contact with the distressed vessel to determine its identity, position, and situation. share/E7/7-39F60000664000175000017500000000025514621747036011337 0ustar jtnjtn7-39F6 C A SART's signal cannot be detected: A. In poor visibility, or at night. B. In heavy seas. C. By a search vessel's 10-CM Radar. D. By a search vessel's 3-CM Radar. share/E7/7-37E30000664000175000017500000000015714621747036011332 0ustar jtnjtn7-37E3 C Which channel is designated for GMDSS Digital Selective Calling? A. Ch-06 B. Ch-16 C. Ch-70 D. Ch-83 share/E7/7-81J10000664000175000017500000000060314621747037011331 0ustar jtnjtn7-81J1 A How are paired SITOR (NBDP) frequencies normally used? A. These are normally used for ARQ communications with coast radio stations. B. These are normally used for FEC communications with coast radio stations. C. These are normally used only for Distress communications to limit channel interference. D. These are normally used for DSC communications with coast radio stations. share/E7/7-69I60000664000175000017500000000042014621747036011337 0ustar jtnjtn7-69I6 B Which of the following is a correct dialing sequence for a F77 vessel tracking the AOR-W satellite to make a voice call to an Iridium terminal via Yamaguchi (Japan)? A. 001# 00881623456789# B. 003# 00881623456789# C. 003# 11870767588992# D. 001# 00870987654321# share/E7/7-62I50000664000175000017500000000061714621747036011337 0ustar jtnjtn7-62I5 C What factors bear on the choice of NCS on an Inmarsat terminal? A. NAVAREA weather patterns, shore-ship routine communications, signal strength. B. Best email provider, preventing interference in port, Distress SAR choices. C. Signal strength, Distress SAR choices, choice of MSI NAVAREAS. D. Minimize overlapping footprint coverage, reduce ship-ship message costs, receive BALD warnings. share/E7/7-62I10000664000175000017500000000105214621747036011325 0ustar jtnjtn7-62I1 D What is the primary function of an NCS? A. To provide direct communications between the Inmarsat station placing a call and the station receiving the call. B. To provide multi-mode communications between the Inmarsat station placing a call and the coast radio station that will deliver it. C. To determine which satellite is best suited to provide communications between the Inmarsat station placing a call and the station receiving the call. D. To monitor and control communications through the Inmarsat satellite for which it is responsible. share/E7/7-25D10000664000175000017500000000030014621747036011312 0ustar jtnjtn7-25D1 A You receive a TELEX with the sender's I.D. of 433863491. What type of terminal sent this message to your vessel? A. Inmarsat-C B. Land TELEX terminal C. Inmarsat-F77 D. Inmarsat-FBB share/E7/7-94J40000664000175000017500000000103014621747037011333 0ustar jtnjtn7-94J4 C The sequence ARQ, FEC, SFEC best corresponds to which of the following sequences? A. One-way communications to a single station, one-way communications to all stations, two-way communications. B. One-way communications to all stations, two-way communications, one-way communications to a single station. C. Two-way communications, one-way communications to all stations, one-way communications to a single station. D. Two-way communications, One-way communications to a single station, One-way communications to all stations. share/E7/7-83J50000664000175000017500000000021414621747037011335 0ustar jtnjtn7-83J5 B Communications with an emission of F1B/J2B would typically have a channel spacing of: A. 0.3 kHz B. 0.5 kHz C. 2.8 kHz D. 3.0 kHz share/E7/7-30E50000664000175000017500000000100014621747036011311 0ustar jtnjtn7-30E5 C What information should be included in a Distress follow on voice transmission after a DSC Alert? A. Ship's Name and Call Sign, MMSI number, DSC frequency used and any other information that might facilitate rescue. B. Ship's position, Ship's IMN, the nature of distress and assistance requested. C. Ship's Name and Call Sign, MMSI number & position, the nature of distress and assistance requested. D. Ship's Name and Call sign, repeat IMN, provide any other information that might facilitate rescue. share/E7/7-24D10000664000175000017500000000035514621747036011323 0ustar jtnjtn7-24D1 B Which of the following would indicate a standard AIS SART? A. A 9-digit number beginning with 3. B. A 9-digit number always starting with 970. C. A 9 digit number beginning with 974. D. A 9-digit number always starting with 4. share/E7/7-57H30000664000175000017500000000031714621747036011335 0ustar jtnjtn7-57H3 C The U.S. Coast Guard communications station providing HF MSI (Maritime Safety Information) broadcast coverage for NAVAREA XII is: A. NMA (Miami) B. NMF (Boston) C. NMO (Honolulu) D. NMR (San Juan) share/E7/7-32E20000664000175000017500000000063514621747036011325 0ustar jtnjtn7-32E2 C Your ship received a Distress relay from a coast station on DSC VHF channel 70. What action should the watch officer take? A. Retransmit the DSC call on Ch-70 to other vessels in the vicinity. B. Monitor Ch-06 to determine if there are any genuine Distress communications. C. Monitor Ch-16 to determine if there are any genuine Distress communications. D. Transmit a voice "Mayday Relay" call on Ch-13. share/E7/7-27D50000664000175000017500000000057614621747036011337 0ustar jtnjtn7-27D5 B In all cases, the transmit frequency of a MF/HF console DSC Distress alert: A. Will always go out first on 2187.5 kHz to reach nearby vessels. B. Depends upon operator DSC Call set up entries or manufacturer's defaults. C. Will go out on 8 MHz and 2 MHz and one other DSC Distress frequency. D. Will always go out first on 8414.5 kHz to ensure receipt by a coast station. share/E7/7-91J60000664000175000017500000000020314621747037011333 0ustar jtnjtn7-91J6 C All country codes which are transmitted by MF/HF SITOR (NBDP) are preceded by which character(s)? A. 00 B. + C. 0 D. DIR share/E7/7-32E30000664000175000017500000000064414621747036011326 0ustar jtnjtn7-32E3 D Under what condition would you not relay a DSC Distress alert? A. If the mobile unit in Distress is incapable of further Distress alert communications. B. If no Coast Station/Mobile Unit acknowledgement of the alert is observed. C. No distress traffic has been heard and the DSC alert is unacknowledged via DSC. D. A coast station DSC acknowledgment of the original Distress alert was received by your vessel. share/E7/7-82J20000664000175000017500000000017514621747037011337 0ustar jtnjtn7-82J2 A Which of the following is a valid 22-MHz ITU Channel? A. HF Ch-2206 B. VHF Ch-22 C. Ch-22A VTS D. Ch-70 (DSC only) share/E7/7-59I20000664000175000017500000000116114621747036011335 0ustar jtnjtn7-59I2 D What action should always be taken before powering down an Inmarsat-C terminal or leaving one satellite footprint for another? A. An Inmarsat-C system must never be powered down or mandatory MSI messages will be lost. B. Send a message to the NCS advising arrival in port or request the NCS log your terminal in with the new satellite. C. No action is required -- the terminal will automatically log in with the new satellite when the NCS common channel is detected or after power up. D. Log out with the current NCS to inform them you are off the air or to enable a proper log in procedure with the new satellite. share/E7/7-22D40000664000175000017500000000020114621747036011312 0ustar jtnjtn7-22D4 C Which of the following numbers indicates a U.S. flag ship station? A. 036627934 B. 243537672 C. 338426791 D. 003382315 share/E7/7-15C20000664000175000017500000000072714621747036011326 0ustar jtnjtn7-15C2 D When may a compulsory vessel NOT be allowed to leave port? A. When the vessel is in an over-carriage condition. B. When the vessel has arranged for both duplication of equipment and shore-based maintenance. C. When the vessel is carrying only two licensed GMDSS Radio Operators and is capable of performing all required functions. D. When the vessel has replaced a required piece of GMDSS-related equipment, but its performance has not been verified or logged. share/E7/7-40F50000664000175000017500000000066614621747036011334 0ustar jtnjtn7-40F5 D How can vessel personnel detect the operation of a SART in its vicinity? A. A unique two-tone "warbling" signal heard on VHF-FM Ch-70. B. It will activate an AIS new signal alarm on the AIS receiver. C. The SART signal appears as a target that comes and goes--due to the effect of heavy swells on a SART. D. A unique 3-CM signal consisting of a 12-dot pattern radiating outward from a SART's position along its line of bearing. share/E7/7-48F30000664000175000017500000000071514621747036011335 0ustar jtnjtn7-48F3 D Which GMDSS equipment is best suited to simultaneous long-range communications with an RCC/coast station and OSC vessels or SAR aircraft? A. MF-HF SITOR (NBDP) transmitters using telex follow on frequencies. B. Inmarsat Signals routed via the RCC to the SAR vessels & aircraft under their control. C. VHF transmitters to reach SAR aircraft and OSC vessels as well as the RCC/coast station. D. MF-HF SSB transmitters using voice follow-on frequencies. share/E7/7-75I30000664000175000017500000000064414621747037011342 0ustar jtnjtn7-75I3 A How is an Iridium Distress alert routed to the correct RCC? A. The RCC is determined by the geographical area of the vessel or chosen manually by the ship's officers. B. By dialing the correct code on the telephone remote unit. C. By contacting the LES operator and announcing a Distress condition is in progress. D. By contacting the LES operator using the radiotelephone Distress procedure "Mayday" ... etc. share/E7/7-1A30000664000175000017500000000102714621747035011231 0ustar jtnjtn7-1A3 C What is the basic concept of GMDSS? A. Shoreside authorities will rely on reports from nearby vessels to become aware of Distress alerts. B. Shoreside authorities and vessels can assist in a coordinated SAR operation only after the correct chain of DSC relays takes place. C. SAR authorities ashore can be alerted to a Distress situation & shipping in the vicinity can be requested to participate in SAR operations. D. SAR authorities ashore wait to have EPIRB Distress alerts confirmed by satellite follow-on communications. share/E7/7-88J10000664000175000017500000000065514621747037011347 0ustar jtnjtn7-88J1 B Which of the following statements concerning SITOR (NBDP) communications is true? A. ARQ transmissions are acknowledged by the Information Receiving Station only at the end of the message. B. ARQ transmissions are made in data groups consisting of three-character blocks. C. ARQ communications rely upon error correction by time diversity transmission and reception. D. Forward error correction is an interactive mode. share/E7/7-89J20000664000175000017500000000130514621747037011342 0ustar jtnjtn7-89J2 B Once ARQ communication with the coast radio station has been established, which of the following events will most likely take place? A. The vessel then requests the coast radio station's SELCAL so that communication can be set up on the appropriate working channel. B. After exchanging answer-backs (WRU-AAB) with the vessel, the coast radio station transmits GA+?. C. Since communication has already shifted to the working channel, the vessel then transmits the subscriber number and text of the message to be sent for the coast radio station to store and forward. D. The coast radio station will transmit a menu of commands such as DIRTLX+, OBS+ or AMV+ so the ship can select the desired action. share/E7/7-100J30000664000175000017500000000114614621747037011406 0ustar jtnjtn7-100J3 D Which would indicate proper operation of a SSB transmitter rated at 60 Watt PEP output in J3E mode? A. In SITOR (NBDP) communications, the power meter can be seen fluctuating regularly from zero to the 60 watt relative output reading. B. In SSB (J3E) mode, speaking into the microphone causes the power meter to fluctuate well above the 60 watt reading. C. A steady indication of transmitted energy on an RF power meter with no fluctuations when speaking into the microphone. D. In SSB (J3E) voice mode, with the transmitter keyed but without speaking into the microphone, no power output is indicated. share/E7/7-31E60000664000175000017500000000054314621747036011326 0ustar jtnjtn7-31E6 C What action should be taken if a Distress alert is received on the 12 MHz DSC frequency? A. Use DSC to acknowledge/relay the alert using the 12 MHz DSC frequency. B. Do nothing. Ship is too far away to render assistance. C. Set the transceiver to 12290.0 kHz simplex J3E emission. D. Set the transceiver to 12520.0 kHz simplex F1B/J2B emission. share/E7/7-37E40000664000175000017500000000015614621747036011332 0ustar jtnjtn7-37E4 D How many MF frequencies are available for DSC Distress related calls? A. Five B. Four C. Two D. One share/E7/7-71I30000664000175000017500000000032314621747037011330 0ustar jtnjtn7-71I3 A Which of the following is a correctly formatted Inmarsat-C address book entry for sending TELEX communications to a vessel in the POR? A. 582436559121 B. 870436559121 C. 582436559121+ D. 583436559121+ share/E7/7-44F60000664000175000017500000000027514621747036011335 0ustar jtnjtn7-44F6 A Which device provides the best method to locate a ship in Distress or survival craft in the GMDSS? A. Satellite EPIRBs B. Radio Direction Finder C. MF/HF DSC D. VHF homing device share/E7/7-68I60000664000175000017500000000062614621747036011346 0ustar jtnjtn7-68I6 A Which Inmarsat Earth Stations could a vessel utilize for Inmarsat-C traffic if operating on a voyage from Diego Garcia to the Persian Gulf and synched to the IOR satellite? A. Southbury (USA), Burum (Netherlands), Eik (Norway). B. Santa Paula (USA), Fucino (Italy) or Eik (Norway). C. Southbury (USA), Santa Paula (USA) or Fucino (Italy). D. Southbury, (USA), Fucino (Italy) or Beijing (P.R.C.). share/E7/7-84J20000664000175000017500000000063014621747037011335 0ustar jtnjtn7-84J2 C For RF communications, "bandwidth" is best defined as: A. The modulation technique required to ensure proper ITU channel spacing. B. The emission designation resulting from the desired modulation technique. C. The portion of the radio spectrum consumed by a particular emission selection and modulation technique. D. The portion of the radio spectrum reserved for frequency allocations by the ITU. share/E7/7-97J20000664000175000017500000000113514621747037011342 0ustar jtnjtn7-97J2 B A ship at anchor has been communicating with a shore station approximately 350 miles distant on a frequency in the 4 MHz band through early afternoon. Toward the late afternoon and evening, what effect should be noticed? A. Communications should be maintained with slight improvement in the signal received from the shore station. B. Communications should gradually improve and peak at night and early morning. C. Communications should slowly deteriorate but may be continued throughout the night. D. Communications should gradually deteriorate and become impossible on this frequency by night. share/E7/7-89J50000664000175000017500000000106514621747037011350 0ustar jtnjtn7-89J5 A What is the best method for a GMDSS Radio Operator to determine which SITOR (NBDP) station to contact for the purpose of sending a chargeable message or cable? A. Listen to each station's "free signals" and call the strongest station. B. Listen to each station's voice announcement and determine which channel(s) will be monitored. C. Listen to each station's MSI broadcast to determine which public correspondence station to contact. D. Listen to the U.S. Coast Guard's traffic list to determine which Coast Guard station will handle commercial traffic. share/E7/7-48F50000664000175000017500000000061214621747036011333 0ustar jtnjtn7-48F5 D What are the best resources for researching and planning equipment setups and updates prior to any potential Distress situation? A. NGA Pub. 117, ALRS Volume 5 or manufacturer's equipment manuals. B. ALRS Volume 5, FCC Part 80 or ITU List of Coast stations. C. ITU List of Coast stations, IMO GMDSS handbook, FCC Part 80. D. ALRS Volume 5, NGA Pub, 117 or ITU List of Coast stations. share/E7/7-100J10000664000175000017500000000103214621747037011376 0ustar jtnjtn7-100J1 B Which of the following conditions would be a symptom of malfunction in a 2182 kHz radiotelephone system which must be reported to the Master? A. Much lower noise level observed during daytime operation. B. No indication of power output when speaking into the microphone. C. When testing a radiotelephone alarm on 2182 kHz into an artificial antenna, the Distress frequency watch receiver becomes unmuted, an improper testing procedure. D. Failure to contact a shore station 600 nautical miles distant during daytime operation. share/E7/7-28D30000664000175000017500000000015514621747036011327 0ustar jtnjtn7-28D3 D How many total frequencies are available for DSC Distress alerting? A. One B. Two C. Five D. Seven share/E7/7-13C40000664000175000017500000000106314621747036011320 0ustar jtnjtn7-13C4 D Which statement is FALSE regarding a GMDSS equipped ship? A. Ships must have the required equipment inspected at least once every 12 months. B. The regulations apply to all passenger ships regardless of size and cargo ships of 300 gross tons and upwards. C. Ships must carry at least two persons holding a GMDSS Radio Operator's license for Distress and Safety radio-communications purposes. D. A conditional or partial exemption may not be granted, in exceptional circumstances, for a single voyage outside the sea area for which the ship is equipped. share/E7/7-21D50000664000175000017500000000021414621747036011316 0ustar jtnjtn7-21D5 A What type of station would be assigned the call sign WAB2174? A. Tugboat B. Container ship C. Large Passenger ship D. Bulk Tanker share/E7/7-35E30000664000175000017500000000053214621747036011325 0ustar jtnjtn7-35E3 A Which of the following situations would NOT properly use the Urgency priority? A. Abandoning the vessel just before sinking. B. Treatment of a crewmember breaking a leg in a cargo hold. C. Leaking oil from a minor tank fracture requiring a mandatory pollution report. D. An unexpected deviation in the forecast track line of a typhoon. share/E7/7-99J10000664000175000017500000000021314621747037011337 0ustar jtnjtn7-99J1 C What is the normal voltage of a fully charged single lead acid battery cell? A. 1.5 volts B. 2.5 volts C. 2.1 volts D. 1.2 volts share/E7/7-16C40000664000175000017500000000144714621747036011331 0ustar jtnjtn7-16C4 A Which statement is FALSE regarding the radio operator requirements for a GMDSS-equipped ship station? A. Maintaining a record of all incidents connected with the radio-communications service that appear to be of importance to Safety of life at sea is not required. B. One of the qualified GMDSS radio operators must be designated to have primary responsibility for radiocommunications during Distress incidents. C. A qualified GMDSS radio operator, and a qualified backup, must be designated to perform Distress, Urgency and Safety communications. D. While at sea, all adjustments or radio installations, servicing or maintenance of such installations that may affect the proper operation of the GMDSS station must be performed by, or under the supervision of, a qualified GMDSS radio maintainer. share/E7/7-11B10000664000175000017500000000015614621747036011314 0ustar jtnjtn7-11B1 C What is the channel spacing for MF-HF voice frequencies? A. 500 Hz B. 2.8 kHz C. 3.0 kHz D. 3.5 kHz share/E7/7-60I10000664000175000017500000000030514621747036011323 0ustar jtnjtn7-60I1 B Which satellite(s) would most likely be selected for use when the vessel is operating off the eastern shore of the United States? A. IOR B. AOR-W C. POR D. Either AOR-W or IOR will work. share/E7/7-80J60000664000175000017500000000054514621747037011342 0ustar jtnjtn7-80J6 A To set-up the MF/HF Transceiver for a voice call to a coast station, the operator must: A. Select J3E mode for proper voice operations. B. Select J3E mode for proper SITOR (NBDP) operations. C. Select F1B mode or J2B mode, depending on the equipment manufacturer. D. Select F1B/J2B modes or J3E mode, depending on whether FEC or ARQ is preferred. share/E7/7-70I20000664000175000017500000000061214621747037011327 0ustar jtnjtn7-70I2 A What is an advantage of an Iridium terminal for making voice calls? A. It can use compatible terrestrial cellular phone networks if available. B. Dual use technology permits Inmarsat satellites as well as Iridium satellites to be used. C. Dual use technology permits terrestrial cellular phone calls and Inmarsat calls. D. It can make calls only through the Iridium satellite system. share/E7/7-4A50000664000175000017500000000066014621747035011240 0ustar jtnjtn7-4A5 D Which of the following are required GMDSS functions? A. Bridge-to-Bridge communications, reception of weather map facsimile broadcasts, SAR communications. B. Reception of weather map facsimile broadcasts, receiving company email, On-scene communications. C. Reception of VHF weather channels, On-scene communications, general communications. D. Bridge-to-Bridge communications, general communications, SAR communications. share/E7/7-14C50000664000175000017500000000116214621747036011322 0ustar jtnjtn7-14C5 C Which of the following documents or publications are required by Part 80 of the FCC rules for vessels on international voyages (other than the Great Lakes)? A. Appropriate Safety Convention Certificate, ITU Master Plan of GMDSS Coast stations, and ITU manual for Maritime Mobile stations. B. ITU Master Plan of GMDSS Coast stations, ITU manual for Maritime Mobile stations, ITU List IV & List V. C. ITU List IV & List V, Appropriate Safety Convention Certificate & ITU manual for Maritime Mobile stations. D. ITU List IV & List V, Appropriate Safety Convention Certificate & IMO manual for Maritime Mobile stations. share/E7/7-52H10000664000175000017500000000062414621747036011327 0ustar jtnjtn7-52H1 B How is a NAVTEX receiver programmed to reject certain messages? A. The transmitting station's two-digit identification can be entered to de-select reception of its broadcasts. B. By choosing a message category's single letter (A-Z) identifier and then deselecting or deactivating. C. By entering the SELCAL of the NAVTEX transmitting station. D. By pressing "00" in the transmitter's ID block. share/E7/7-93J30000664000175000017500000000054714621747037011345 0ustar jtnjtn7-93J3 C Which automatic TELEX command should be sent by a ship station during SITOR (NBDP) operations to properly address a weather report to the national weather authority? A. WX+ followed by the text of the report. B. OBS+ then MSG+ to indicate weather report. C. OBS+ and then send the weather report. D. GA+? then OBS+ and then send the weather report. share/E7/7-84J30000664000175000017500000000071114621747037011336 0ustar jtnjtn7-84J3 D In an AM broadcast signal using voice: A. Varying the amplitude of the carrier and employing both sidebands without the carrier. B. Varying only the amplitude of the carrier, depending on Double or Single-Sideband operations. C. Varying the amplitude of the carrier and employing both sidebands and the carrier. D. There is a carrier with constant amplitude and frequency with complex upper and lower sidebands varying in amplitude and frequency. share/E7/7-55H40000664000175000017500000000020214621747036011325 0ustar jtnjtn7-55H4 B What information is promulgated by the international SafetyNETTM? A. Traffic Lists B. MSI C. Priority Messages D. MARAD share/E7/7-2A10000664000175000017500000000017114621747035011227 0ustar jtnjtn7-2A1 D Which GMDSS system utilizes terrestrial radio techniques? A. Inmarsat-FBB B. Inmarsat-C C. GPS D. VHF-MF-HF-DSC share/E7/7-58H60000664000175000017500000000025414621747036011341 0ustar jtnjtn7-58H6 D A vessel on a voyage between Miami and Los Angeles via the Panama Canal would be operating in which NAVAREAS? A. II and III B. IV and V C. V and VI D. IV and XII share/E7/7-64I50000664000175000017500000000067314621747036011343 0ustar jtnjtn7-64I5 D How does an FBB terminal fully meet compulsory GMDSS requirements? A. All FBB terminals are automatically certified under GMDSS by the IMO. B. FBB terminals are not certified for use by GMDSS compulsory vessels. C. The FBB terminal is replaced by a Maritime Safety Terminal, Distress Alert button, keyboard and printer. D. The addition of a Maritime Safety Terminal, Distress Alert button, keyboard and printer or dedicated display. share/E7/7-24D30000664000175000017500000000016514621747036011324 0ustar jtnjtn7-24D3 D Which of the following would indicate an F77 terminal? A. 303261598 B. 430364290 C. 338472564 D. 764832922 share/E7/7-42F60000664000175000017500000000101314621747036011322 0ustar jtnjtn7-42F6 D Which of the following statements concerning satellite EPIRBs is true? A. The coded EPIRB signal identifies the nature of the Distress situation. B. The coded EPIRB signal only identifies the vessel's name and port of registry. C. If the GMDSS Radio Operator does not program the EPIRB, it will transmit default information such as the follow-on communications frequency and mode. D. Once activated, these EPIRBs transmit a signal for use in identifying the vessel and for determining the position of the beacon. share/E7/7-71I10000664000175000017500000000055014621747037011330 0ustar jtnjtn7-71I1 C From an Inmarsat-C terminal, which of the following are correctly formatted address for sending TELEX messages to two Inmarsat-C terminals on vessels in the AOR-W? A. 870766719020 first and 870436671929 second. B. 584436671929 first and 584766719020 second. C. 584466719020 first and 584436671929 second. D. 58176671920 first and 58146671929 second. share/E7/7-12B10000664000175000017500000000021114621747036011305 0ustar jtnjtn7-12B1 B A vertical (whip) antenna has a radiation pattern best described by? A. A figure eight B. A circle C. A cardioid D. An ellipse share/E7/7-52H60000664000175000017500000000063314621747036011334 0ustar jtnjtn7-52H6 A Which messages are mandatory to be received and should not typically be rejected or disabled by the operator of a NAVTEX receiver? A. Navigational warnings, meteorological warnings, SAR information. B. Meteorological warnings, SAR information, Pilot Service Messages. C. Meteorological warnings, meteorological forecasts, navigational warnings. D. SAR information, navigational warnings, ice reports. share/E7/7-62I40000664000175000017500000000063014621747036011331 0ustar jtnjtn7-62I4 C How is maximum communications coverage provided by satellites in the Inmarsat maritime satellite service? A. Four satellites in polar orbit to provide worldwide coverage. B. Four satellites in geo-stationary orbit for each Inmarsat Service (C and FBB). C. Four satellites in geo-stationary orbit approximately 22,184 miles above the equator. D. Through coordinated use of COSPAS-SARSAT satellites. share/E7/7-87J20000664000175000017500000000024014621747037011335 0ustar jtnjtn7-87J2 D Which of the following acronyms refers to a communications system that does not use ARQ and/or FEC modes? A. NAVTEX B. SITOR (NBDP) C. HF MSI D. SART share/E7/7-12B60000664000175000017500000000037514621747036011325 0ustar jtnjtn7-12B6 A What advantage does a vertical whip have over a long wire? A. It radiates equally well in all directions. B. It radiates directionally for better propagation. C. It radiates a strong signal vertically. D. It radiates more signal fore and aft. share/E7/7-29E20000664000175000017500000000120314621747036011323 0ustar jtnjtn7-29E2 B Which of the following statements is true regarding Distress alerting under GMDSS? A. Ship to shore Distress alerts are used to alert other ships in port of navigational hazards. B. The Distress alert should identify the station in Distress and its position & time of position update. Also, the alert may include the nature of the Distress, the type of assistance required, or the course and speed of the mobile unit. C. Ship-to-ship Distress alerts are used to alert other ships in the vicinity of navigational hazards and bad weather. D. The vessel nearest to the emergency must notify the Coast Guard before leaving the vicinity. share/E7/7-49G60000664000175000017500000000112014621747036011331 0ustar jtnjtn7-49G6 B The effectiveness of VHF communications is maximized by: A. The adjustment of squelch for maximum receiver sensitivity, setting transmitter power to 1W & selecting an appropriate channel. B. Appropriate setting of the transmitter power, selecting an appropriate channel & adjustment of squelch for maximum receiver sensitivity. C. Selecting an appropriate channel, adjustment of squelch for minimum receiver sensitivity & setting transmitter power to 1W. D. Selecting an appropriate channel, adjustment of squelch for minimum receiver sensitivity, setting transmitter power to 25W. share/E7/7-77I20000664000175000017500000000034114621747037011335 0ustar jtnjtn7-77I2 B What can be defined as the service that allows terrestrial information providers to send general information messages to pre-defined groups of subscribers? A. SafetyNETTM B. FleetNETTM C. COSPAS-SARSAT D. InfoNETTM share/E7/7-68I40000664000175000017500000000066114621747036011343 0ustar jtnjtn7-68I4 A Which Inmarsat Earth stations could a GMDSS Radio Operator select to update an Inmarsat- C Distress alert message if the vessel is in the Mediterranean Sea and logged into the AOR-E satellite? A. Fucino (Italy), Assaguel (France) or Burum (Netherlands). B. Pune (India), EIK (Norway), Sentosa or Beijing (P.R.C.). C. Yamaguchi (Japan), Southbury (USA), Fucino (Italy). D. Beijing (P.R.C.), Southbury (USA) or EIK (Norway). share/E7/7-14C20000664000175000017500000000040214621747036011313 0ustar jtnjtn7-14C2 A Where can GMDSS regulations pertaining specifically to U.S.-flag vessels be found? A. These are located in 47 CFR Part 80. B. These are located in CCIR #476. C. These are located in FCC Part 83. D. These are published only by the U.S. Coast Guard. share/E7/7-66I10000664000175000017500000000057214621747036011337 0ustar jtnjtn7-66I1 D Which of the following best describes Inmarsat-C operation? A. Is an analog-based system. B. Requires a stabilized directional antenna. C. Provides for voice, TELEX, high and low-speed data and compressed video communications. D. Is a digital store-and-forward system that also provides Enhanced Group Call, data reporting, polling and Distress alerting capabilities. share/E7/7-76I60000664000175000017500000000032214621747037011337 0ustar jtnjtn7-76I6 A Detailed Distress situation report message formats can best be found in? A. IAMSAR manual Volume III. B. ITU list of RCC and Coast stations. C. AMVER chapter of NGA PUB 117. D. FCC Title 47, Part 80. share/E7/7-61I60000664000175000017500000000054614621747036011340 0ustar jtnjtn7-61I6 B Which of the following is NOT an example of a failure to log-out properly? A. Turning off the power prior to logging out with the NCS. B. A message on the screen or printer from the NCS. C. Sailing the vessel into a shadowing or local RF interference situation before logging out. D. Sailing out of the footprint of a satellite before logging out. share/E7/7-26D50000664000175000017500000000035014621747036011324 0ustar jtnjtn7-26D5 C DSC transmissions are received: A. Using voice or TELEX modes as appropriate. B. Using J3E or H3E modes as appropriate. C. Using digital decoding by the DSC controller. D. Using F1B and/or J2B decoding by the transceiver. share/E7/7-38E30000664000175000017500000000057614621747036011340 0ustar jtnjtn7-38E3 B DSC is used primarily to: A. Receive weather warnings, navigational notices and other Maritime Safety Information. B. Transmit and receive Distress, Urgency and Safety alerts and routine calls to and from other ships and coast radio stations. C. Provide routine communications with the ship owner. D. Report ship's position to search-and-rescue authorities via satellite. share/E7/7-93J20000664000175000017500000000064114621747037011337 0ustar jtnjtn7-93J2 B The DIRTLX command should be given to a coast station at what point in time? A. Immediately following the automatic exchange of answerbacks. B. After receipt of the Go Ahead indication following the automatic exchange of answerbacks. C. After receipt of the Go Ahead indication followed by the automatic exchange of answerbacks. D. Sent at the beginning of the message to request a direct TELEX connection. share/E7/7-45F40000664000175000017500000000046714621747036011337 0ustar jtnjtn7-45F4 D Which statement is NOT true regarding the requirements of survival craft portable two-way VHF radiotelephone equipment? A. Operation on Ch-16 B. Antenna must be permanently-affixed. C. Simplex (single frequency) voice communications only. D. Effective radiated power should be a minimum of 2.0 Watts. share/E7/7-56H10000664000175000017500000000024614621747036011333 0ustar jtnjtn7-56H1 B Over what system are Enhanced Group Calls transmitted? A. COSPAS satellite B. Inmarsat satellite C. HF SITOR (NBDP) shore stations D. NAVTEX shore stations share/E7/7-61I10000664000175000017500000000104214621747036011323 0ustar jtnjtn7-61I1 A Which action must be taken to ensure that incoming message traffic of all priority levels will be received through Inmarsat-C? A. The GMDSS Radio Operator must log-in to the desired satellite (if the unit did not automatically do so.) B. No additional action is necessary after turning on the receiver and aiming the antenna at the desired satellite. C. The system needs only to be commissioned and turned on. D. The GMDSS Radio Operator must log-in to the desired satellite and receive the message reference number (MRN) from the LES. share/E7/7-53H20000664000175000017500000000101714621747036011326 0ustar jtnjtn7-53H2 B If the Inmarsat-C terminal is inoperative but the vessel remains within NAVTEX coverage -- which of the following message categories should not be disabled by the GMDSS Radio Operator? A. Navigational warnings, meteorological warnings and metrological forecasts. B. Meteorological warnings, Search and Rescue information and Navigational warnings. C. Search and Rescue information, navigational warnings and other electronic navaid messages. D. Search and Rescue information, Meteorological warnings and ice reports. share/E7/7-59I30000664000175000017500000000056014621747036011340 0ustar jtnjtn7-59I3 A With most Inmarsat-C systems what should the indicator lamps do when powering up? A. All lamps should illuminate in a particular sequence, as per the operator's manual. B. The power on lamp should illuminate. Other lights remain off until a message is received. C. All lamps should light and stay illuminated. D. All lamps should light except the RED light. share/E7/7-24D60000664000175000017500000000035714621747036011332 0ustar jtnjtn7-24D6 A Which of the following would indicate an F77 terminal? A. A 9-digit number always starting with 76. B. A 12-digit number starting with the MID. C. A 9-digit number ending with the MID. D. A 9-digit number always starting with 4. share/E7/7-16C30000664000175000017500000000074514621747036011330 0ustar jtnjtn7-16C3 D Which FCC license meets the requirements to perform or supervise the performance of at-sea adjustments, servicing, or maintenance which may affect the proper operation of the GMDSS station? A. General Radiotelephone Operator's License with Shipboard RADAR endorsement. B. Marine Radio Operator's Permit or GMDSS Maintainer's license. C. GMDSS Radio Operator's license or Marine Radio Operator's Permit. D. GMDSS Operator's/Maintainer's license or GMDSS Maintainer's license. share/E7/7-9B40000664000175000017500000000013714621747036011245 0ustar jtnjtn7-9B4 D What is the emission designation for MF-HF voice signals? A. F1B B. J2B C. F3E D. J3E share/E7/7-65I30000664000175000017500000000103114621747036011327 0ustar jtnjtn7-65I3 C How is a signal radiated from an Inmarsat-C system's antenna? A. It is a highly focused directional signal that must be beamed at the desired satellite. B. It is usually radiated in an omni-directional pattern, but an optional feature allows it to be directional for use when the vessel is on the fringe of the satellite's footprint. C. It is radiated in an omni-directional pattern. D. It is radiated in an omni-directional pattern that can be reversed by the Operator to attain directional beaming to an alternate satellite. share/E7/7-64I10000664000175000017500000000103314621747036011326 0ustar jtnjtn7-64I1 B How is a signal radiated from an Inmarsat-FBB system's antenna? A. It is usually radiated in an omni-directional pattern, but an optional feature allows it to be directional for use when the vessel is on the fringe of the satellite's footprint. B. It is a highly focused directional signal that must be beamed at the desired satellite. C. It is radiated in an omni-directional pattern. D. It is radiated in an omni-directional pattern that can be reversed by the Operator to attain directional beaming to an alternate satellite. share/E7/7-63I60000664000175000017500000000073314621747036011340 0ustar jtnjtn7-63I6 C What is the primary purpose of an Iridium LES? A. The LES is required for ship-ship Inmarsat communications, ship-shore communications are handled by terrestrial Coast Radio Stations. B. The LES monitors all operations of the satellite and assigns channels and frequencies to the vessel. C. The LES makes the satellite connection between the vessel and the requested shore destination. D. The LES is dedicated only to processing all vessel Distress priority calls. share/E7/7-91J10000664000175000017500000000034014621747037011330 0ustar jtnjtn7-91J1 C What sequence of ARQ codes matches the following: manual over, end of message text, end of connection to land destination terminal? A. NNNN, KKKK, GA+ B. KKKK, DIRTLX, NNNN C. +?, NNNN, KKKK D. +?, . . . . ., BRK+ share/E7/7-42F20000664000175000017500000000026514621747036011326 0ustar jtnjtn7-42F2 A Which of the following satellite systems is of particular & dedicated importance to search and rescue missions under GMDSS? A. COSPAS/SARSAT B. Inmarsat C. GPS D. Iridium share/E7/7-69I10000664000175000017500000000064014621747037011337 0ustar jtnjtn7-69I1 A A vessel is tracking the AOR-W satellite. To initiate an F77 automatic ship-to-shore telephone contact to a shoreside party in the U.S. phone # 123-456-7890, via Southbury Earth Station, a valid Inmarsat operations/dialing sequence is? A. Select LES 001# then dial 0011234567890# B. Select LES #002 then dial 11234567890# C. Select LES 104# then dial 11234567890+ D. Select LES 001+ then dial 123 4567890# share/E7/7-83J20000664000175000017500000000061114621747037011333 0ustar jtnjtn7-83J2 D The purpose of ITU channel spacing is: A. To minimize the number of voice & TELEX channels available. B. To make most efficient use of the radio spectrum, by using voice channels rather than TELEX channels. C. To make most efficient use of the radio spectrum, by using TELEX channels rather than voice channels. D. To minimize the possibility of interference from adjacent channels. share/E7/7-51H60000664000175000017500000000047714621747036011341 0ustar jtnjtn7-51H6 C What is the transmitting range of most NAVTEX stations? A. Typically 50-100 nautical miles (90-180 km) from shore. B. Typically upwards of 1000 nautical miles (1800 km) during the daytime. C. Typically 200-400 nautical miles (360-720 km). D. It is limited to line-of-sight or about 30 nautical miles (54 km). share/E7/7-78I60000664000175000017500000000047414621747037011351 0ustar jtnjtn7-78I6 D Which functions may the holder of a GMDSS Radio Operator License NOT perform on the Inmarsat-C equipment? A. Maintain the antenna clear of soot, paint, etc. B. Log-on, traffic and log-off functions. C. Entry of position data and selection of LES. D. Optimize performance by adjusting the transmitter EIRP. share/E7/7-78I40000664000175000017500000000074414621747037011347 0ustar jtnjtn7-78I4 C What maintenance function may the holder of a GMDSS Radio Operator license perform, or supervise the performance of, on an Inmarsat-C SES? A. Adjust the station's EIRP (power output) for improved signal levels. B. Enter Azimuth and Elevation values correctly so the Inmarsat-C SES can find the NCS CC. C. Remove stack deposits and other debris from the antenna to prevent degraded performance. D. Adjust a reference oscillator or synthesizer to tune the unit to the NCS CC. share/E7/7-43F20000664000175000017500000000032514621747036011324 0ustar jtnjtn7-43F2 D What feature is not a component of a 406 MHz satellite EPIRB? A. 121.5 MHz emergency homing transmitter. B. Emergency transmission on 406.025 MHz. C. Float-free release bracket. D. Aural locator signal. share/E7/7-78I50000664000175000017500000000044614621747037011347 0ustar jtnjtn7-78I5 C What maintenance function may the holder of a GMDSS Radio Operator license perform, or supervise the performance of, on an Inmarsat-C SES? A. Painting the antenna dome. B. Adjust the station's EIRP. C. Adjust any front panel controls. D. Adjust a reference oscillator or synthesizer. share/E7/7-34E20000664000175000017500000000120114621747036011315 0ustar jtnjtn7-34E2 A When can routine communications be resumed after radio silence has been imposed? A. Routine communications can resume after the Rescue Coordination Center transmits a message on the frequency or channel being used for emergency communications stating that such traffic has concluded. B. After determining that the frequency or channel appears to be no longer in use. C. After determining that geographic distance from the Distress situation will prohibit any other signal from interfering with emergency communications. D. If, in the master's opinion, communications on that frequency will interfere with emergency communications. share/E7/7-50G10000664000175000017500000000051314621747036011321 0ustar jtnjtn7-50G1 D A VHF frequency channel pair of TX 157.200 MHz and RX 161.800 MHz would most likely be: A. A VTS frequency for VTS - Ship communications. B. A simplex Public Correspondence Coast Radio Station frequency. C. A simplex Private Coast Radio Station frequency. D. A duplex Public Correspondence Coast Radio Station frequency. share/E7/7-19C60000664000175000017500000000113314621747036011326 0ustar jtnjtn7-19C6 C Which is true concerning a required watch on VHF Ch-16? A. When a vessel is in an A1 sea area and subject to the Bridge-to-Bridge act and in a VTS system, a watch is required on Ch-16 in addition to both Ch-13 and the VTS channel. B. It is not compulsory at all times while at sea until further notice, unless the vessel is in a VTS system. C. When a vessel is in an A1 sea area and subject to the Bridge-to-Bridge act and in a VTS system, a watch is not required on Ch-16 provided the vessel monitors both Ch-13 and the VTS channel. D. It is not always compulsory in sea areas A2, A3 and A4. share/E7/7-18C30000664000175000017500000000022314621747036011321 0ustar jtnjtn7-18C3 B While underway, how frequently is the DSC controller required to be tested? A. Once a week B. Once a day C. Twice a week D. Once a month share/E7/7-26D30000664000175000017500000000060414621747036011324 0ustar jtnjtn7-26D3 B When sending a DSC call: A. Vessel's position will automatically be sent with DSC calls specifying an alternate frequency. B. Vessel's position will automatically be sent if the vessel is sending a "Distress Hot Key" alert. C. Vessel's MMSI will indicate its ocean region and vessel position. D. Vessel's MMSI and position will automatically be sent for all types of DSC calls. share/E7/7-96J30000664000175000017500000000060014621747037011336 0ustar jtnjtn7-96J3 D What would be the most appropriate HF bands for communicating from San Francisco to Taiwan or the Philippines? A. 12 MHz during daylight at each end and 2 MHz when dark at each end. B. 8 MHz during daylight hours and 16 MHz during darkness. C. 6 MHz during daylight hours and 8 MHz during darkness. D. 16 or 22 MHz when daylight at each end and 8 MHz when dark at each end. share/E7/7-20C40000664000175000017500000000042314621747036011315 0ustar jtnjtn7-20C4 A How long must the radio log be retained on board before sending it to the shoreside licensee? A. At least 30 days after the last entry. B. At least one year after the last entry. C. At least two years after the last entry. D. At least 90 days after the last entry. share/E7/7-8B10000664000175000017500000000023514621747036011240 0ustar jtnjtn7-8B1 B Which of the following systems is most susceptible to fading or static interference? A. Inmarsat B. HF SITOR (NBDP) C. DSC on channel 70 D. VHF ARQ share/E7/7-33E20000664000175000017500000000054014621747036011321 0ustar jtnjtn7-33E2 B What action should you take after sending a false or mistaken Distress alert on MF? A. Make a voice announcement to cancel the alert on 2187.5 kHz. B. Make a voice announcement to cancel the alert on 2182.0 kHz. C. Make a voice announcement to cancel the alert on 2174.5 kHz. D. Send another DSC alert and follow on with voice on 2182.0 kHz. share/E7/7-71I40000664000175000017500000000032114621747037011327 0ustar jtnjtn7-71I4 B Which of the following is a correctly formatted Inmarsat-C address book entry for sending TELEX communications to a vessel in the IOR? A. 853446323865 B. 583446976519 C. 582446323862 D. 870446976519 share/E7/7-3A20000664000175000017500000000027614621747035011237 0ustar jtnjtn7-3A2 D What sea area is defined as being within range of a shore-based MF station that provides for continuous DSC alerting? A. Coastal waters B. Sea area A3 C. Sea area A1 D. Sea area A2 share/E7/7-97J60000664000175000017500000000062714621747037011353 0ustar jtnjtn7-97J6 B How can a GMDSS operator determine the best frequency band to choose for a SITOR (NBDP) transmission to a shore station? A. By consulting propagation tables. B. Listen to shore station "free signals" and choose the band with the strongest signal. C. If static interference is present, try lower bands first. D. During nighttime, choose higher frequencies. Choose lower frequencies in the daytime. share/E7/7-45F20000664000175000017500000000032314621747036011324 0ustar jtnjtn7-45F2 B Equipment for radiotelephony use in survival craft stations under GMDSS must have what capability? A. Operation on 457.525 MHz. B. Operation on Ch-16. C. Operation on 121.5 MHz. D. Operation on Ch-70. share/E7/7-26D20000664000175000017500000000045414621747036011326 0ustar jtnjtn7-26D2 A MF-HF DSC alerts are transmitted using what emission type? A. J2B to ensure compatibility with DSC receivers. B. J3E to ensure correct voice follow-on frequencies are used. C. F1B to ensure correct SITOR (NBDP) follow-on frequencies are used. D. A3E to achieve the best transmission range. share/E7/7-7B40000664000175000017500000000016714621747036011246 0ustar jtnjtn7-7B4 B What is the frequency range for Ultra High Frequency? A. 3-30 MHz B. 300-3,000 MHz C. 30-300 MHz D. 10-30 MHz share/E7/7-75I60000664000175000017500000000111614621747037011340 0ustar jtnjtn7-75I6 C If an Inmarsat Distress Alert Setup menu contains an incorrect or unavailable LES code what happens to the Distress Alert transmission? A. The NCS updates the LES codes in the Distress Alert Setup menu as the vessel moves from ocean region to ocean region to ensure this does not happen. B. The NCS will send a Distress Alert Setup incorrect LES code alarm so the alert can be corrected and retransmitted. C. The NCS will step in and route the Distress Alert transmission to an RCC. D. If the LES code is incorrect then the Distress Alert transmission is not detected by any RCC. share/E7/7-33E30000664000175000017500000000053214621747036011323 0ustar jtnjtn7-33E3 C What action should you take after sending a false or mistaken Distress alert on MF? A. Send another DSC alert on 2187.5 kHz. and follow on with voice on 2187.5 kHz. B. No action is necessary. C. Make a voice announcement to cancel the alert on 2182.0 kHz. D. Send a DSC alert on all 7 DSC frequencies and follow on voice on 2174.5 kHz. share/E7/7-40F40000664000175000017500000000074614621747036011332 0ustar jtnjtn7-40F4 A What signal is detected as originating from an AIS SART and how is the signal displayed? A. An AIS SART signal is shown on any AIS receiver as a special 970 MMSI coded symbol. B. The 3-CM radar reflections are converted to AIS signals and displayed on ECDIS/ARPA screens. C. An AIS SART transmits on AIS frequencies and the signals are converted to 3-CM radar targets for display on 3-CM radars. D. An AIS SART transmits on 9 GHz so that a 3-CM radar can display the signals. share/E7/7-93J60000664000175000017500000000034614621747037011345 0ustar jtnjtn7-93J6 B To correctly address a SITOR (NBDP) message and transmit it "live" to a shore-based office the GMDSS operator would dial which sequence: A. DIRTLX0051440344+ B. DIRTLX051440344+ C. DIRTLX581440344+ D. DIRTLX05811500260+ share/E7/7-27D60000664000175000017500000000053514621747036011333 0ustar jtnjtn7-27D6 C DSC relays of Distress alerts to a coast station: A. Should be done for all Distress alerts received aboard the ship. B. Should be transmitted to all ships involved in Distress traffic. C. Should be avoided; unless a DSC acknowledgement has not been heard. D. Are the best means to provide for a retransmission of Distress communications. share/E7/7-31E40000664000175000017500000000024314621747036011321 0ustar jtnjtn7-31E4 B What is meant by the acronym "ECC" in a DSC message? A. Every Cipher Counted B. Error Check Character C. Error Cannot Confirm D. Even Characters Counted share/E7/7-11B60000664000175000017500000000011714621747036011316 0ustar jtnjtn7-11B6 C Which mode occupies the least bandwidth? A. H3E B. A3E C. J2B D. F3E share/E7/7-61I50000664000175000017500000000060614621747036011334 0ustar jtnjtn7-61I5 A Which of these can take place on an Inmarsat-C terminal that has synch with the NCS CC but has not yet performed a successful login? A. Reception of unscheduled MSI Urgency and Distress messages. B. Transmission of synoptic weather reports and company traffic. C. Reception of the mandatory scheduled BALD MSI messages. D. Reception of company traffic related to ship's business. share/E7/7-63I20000664000175000017500000000066514621747036011340 0ustar jtnjtn7-63I2 D How are Iridium antennas tracking the satellites? A. They are flat-panel arrays that must be oriented to the satellites in their near-polar orbit. B. They are directional dish antennas that must track the satellites as they pass overhead. C. They are omni-directional dish antennas that locate the satellites as they pass overhead. D. They are omni-directional antennas that receive signal as various satellites pass overhead. share/E7/7-96J50000664000175000017500000000110214621747037011336 0ustar jtnjtn7-96J5 D Which statement concerning frequency band selection and propagation most corresponds with standard practice. A. Maximum Usable Frequency (MUF) and Optimum Usable Frequency (OUF) should be calculated prior to setting up the transceiver. B. Propagation rules, Sunspot cycle status and seasonal variations (winter & summer) must always be employed to calculate the proper band selection. C. Propagation "rules of thumb" should be combined with Solar flare alerts to determine band selection. D. Propagation "rules of thumb" are usually sufficient for routine operations. share/E7/7-73I20000664000175000017500000000036314621747037011335 0ustar jtnjtn7-73I2 B Which of the following is a correctly formatted Inmarsat-C address book entry for sending communications to a fax machine number 516-229-4339 in Long Beach, CA, U.S.? A. 015162294339# B. 15162294339 C. 015162294339 D. 1 516-229-4339 share/E7/7-20C30000664000175000017500000000025014621747036011312 0ustar jtnjtn7-20C3 D Where should the GMDSS radio log be kept on board ship? A. Captain's office B. Sea cabin C. Anywhere on board the vessel. D. At the GMDSS operating position. share/E7/7-8B20000664000175000017500000000021714621747036011241 0ustar jtnjtn7-8B2 C Which system is most likely to be affected by atmospheric disturbances? A. VHF DSC B. Inmarsat C. MF/HF radiotelephony D. SafetyNETTM share/E7/7-60I60000664000175000017500000000021614621747036011331 0ustar jtnjtn7-60I6 A Which longitude corresponds to the IOR's satellite location for Inmarsat-C communications? A. 25.0 E B. 143.5 E C. 54.0 W D. 98.0 W share/E7/7-23D40000664000175000017500000000050314621747036011320 0ustar jtnjtn7-23D4 B Which of the following statements concerning MMSI is true? A. Coast station MMSI numbers have 9 digits starting with 4. B. All MMSI numbers are 9 digits and contain an MID. C. Ship station MMSI numbers can be 7 digits or 9 digits depending on the Inmarsat terminal. D. Group MMSI numbers must begin with 2 zeros. share/E7/7-20C10000664000175000017500000000106014621747036011310 0ustar jtnjtn7-20C1 B Which of the following statements meets requirements for 47 CFR 80 Subpart-W? A. GMDSS Radio Logs may not be retained aboard compulsory vessels in an electronic file (e.g., word processing) format. B. GMDSS Radio Logs must contain entries of all Distress and Urgency communications affecting your own ship. C. GMDSS Radio Logs must be retained aboard compulsory vessels for a period of at least 90 days in their original form. D. Entries in the GMDSS Radio Log are only required for communications within the vessel's intended Sea Area of operation. share/E7/7-2A30000664000175000017500000000016114621747035011230 0ustar jtnjtn7-2A3 B What equipment is used in or near the survival craft? A. NAVTEX B. EPIRB C. Fathometer D. COSPAS-SARSAT share/E7/7-33E60000664000175000017500000000073414621747036011332 0ustar jtnjtn7-33E6 B What action should you take after sending a false or mistaken Distress alert on Inmarsat-C? A. Press the "Distress Hot Keys" then press the "cancel" key. B. Select "Transmit" or "SEND/REC" menu and send a cancellation message via the LES used for the Distress alert. C. Do nothing until the RCC contacts your vessel to determine if the Distress alert was genuine. D. Select the cancel false Distress alert option in the Distress Setup Menu and re-transmit the call. share/E7/7-86J60000664000175000017500000000135214621747037011345 0ustar jtnjtn7-86J6 D To make a call to another vessel requesting TELEX communications regarding important company business, the GMDSS operator should: A. Select Urgency priority, enter other vessel's MMSI, specify legal alternate frequency, F1B emission and transmit the properly formatted DSC call. B. Select Routine priority, enter own vessel's MMSI, specify legal alternate frequency, F1B emission and transmit the properly formatted DSC call. C. Select Routine priority, enter other vessel's SELCAL for TELEX, specify legal alternate frequency, F1B emission and transmit the properly formatted DSC call. D. Select Routine priority, enter other vessel's MMSI, specify legal alternate frequency, F1B emission and transmit the properly formatted DSC call. share/E7/7-68I30000664000175000017500000000111014621747036011330 0ustar jtnjtn7-68I3 D Which LES should a GMDSS Radio Operator select to update an Inmarsat-C Distress alert message if the vessel is in the southern Pacific Ocean near the Dateline and logged-in to the POR satellite? A. Santa Paula (USA) or Beijing (PRC) would be the best choice depending on SAR jurisdiction. B. EIK (Norway) or Nudol (Russia) would be the best choice depending on SAR jurisdiction. C. Yamaguchi (Japan) or Nakhoda (Russia) would be the best choice depending on SAR jurisdiction. D. Burum (Australia) or Santa Paula (USA) would be the best choice depending on SAR jurisdiction. share/E7/7-70I40000664000175000017500000000035714621747037011337 0ustar jtnjtn7-70I4 C What entry would you make on an Iridium terminal to make a telephone call to an Inmarsat terminal on another ship that is 300 miles west of San Francisco? A. 00582430353680# B. 00881612376935 C. 00870765890074 D. 00582336850450+ share/E7/7-7B20000664000175000017500000000016114621747036011236 0ustar jtnjtn7-7B2 D What is the frequency range for High Frequency? A. 300-3,000 kHz B. 30-300 MHz C. 10-30 MHz D. 3-30 MHz share/E7/7-32E40000664000175000017500000000073414621747036011327 0ustar jtnjtn7-32E4 A The relay of DSC Distress alerts: A. Can quickly overburden the GMDSS systems in the vicinity with improperly transmitted or inappropriately relayed DSC calls. B. Was not originally an intended function of the GMDSS system but now is the preferred method to notify an RCC. C. Remains the preferred method for passing Distress message traffic to an RCC or Coast Station. D. Should always be done immediately to ensure a Coast Station receives the DSC Distress Alert. share/E7/7-47F20000664000175000017500000000072214621747036011331 0ustar jtnjtn7-47F2 D Which of these would be vital to a GMDSS SAR situation in polar regions? A. GOES satellites to receive Distress Alerts and HF Voice for follow-on and SAR activity. B. GOES satellites to receive Distress Alerts and Inmarsat Voice for follow-on and SAR activity. C. Inmarsat satellites to receive Distress Alerts and HF Voice for follow-on and SAR activity. D. COSPAS/SARSAT satellites to receive Distress Alerts and HF Voice for follow-on and SAR activity. share/E7/7-66I20000664000175000017500000000077714621747036011347 0ustar jtnjtn7-66I2 A Which of the following best describes a shipboard Inmarsat-C system? A. A small, lightweight terminal capable of providing satellite store-and-forward message communications. B. A satellite communications system that provides real-time connectivity. C. A small, lightweight terminal used to transmit messages over high frequency (HF) bands to communicate through a satellite. D. A satellite communications system that also provides continuous Digital Selective Calling coverage for all ocean regions. share/E7/7-57H10000664000175000017500000000021414621747036011327 0ustar jtnjtn7-57H1 A Which HF SITOR (NBDP) mode would be selected to receive MSI broadcasts from high seas shore stations? A. FEC B. AM C. RTTY D. ARQ share/E7/7-99J20000664000175000017500000000036014621747037011343 0ustar jtnjtn7-99J2 D What is the normal specific gravity of a fully charged lead acid battery cell? What device is used to measuring the electrolyte of a lead acid battery? A. 1.375 Voltmeter B. 1.180 Voltmeter C. 1.210 Hydrometer D. 1.265 Hydrometer share/E7/7-34E30000664000175000017500000000105214621747036011322 0ustar jtnjtn7-34E3 B What is meant by the term "Seelonce Mayday"? A. Stations remaining off the air to safeguard proprietary information. B. Stations not directly involved with the on-going Distress communications may not transmit on the Distress frequency or channel. C. Two three-minute silent periods, at 15 and 45 minutes after the hour that provide a transmitting "window" for distressed vessels to transmit Distress alerts using J3E. D. Communications on a Distress frequency or channel is banned for 24 hours following the cessation of the Distress traffic. share/E7/7-90J30000664000175000017500000000153314621747037011336 0ustar jtnjtn7-90J3 B Assuming sending a direct TELEX message to a shore-based office, which sequence of events best describes a complete ARQ TELEX exchange with a coast station? A. Initiate call, observe phasing, wait for exchange of answer-backs (WRU-AAB), send message, send KKKK to terminate the TELEX link, receive MRN & time and charges. B. Initiate call, observe phasing, wait for exchange of answer-backs (WRU-AAB), send DIRTLX command with zero, TELEX country code, TELEX number, send message, send KKKK to terminate the TELEX link, receive MRN and time and charges. C. Initiate call, observe exchange of answer-backs (WRU-AAB), send message, send KKKK to terminate radio link, receive MRN & time and charges. D. Initiate call, observe phasing, exchange of answer-backs (WRU-AAB), send message, send KKKK to terminate radio link, receive MRN & time and charges. share/E7/7-66I50000664000175000017500000000024514621747036011340 0ustar jtnjtn7-66I5 C It is possible to transmit all of the following via Inmarsat-C from a vessel EXCEPT? A. TELEX B. Text for delivery by fax. C. Voice D. x.400 data services share/E7/7-61I20000664000175000017500000000050514621747036011327 0ustar jtnjtn7-61I2 B When logging into the Inmarsat system using Inmarsat-C, it is necessary to: A. Enter your IMN when requested by the NCS. B. Select the Ocean Region or select the NCS. C. Enter the LES answer back when requested by the LES. D. Call the LES and inform them that you are now operating in the appropriate ocean region. share/E7/7-10B10000664000175000017500000000054314621747036011313 0ustar jtnjtn7-10B1 D Which of the following statements describes the carrier? A. The carrier consists of at least 3 separate but closely spaced frequencies. B. The carrier is used to modulate the information signal. C. There are always sidebands on either side of the carrier. D. The carrier is a Radio Frequency (RF) signal that is modulated to carry intelligence. share/E7/7-22D20000664000175000017500000000014014621747036011312 0ustar jtnjtn7-22D2 A How many digits are in the MID (Maritime Identification Digits)? A. 3 B. 7 C. 9 D. 10 share/E7/7-8B50000664000175000017500000000044514621747036011247 0ustar jtnjtn7-8B5 D Which of the following frequency bands would most likely provide reliable communications between two stations that are 100 miles (160 km) apart? A. The Low Frequency (LF) band. B. The High Frequency (HF) band. C. The Very High Frequency (VHF) band. D. The Medium Frequency (MF) band. share/E7/7-13C50000664000175000017500000000124414621747036011322 0ustar jtnjtn7-13C5 A During an annual GMDSS station inspection: A. All required documents and publications might have to be produced and GMDSS operators may be required to demonstrate equipment competencies. B. Licensed GMDSS operators may not be required to demonstrate equipment competencies but all required equipment must be fully operational. C. All required equipment must be fully operational and any required publications that are not current must be on order. D. GMDSS operators may be required to demonstrate equipment competencies and any of required equipment that is not fully operational can be repaired at the next port of call as long as there is functional duplication. share/E7/7-97J40000664000175000017500000000036114621747037011344 0ustar jtnjtn7-97J4 D At mid-night, what would be the best choice in attempting to communicate, using SITOR (NBDP) with a shore station some 800 miles distant? A. VHF-FM B. Higher UHF bands C. Communications are impossible at this distance. D. HF bands share/E7/7-5A60000664000175000017500000000122714621747035011242 0ustar jtnjtn7-5A6 B What is the equipment carriage requirement for survival craft under GMDSS? A. At least three SCT units and two SARTs on every cargo ship between 300-500 gross tons and the same on all passenger ships regardless of tonnage. B. At least three SCT units and two SARTs on every passenger ship and cargo ships of 500 gross tons and upwards. C. At least two radar transponders must be carried on every cargo ship of 300-500 gross tons and two radar transponders (one for each side) of every passenger ship regardless of tonnage. D. All cargo vessels above 300 gross tons and every passenger ship regardless of tonnage must carry three SCT units and two SARTs. share/E7/7-67I10000664000175000017500000000065414621747036011341 0ustar jtnjtn7-67I1 C Which statement concerning Inmarsat-FBB and Inmarsat-C terminals is correct? A. Both Inmarsat-FBB and Inmarsat-C units are capable of fax and voice communications. B. Inmarsat-FBB units are not capable of data communications, but Inmarsat-C units are capable of data communications. C. Both Inmarsat-FBB and Inmarsat-C units can send data as well as send messages to fax machines. D. None of these answers is correct. share/E7/7-79I30000664000175000017500000000056114621747037011344 0ustar jtnjtn7-79I3 A Which statement is correct regarding a method that a vessel experiencing problems with shadowing of an Inmarsat-FBB SES antenna by an on-board obstruction could use to attempt reliable communications? A. Change course to remove the shadow. B. Change the Coast Station ID programming. C. Install a shadow correction filter. D. Switch from TELEX to voice mode. share/E7/7-47F10000664000175000017500000000062214621747036011327 0ustar jtnjtn7-47F1 C Which action should the GMDSS radio operator take in a Distress situation when embarking in survival craft? A. EPIRB and SART switched on manually prior to embarking; remain aboard vessel in Distress. B. Notify RCC (Rescue Coordination Center) through VHF DSC in portable equipment. C. Switch on EPIRB and SART immediately and leave on. D. Communicate via Inmarsat-C from the survival craft. share/E7/7-70I10000664000175000017500000000073714621747037011336 0ustar jtnjtn7-70I1 D How is a voice call to a shoreside destination typically dialed from an Iridium terminal handset? A. Dial * to gain access to the Iridium system then dial the country code, subscriber I.D. and then the # sign. B. Dial 00 for automatic dialing, then dial the country code and IMN, then the +sign C. Dial 00 for automatic dialing, dial the country code subscriber I.D and IMN and then the #sign D. Dial 00 for automatic dialing, then the country code and subscriber I.D. share/E7/7-11B50000664000175000017500000000012714621747036011316 0ustar jtnjtn7-11B5 B Which emission mode occupies the most bandwidth? A. J2B B. F3E C. J3E D. F1B share/E7/7-89J10000664000175000017500000000042114621747037011337 0ustar jtnjtn7-89J1 A Which of the following would be a valid SELCAL for use in ARQ communications? A. 1106 B. 212420 WHAQ X. C. Four marks (ones) and three spaces (zeroes) forming the binary signal "1001101". D. This is established by the communications protocol used with the modem. share/E7/7-28D10000664000175000017500000000017014621747036011322 0ustar jtnjtn7-28D1 B Which of the following is NOT a DSC watch frequency? A. 2187.5 kHz B. 2182.0 kHz C. 6312.0 kHz D. 12577.0 kHz share/E7/7-93J40000664000175000017500000000045514621747037011344 0ustar jtnjtn7-93J4 D Which of the following would be a valid automatic TELEX code and number for a request for a real-time TELEX connection to a shore-based TELEX terminal? A. DIRTLX then wait for MSG+ to dial 023419645+. B. DIRTLX23122445+. C. DIRTLX followed by GA+? and the TELEX number. D. DIRTLX023424998+. share/E7/7-6A50000664000175000017500000000031214621747036011235 0ustar jtnjtn7-6A5 C A ship operating in sea area A-3 must have the following provisions for maintenance: A. Duplication of Equipment. B. Shore Maintenance. C. Any two of these are required. D. At Sea Maintenance. share/E7/7-78I10000664000175000017500000000074614621747037011346 0ustar jtnjtn7-78I1 D A vessel with an 18-hour ETA to the Panama Canal on a voyage from Miami loses the ability to communicate via Inmarsat-C. The most likely cause is? A. The vessel has sailed beyond the coverage area of the Southbury Land Earth Station. B. The vessel has sailed beyond the coverage area of the Eastern Atlantic satellite. C. The vessel has sailed beyond the coverage area of the Western Atlantic satellite. D. An equipment fault resulting in a loss of signal from the satellite. share/E7/7-23D10000664000175000017500000000034514621747036011321 0ustar jtnjtn7-23D1 C A DSC call is received from a station with a MMSI number of 003669991. What type of station made the call? A. A vessel operating in Sea Area A3. B. A group ship station C. A U.S. coast station D. An Intercoastal vessel share/E7/7-5A40000664000175000017500000000101414621747035011232 0ustar jtnjtn7-5A4 D Within a single sea area, what is the primary reason GMDSS imposes carriage requirements for different radio subsystems? A. Redundancy in duplicating all operational functions in the event of a system failure. B. Different subsystems are required to meet the specific equipment carriage requirements of national authorities. C. GMDSS vessels must be equipped to communicate in all modes with coast radio stations. D. The combined capabilities of redundant subsystems mitigate the risk of a single point of failure. share/E7/7-90J10000664000175000017500000000101114621747037011323 0ustar jtnjtn7-90J1 D Which of the following events will take place immediately after phasing with a Coast Station on an available channel? A. The ship station begins transmitting the text to the destination telex terminal. B. The vessel will request the shore station's answerback to confirm it has reached the correct station. C. The ship will transmit the desired command (such as DIRTLX+, OBS+ or AMV+) to the coast radio station. D. After exchanging answer-backs (WRU/AAB) the coast station transmits GA+? and awaits a command. share/E7/7-95J10000664000175000017500000000065114621747037011341 0ustar jtnjtn7-95J1 C If the vessel is within range of NAVTEX broadcasts and both the Inmarsat-C and the NAVTEX receiver are inoperative the GMDSS operator should: A. Select 518 kHz ARQ TELEX on the MF/HF console to receive MSI. B. Request repairs of the Sat-C system and wait until within range of NAVTEX. C. Select 518 kHz FEC TELEX on the MF/HF console to receive MSI. D. Select an HF MSI frequency and ARQ TELEX mode to receive MSI. share/E7/7-3A10000664000175000017500000000040714621747035011232 0ustar jtnjtn7-3A1 C Which of the following regions lie outside Sea Areas A1, A2, and A3? A. Sea Areas only apply to Inmarsat footprint areas. B. Sea Area A3-I Inmarsat coverage and Sea Area A3-S HF SITOR (NBDP) coverage. C. Sea Area A4 D. There are no additional Sea Areas. share/E7/7-74I20000664000175000017500000000074514621747037011342 0ustar jtnjtn7-74I2 A To send message traffic to an Internet address using an Inmarsat- C terminal -- what action would be required? A. Select the recipient using the e-mail code from the address book (or manually select the code.) B. Insert the Internet address into the correct field when creating the message file. C. Select the recipient using the e-mail code into the DNID/ENID setup e-mail function. D. Insert the Internet address into the correct field of the System setup e-mail function. share/E7/7-82J30000664000175000017500000000043114621747037011333 0ustar jtnjtn7-82J3 B What is meant by the term duplex "ITU channel"? A. This refers to a vessel's SELCAL number. B. A standardized series of frequency pairings for common use. C. This refers to VHF channels 1-28 and 60-88. D. A series of frequency pairings used for ship-ship communications. share/E7/7-89J30000664000175000017500000000115714621747037011350 0ustar jtnjtn7-89J3 C Which of the following methods will give a GMDSS Radio Operator the best indication of whether ARQ communication can be established with a coast radio station? A. Referring to propagation charts will tell the Operator when the eruption of communication shattering solar flares will occur. B. Selecting a frequency in the MF band averts interference from severe static discharges. C. Monitor the coast radio station's "free signals" and call on the frequency on which the loudest and most consistent signals are heard. D. Re-position the antenna toward the coast radio station and press the "call request" button. share/E7/7-35E20000664000175000017500000000061714621747036011330 0ustar jtnjtn7-35E2 D Which of the following situations would normally use the Urgency priority? A. A crewmember falling over the side. B. A serious medical situation involving a crewmember with potential loss of life. C. An important meteorological warning concerning hazardous weather. D. A cargo shift or weather situation considered to be of greater hazard than would justify a Safety priority designation. share/E7/7-95J50000664000175000017500000000053614621747037011347 0ustar jtnjtn7-95J5 B BFEC SITOR (NBDP) transmissions might be used to? A. Receive Coast station traffic lists, NAVTEX and VHF MSI broadcasts. B. Send and receive Distress TELEX communications and receive HF MSI or NAVTEX. C. Receive weather messages or download ARQ Coast Station traffic lists. D. Receive weather messages and send vessel weather OBS messages. share/E7/7-80J20000664000175000017500000000065714621747037011342 0ustar jtnjtn7-80J2 C MF/HF Transceiver Power levels should be set: A. To the highest possible level to ensure effective communications. B. To the lowest possible level at all times regardless of whether communications are effective. C. To the lowest level needed to achieve the necessary propagation radius and communications range. D. To the highest level possible so as to ensure other stations cannot "break-in" on the channel during use. share/E7/7-25D40000664000175000017500000000017414621747036011326 0ustar jtnjtn7-25D4 D Which of the following would indicate an Inmarsat-C terminal? A. 600935021 B. 366294824 C. 764881432 D. 430346275 share/E7/7-77I30000664000175000017500000000060214621747037011336 0ustar jtnjtn7-77I3 C What additional equipment provides the maximum availability for receiving SafetyNETTM broadcasts when the associated Inmarsat-C SES is engaged in communications? A. An integrated EGC receiver with the existing Inmarsat-C equipment. B. HF SSB can be used to receive voice MSI broadcasts. C. A separate EGC receiver. D. Automatic switching between Inmarsat-C and EGC functions. share/E7/7-70I30000664000175000017500000000046314621747037011334 0ustar jtnjtn7-70I3 B How would a shoreside party dial an Iridium terminal on a ship? A. Dial the Inmarsat satellite gateway and then 881612345678. B. Dial the national exit code and then 881612345678 C. Dial the national exit code and then 870766891244# D. Dial the Iridium national access code and then 881612345678# share/E7/7-85J60000664000175000017500000000061314621747037011343 0ustar jtnjtn7-85J6 B What is the best source of information to find changes or additions to the routine communications frequencies of a Commercial Radio Station? A. GMDSS Master Plan of Shore-Based Facilities. B. ITU List of Coast Stations and Special Service Stations. (List IV) C. FCC Part 80, Subpart W Coast Radio Stations. D. ITU List of Ship Stations and Maritime Mobile Service Identities. (List V) share/E7/7-65I60000664000175000017500000000046214621747036011341 0ustar jtnjtn7-65I6 B What are the directional characteristics of the Inmarsat-C SES antenna? A. Highly directional parabolic antenna requiring stabilization. B. Omni-directional. C. Wide beam width in a cardioid pattern off the front of the antenna. D. Very narrow beam width straight-up from the top of the antenna. share/E7/7-49G10000664000175000017500000000055414621747036011336 0ustar jtnjtn7-49G1 A Which of the following control selections may result in limited receiving range? A. Setting the squelch control to its maximum level. B. Setting the squelch control to its minimum level. C. The power switch is set to the "high" output position, resulting in receiver overloading. D. Setting the channel selection switch midway between channels 6 and 16. share/E7/7-82J50000664000175000017500000000133114621747037011335 0ustar jtnjtn7-82J5 C What is a potential danger of using the manufacturer's database to set up for operations using MF-HF ITU frequency assignments? A. All manufacturer's frequency databases are required to be standardized & accurate so that there is no danger. B. Using the manufacturer's frequency database to setup the transceiver typically takes longer and is more prone to error than a manual setup. C. Different manufacturers use different database numbering systems to incorporate the ITU assignments into the transceiver and therefore a potential for confusion exists. D. Using the manufacturer's frequency databases ensures that the transceiver is always restricted to the vessel's licensed frequencies so that there is no danger. share/E7/7-65I10000664000175000017500000000022614621747036011332 0ustar jtnjtn7-65I1 A Which mode of communications is NOT possible through an Inmarsat-C SES? A. Shore-to-ship Facsimile B. Data C. TELEX D. Emergency Activation share/E7/7-84J50000664000175000017500000000036714621747037011347 0ustar jtnjtn7-84J5 D The proper sequence of emissions corresponding to the sequence AM-Voice DSB, SSB-Voice without carrier, USB-Voice with carrier and FM-Voice, is: A. A3E, H3E, J3E, F3E. B. J3E, H3E, A3E, F3E. C. H3E, A3E, J3E, F3E. D. A3E, J3E, H3E, F3E. share/E7/7-79I20000664000175000017500000000060614621747037011343 0ustar jtnjtn7-79I2 D A vessel loses Inmarsat-FBB SES operation after a large course change. Which of the following could most likely cause this? A. Shadowing of the SES antenna by clouds or other weather formations. B. Misalignment of the shadow correction filter. C. The vessel sailed beyond the footprint of the satellite coverage. D. The ship's superstructure is now blocking the satellite signal. share/E7/7-81J50000664000175000017500000000057414621747037011344 0ustar jtnjtn7-81J5 A An ITU simplex channel frequency assignment is defined as: A. Transmit and receive frequencies must be identical. B. Transmit and receive frequencies must be different. C. Transmit and receive frequencies may be different, depending on whether communications are ship-shore or ship to ship. D. Transmit and receive frequencies are different regardless of emission mode. share/E7/7-75I50000664000175000017500000000122714621747037011342 0ustar jtnjtn7-75I5 B Why is the correct selection of the LES in the Inmarsat-C Distress Alert Setup menu so crucial? A. Each LES has its own dedicated RCC whose jurisdiction is defined by the LES selected. B. The LES choice determines the nationality of the RCC which will handle the Distress traffic and perform SAR duties or that will pass the particulars to the RCC with jurisdiction to coordinate the SAR situation. C. Inmarsat-C terminals use the GPS position to automatically determine the optimum LES choice in a Distress situation. D. The vessel need not select the LES because the NCS will always intercept a Distress priority call and route it to the closest RCC. share/E7/7-62I30000664000175000017500000000023414621747036011330 0ustar jtnjtn7-62I3 B Messages are transmitted by an Inmarsat LES according to what criteria? A. First In, First Out B. Priority C. Last In, First Out D. Serial Number share/E7/7-76I10000664000175000017500000000113214621747037011332 0ustar jtnjtn7-76I1 B What action would be the swiftest and most certain way to notify a RCC of a Distress situation aboard your vessel? A. Compose a detailed Distress message and send it to the closest LES to optimize the SAR response. B. Confirm the information in the Distress Alert Message setup menu is correct and use the "hot-key" or Distress Message Generator function on your satellite terminal. C. Press all of the "hot keys" available in the GMDSS console to ensure the RCC is notified. D. Send a multi-frequency DSC alert to ensure the RCC is notified regardless of Ionospheric propagation conditions. share/E7/7-62I60000664000175000017500000000034414621747036011335 0ustar jtnjtn7-62I6 D What is the purpose of a CODEC? A. Noise and echo-canceling used in TELEX operation. B. To enable Distress communications. C. To enable data communications. D. To convert analog voice signals to digital transmissions. share/E7/7-51H10000664000175000017500000000114614621747036011326 0ustar jtnjtn7-51H1 C How is mutual interference on 518 kHz among NAVTEX stations avoided? A. All stations transmit at the same time but stations are limited to daytime operation only to reduce the radius of propagation. B. Transmitter power is limited, station assignment codes are not shared by other NAVAREAS and stations alternate between daytime and nighttime operations. C. Transmissions scheduled on a time-sharing basis, power is limited and station assignment codes are geographically separated. D. Station codes are not shared by other NAVAREAS, transmissions scheduled on a time-sharing basis and power is limited. share/E7/7-20C50000664000175000017500000000055314621747036011322 0ustar jtnjtn7-20C5 D Which statement concerning radio log archival by the station licensee is FALSE? A. Retain for two years if there are no Distress entries. B. Logs related to an investigation may not be destroyed without specific authorization. C. Retain for three years if there are Distress entries. D. Retain for one year unless there are Distress or Urgency entries. share/E7/7-39F20000664000175000017500000000077114621747036011336 0ustar jtnjtn7-39F2 D Which of the following would aid the detection of a SART's signal? A. The rescue personnel were monitoring the 3-CM radar and the SART was mounted improperly in the lifeboat. B. The SART was mounted improperly in the survival craft and rescue personnel were monitoring the 10-CM radar. C. The rescue personnel were monitoring the 10-CM radar and the SART was properly mounted in the lifeboat. D. The SART was properly mounted in the lifeboat and rescue personnel were monitoring the 3-CM radar. share/E7/7-8B60000664000175000017500000000017614621747036011251 0ustar jtnjtn7-8B6 A Which system has the least effective radius of operation? A. VHF DSC B. HF SITOR (NBDP) C. MF SITOR (NBDP) D. NAVTEX share/E7/7-36E50000664000175000017500000000025614621747036011333 0ustar jtnjtn7-36E5 D The Radiotelephone Safety signal is: A. "Safety Safety Safety" B. "Pan Pan" repeated 3 times C. "Securite Securite" repeated 3 times D. "Securite" repeated 3 times share/E7/7-64I30000664000175000017500000000061214621747036011332 0ustar jtnjtn7-64I3 D How does an FBB terminal notify shore authorities of a Distress situation with priority pre-emption? A. Dial 505 on the keypad to request an "SOS" voice call. B. Dial 505 on the keypad to make a pre-emptive priority Distress call. C. Press the dedicated Distress Alert button on the FBB handset. D. Press the dedicated Distress Alert button on the connected Maritime Safety Terminal. share/E7/7-36E40000664000175000017500000000051214621747036011325 0ustar jtnjtn7-36E4 A Which of the following situations would normally use the Safety priority? A. Important navigational or meteorological warnings. B. A serious medical situation involving a crewmember. C. An unanticipated warning related to piracy or terrorism. D. Grounding in a way that could lead to imminent danger to the ship's crew. share/E7/7-36E20000664000175000017500000000052714621747036011331 0ustar jtnjtn7-36E2 C Which of the following situations would normally use the Voice designation "Securite"? A. Messages concerning the Safety of Life At Sea (SOLAS). B. Messages containing information concerning the Safety of a mobile unit or person. C. Messages detailing important navigational warnings. D. Messages concerning On-scene communications. share/E7/7-64I20000664000175000017500000000046514621747036011337 0ustar jtnjtn7-64I2 C Inmarsat FBB coverage is provided by? A. 66 satellites in near-polar orbits. B. The same four satellites that provide Inmarsat-C coverage. C. There are four footprints not all of which are identical to Inmarsat-C coverage. D. 6 geo-stationary satellites to provide coverage in all navigable waters. share/E7/7-67I60000664000175000017500000000123714621747036011344 0ustar jtnjtn7-67I6 C When Inmarsat-FBB and Inmarsat-C terminals are compared: A. Inmarsat-FBB units provide greater communications capabilities, with the benefits of greater size, weight, installation expense and initial cost. B. Inmarsat-C provides lesser communications capabilities, with the trade-offs of greater size, weight, installation expense and initial cost. C. Inmarsat-FBB units provide greater communications capabilities, with the trade-offs of greater size, weight, installation expense and initial cost. D. Inmarsat-C units are of smaller size, weight, installation expense and initial cost and provide greater communications capabilities due to modern technology. share/E7/7-79I10000664000175000017500000000037714621747037011347 0ustar jtnjtn7-79I1 C What immediate remedy can be used to correct shadowing of the satellite signal by a shipboard obstruction? A. Relocate the mast or other obstruction. B. Raise the transmit power level. C. Change the ship's course. D. Increase the receiver gain. share/E7/7-2A50000664000175000017500000000021414621747035011231 0ustar jtnjtn7-2A5 C What system provides accurate vessel position information to the GMDSS equipment? A. COSPAS-SARSAT B. EPIRB C. GPS D. Inmarsat-F77 share/E7/7-44F10000664000175000017500000000031714621747036011325 0ustar jtnjtn7-44F1 B Which of the following would best be used for visual detection of a distressed vessel? A. A 9-GHz SART's beacon. B. An EPIRB's strobe light. C. A 121.5-MHz EPIRB beacon. D. A 406-MHz EPIRB beacon. share/E7/7-49G50000664000175000017500000000061214621747036011335 0ustar jtnjtn7-49G5 A Describing VHF transmissions as "line of sight" does NOT mean: A. VHF communications are effective only with nearby stations within visual range of the bridge. B. Vessel antenna height will not affect the radius of propagation. C. The normal transmission range to a coast station is approximately is 10 NM. D. Coast station antenna height has no effect on the radius of transmission. share/E7/7-7B30000664000175000017500000000016614621747036011244 0ustar jtnjtn7-7B3 A What is the frequency range for Very High Frequency? A. 30-300 MHz B. 3-30 MHz C. 300-3,000 kHz D. 10-30 MHz share/E7/7-41F30000664000175000017500000000160314621747036011323 0ustar jtnjtn7-41F3 C What statement is true regarding tests and maintenance that could be provided for the SART? A. Full verification within manufacturer's specifications by the on-board maintainer would be a requirement for all vessels in the A3 & A4 sea areas using measuring equipment to generate 9 GHz signals. B. Battery should be replaced within the 90 day grace period following the manufacturer's expiration date shown on the SART and the SART should only be tested at-sea to reduce interference to other vessels. C. Extreme care should be exercised because testing of the SART may be received by other vessels, may be interpreted as a Distress condition, or it may interfere with other vessels' safe navigation. D. Battery should be replaced with a new one before the manufacturer's expiration date shown on the SART and the SART should only be tested in port to reduce interference to other vessels. share/E7/7-84J60000664000175000017500000000037414621747037011346 0ustar jtnjtn7-84J6 A The proper sequence of emissions corresponding to the sequence SSB-Voice without carrier, USB-Voice with carrier, FM-Voice and SITOR (NBDP) TELEX is: A. J3E, H3E, F3E, F1B. B. H3E, J3E, F3E, F1B. C. J3E, H3E, F1B, F3E. D. H3E, J3E, F1B, F3E. share/E7/7-41F50000664000175000017500000000050414621747036011324 0ustar jtnjtn7-41F5 A Which is NOT a valid maintenance and testing function for a SART? A. Operational test with several vessels to determine effective transmitting range. B. Inspection of container for apparent damage. C. Inspect battery expiration date and the lanyard condition. D. Brief operational test utilizing own ship's radar. share/E7/7-47F50000664000175000017500000000033314621747036011332 0ustar jtnjtn7-47F5 B What information is transmitted by a 406 MHz EPIRB alert? A. Vessel position and nature of Distress. B. A unique Hexadecimal I.D. number. C. Vessel name and identification. D. Vessel MMSI number and position. share/E7/7-100J40000664000175000017500000000114314621747037011404 0ustar jtnjtn7-100J4 A Which would be an indication of proper operation of a SSB transmitter rated at 60 watt PEP output? A. In SITOR (NBDP) communications, the power meter can be seen fluctuating regularly from zero to the 60 watt relative output reading. B. In SSB (J3E) voice mode, with the transmitter keyed but without speaking into the microphone, power output is indicated. C. In SSB (J3E) mode, speaking into the microphone causes power meter to fluctuate slightly around the 60 watt reading. D. A steady indication of transmitted energy on an RF Power meter with no fluctuations when speaking into the microphone. share/E7/7-25D50000664000175000017500000000017414621747036011327 0ustar jtnjtn7-25D5 A Which of the following would indicate an Inmarsat-C terminal? A. 436782011 B. 003662517 C. 325463325 D. 764848791 share/E7/7-41F40000664000175000017500000000113614621747036011325 0ustar jtnjtn7-41F4 D Why should functional testing of a SART be minimized? A. Potential interference with safe navigation, notifying other vessels of an actual Distress and minimize power consumption. B. Minimize power consumption of the battery and only test at sea to reduce potential interference or confusion. C. Possibility of misinterpretation by other vessels as a Distress situation and only test in port to prevent potential interference with safe navigation or at-sea vessels. D. Potential interference with safe navigation, possible misinterpretation of an actual Distress, minimizes draining the battery. share/E7/7-35E40000664000175000017500000000052514621747036011330 0ustar jtnjtn7-35E4 B Which of the following situations would normally use the Urgency priority? A. A collision with the ship taking on water. B. A serious medical situation involving a crewmember. C. Important company communications related to an itinerary change. D. Scenarios concerning the Safety of navigation or important meteorological warnings. share/E7/7-69I50000664000175000017500000000056014621747037011344 0ustar jtnjtn7-69I5 A If you are tracking the AOR-W satellite and wish to communicate by F77 voice using LES Southbury with another ship tracking the AOR-E satellite what is the proper procedure? A. Select LES: 001# then dial 00870763972310# B. Select LES: 004# then dial 11582430315036# C. Select LES: 001# then dial 00851636824323# D. Select LES: 003# then dial 00581430326430# share/E7/7-3A60000664000175000017500000000046314621747035011241 0ustar jtnjtn7-3A6 C What is defined as the area within the radiotelephone coverage area of at least one VHF coast station in which continuous DSC alerting is available as defined by the IMO regulation for GMDSS? A. Ocean Area Regions AOR-E, AOR-W, POR or IOR B. Sea Area A2 C. Sea Area A1 D. Coastal and Inland Waters share/E7/7-31E50000664000175000017500000000076214621747036011330 0ustar jtnjtn7-31E5 B What action should be taken on receipt of a DSC Distress alert? A. Read the display screen and/or printout, silence the alarm, always call the Master to confirm the alert is real. B. Silence the alarm, read the display screen and/or printout and listen for any follow-on transmissions. C. Listen for any follow-on voice/TELEX transmission on the appropriate DSC frequency. D. Silence the alarm, read the display screen and/or printout, only call the Master if the alert is within 500 NM. share/E7/7-82J60000664000175000017500000000035714621747037011345 0ustar jtnjtn7-82J6 D ITU Duplex channels are: A. Frequency assignments specific to U.S. vessels only. B. VHF-FM frequencies. C. International Traffic Utility frequencies. D. Internationally standardized assignments of frequency pairs for common use. share/E7/7-73I40000664000175000017500000000042314621747037011334 0ustar jtnjtn7-73I4 D Which of the following is a correctly formatted Inmarsat-C address book entry for sending communications to a fax machine number 1424-8821-902 in the United Kingdom (voice country code 44)? A. 44 1424-8821-902 B. 4414248821902# C. 44+ 14248821902+ D. 4414248821902 share/E7/7-19C10000664000175000017500000000072514621747036011327 0ustar jtnjtn7-19C1 C A vessel certified for service in Sea Area A3 is required to maintain a watch on: A. VHF Channel 70, MF Frequency 2182.0 kHz, HF on 8414.5 kHz and one other HF DSC frequency. B. MF Frequency 2187.5 kHz, HF on 8414.5 kHz and one other HF DSC frequency, HF on 4125.0 kHz. C. VHF Channel 70, MF Frequency 2187.5 kHz, HF on 8414.5 kHz and one other HF DSC frequency. D. VHF Channel 16, VHF Channel 70, MF Frequency 2187.5 kHz, HF on 8414.5 MHz and HF 4177.5 MHz. share/E7/7-80J30000664000175000017500000000066514621747037011342 0ustar jtnjtn7-80J3 D Which statement regarding GMDSS MF/HF Transceiver frequency set-up is true: A. Manual keypad entries are quicker and more certain than using the database. B. All consoles ensure that manual keypad entries are checked for legal outcomes. C. All consoles ensure that ITU channel recall from a database produces accurate and legal outcomes. D. Using the manufacturer's database typically produces a more swift and certain result. share/E7/7-6A60000664000175000017500000000031314621747036011237 0ustar jtnjtn7-6A6 D A ship operating in sea area A-1 must have the following provisions for maintenance: A. Shore maintenance. B. Duplication of equipment. C. At Sea Maintenance. D. Any one of these is sufficient. share/E7/7-24D50000664000175000017500000000016714621747036011330 0ustar jtnjtn7-24D5 D Which of the following would indicate an EPIRB AIS SART? A. 970240099 B. 430363275 C. 369632824 D. 974350188 share/E7/7-90J50000664000175000017500000000064714621747037011345 0ustar jtnjtn7-90J5 C During ARQ communications, which of these is least likely to cause a coast station to immediately break the phased radio connection: A. If the automatic exchange of answerbacks is interrupted by keyboard entries. B. If the error percentage of repeat requests becomes too high. C. If the operator enters "KKKK" at the end of the message. D. If the BRK+? Command is transmitted after time and charges are received. share/E7/7-51H30000664000175000017500000000063514621747036011332 0ustar jtnjtn7-51H3 A What should a GMDSS Radio Operator do if a NAVTEX warning message is received but it contains too many errors to be usable? A. Do nothing. Vital NAVTEX messages will be repeated on the next scheduled broadcast. B. Contact the NAVAREA coordinator and request a repeat broadcast. C. Initiate a request for Category A, B, L and D messages. D. Listen to appropriate VHF weather channel for repeat warnings. share/E7/7-57H40000664000175000017500000000037014621747036011335 0ustar jtnjtn7-57H4 D Frequencies for receiving HF MSI (Maritime Safety Information) are: A. The same as used for NAVTEX B. The same as used for contact a Coast Radio Station using FEC C. Specified HF voice frequencies D. Specified HF SITOR (NBDP) frequencies share/E7/7-73I60000664000175000017500000000040414621747037011335 0ustar jtnjtn7-73I6 B Which of the following is a correctly formatted Inmarsat-C address book entry for sending communications to a fax machine number (045) 334-5678 in Japan (voice country code 81)? A. 810453345678# B. 810453345678 C. 81(045)3345678 D. 81 (045) 334-5678 share/E7/7-19C40000664000175000017500000000136114621747036011327 0ustar jtnjtn7-19C4 B Proper watchkeeping includes the following: A. Monitoring all required frequencies in the proper mode, setting the DSC scanner to 2 MHz, 4 MHZ and 8 MHz for ships in the vicinity, notifying the Master of any Distress alerts. B. After silencing an alarm all displays and/or printouts are read, monitoring all required frequencies in the proper mode, notifying the Master of any Distress alerts. C. Notifying the Master of any Distress alerts, setting the DSC scanner to 2 MHz, 4 MHZ and 8 MHz for ships in the vicinity, monitoring all required frequencies in the proper mode. D. Setting the DSC scanner only to the mandatory 2 MHz & 8 MHz, maintain continuous watch on 2182.0 kHz or 4125.0 kHz, notify the Master of any Distress traffic heard. share/E7/7-41F60000664000175000017500000000027314621747036011330 0ustar jtnjtn7-41F6 B The SART is required to have sufficient battery capacity to operate in the stand-by mode for what period of time? A. Three days B. Four days C. Eight hours D. Forty-eight hours share/E7/7-50G30000664000175000017500000000041014621747036011317 0ustar jtnjtn7-50G3 B While conducting routine communications using the wheelhouse VHF with a station 1 mile distant, your recommended power setting would be: A. 25 watts after dark. B. 1 watt, day or night. C. 25 watts during a clear sunny day. D. 1 watt using DSC at night. share/E7/7-22D60000664000175000017500000000017214621747036011323 0ustar jtnjtn7-22D6 D Which of the following numbers indicates a ship station MMSI? A. 003372694 B. 030356328 C. 3384672 D. 623944326 share/E7/7-3A50000664000175000017500000000027414621747035011240 0ustar jtnjtn7-3A5 B SITOR (NBDP) equipment is a partial or alternate carriage requirement under GMDSS for vessels operating in which sea area(s)? A. A1 B. A3 and A4 C. A1 and A2 D. A1, A2, A3 and A4 share/E7/7-45F50000664000175000017500000000044514621747036011334 0ustar jtnjtn7-45F5 A Which statement is NOT true regarding the requirements of VHF Survival Craft Transceivers? A. Operation on Ch-13 is mandatory. B. Effective radiated power should be a minimum of 0.25 Watts. C. Simplex (single frequency) voice communications only. D. Operation on Ch-16 is mandatory. share/E7/7-65I40000664000175000017500000000101614621747036011333 0ustar jtnjtn7-65I4 D What statement is true regarding Inmarsat-C? A. There is a propagation delay, but a direct connection is made between the ship and shore users. B. There are delays in establishing communications. Then a direct real-time connection is maintained with the other party. C. The TELEX message is stored until the mailbox is accessed by the station desiring to retrieve their message. D. This is a store and forward network, with an intermediate step that means there is no direct connection between ship and shore users. share/E7/7-78I30000664000175000017500000000060314621747037011340 0ustar jtnjtn7-78I3 B What would cause an FBB antenna to lose constant lock on the satellite? A. An indication on a meter or on the display terminal of lowered transmit power. B. Loss of the internal antenna pitch/roll sensors (IMS). C. An indication of a very high antenna elevation on the display terminal screen. D. An indication that the antenna has reached its maximum travel in one direction. share/E7/7-29E30000664000175000017500000000077514621747036011341 0ustar jtnjtn7-29E3 C If a GMDSS Radio Operator initiates a DSC Distress transmission but does not insert a message, what happens? A. The transmission is aborted and an alarm sounds to indicate this data must be provided by the operator. B. The transmission is not initiated and "ERROR" is indicated on the display readout. C. The transmission will be made with "default" information provided automatically. D. The receiving station will poll the DSC unit of the vessel in Distress to download the necessary information. share/E7/7-76I50000664000175000017500000000106014621747037011336 0ustar jtnjtn7-76I5 D What statement is true regarding LES codes and Inmarsat "hot-key" alert default menus? A. Automatic or manual updating of the LES code only needs to be done when switching to a different ocean region satellite. B. The SAR jurisdiction software automatically updates the "hot-key" menu based on the vessel's position. C. The LES code is determined by the NAVAREA based on the vessel's current position. D. The LES code must be updated by the officers depending upon the SAR jurisdictions the vessel transits and current ocean region satellite in use. share/E7/7-86J40000664000175000017500000000077614621747037011354 0ustar jtnjtn7-86J4 C Which of these statements regarding a multi-frequency MF/HF DSC Distress alert is FALSE? A. Some units transmit on the mandatory MF/HF DSC watch frequencies first, and then on the others. B. Some units transmit in ascending order of propagation radius to alert nearby ships or shore stations first. C. May be transmitted in any order programmed by the GMDSSS operator. D. Multi-frequency alerts work quite differently, depending on the manufacturer and require care and understanding of the feature. share/E7/7-94J20000664000175000017500000000047014621747037011340 0ustar jtnjtn7-94J2 A Which of the following is true of SITOR (NBDP) in FEC mode, in the presence of static crashes. A. FEC reduces the error rate by transmitting each character twice. B. Data flow rate depends on signal propagation. C. Idle characters are sent upon request. D. Transmitter and receiver do not synchronize. share/E7/7-67I50000664000175000017500000000106314621747036011340 0ustar jtnjtn7-67I5 B Which statement concerning Inmarsat-FBB and Inmarsat-C terminals is correct? A. Both Inmarsat-FBB and Inmarsat-C units are subject to shadowing effects due to their omni-directional antennas. B. Both Inmarsat-FBB and Inmarsat-C units are subject to shadowing effects, but Inmarsat-FBB units have directional antennas. C. Both Inmarsat-FBB and Inmarsat-C units are subject to shadowing effects, but Inmarsat-C units have directional antennas. D. Both Inmarsat-FBB and Inmarsat-C units are subject to shadowing effects, due to their directional antennas. share/E7/7-27D40000664000175000017500000000042214621747036011324 0ustar jtnjtn7-27D4 B A DSC Distress alert: A. Must always be sent on VHF Ch-70. B. Will always be sent on one or more of the DSC Distress frequencies. C. Must always be sent on MF 2 MHz plus one other HF DSC frequency. D. Must always be sent on VHF Ch-70, then 2 MHz MF then 8 MHz HF. share/E7/7-66I60000664000175000017500000000074114621747036011342 0ustar jtnjtn7-66I6 D Which of the following best describes the full range of services provided by the Inmarsat-C Satellite system? A. Polling, enhanced group call, and one-way position and data reporting via satellite. B. FM voice communications via satellite. C. Two-way messaging and data communications on a store-and-forward basis. D. Polling, enhanced group call, one-way position and data reporting via satellite, two-way messaging and data communications on a store-and-forward basis. share/E7/7-29E60000664000175000017500000000116414621747036011335 0ustar jtnjtn7-29E6 B Which statement regarding an MF/HF DSC Distress alert is true: A. Follow on communications should be presumed to take place on the SITOR (NBDP) frequency associated with the specific DSC frequency used. B. Follow on communications should be presumed to take place on the voice frequency associated with the specific DSC frequency used. C. An alternate emission and frequency may be specified for follow-up communications by the vessel in the original Distress alert. D. Both the nature of Distress and the alternate emission and frequency must be specified for follow-up communications in the original Distress alert. share/E7/7-49G40000664000175000017500000000040114621747036011330 0ustar jtnjtn7-49G4 D Much longer than normal VHF communications distances are typically caused by: A. Changing power from 1W to 25 W. B. Skywave reflections from the D layer. C. Ionospheric activity in layers F1/F2. D. Atmospheric ducting or tropospheric propagation. share/E7/7-38E60000664000175000017500000000045214621747036011334 0ustar jtnjtn7-38E6 D When operating in coastal waters (sea area A1), a GMDSS-equipped vessel must: A. Maintain a continuous DSC watch on 8514.5 kHz. B. Maintain a continuous aural watch on 2182.0 kHz. C. Maintain a continuous DSC watch on VHF channel 16. D. Maintain a continuous DSC watch on VHF channel 70. share/E7/7-47F60000664000175000017500000000073214621747036011336 0ustar jtnjtn7-47F6 C Which statement is FALSE regarding the COSPAS-SARSAT system and EPIRB operations? A. The EPIRB's position is calculated by the satellite or LUT and later passed to the MCC. B. The EPIRB transmits a unique Hex I.D. and vessel position that may be passed to the RCC. C. The EPIRB's position and Hex I.D. is passed instantaneously to the RCC. D. The EPIRB transmits a unique Hex I.D. that is passed to the RCC if it cannot be determined by the MCC to be inadvertent. share/E7/7-93J10000664000175000017500000000030714621747037011335 0ustar jtnjtn7-93J1 A Which of the following keystrokes or characters is sent as part of ARQ communications to request a direct TELEX call to a shore-based location? A. DIRTLX023123456+ B. MSG+ C. GA+? D. ENTER share/E7/7-39F40000664000175000017500000000063514621747036011337 0ustar jtnjtn7-39F4 B Which statement is NOT true regarding the SART? A. Responds to interrogations by a vessel's X-Band radar and transmits a signal. B. This is a 6 GHz transponder capable of being received by a vessel's X-band navigational radar system. C. This is a 9 GHz transponder capable of being received by a vessel's X-band navigational radar system. D. Transmits a distinctive 12-blip signal for easy recognition. share/E7/7-66I30000664000175000017500000000071714621747036011342 0ustar jtnjtn7-66I3 B How are Inmarsat-C LESs selected by the operator? A. The operator can program the terminal for their preferred default LES codes for Distress and routine communications. B. The NCS for each ocean region downloads the current LES codes into the terminal. C. The NCS selects the optimum LES code for both Routine and Distress communication. D. The LES codes can be selected for routine communications but the NCS chooses the best LES for Distress Alerts. share/E7/7-59I60000664000175000017500000000056614621747036011351 0ustar jtnjtn7-59I6 C On an Inmarsat-C system an incoming EGC alarm sounds: A. When first powered on and when receiving Distress traffic. B. When receiving Distress traffic and all of the BALD MSI messages. C. To draw the operator's attention to an unscheduled Distress or Urgency message. D. To indicate the loss of NCS CC sync -- preventing the reception of unscheduled EGC messages. share/E7/7-4A40000664000175000017500000000037314621747035011240 0ustar jtnjtn7-4A4 A What equipment can be used to receive Maritime Safety Information? A. NAVTEX, EGC receiver or HF SITOR (NBDP). B. EGC receiver, Inmarsat-F77 or VHF WX channels. C. HF SITOR (NBDP), Inmarsat-F77 or NAVTEX. D. All of these answers are correct. share/E7/7-76I30000664000175000017500000000127414621747037011343 0ustar jtnjtn7-76I3 D What actions should be taken to transmit a detailed satellite Distress message to a RCC handling your vessel's initial "hot-key" Distress Alert? A. Compose a detailed Distress message, attach it to the Distress Alert Setup menu and re-transmit the "hotkey" Distress Alert. B. Call up and edit a pre-saved detailed Distress message, select the closest LES and press the "hot-key." C. Compose a detailed Distress message, use the Transmit or SEND/REC menu and send it to both the RCC and to your company emergency contact number. D. Call up and edit a pre-saved detailed Distress message, use the Transmit or SEND/REC menu, select Distress priority and choose the best LES for the situation. share/E7/7-5A30000664000175000017500000000025714621747035011241 0ustar jtnjtn7-5A3 C Vessels operating in which sea area(s) are required to carry either Inmarsat or HF equipment or a combination thereof under GMDSS? A. All sea areas B. A4 C. A3 D. A1 share/E7/7-87J50000664000175000017500000000025514621747037011346 0ustar jtnjtn7-87J5 B The acronym SITOR (NBDP) stands for: A. Simplified Telephony Over Radio B. Simplex TELEX Over Radio C. Simplified TELEX Over Radio D. Simplex Telephony Over Radio share/E7/7-42F10000664000175000017500000000107614621747036011326 0ustar jtnjtn7-42F1 D Which is not a function of a satellite under COSPAS-SARSAT using satellite EPIRBs? A. Relayed satellite message includes the EPIRB ID number which provides a reference for retrieval of vessel information from the shore database. B. Doppler shift of EPIRB signal is measured and the EPIRB's position is calculated. C. Information received from EPIRBs is time-tagged and transmitted to any Local User Terminal in the satellite's view. D. After the EPIRB's position is calculated using the Doppler shift COSPAS-SARSAT satellites provide follow-on SAR communications. share/E7/7-44F20000664000175000017500000000036214621747036011326 0ustar jtnjtn7-44F2 C Which piece of required GMDSS equipment is the primary source of transmitting locating signals? A. Radio Direction Finder (RDF). B. Survival Craft Transceiver. C. An EPIRB transmitting on 406 MHz. D. A SART transmitting on 406 MHz. share/E7/7-85J50000664000175000017500000000105614621747037011344 0ustar jtnjtn7-85J5 A Through which coast radio station(s) may a U.S.-flag merchant vessel communicate? A. Any coast radio station in the world that is licensed to provide such communications. B. Any coast radio station in the world that is licensed to provide such communications, but prior authorization must be obtained for a U.S.-flag merchant vessel to communicate through a non-U.S. station. C. The U.S. Coast Guard coordinates the communications and assigns the working channel. D. U.S. flag ships are licensed to communicate only with U.S. coast radio stations. share/E7/7-88J40000664000175000017500000000067114621747037011350 0ustar jtnjtn7-88J4 A Which statement best defines the SITOR (NBDP) acronym "BFEC"? A. Error correction for one-way TELEX broadcasts of weather or navigation information. B. Error Correction when 2 stations are in direct & phased telephone communications with each other. C. Error Correction when 2 stations are in direct & phased TELEX communications with each other. D. Error correction when 1 station sends a one-way TELEX to a single other station. share/E7/7-44F30000664000175000017500000000036514621747036011332 0ustar jtnjtn7-44F3 D What may be used as a homing signal by the search and rescue vessels in the immediate vicinity of the ship in Distress? A. Flare gun B. Strobe Light C. 406 MHz signal from a satellite EPIRB. D. A 121.5 MHz signal in a satellite EPIRB. share/E7/7-99J40000664000175000017500000000076314621747037011354 0ustar jtnjtn7-99J4 B What will cause an individual battery cell to reverse polarity. A. High discharge rates without allowing for a cool down period. B. When discharging the battery string if a cell becomes weaker than the remaining cells, the discharge current will effectively charge the weaker cell in reverse polarity. C. Insufficient charging which does not bring all of the cells up to full charge. D. The charging circuits are connected in the correct polarity but all of the cells are equally charged. share/E7/7-63I30000664000175000017500000000061114621747036011330 0ustar jtnjtn7-63I3 A The Iridium terminal typically displays what status indicators? A. Power, GPS, signal strength, data and handset port conditions. B. Power, GPS, signal strength and satellite tracking azimuth and elevation. C. GPS satellites overhead, conditions of data and handset ports and data throughput. D. Geo-stationary satellite status, signal strength and data and handset port conditions. share/E7/7-83J30000664000175000017500000000107414621747037011340 0ustar jtnjtn7-83J3 A Which statement regarding channel spacing and bandwidth is true? A. Both TELEX bandwidth and channel spacing values are less than voice bandwidth and channel spacing values. B. Voice bandwidth is greater than TELEX bandwidth and therefore voice channel spacing values are less than TELEX channel spacing values. C. TELEX bandwidth is greater than voice bandwidth and therefore TELEX channel spacing values are less than voice channel spacing values. D. Both TELEX bandwidth and channel spacing values are greater than voice bandwidth and channel spacing values. share/E7/7-72I30000664000175000017500000000043214621747037011332 0ustar jtnjtn7-72I3 D If your vessel is in the POR, which of the following is a correctly formatted Inmarsat-C address book entry for sending communications to a shoreside TELEX terminal number 42267 in Ecuador (TELEX country code 308)? A. 58230842267 B. 30842267+ C. (582)30842267 D. 30842267 share/E7/7-52H50000664000175000017500000000124514621747036011333 0ustar jtnjtn7-52H5 D What statement is true regarding the control the operator can exercise over the NAVTEX receiver's operation? A. The operator can set the unit to automatically reject any and all categories of messages if the ship desires to not receive them. B. Upon entering a coastal area for the first time, the operator enters code KK to indicate "ready to receive NAVTEX". C. To reduce the number of messages, the operator can select code 00 to indicate "not in coastal passage". D. The operator can set most units to reject all messages except navigation, meteorological warnings, and search and rescue messages. If the unit will reject such messages it may be unsafe to do so. share/E7/7-79I50000664000175000017500000000063514621747037011350 0ustar jtnjtn7-79I5 B A vessel is experiencing problems tracking the satellite in an Inmarsat-C SES while at sea. The problem is least likely caused by? A. Extremely heavy rain/snowstorms. B. Local RF interference by in-port cell phone or other radio systems. C. Shadowing caused by an obstacle, such as a mast, between the SES antenna and the satellite. D. The vessel is on the fringe of the coverage area of the satellite. share/E7/7-57H60000664000175000017500000000014414621747036011336 0ustar jtnjtn7-57H6 B How many frequencies are assigned specifically for HF MSI broadcasts? A. 6 B. 8 C. 5 D. 7 share/E7/7-40F30000664000175000017500000000074514621747036011330 0ustar jtnjtn7-40F3 D How can rescue personnel detect that a SART is transmitting in the immediate vicinity? A. The DSC unit will react to the SART's signal and respond with the two-tone auto alarm. B. The SART can provide an approximate location to within a two nautical mile radius, per IMO standards. C. The SART signal appears as a target which comes and goes; the effect of heavy swells on a SART. D. The SART's dots on the PPI will become arcs and then eventually become concentric circles. share/E7/7-49G30000664000175000017500000000034514621747036011336 0ustar jtnjtn7-49G3 C Which of the following factors does not normally affect the range of VHF transmissions? A. Salt water ingress into the antenna coaxial cable. B. Power level setting. C. Ionospheric refraction. D. Vessel antenna height. share/E7/7-75I20000664000175000017500000000065014621747037011336 0ustar jtnjtn7-75I2 D How may a Distress Alert be initiated to a specific RCC through Iridium? A. By transmitting the Distress message on the U.S. Coast Guard's Iridium monitoring channel. B. By adding the word "Distress" in the first line of the message's preamble. C. All Iridium terminals chose the optimum RCC based upon the vessel's SAR jurisdiction. D. By programming the preferred RCC and then pressing the dedicated Alert keys. share/E7/7-88J30000664000175000017500000000066314621747037011350 0ustar jtnjtn7-88J3 D Which statement best defines the SITOR (NBDP) acronym "ARQ"? A. Error Correction when 2 stations are in direct & phased telephone communications with each other. B. Error correction for one-way TELEX transmissions to a single other station. C. Error correction for one-way TELEX broadcasts of weather or navigation information. D. Error Correction with 2 stations are in direct & phased TELEX communications with each other. share/E7/7-46F20000664000175000017500000000030114621747036011321 0ustar jtnjtn7-46F2 A Which of the following channels is designated as the VHF follow-on communications channel and is required in all portable survival craft equipment? A. Ch-16 B. Ch-6 C. Ch-13 D. Ch-70 share/E7/7-98J30000664000175000017500000000132214621747037011342 0ustar jtnjtn7-98J3 B What are potential dangers of automatic transceiver switching in response to a DSC call? A. Incorrectly formatted DSC calls from other vessels result in a warning in the DSC alarm screen but the vessel still might be switched to an illegal or improper outcome. B. The transceiver may be switched out of the marine bands or the frequency may not match the requested priority or emission. C. The automatic transceiver switching software always detects improper priorities, emissions & frequencies to ensure there is no danger. D. The automatic transceiver switching feature always interrupting safe navigation of your own vessel and placing the unit on the GMDSS Distress, Urgency or Safety follow-on frequencies. share/E7/7-60I30000664000175000017500000000020514621747036011324 0ustar jtnjtn7-60I3 D Which longitude corresponds to the AOR-W satellite for Inmarsat-C communications? A. 25.0 E B. 143.5 E C. 54.0 W D. 98.0 W share/E7/7-27D20000664000175000017500000000123314621747036011323 0ustar jtnjtn7-27D2 D What is the action that a GMDSS Radio Operator should take when a DSC Distress alert is received requesting J3E? A. No action is necessary, as the DSC control unit will automatically switch to the SITOR (NBDP) follow-on communications frequency. B. The Operator should immediately set continuous watch on VHF channel 70. C. The Operator should immediately set continuous watch on the SITOR (NBDP) frequency that is associated with frequency band on which the Distress alert was received. D. The Operator should immediately set continuous watch on the radiotelephone frequency that is associated with frequency band on which the Distress alert was received. share/E7/7-15C30000664000175000017500000000142314621747036011321 0ustar jtnjtn7-15C3 A Which statement is true regarding the maintenance of GMDSS equipment at sea? A. The GMDSS maintainer may also be the person designated to have primary responsibility for radiocommunications during Distress incidents if licensed as an operator. B. Ships must carry at least two persons who qualify as a GMDSS maintainer for the maintenance and repair of equipment if the at-sea maintenance option is selected. C. All at-sea maintenance and repairs must be performed by, or under the supervision of a person holding a GMDSS Maintainer license or GMDSS Operator license. D. The GMDSS maintainer may not be the person responsible for ensuring that the watches are properly maintained and that the proper guard channels and the vessel's position are entered into the DSC equipment. share/E7/7-53H50000664000175000017500000000062514621747036011335 0ustar jtnjtn7-53H5 A Which information determines if a NAVTEX message is to be rejected? A. The second letter (from A to Z) in the header indicating the type of message. B. Transmitter identity (numerals from 1 to 26 identifying transmitting station within the NAVAREA). C. The Answerback of the receiving station has not been entered in the NAVTEX receiver. D. Only messages having a serial number 00 are rejected. share/E7/7-72I50000664000175000017500000000044014621747037011333 0ustar jtnjtn7-72I5 D If your vessel is in the IOR, which of the following is a correctly formatted Inmarsat-C address book entry for sending communications to a shoreside TELEX terminal number 77829 in the Philippines (TELEX country code 758)? A. 75877829+ B. 87375877829 C. 58375877829 D. 75877829 share/E7/7-22D10000664000175000017500000000023114621747036011312 0ustar jtnjtn7-22D1 D What is the MID? A. Mobile Identification Number B. Marine Indemnity Directory C. Mobile Interference Digits D. Maritime Identification Digits share/E7/7-26D40000664000175000017500000000034314621747036011325 0ustar jtnjtn7-26D4 C DSC transmissions are encoded: A. Using J3E mode for proper follow-on communications. B. Using F1B mode to ensure proper reception. C. Using a ten-bit error detecting code. D. Using J2B mode for correct transmission. share/E7/7-22D50000664000175000017500000000020614621747036011320 0ustar jtnjtn7-22D5 C Which of the following MMSI numbers indicates a U.S. flag ship station? A. 430326190 B. 033609991 C. 303236424 D. 257326819 share/E7/7-64I60000664000175000017500000000053214621747036011336 0ustar jtnjtn7-64I6 A When engaging in voice communications via an Inmarsat-FBB terminal, what procedures are used? A. CODECs may be used to digitize the voice signal. B. Noise-blanking must be selected by the operator. C. The voice signal must be compressed to fit into the allowed bandwidth. D. The voice signal will be expanded at the receiving terminal. share/E7/7-22D30000664000175000017500000000021614621747036011317 0ustar jtnjtn7-22D3 B What does the MID (Maritime Identification Digits) signify? A. Port of registry B. Nationality C. Gross tonnage D. Passenger vessel share/E7/7-68I50000664000175000017500000000064514621747036011346 0ustar jtnjtn7-68I5 D Which Inmarsat Earth Stations could a vessel utilize for Inmarsat-C traffic if operating off the Atlantic Coast of the United States and tracking the AOR-E satellite? A. Beijing (P.R.C.), Yamaguchi (Japan) or Hai Phong (Vietnam). B. Southbury (USA), Burum (Netherlands) or Hai Phong (Vietnam) C. Pune (India), Burum (Netherlands) or Nudol (Russia). D. Southbury (USA), Burum (Netherlands) or Assaguel (France). share/E7/7-37E60000664000175000017500000000017114621747036011331 0ustar jtnjtn7-37E6 B How many frequencies are available under GMDSS for DSC Distress-related calls? A. Six B. Seven C. Four D. Five share/E7/7-56H40000664000175000017500000000034414621747036011335 0ustar jtnjtn7-56H4 A What system may be useful for messages, such as local storm warnings or a shore-to-ship Distress alert, for which it is inappropriate to alert all ships in the satellite coverage area? A. EGC B. NAVTEX C. AMVER D. DSC share/E7/7-55H10000664000175000017500000000016014621747036011325 0ustar jtnjtn7-55H1 C SafetyNETTM promulgates what type of information? A. Traffic Lists B. News advisories C. MSI D. MARAD share/E7/7-78I20000664000175000017500000000073714621747037011347 0ustar jtnjtn7-78I2 A A vessel, before transiting the Panama Canal, on a voyage from Hawaii to Florida, loses the ability to communicate via Inmarsat-C. The most likely cause is: A. The vessel has sailed beyond the coverage area of the Pacific satellite. B. The vessel has sailed beyond the coverage area of the Santa Paula Land Earth Station. C. The vessel has sailed beyond the coverage area of the Western Atlantic satellite. D. The satellite orbit is beyond the usable range of the SES. share/E7/7-95J20000664000175000017500000000061014621747037011335 0ustar jtnjtn7-95J2 D If the vessel is beyond range of NAVTEX broadcasts and the Inmarsat-C system fails, the GMDSS operator must: A. Select 518 kHz ARQ TELEX on the MF/HF console to receive MSI. B. Request repairs of the Sat-C system and wait until within range of NAVTEX. C. Select 518 kHz FEC TELEX on the MF/HF console to receive MSI. D. Select an HF MSI frequency and FEC TELEX mode to receive MSI. share/E7/7-67I30000664000175000017500000000076614621747036011347 0ustar jtnjtn7-67I3 A Which statement concerning Inmarsat-FBB and Inmarsat-C terminals is correct? A. Inmarsat-FBB terminals require GPS input, in order to enable the initial acquisition for satellite tracking. B. Inmarsat-FBB terminals require gyro and GPS input, in order to enable automatic satellite tracking. C. Inmarsat-C terminals require only GPS input, in order to enable automatic satellite tracking. D. Inmarsat-C terminals require continuous GPS input, in order to enable automatic satellite tracking. share/E7/7-86J30000664000175000017500000000125214621747037011341 0ustar jtnjtn7-86J3 B A Distress Priority DSC call may be formatted and transmitted specifying and requesting: A. Nature of Distress, vessel position, follow-on frequency, only voice follow-on communications. B. Nature of Distress or alternate frequency but not both in a single call, vessel position or alternate frequency/emission but not both in a single call, voice or TELEX follow-up communications. C. Nature of Distress or alternate frequency but not both in a single call, vessel position or alternate frequency/emission but not both in a single call, only TELEX follow-up communications D. Nature of Distress, vessel position, follow-on frequency, only TELEX follow-on communications. share/E7/7-57H20000664000175000017500000000026614621747036011337 0ustar jtnjtn7-57H2 B The U.S. Coast Guard communications station providing HF MSI broadcast coverage for NAVAREA IV is: A. NOJ (Kodiak) B. NMF (Boston) C. NMC (San Francisco) D. NMO (Honolulu) share/E7/7-17C20000664000175000017500000000051714621747036011325 0ustar jtnjtn7-17C2 B How often should the charge condition of RSE GMDSS batteries be checked? A. Every day with the battery charger on trickle charge. B. At least every 30 days with the battery charger turned off. C. At least every 30 days with the battery charger on full manual charge. D. Weekly with the battery charger on full manual charge. share/E7/7-32E10000664000175000017500000000076714621747036011332 0ustar jtnjtn7-32E1 B Your ship received a Distress relay from a coast station on DSC frequency 2187.5 kHz. What action should the watch officer take? A. Retransmit the DSC call on 2187.5 kHz to other vessels in the vicinity to assist in SAR operations. B. Monitor 2182.0 kHz to determine if there are any genuine Distress communications. C. Transmit a voice "Mayday Relay" call on 2187.5 kHz to other vessels in the vicinity. D. Transmit a voice "Mayday Relay" call on 2182.0 kHz to other vessels in the vicinity. share/E7/7-41F10000664000175000017500000000100414621747036011314 0ustar jtnjtn7-41F1 A Which of the following statements concerning testing and maintenance of SARTs is true? A. Testing a SART should be done in a consistent manner & location to ensure a baseline history of proper results. B. Testing of the SART should never be done in port to prevent interference to other vessel's radars. C. A SART's battery must be replaced within ninety (90) days after the expiration date imprinted on the unit. D. An at-sea GMDSS maintainer is not able to test a SART because it is hermetically sealed. share/E7/7-92J10000664000175000017500000000114514621747037011335 0ustar jtnjtn7-92J1 B Which of the following statements concerning SITOR (NBDP) communications is true? A. In ARQ, each character is transmitted twice, about 250 milliseconds apart. B. In ARQ, the "information sending station" will transmit a block of three characters that the receiving station will subsequently acknowledge or request be retransmitted. C. In ARQ, the "information sending station" transmits a block of three characters twice, about 250 milliseconds apart. D. SITOR (NBDP) communications can be used to contact a NAVTEX transmitting station when requesting a repeat transmission of a missed NAVTEX message. share/E7/7-53H30000664000175000017500000000053614621747036011334 0ustar jtnjtn7-53H3 C How are NAVTEX broadcasts transmitted? A. NAVTEX is transmitted by commercial coast radio stations following their traffic lists. B. NAVTEX is transmitted only when an Urgency or Distress broadcast is warranted. C. Using FEC techniques. D. No more often than every two hours and should immediately follow the radiotelephone silent periods. share/E7/7-42F30000664000175000017500000000067614621747036011335 0ustar jtnjtn7-42F3 B Which of the following statements concerning COSPAS-SARSAT is FALSE? A. 406 MHz EPIRBs are units that are used as alerting devices. B. Doppler frequency measurements provide more precise locations than GPIRB signals. C. The Doppler frequency measurement concept is used to determine the EPIRB's location. D. Satellites in a low-earth polar orbit detect EPIRB beacons on 406 MHz and relay the information to a Local User Terminal (LUT). share/E7/7-13C60000664000175000017500000000055214621747036011324 0ustar jtnjtn7-13C6 B Which situation is least likely to result in an inspection of the radio installation by foreign governments or administrations? A. When the ship's station license cannot be produced without delay. B. When a ship visits a port for the first time. C. When operational irregularities are observed. D. When compulsory equipment is found to be inoperative. share/E7/7-17C10000664000175000017500000000152314621747036011322 0ustar jtnjtn7-17C1 A Which statement is FALSE regarding the GMDSS requirement for ship sources of energy? A. The reserve sources of energy need to supply independent MF and HF radio installations at the same time. B. At all times while the vessel is at sea, a sufficient supply of electrical energy to operate the radio installations and charge any batteries which may be part of the reserve source of energy is required. C. An uninterruptible power supply or other means of ensuring a continuous supply of electrical power to all GMDSS equipment that could be affected by normal variations and interruptions of ship's power is required. D. If a vessel's position is constantly required for the proper performance of a GMDSS station, provisions must be made to ensure position information is uninterrupted if the ship's source of main or emergency energy fails. share/E7/7-46F30000664000175000017500000000043614621747036011333 0ustar jtnjtn7-46F3 B Which of the following frequencies have been designated for "On-scene" communications in the Global Maritime Distress and Safety System? A. VHF Ch-22 B. VHF Ch-16 and SITOR (NBDP) on 2174.5 kHz. C. HF radiotelephone on 21.820 MHz. D. SITOR (NBDP) on 2177.0 kHz and VHF Ch-16. share/E7/7-10B20000664000175000017500000000040214621747036011306 0ustar jtnjtn7-10B2 A On what frequencies would the J3E emission be used for GMDSS Distress communications? A. 2182.0 kHz, 16420.0 kHz or 8291.0 kHz. B. 2182.0, 2187.5 kHz or 8414.5 kHz. C. 8414.5 kHz, 8291.0 kHz or 8376.5 kHz. D. 4125.0 kHz, 16420.0 kHz or 4177.5 kHz. share/E7/7-45F10000664000175000017500000000055414621747036011331 0ustar jtnjtn7-45F1 A With what other stations may portable survival craft transceivers NOT communicate? A. Communication between survival craft transceivers ashore and public coast stations. B. Communication between the ship and its survival craft. C. Communication between rescue units and survival craft. D. Communication between multiple survival craft and with aircraft. share/E7/7-60I50000664000175000017500000000021614621747036011330 0ustar jtnjtn7-60I5 D Which longitude corresponds to the POR's satellite location for Inmarsat-C communications? A. 25.0 E B. 54.0 W C. 98.0 W D. 143.5 E share/E7/7-89J40000664000175000017500000000042014621747037011341 0ustar jtnjtn7-89J4 D When placing a TELEX call to a Coast Station, you should always: A. Choose the closest station. B. Tune the transmitter on another frequency. C. Wait until the coast station sends his traffic list. D. Make sure the frequency is not occupied with normal traffic. share/E7/7-10B60000664000175000017500000000040314621747036011313 0ustar jtnjtn7-10B6 D Which of the following statements is true? A. An RF carrier is always required to carry the information. B. There is only a single tone used in J2B mode. C. There are a carrier and two sidebands in H3E mode. D. There are two tones used in J2B mode. share/E7/7-63I50000664000175000017500000000075414621747036011342 0ustar jtnjtn7-63I5 B Which of the following statements concerning Iridium satellites is true? A. They are in a geo-stationary orbit, in order to provide true global coverage. B. They provide coverage to vessels in all of the world's navigable waters including polar regions. C. They are in an equatorial orbit, in order to provide true global coverage. D. Vessels sailing in equatorial waters are able to use only one satellite, whereas other vessels are able to choose between at least two satellites. share/E7/7-75I10000664000175000017500000000106614621747037011337 0ustar jtnjtn7-75I1 C Which statement is FALSE regarding an Inmarsat Distress request? A. The NCS in each ocean region automatically monitors the processing of such calls by other LESs in that region and processes calls if any anomaly exists in the system. B. If all satellite channels are busy then one of them will be preempted by a Distress request. C. Any Distress request is automatically switched to an Inmarsat Distress working frequency. D. Any request message with Distress priority is automatically recognized by the LES and a satellite channel is instantly assigned. share/E7/7-63I40000664000175000017500000000071714621747036011340 0ustar jtnjtn7-63I4 B How are Iridium calls routed through the satellite system? A. The satellites store the calls and forwards them to ground stations when they are in view. B. The satellites are in view of one another and traffic can swiftly be passed to a ground station. C. The satellites are geo-stationary and route the traffic immediately to the ground stations. D. The satellites in polar orbits pass traffic to geo-stationary satellites and then to ground stations. share/E7/7-95J60000664000175000017500000000046214621747037011346 0ustar jtnjtn7-95J6 C FEC SITOR (NBDP) transmissions are normally used to? A. Receive Coast station traffic lists, NAVTEX and VHF MSI broadcasts. B. Receive weather messages, Coast Station traffic lists and company messages. C. Receive HF MSI and NAVTEX. D. Receive company communications sent through coast stations. share/E7/7-28D50000664000175000017500000000043514621747036011332 0ustar jtnjtn7-28D5 D Which of the following are the MF/HF DSC Distress watch frequencies A. 2177.5, 4210.0, 6314.0, 8416.5 12579.0, 16806.5 B. 2182.0, 4125.0, 6215.0, 8291.0, 12290.0, 16420.0 C. 2174.5, 4177.5, 6268.0, 8376.5, 12520.0, 16695.0 D. 2187.5, 4207.5, 6312.0, 8414.5, 12577.0, 16804.5 share/E7/7-34E40000664000175000017500000000051614621747036011327 0ustar jtnjtn7-34E4 C How is "radio silence" imposed? A. By the Land Earth Station (LES) controlling the Distress communications on that frequency. B. By the nearest Public Correspondence Coast Station. C. By the On-scene Coordinator (OSC) or the RCC chosen by the SAR Mission Coordinator. D. By the vessel first responding to the Distress call. share/E7/7-21D60000664000175000017500000000036714621747036011330 0ustar jtnjtn7-21D6 B What number will a ship station use to identify itself using SITOR (NBDP)? A. Four-digit SELCAL. B. Five-digit SELCAL or 9-digit SELCAL number identical to MMSI. C. 9-digit Inmarsat-F77 I. D. number. D. 9-digit Inmarsat-FBB I.D. number. share/E7/7-74I60000664000175000017500000000106114621747037011336 0ustar jtnjtn7-74I6 D How may Inmarsat-C terminals be used for sending Urgency or Safety priority communications (such as synoptic weather reports)? A. Urgency & Safety EGC messages can only be received by an Inmarsat-C terminal. B. Enter PAN PAN or SECURITE into the heading of the message file so the message will be routed by priority. C. Only Routine or Distress priority messages can be sent from an Inmarsat-C terminal. D. Use the appropriate special 2-digit codes selected from the address book or manually enter the correct code into the SEND/REC or TRANSMIT menu. share/E7/7-48F60000664000175000017500000000110314621747036011330 0ustar jtnjtn7-48F6 A Which statement is true regarding Inmarsat "hot-key" Distress Alerts? A. The LES programmed by the watch officers into the Distress Alert Update menu determines which RCC will receive your initial Distress Alert. B. The vessel's position is checked against the SAR jurisdictions and the proper LES updated as the vessel changes NAVAREAS. C. The GPS position updates the Distress Alert Update menu to the correct LES choice to ensure proper communications with an RCC. D. The Distress Alert defaults are set correctly by the manufacturer and then automatically updated. share/E7/7-1A50000664000175000017500000000064014621747035011233 0ustar jtnjtn7-1A5 A What is the responsibility of compulsory GMDSS vessels? A. Every vessel must be able to perform communications functions essential for its own safety and the safety of other vessels. B. Vessels must transmit a DSC distress relay upon receipt of a DSC distress alert. C. Only the vessels closest to a Distress incident must render assistance. D. Vessels must immediately acknowledge all DSC distress alerts. share/E7/7-42F40000664000175000017500000000063414621747036011330 0ustar jtnjtn7-42F4 C Which of the following statements concerning COSPAS-SARSAT is FALSE? A. EPIRBs, ELTs, and PLBs use the system primarily for Distress alerting. B. These satellites monitor 406 MHz for EPIRB signals. C. After initiating a call request and selecting the LES, these satellites may be used for commercial messages. D. These satellites use Doppler shift measurement to determine the location of the beacons. share/E7/7-77I40000664000175000017500000000026414621747037011343 0ustar jtnjtn7-77I4 D Which of the following is utilized to transmit Enhanced Group Calls? A. COSPAS satellite B. HF SITOR (NBDP) shore stations C. NAVTEX shore stations D. Inmarsat satellite share/E7/7-11B20000664000175000017500000000016314621747036011313 0ustar jtnjtn7-11B2 D What is the channel spacing for authorized F1B/J2B frequencies? A. 170 Hz B. 300 Hz C. 3.0 kHz D. 500 Hz share/E7/7-33E10000664000175000017500000000047614621747036011330 0ustar jtnjtn7-33E1 A What action should you take after sending a false or mistaken Distress alert on VHF? A. Make a voice announcement to cancel the alert on Ch-16. B. Send a DSC cancellation message on Ch-70. C. Make a voice announcement to cancel the alert on Ch-13. D. Make a voice announcement to cancel the alert on Ch-22A. share/E7/7-9B30000664000175000017500000000062314621747036011244 0ustar jtnjtn7-9B3 C Which statement best describes amplitude modulation? A. The character data from the terminal is changed to audio tones. B. The frequency is varied in synchronization with the modulating signal. C. The amplitudes in the sideband(s) changes but the radio carrier frequency remains constant. D. The amplitude of the carrier is changed but there is still only a single frequency being transmitted. share/E7/7-37E20000664000175000017500000000024214621747036011324 0ustar jtnjtn7-37E2 B Which of the following frequencies is designated for On-scene Distress and Safety communications? A. 4209.5 kHz B. 2174.5 kHz C. 518.0 kHz D. 490.0 kHz share/E7/7-13C30000664000175000017500000000106214621747036011316 0ustar jtnjtn7-13C3 C Which statement is FALSE regarding a GMDSS-equipped ship? A. A conditional or partial exemption may be granted, in exceptional circumstances, for a single voyage outside the sea area for which the vessel is equipped. B. The regulations apply to all passenger ships regardless of size and cargo ships of 300 gross tons and upwards. C. Ships must have the required equipment inspected at least once every five years. D. Ships must carry at least two persons holding a GMDSS Radio Operator's license for Distress and Safety radio-communications purposes. share/E7/7-87J30000664000175000017500000000025714621747037011346 0ustar jtnjtn7-87J3 A What does the term FEC mean in SITOR (NBDP) communications? A. Forward Error Correction B. Field Effect Correction C. Forward Error Check D. Forward Error Character share/E7/7-94J60000664000175000017500000000101714621747037011342 0ustar jtnjtn7-94J6 D Selective FEC communications (SFEC) are employed when: A. Multiple stations without a group SELCAL must receive communications without using their transmitters (Radio Silence). B. Multiple stations must receive communications by using their transmitters to achieve phasing. C. An individual station must receive communications by using their transmitter to achieve phasing and block other stations from breaking in. D. An individual station must receive communications without using any transmitters (Radio Silence). share/E7/7-23D20000664000175000017500000000020414621747036011314 0ustar jtnjtn7-23D2 D A valid MMSI number for a DSC call to a specific group of vessels is: A. 003664523 B. 338462941 C. 003036483 D. 030327931 share/E7/7-26D60000664000175000017500000000035414621747036011331 0ustar jtnjtn7-26D6 D Properly formatted MF-HF DSC transmissions can request which of the following emissions for follow on communications? A. J3E/H3E telex emissions B. F1B/J2B voice emissions C. J3E/F3E voice emissions D. J3E/H3E voice emissions share/E7/7-57H50000664000175000017500000000035414621747036011340 0ustar jtnjtn7-57H5 A Which frequency/mode is authorized for use internationally for Maritime Safety Information transmissions? A. 4209.5 kHz using FEC mode B. 4209.5 kHz using ARQ mode C. 4125.0 kHz using simplex mode D. 4125.0 kHz using FEC mode share/E7/7-7B10000664000175000017500000000017314621747036011240 0ustar jtnjtn7-7B1 C What is the frequency range for Medium Frequency? A. 10-30 MHz B. 1,000-10,000 kHz C. 300-3,000 kHz D. 30-300 kHz share/E7/7-72I40000664000175000017500000000040114621747037011327 0ustar jtnjtn7-72I4 A Which of the following is a correctly formatted Inmarsat-C address book entry for sending communications to a shoreside terminal number 276992 in New Jersey via TRT (TELEX country code 238)? A. 238276992 B. (238)276992 C. 238276992# D. 238276992+ share/E7/7-38E10000664000175000017500000000100214621747036011317 0ustar jtnjtn7-38E1 D Which of the following steps should be taken, if possible, when the vessel must be abandoned because of a Distress situation? A. Alert the U.S. Coast Guard by using the survival craft's portable Inmarsat unit. B. Program the SART and EPIRB to transmit the vessel's location and situation. C. No additional steps are needed as the SART and EPIRB will both automatically float free and operate properly. D. Secure the EPIRB to the survival craft and mount the SART in a position to maximize its elevation. share/E7/7-31E10000664000175000017500000000150414621747036011317 0ustar jtnjtn7-31E1 C Which statement is true regarding the receipt and acknowledgement of actual Distress follow-on communications by GMDSS ship stations? A. Ship stations in receipt of Distress alert should not defer acknowledgement for a short interval, so that receipt may be acknowledged by the coast station. B. A Coast station has the sole obligation to respond. A ship station should wait for the Coast station MMSI DSC Acknowledgment before taking action. If a Coast station has no response in 15 minutes the ship should DSC acknowledge and inform the RCC. C. A ship station that receives a Distress call from another vessel must, as soon as possible, inform the Master or person responsible for the ship of the contents of the Distress communications received. D. Alerts concerning navigational hazards are second only to Safety traffic. share/E7/7-71I20000664000175000017500000000032414621747037011330 0ustar jtnjtn7-71I2 D Which of the following is a correctly formatted Inmarsat-C address book entry for sending TELEX communications to a vessel in the AOR-E? A. 870436772983 B. 571436772983 C. 581323500120+ D. 581423500120 share/E7/7-18C10000664000175000017500000000033514621747036011323 0ustar jtnjtn7-18C1 D Under GMDSS, a compulsory VHF-DSC radiotelephone installation must be tested at what minimum intervals at sea? A. Annually, by a representative of the FCC. B. At the annual SOLAS inspection. C. Monthly D. Daily share/E7/7-81J20000664000175000017500000000055414621747037011337 0ustar jtnjtn7-81J2 B How are paired SSB frequencies normally used? A. These are normally used for FEC communications with coast radio stations. B. These are normally used for J3E communications with coast radio stations. C. These are normally used for ARQ communications with coast radio stations. D. These are normally used for DSC communications with coast radio stations. share/E7/7-12B50000664000175000017500000000057714621747036011330 0ustar jtnjtn7-12B5 D What is the purpose or function of the antenna coupler/tuner? A. Electrically matching the antenna system to the transmit frequency. B. Changing the overall wavelength of the antenna system (in addition to the fixed length whip.) C. Enabling maximum transmitted signal on the band chosen by the operator. D. All of these answers are functions of the antenna coupler/tuner. share/E7/7-14C60000664000175000017500000000054214621747036011324 0ustar jtnjtn7-14C6 D Which of the following references should be consulted to identify the name of a vessel based on its Maritime Mobile Service Identity? A. ITU list of Coast Stations. B. ITU List of Radio-determination and Ship Stations. C. ITU Master Plan of Shore-Based Facilities. D. ITU List of Ship Stations and Maritime Mobile Service Identity Assignments. share/E7/7-59I40000664000175000017500000000056414621747036011345 0ustar jtnjtn7-59I4 B What is the importance of a successful log in indication, after power-up, on an Inmarsat-C terminal? A. The antenna Azimuth and Elevation controls are correctly adjusted. B. The terminal is enabled for routine incoming and outbound traffic. C. The receiver gain is properly adjusted for maximum signal. D. Unscheduled EGC MSI messages can no longer be received. share/E7/7-46F60000664000175000017500000000037614621747036011341 0ustar jtnjtn7-46F6 D For "On-scene" communications, vessels in Distress and SAR Aircraft should use? A. VHF Ch-70, 4125 kHz J3E, 5680 kHz J3E B. VHF Ch-70, 4125 kHz J2B, 5680 kHz J3E C. VHF Ch-16, 4125 kHz F1B, 3023 kHz J3E D. VHF Ch-16, 4125 kHz J3E, 3023 kHz J3E share/E7/7-61I40000664000175000017500000000067714621747036011343 0ustar jtnjtn7-61I4 D What is the primary danger of an Inmarsat-C terminal if it is not properly logged out? A. The vessel will be barred in the future from sending traffic through an LES. B. The NCS ensures that improper log-out procedures do not occur. C. Scheduled MSI may not be available through the Inmarsat-C terminal. D. Your company or another ship may accrue significant charges when their traffic is repetitively sent to your unavailable terminal. share/E7/7-97J50000664000175000017500000000025314621747037011345 0ustar jtnjtn7-97J5 A At mid-day, what would be the best choice in attempting to communicate with a shore station some 75 miles distant? A. MF B. VHF-FM C. 22 MHz band D. 16 MHz band share/E7/7-97J10000664000175000017500000000101114621747037011332 0ustar jtnjtn7-97J1 A A ship has been communicating effectively on 16 MHz during daylight hours with a shore station at a distance of 3200 miles. Toward late afternoon and evening what effect would be noticed? A. Communications should gradually deteriorate and become impossible on this frequency at night. B. Communications should be maintained with slight improvement in the signal received from the shore station. C. The gray line effect will prevent communications after dark. D. Communications should improve and peak at night. share/E7/7-58H40000664000175000017500000000035414621747036011340 0ustar jtnjtn7-58H4 C A vessel operating in the Western Atlantic or along the East coast of North America and Central America from Canada to Venezuela, including the Caribbean and Panama, would be located in which NAVAREA? A. X B. XI C. IV D. XIII share/E7/7-77I50000664000175000017500000000056614621747037011351 0ustar jtnjtn7-77I5 A What is the equipment arrangement that provides the maximum availability for reception of MSI broadcasts when using Inmarsat-C for TELEX communications? A. Separate EGC receiver. B. Integrating EGC receiver with the existing Inmarsat-C equipment. C. Redundancy using HF SSB to receive voice broadcasts. D. Automatic switching between Inmarsat-C and EGC functions. share/E7/7-77I60000664000175000017500000000102714621747037011343 0ustar jtnjtn7-77I6 B Which of the following statements concerning EGC configuration is FALSE? A. NAVAREA selection should be monitored and appropriately updated. B. The originator of MSI information cannot specify receipt only by vessels within a specific geographical area, circular or rectangular. C. The originator of MSI information can specify receipt only by vessels within a specific geographical area, circular or rectangular. D. GMDSS operators generally can select additional NAVAREAS to acquire EGC messages of interest to the vessel. share/E7/7-37E50000664000175000017500000000015614621747036011333 0ustar jtnjtn7-37E5 A How many HF frequencies are available for DSC Distress related calls? A. Five B. Four C. Two D. One share/E7/7-9B60000664000175000017500000000012214621747036011241 0ustar jtnjtn7-9B6 B What is the emission designation for VHF-FM? A. F3C B. F3E C. J2B D. H3E share/E7/7-21D30000664000175000017500000000015114621747036011314 0ustar jtnjtn7-21D3 C Which one of the following is a ship station SELCAL? A. 1104 B. 1502352 C. 11243 D. 0230364973 share/E7/7-95J40000664000175000017500000000127014621747037011342 0ustar jtnjtn7-95J4 B Why must the GMDSS operator be able to set-up FEC & ARQ modes and differentiate between them? A. The proper mode of SFEC must be selected for reception of HF MSI and ARQ selected for initial follow-on TELEX communications in a Distress situation B. The proper mode must be selected for follow-on TELEX communications in a Distress situation and for the reception of HF MSI. C. The ARQ TELEX mode must be selected for follow-on TELEX communications in a Distress situation and the BFEC TELEX mode selected for reception of HF MSI. D. The BFEC TELEX mode must be selected for follow-on TELEX communications in a Distress situation and the ARQ TELEX mode selected for reception of HF MSI. share/E7/7-61I30000664000175000017500000000052514621747036011332 0ustar jtnjtn7-61I3 C What action should be taken on changing from one Inmarsat-C ocean region to another? A. Power the system down and turn the power back on again. B. Manually realign the antenna. C. Log out of the current satellite and log in to the correct satellite. D. No action is required -- the unit will scan for another satellite and log in. share/E7/7-28D20000664000175000017500000000031014621747036011317 0ustar jtnjtn7-28D2 C Which of the following channels and modes should be used when initiating a Distress alert transmission? A. Ch-6 DSC B. Ch-6 Radiotelephony C. Ch-70 DSC D. Ch-13 Radiotelephony and Ch-16 DSC share/E7/7-50G50000664000175000017500000000064514621747036011333 0ustar jtnjtn7-50G5 C The USA-INT control on VHF units: A. Was made necessary by a desire for more duplex channels in the U.S. B. Correctly set, will result in duplex operations in U.S. Coastal waters on the "alpha" channels. C. Correctly set, will result in simplex operations in U.S. Coastal waters on the "alpha" channels. D. Was made necessary by a desire to convert simplex international channels to duplex channels in the U.S. share/E7/7-31E20000664000175000017500000000022414621747036011316 0ustar jtnjtn7-31E2 D What is meant by the acronym "EOS" in a DSC message? A. Error Of Sequence B. End Of Signals C. Equal Operating Signals D. End Of Sequence share/E7/7-36E30000664000175000017500000000050114621747036011322 0ustar jtnjtn7-36E3 D Which of the following situations would normally use the Safety priority? A. Treatment of a crewmember with a broken leg that is not life-threatening. B. Treatment of a crewmember with a serious cardiac emergency. C. A fire in the generator flat/spaces. D. Loss of 5 containers with lashing gear over the side. share/E7/7-92J30000664000175000017500000000042014621747037011332 0ustar jtnjtn7-92J3 D Of the following, which is true of SITOR (NBDP) ARQ mode? A. The acceptance code consists of three characters. B. A continuous data stream is transmitted. C. Forward error correction reduces the number of errors. D. Each data block consists of three characters. share/E7/7-66I40000664000175000017500000000056014621747036011337 0ustar jtnjtn7-66I4 C Which statement about Inmarsat-C LESs is true? A. LESs are only available in the Ocean Regions that overlap one another. B. LESs are only available in the Ocean Region controlled by their NCS. C. Some LESs are available in all four footprints due to the cloud-based NGC mode. D. All LESs are available in all four footprints due to the cloud-based NGC mode. share/E7/7-39F50000664000175000017500000000066314621747036011341 0ustar jtnjtn7-39F5 B At what point does a SART begin transmitting? A. It immediately begins radiating when placed in the "on" position. B. If it has been placed in the "on" position, it will respond when it has been interrogated by a 9-GHz radar signal. C. It must be manually activated or water activated before radiating. D. If it has been placed in the "on" position, it will begin transmitting immediately upon detecting that it is in water. share/E7/7-96J60000664000175000017500000000074514621747037011353 0ustar jtnjtn7-96J6 A To ensure effective HF communications, GMDSS operators should: A. Employ the short rules of propagation selection or rely on previous successful communications as a guide. B. Disregard the short rules of propagation selection and try different bands until one works. C. Do not rely on previous successful communications on the selected frequency band - the ionosphere changes too rapidly and inconsistently. D. Rely on the equipment calculations of Optimum Usable Frequency. share/E7/7-35E60000664000175000017500000000053114621747036011327 0ustar jtnjtn7-35E6 C If the Watch Officer hears "PAN PAN" spoken 3 times it means: A. A navigation or important meteorological warning should follow. B. The station is preparing to transmit a Safety message possibly concerning the safety of a mobile unit or person. C. None of these answers is correct. D. A mobile unit is in need of immediate assistance. share/E7/7-88J50000664000175000017500000000070514621747037011347 0ustar jtnjtn7-88J5 D The purpose of "parity" in SITOR (NBDP) communications is? A. Error correction in HF BFEC MSI broadcasts, SFEC NAVTEX broadcasts and two-way ARQ exchanges. B. Error correction in SFEC NAVTEX broadcasts, HF SFEC MSI broadcasts and two-way ARQ exchanges. C. Error correction in BFEC NAVTEX broadcasts, HF BFEC MSI broadcasts and one-way ARQ broadcasts. D. Error correction in HF BFEC MSI broadcasts, NAVTEX broadcasts and two-way ARQ exchanges. share/E7/7-43F30000664000175000017500000000054614621747036011332 0ustar jtnjtn7-43F3 A What statement is true regarding 406 MHz EPIRB transmissions? A. Transmits a unique hexadecimal identification number. B. Allows immediate voice communications with the RCC. C. Coding permits the SAR authorities to know if manually or automatically activated. D. GMDSS Radio Operator programs an I.D. into the SART immediately prior to activation. share/E7/7-58H20000664000175000017500000000035314621747036011335 0ustar jtnjtn7-58H2 A Which sequence is associated with the 5 new Arctic Ocean NAVAREAs? A. NAVAREA XVIII, NAVAREA XX, NAVAREA XXI B. NAVAREA III, NAVAREA VII, NAVAREA XV C. NAVAREA IV, NAVAREA XII, NAVAREA X D. NAVAREA XII, NAVAREA X, NAVAREA XI share/E7/7-85J10000664000175000017500000000043514621747037011340 0ustar jtnjtn7-85J1 A When placing a SSB MF/HF call to a Coast Station, you should always: A. Make sure the frequency is not occupied. B. Choose the closest station to ensure a quick connection. C. Tune the transmitter on another frequency. D. Wait until the coast station sends his traffic list. share/E7/7-28D40000664000175000017500000000042214621747036011325 0ustar jtnjtn7-28D4 A Which of the following watches must a compulsory Sea Area A1 vessel maintain? A. A continuous DSC watch on Ch-70. B. A continuous DSC watch on 8414.5 kHz plus one other HF DSC frequency. C. A continuous DSC watch on 2187.5 kHz. D. A continuous DSC watch on Ch-16. share/E7/7-91J20000664000175000017500000000040314621747037011331 0ustar jtnjtn7-91J2 D What sequence of ARQ codes matches the following: request establishment of a landline, end radio link after traffic is done, request connection for AMVER messages? A. NNNN, KKKK, AMV+ B. KKKK, BRK+, AMV+ C. BRK+, DIRTLX+, AMV+ D. DIRTLX, BRK+, AMV+ share/E7/7-16C60000664000175000017500000000041014621747036011320 0ustar jtnjtn7-16C6 A How many GMDSS radio maintainers must be carried aboard a compulsory vessel if the At-Sea maintenance method is used? A. One regardless of sea area of operation. B. Two in Sea Areas A3 and A4. C. Two in Sea Area A1. D. None of these answers are correct. share/E7/7-76I40000664000175000017500000000117414621747037011343 0ustar jtnjtn7-76I4 A What is your vessel's obligation upon receipt of a Distress priority EGC message requesting that vessels report in response to a SAR situation? A. Silence the alarm, notify the master and send a message to the RCC with your vessel's position and capabilities. B. Read the Distress EGC message and if the situation is too far away no response is required. C. Read the Distress EGC message and await instructions from the RCC as how to proceed to the distress. D. Silence the alarm, notify the Master and await instructions from the RCC as to whether your vessel is requisitioned or released from participation in SAR activity. share/E7/7-36E10000664000175000017500000000052414621747036011325 0ustar jtnjtn7-36E1 B When the GMDSS Radio Operator on watch hears "Securite" spoken three times, he can expect to receive the following information: A. The safety of vessel or person is in jeopardy. B. A message concerning the Safety of navigation. C. A vessel is in need of immediate assistance. D. A Coast Station sending an important traffic list. share/E7/7-30E10000664000175000017500000000022014621747036011310 0ustar jtnjtn7-30E1 D If a VHF-DSC Distress alert is transmitted what channel is used for follow-on voice transmission? A. Ch-12 B. Ch-70 C. Ch-13 D. Ch-16 share/E7/7-44F40000664000175000017500000000041014621747036011322 0ustar jtnjtn7-44F4 A What part of a satellite EPIRB may function as a visual aid to rescue vessels? A. Strobe light B. A 121.5 MHz emergency transmitter in a satellite EPIRB. C. 406 MHz signal from a satellite EPIRB. D. Loud beeping tone emitted by the unit, once activated. share/E7/7-85J20000664000175000017500000000125014621747037011335 0ustar jtnjtn7-85J2 B How are high seas (HF) radiotelephone communications initially established between a vessel and a public correspondence station? A. The vessel listens for "free signals" and calls the public correspondence station on the SITOR (NBDP) calling channel with the strongest marker signal. B. The vessel calls and establishes voice contact with the public correspondence station on a channel that the station is known to monitor, and the two stations then proceed with their business. C. The vessel calls the public correspondence station on VHF Channel 16, and the two stations then switch to the working channel. D. Public Correspondence Stations operate SITOR (NBDP) only. share/E7/7-25D30000664000175000017500000000017414621747036011325 0ustar jtnjtn7-25D3 C Which of the following would indicate an Inmarsat-C terminal? A. 003698202 B. 325467263 C. 436782433 D. 764835982 share/E7/7-34E10000664000175000017500000000071414621747036011324 0ustar jtnjtn7-34E1 D What is the fundamental purpose for imposing radio silence? A. To ensure that interference to proprietary communications is minimized. B. To ensure that only voice communications can be effected on the Distress frequency or channel. C. To ensure that a Distressed vessel will have a "window" twice each hour for transmitting routine messages. D. To mitigate the risk of interference on a frequency or channel being used for emergency communications. share/E7/7-82J40000664000175000017500000000023414621747037011335 0ustar jtnjtn7-82J4 C ITU duplex channel 1604 would mean: A. Ch-16 in the 4 MHz band. B. Ch-1604 in the MF band. C. Ch-4 in the 16 MHz band. D. Ch-4 in the 6 MHz band. share/E7/7-2A40000664000175000017500000000026614621747035011237 0ustar jtnjtn7-2A4 C What equipment is programmed to initiate transmission of Distress alerts and calls to individual stations? A. NAVTEX B. GPS C. DSC Controller D. DSC Scanning Watch Receiver share/E7/7-92J60000664000175000017500000000124514621747037011343 0ustar jtnjtn7-92J6 A Which of the following is true of SITOR (NBDP) ARQ mode: A. The ship station sends a group of 3 characters, the shore station checks for proper parity. If parity is OK, the shore station indicates readiness for transmission of the next 3 characters. B. The ship station sends a group of 3 characters twice and then waits for an "RQ" signal to indicate proper receipt before continuing transmission. C. The Ship station sends each character twice, using a time diversity system to ensure proper parity. D. The ship station sends a group of 3 characters, the shore station checks for proper parity and then requests the same group be resent to enable error correction. share/E7/7-92J50000664000175000017500000000040514621747037011337 0ustar jtnjtn7-92J5 D In ARQ, when the information sending station (ISS) receives a signal that the parity check failed what happens? A. The next block will be sent. B. The data link will break. C. The acknowledge light should illuminate. D. The last block will be resent. share/E7/7-34E60000664000175000017500000000110314621747036011322 0ustar jtnjtn7-34E6 D How are normal working conditions restored after radio silence has been imposed? A. All of these answers are correct. B. The Land Earth Station (LES) that imposed the radio silence must transmit a voice message on the Distress frequency stating "SILENCE FINI". C. The Public Correspondence Station (PCS) that imposed the radio silence must transmit a voice message on the Distress frequency stating "SILENCE FINI". D. The Rescue Coordination Center (RCC) that imposed the radio silence must transmit a voice message on the Distress frequency stating "SEELONCE FEENEE". share/E7/7-44F50000664000175000017500000000024614621747036011332 0ustar jtnjtn7-44F5 D What is an example of a locating signal? A. SSB phone traffic B. Ship to shore transmissions C. The 406 kHz EPIRB transmission D. An AIS EPIRB transmission share/E7/7-56H60000664000175000017500000000036014621747036011335 0ustar jtnjtn7-56H6 A What messages originate from registered information providers anywhere in the world and are broadcast to the appropriate ocean region via a LES? A. SafetyNETTM messages B. AMVER broadcasts C. Urgency messages D. NAVTEX broadcasts share/E7/7-3A40000664000175000017500000000042414621747035011234 0ustar jtnjtn7-3A4 B What is defined as an area, excluding sea areas A1 and A2, within the coverage of an Inmarsat geostationary satellite in which continuous alerting is available? A. Ocean Area Regions AOR-E, AOR-W, POR or IOR B. Sea Area A3 C. Sea Area A4 D. Coastal and Inland Waters share/E7/7-2A60000664000175000017500000000013714621747035011236 0ustar jtnjtn7-2A6 D Which of these can be used to receive MSI? A. SART B. EPIRB C. Inmarsat-F77 D. NAVTEX share/E7/7-26D10000664000175000017500000000110614621747036011320 0ustar jtnjtn7-26D1 D What sequence best describes an MF-HF DSC Distress Alert transmission? A. Vessel name, Distress priority code, vessel position & time, nature of Distress, B. A string of dots to stop the DSC scanner, vessel MMSI, vessel position & time, nature of Distress, frequency for follow-on communications. C. Vessel MMSI, frequency & emission for follow-on communications, vessel position & time, Distress priority code. D. A string of dots to stop the DSC scanner, Distress priority code, vessel MMSI, vessel position & time, emission for follow-on communications, DSC frequency. share/E7/7-86J10000664000175000017500000000062114621747037011336 0ustar jtnjtn7-86J1 D Which of these is not a primary purpose of the MF/HF DSC controller? A. It provides for the electronic memory of incoming and outgoing DSC calls. B. It permits control of transceiver operations in response to an incoming DSC call. C. It provides for the formatting and transmission of outgoing DSC calls. D. It provides the scanning watch receiver capability on the 6 MF/HF DSC frequencies. share/E7/7-15C60000664000175000017500000000036614621747036011331 0ustar jtnjtn7-15C6 C What determines the spares and maintenance materials requirements for GMDSS equipment? A. 47 CFR Part 80 Subpart W. B. IMO Circular "Equipment Spares". C. The recommendations of the manufacturer. D. The GMDSS Maintainer's requirements. share/E7/7-23D60000664000175000017500000000050014621747036011317 0ustar jtnjtn7-23D6 C Which of the following statements concerning MMSI is true? A. All ship station MMSI must begin with a single zero and include the MID. B. All group station MMSI must begin with the MID. C. None of these answers are correct. D. All Coast Station MMSI must be 9 digits and begin with the MID and then two zeros. share/E7/7-38E20000664000175000017500000000071314621747036011330 0ustar jtnjtn7-38E2 A Which action is the most appropriate action for a GMDSS radio Operator to take in a Distress situation where immediate help is needed, but the vessel is not sinking nor needs to be abandoned? A. Transmit Distress calls by HF/MF/VHF DSC or Inmarsat. B. Switch off EPIRB and SART manually. C. Notify the RCC (Rescue Coordination Center) through VHF FM on channel 13. D. Transmit Distress calls by activating the radiotelegraph automatic alarm signal. share/E7/7-86J20000664000175000017500000000072414621747037011343 0ustar jtnjtn7-86J2 A A "Distress Hot Key" MF/HF DSC Distress alert: A. Will be transmitted on 2187.5 kHz or another DSC frequency, depending on the manufacturer. B. Will always be transmitted on 2187.5 kHz and 8414.5 kHz to trip DSC alarms on the mandatory MF/HF DSC watch frequencies. C. Will always be transmitted on 2187.5 kHz first to alert the nearest vessels and coast stations. D. Will always be sent first on 16804.5 kHz to reach coast stations far away from the vessel. share/E7/7-50G60000664000175000017500000000054714621747036011335 0ustar jtnjtn7-50G6 D Proper and legal VHF operations require all of these EXCEPT? A. The channel must be designated as valid for the nature or type of communications desired. B. Simplex, duplex and alpha channel modes must be correctly selected. C. The power level must be appropriately chosen by the operator. D. The correct bandwidth must be selected by the operator. share/E7/7-38E40000664000175000017500000000044214621747036011331 0ustar jtnjtn7-38E4 C GMDSS vessels equipped for Sea Areas A2, A3 or A4 must maintain a continuous DSC watch on 2187.5 kHz. A. Only in areas beyond Inmarsat coverage. B. Only outside of areas covered by VHF-DSC. C. At all times when underway. D. When directed to do so by a cognizant rescue authority. share/E7/7-52H20000664000175000017500000000050714621747036011330 0ustar jtnjtn7-52H2 C How can reception of certain NAVTEX broadcasts be prevented? A. Stations are limited to daytime operation only. B. Coordinating reception with published broadcast schedules. C. The receiver can be programmed to reject certain stations and message categories. D. Automatic receiver desensitization during night hours. share/E7/7-72I10000664000175000017500000000042014621747037011325 0ustar jtnjtn7-72I1 B Which of the following is a correctly formatted Inmarsat-C address book entry for sending communications to a shoreside TELEX terminal number 45992 in Taiwan (TELEX country code 769)? A. 76945992+ B. None of these answers is correct. C. 769 45992+ D. (769)45992 share/E7/7-19C20000664000175000017500000000022314621747036011321 0ustar jtnjtn7-19C2 D A vessel certified for service in Sea Area A-2 is required to maintain watch on: A. 2174.5 kHz B. 2182.0 kHz C. 2738.0 kHz D. 2187.5 kHz share/E7/7-74I50000664000175000017500000000106314621747037011337 0ustar jtnjtn7-74I5 C How would a notification of arrival be sent as a text to a mobile phone number using an Inmarsat-C unit? A. Mobile phone numbers cannot be reached by Inmarsat-C terminals because they lack voice capability. B. Use the Inmarsat-C voice handset to compose and transmit the text. C. Compose a text file, use the SEND/REC or TRANSMIT menu & specify the recipient using the address book function (or by manual entry) for SMS destinations. D. The mobile phone number is inserted as the first line of the text file and sent with the SEND/REC or TRANSMIT menu. share/E7/7-13C20000664000175000017500000000065314621747036011322 0ustar jtnjtn7-13C2 B What periodic inspection is required in order to remain in compliance with the regulations regarding GMDSS ship radio station inspections? A. U.S. Coast Guard annual inspection. B. An inspection at least once every 12 months by the FCC or a holder of a GMDSS Maintainers license. C. FCC inspection every five years. D. Periodic inspections not required if on board maintainers perform routine preventive maintenance. share/E7/7-6A10000664000175000017500000000130214621747036011231 0ustar jtnjtn7-6A1 D Which of the following statements concerning maintenance requirements is FALSE? A. Compulsory vessels sailing in Sea Areas A1 and A2 must provide any one of the three maintenance options which are: duplication of equipment, shore-based, or at-sea maintenance capability. B. Compulsory vessels sailing in Sea Areas A3 and A4 must provide any two of the three maintenance options which: are duplication of equipment, shore-based, or at-sea maintenance capability. C. Equipment warranties do not satisfy GMDSS maintenance requirements. D. If shore-based maintenance is used, maintenance services do not have to be completed or performance verified unless the vessel will be sailing to a non-US port. share/E7/7-82J10000664000175000017500000000025714621747037011337 0ustar jtnjtn7-82J1 D Which of the following defines "ITU Channel 1216"? A. Ch-12 in the 16 MHz band. B. Ch-1216 in the MF band. C. Ch-12 in the 16 kHz band. D. Ch-16 in the 12 MHz band. share/E7/7-74I40000664000175000017500000000101114621747037011327 0ustar jtnjtn7-74I4 C Which of the following is NOT correct with regard to Inmarsat-C e-mail? A. It is possible to send e-mail messages from your ship's Inmarsat-C terminal to any e-mail address in the world. B. To receive e-mails from shore, your ship's e-mail address must be registered with an Inmarsat C Land Earth Station Service Provider. C. An additional hardware upgrade is required to enable your ship's Inmarsat-C terminal to send and receive emails. D. Not all land earth station service providers support e-mail service. share/E7/7-33E40000664000175000017500000000055414621747036011330 0ustar jtnjtn7-33E4 D What action should you take after sending a false or mistaken Distress alert on 8 MHz? A. Make an "ALL STATIONS" call on all 5 H.F. TELEX channels canceling the alert. B. Make a "MAYDAY" call on 8414.5 kHz canceling the alert. C. Make an "Urgency" call on 8614.0 kHz canceling the alert. D. Make an "ALL STATIONS" call on 8291.0 kHz canceling the alert. share/E7/7-74I10000664000175000017500000000113414621747037011332 0ustar jtnjtn7-74I1 D How may an Inmarsat-C unit be used to send text communications to an Internet destination? A. Call up the file menu, insert the internet address in the first line of the file and use the SEND/REC or TRANSMIT menu to send the message. B. Use the SEND/REC or TRANSMIT menu, compose a text file and use the file attach function in the file menu. C. Internet addresses cannot be reached from an Inmarsat-C terminal without a separate e-mail computer. D. Compose a text file, use the SEND/REC or TRANSMIT menu & specify the recipient using the address book function (or by manual entry) for e-mail. share/E7/7-74I30000664000175000017500000000065314621747037011341 0ustar jtnjtn7-74I3 B What menu function in Inmarsat-C terminals would typically be used to specify an Internet address destination? A. The System Setup menu to store all required e-mail destinations. B. The Address book function (or manual entry) in the SEND/REC or TRANSMIT menu. C. The Data Report menu to initiate the SEND/REC or TRANSMIT process. D. The menus for File Operations are used for adding the Internet address to the file. share/E7/7-73I50000664000175000017500000000035414621747037011340 0ustar jtnjtn7-73I5 A Which of the following is a correctly formatted Inmarsat-C address book entry for sending communications to a fax machine on a vessel's F77 terminal in the IOR? A. 870763240864 B. 583442519372 C. 1870442519372 D. 870323500121 share/E7/7-47F40000664000175000017500000000044114621747036011331 0ustar jtnjtn7-47F4 B Which statement is FALSE regarding the COSPAS-SARSAT system? A. EPIRBs are satellite beacons used as alerting/locating devices. B. May be used to transmit public correspondence. C. Locates Distress beacons transmitting on 406 MHz. D. Doppler shift is used to locate the beacons. share/E7/7-70I50000664000175000017500000000026614621747037011337 0ustar jtnjtn7-70I5 C What entry would you make on an Iridium terminal to make a telephone call to another Iridium terminal? A. 00870765439082 B. 00230882419# C. 00881648769345 D. 8821675902419 share/E7/7-59I10000664000175000017500000000143214621747036011335 0ustar jtnjtn7-59I1 C Which of the following actions should be taken once the vessel is berthed and will not leave port again for several weeks? A. The GMDSS Radio Operator must notify the NCS that the vessel will be off-line, and wait for the NCS to acknowledge with a confirmation number that must be logged. B. The Inmarsat-C system can be powered down without taking additional steps once the GMDSS Radio Operator has ensured that all incoming SafetyNETTM messages have been received and stored. C. The GMDSS Radio Operator may log out of the Inmarsat-C system and turn the power off (unless the vessel decides to leave the unit on during the port stay.) D. The GMDSS Radio Operator must transmit an all-ships alert, to notify vessels within the satellite's footprint that the vessel will be off-line. share/E7/7-8B40000664000175000017500000000022614621747036011243 0ustar jtnjtn7-8B4 A Which of the following systems is least susceptible to atmospheric disturbances? A. Inmarsat B. NAVTEX C. MF SITOR (NBDP) D. HF SITOR (NBDP) share/E7/7-69I40000664000175000017500000000037614621747037011350 0ustar jtnjtn7-69I4 D Which of the following would be a valid sequence to request an F77 automatically dialed ship-ship voice call to an F77 terminal on a vessel tracking the IOR satellite? A. 00583430662888# B. 00870430662888# C. 00583763240864# D. 00870763240864# share/E7/7-43F60000664000175000017500000000026314621747036011331 0ustar jtnjtn7-43F6 C Which of the following EPIRBs is most likely to be used to transmit a Distress alert signal? A. S-Band EPIRBs B. X-Band EPIRBs C. 406 MHz EPIRBs D. 121.5/243 MHz EPIRBs share/E7/7-13C10000664000175000017500000000063114621747036011315 0ustar jtnjtn7-13C1 A How often must a compulsory vessel's GMDSS radio station be inspected? A. Annually, by the FCC or designated authority. B. Annually, by the U.S. Coast Guard. C. Annually, by the FCC, and every six months if the vessel sails outside of Sea Areas A1 and A2. D. The FCC's annual inspection may be waived if and only if monthly inspections are performed by the vessel's on-board GMDSS Radio Maintainer. share/E7/7-71I50000664000175000017500000000034214621747037011333 0ustar jtnjtn7-71I5 B Which of the following is a correctly formatted Inmarsat-C address book entry for sending TELEX communications to an Inmarsat-C terminal in the AOR-W? A. 584765044177 B. 584431014013 C. 870331014013 D. 584331014013+ share/E7/7-25D20000664000175000017500000000027514621747036011326 0ustar jtnjtn7-25D2 B You receive a TELEX with the sender's I.D. of 436640927. What type of terminal sent this message to your vessel? A. F77 Fleet B. Inmarsat-C C. Land TELEX terminal D. Inmarsat-FBB share/E7/7-98J20000664000175000017500000000146114621747037011345 0ustar jtnjtn7-98J2 A A DSC Distress alert is received by your vessel and your transceiver frequency display reads: Transmit = 4207.5 kHz and Receive = 4207.5 kHz with J3E emission -- what information can you infer from this? A. The DSC call requested voice on 4207.5 kHz simplex but the requested alternate frequency is improper. B. The DSC controller decoded the requested voice frequency as 4207.5 kHz simplex and your DSC controller has automatically set-up your transceiver and therefore the requested alternate frequency is correct. C. The DSC call came in on 4 MHz DSC. You should set-up your transmitter and respond on the appropriate voice follow-on frequency of 4177.5 kHz. D. The DSC call came in on 4 MHz DSC. You should set-up your transmitter and respond on the appropriate voice follow-on frequency of 4207.5 kHz. share/E7/7-68I10000664000175000017500000000062514621747036011340 0ustar jtnjtn7-68I1 B Which Inmarsat Earth stations would be available for Inmarsat-C traffic if the vessel is off the Pacific Coast of the United States but logged-in to the AOR-W satellite? A. EIK (Norway), Beijing (P.R.C.), Burum (Netherlands) B. Southbury (USA), Burum (Netherlands), or EIK (Norway). C. Santa Paula (USA), Hai Phong (Vietnam), Yamaguchi (Japan). D. Beijing (PRC), Fucino (Italy), Nudol (Russia). share/E7/7-94J50000664000175000017500000000100514621747037011336 0ustar jtnjtn7-94J5 C The sequence BFEC, SFEC, ARQ best corresponds to which of the following sequences? A. One-way communications to a single station, one-way communications to all stations, two-way communications. B. One-way communications to all stations, two-way communications, one-way communications to a single station. C. One-way communications to all stations, one-way communications to a single station, two-way communications. D. Two-way communications, one-way communications to all stations, two-way communications. share/E7/7-12B30000664000175000017500000000036114621747036011315 0ustar jtnjtn7-12B3 D A vertical quarter wave antenna with a good ground connection will: A. Radiate directionally due to being grounded. B. Not function due to being grounded. C. Only be used in Satellite communications. D. Radiate omni-directionally. share/E7/7-35E10000664000175000017500000000014414621747036011322 0ustar jtnjtn7-35E1 C The Radiotelephone Urgency signal is: A. Mayday B. Securite C. Pan Pan D. Seelonce Feenee share/E7/7-47F30000664000175000017500000000065314621747036011335 0ustar jtnjtn7-47F3 A Which statement is FALSE regarding the COSPAS-SARSAT system? A. The position of the EPRIB is always transmitted in the outgoing transmission (unless the unit is a GPIRB). B. Signals received by low altitude, near-polar orbiting satellites are relayed to a ground receiving station (LUT). C. Doppler shift is used to locate the position of the EPIRB. D. EPIRBs are satellite beacons used as alerting & homing devices. share/E7/7-14C10000664000175000017500000000047714621747036011326 0ustar jtnjtn7-14C1 D Which of the following references should be consulted for information on the proper setup and use of GMDSS equipment? A. ITU List of Equipment Operations. B. 47 CFR Part 80 Subpart W. C. Instructions are available through the Maritime Safety Information (MSI) system. D. The manufacturer's operating manuals. share/E7/7-40F10000664000175000017500000000067014621747036011323 0ustar jtnjtn7-40F1 B How does the searching vessel's radar interrogate a survival craft SART? A. Activate the IFF interrogation system. B. The SART responds automatically and transmits the 12-blip signal when it detects the search craft or other vessels' X-Band radar signal. C. Maintains watch on VHF-FM Ch-70 for the SART's unique identifier. D. The SART responds automatically when it detects the search craft or other vessel's 10-CM radar signal. share/E7/7-30E20000664000175000017500000000024514621747036011320 0ustar jtnjtn7-30E2 A If a MF-DSC Distress alert is transmitted what frequency is used for follow-on voice transmission? A. 2182.0 kHz B. 2760.0 kHz C. 2187.5 kHz D. 2174.5 kHz share/E7/7-52H40000664000175000017500000000056314621747036011334 0ustar jtnjtn7-52H4 A What means are used to prevent the reception of unwanted broadcasts by vessels utilizing the NAVTEX system? A. Programming the receiver to reject certain stations and message categories. B. Operating the receiver only during daytime hours. C. Coordinating reception with published broadcast schedules. D. Automatic receiver de-sensitization during night hours. share/E7/7-27D10000664000175000017500000000107614621747036011327 0ustar jtnjtn7-27D1 C Which of the following statements concerning DSC equipment is true? A. The GMDSS Radio Operator is not responsible for properly selecting HF DSC guard channels because they are done automatically by the watch receiver. B. All equipment must be type accepted by Inmarsat. C. The vessel's navigational position must be updated, either automatically or manually, no less often than every four (4) hours. D. The GMDSS Radio Operator is responsible for properly selecting VHF & MF DSC guard channels but the HF frequencies are done automatically by the watch receiver. share/E7/7-11B40000664000175000017500000000014714621747036011317 0ustar jtnjtn7-11B4 B How many SITOR (NBDP) signals can occupy the space of one voice signal? A. 10 B. 6 C. 4 D. 2 share/E7/7-55H20000664000175000017500000000031214621747036011325 0ustar jtnjtn7-55H2 D What kind(s) of broadcasts are not available through SafetyNETTM? A. MSI and messages to specific geographic areas. B. Storm warnings C. Distress and Urgency bulletins D. Vessel traffic lists share/E7/7-6A30000664000175000017500000000070514621747036011241 0ustar jtnjtn7-6A3 B Which of the following is a GMDSS requirement for all vessels over 300 gross tons operating within range of a MF-DSC equipped shore station? A. Ship's Master or radio officer must be on watch at all times. B. Only one of the three maintenance options is required. C. MF communications must be handled by the holder of a General Radiotelephone Operator's License. D. Only FCC required spare parts and a maintenance kit for repairs are required. share/E7/7-72I60000664000175000017500000000045214621747037011337 0ustar jtnjtn7-72I6 A If your vessel is in the AOR-E, which of the following is a correctly formatted Inmarsat-C address book entry for sending communications to a shoreside TELEX terminal number 776424 in Canada via the TWX system (TELEX country code 26)? A. 26776424 B. 58126776424 C. 582776424 D. 26776424+ share/E7/7-10B50000664000175000017500000000034714621747036011321 0ustar jtnjtn7-10B5 C What is the signal transmitted in J2B mode? A. A full carrier and one sideband. B. A full carrier and two sidebands. C. An upper sideband of 2 alternating tones. D. An upper sideband of a single tone switched on and off. share/E7/7-98J40000664000175000017500000000150414621747037011345 0ustar jtnjtn7-98J4 C Which of these would not be a bad outcome of an Urgency DSC call to all vessels specifying an alternate TELEX frequency & emission that cause your transceiver to automatically switch? A. The DSC controller decoded the contents of the DSC call and the requested frequency is not on the DUS table/placard but is in the marine band frequencies in the J2B emission. B. The DSC controller decoded the contents of the DSC call and the requested frequency is on the DUS table/placard in the J3E emission. C. The DSC controller decoded the contents of the DSC call and the requested frequency is on the DUS table/placard in the J2B emission. D. The DSC controller decoded the contents of the DSC call and the requested frequency is not on the DUS table/placard, is not in the marine band or the other vessel requested a J3E emission. share/E7/7-80J40000664000175000017500000000067214621747037011341 0ustar jtnjtn7-80J4 A Which statement regarding GMDSS MF/HF Transceiver frequency set-up is true: A. Some consoles allow both manual keypad entry and ITU channel recall from a database or memory. B. Transmit and receive frequencies must always be manually entered from the keypad. C. Transmit and receive frequencies must always be recalled from a database or memory. D. Frequencies in the manufacturer's databases are always accurate and legal for use. share/E7/7-80J50000664000175000017500000000054614621747037011342 0ustar jtnjtn7-80J5 D To set-up the MF/HF Transceiver for a TELEX call to a coast station, the operator must: A. Select J3E mode for proper SITOR (NBDP) operations. B. Select F1B/J2B modes or J3E mode, depending on whether ARQ or FEC is preferred. C. Select J3E mode for ARQ and H3E mode for FEC. D. Select F1B mode or J2B mode, depending on the equipment manufacturer. share/E7/7-21D10000664000175000017500000000016614621747036011320 0ustar jtnjtn7-21D1 A A typical call sign for a large container ship under U. S. flag would be: A. KBZY B. WBX1469 C. NADN D. KPH share/E7/7-16C10000664000175000017500000000035114621747036011317 0ustar jtnjtn7-16C1 B Which FCC license meets the requirement to serve as a GMDSS operator? A. General Radiotelephone Operator's License. B. GMDSS Radio Operator's License. C. Marine Radio Operator's Permit. D. GMDSS Radio Maintainer's License. share/E7/7-54H60000664000175000017500000000021514621747036011332 0ustar jtnjtn7-54H6 D Maritime Safety Information is promulgated via satellite through which system? A. AMVER B. NAVTEX C. Inmarsat-M SES D. SafetyNETTM share/E7/7-54H10000664000175000017500000000031714621747036011330 0ustar jtnjtn7-54H1 D Where NAVTEX cannot be feasibly established, what system can be implemented to provide an automated service in coastal waters to receive MSI? A. AMVER B. VHF DSC C. ARQ SITOR (NBDP) D. SafetyNETTM share/E7/7-17C60000664000175000017500000000060414621747036011326 0ustar jtnjtn7-17C6 B Which of the following terms is defined as a back-up power source that provides power to radio installations for the purpose of conducting Distress and Safety communications when the vessel's main and emergency generators cannot? A. Emergency Diesel Generator (EDG) B. Reserve Source of Energy (RSE) C. Reserve Source of Diesel Power (RSDP) D. Emergency Back-up Generator (EBG) share/E7/7-48F20000664000175000017500000000065314621747036011335 0ustar jtnjtn7-48F2 C What information should be contained in a detailed Distress message that was not transmitted by an initial Distress "hot-key" alert? A. Vessel position, course & speed and the nature of Distress. B. The distress vessel's IMN and position at the time of alert. C. Vessel name & call sign, POB and all potential means to communicate with the vessel. D. Vessel name & call sign, distress vessel's IMN & vessel position. share/E7/7-87J10000664000175000017500000000113114621747037011334 0ustar jtnjtn7-87J1 C What is meant by describing a Coast Station with the acronym ATOR? A. The station's BFEC operations are computerized and a rigid operating sequence must be followed correctly. B. The station will control all of the ARQ operations and it will generate the proper service request codes at the correct time in the sequence. C. The station's ARQ operations are computerized and a rigid operating sequence must be followed correctly. D. The station will control all of the ARQ operations and it will provide prompts for the operator to request time & charges at the correct time in the sequence. share/E7/7-9B10000664000175000017500000000044314621747036011242 0ustar jtnjtn7-9B1 A What statement best describes modulation? A. Imposing intelligence onto a radio carrier signal. B. Changing mark-space to 1 and 0. C. Adjusting the frequency to the optimum band for long distance communications. D. Converting the carrier from a low frequency to a higher frequency. share/E7/7-51H50000664000175000017500000000040214621747036011324 0ustar jtnjtn7-51H5 B Which of the following is the primary frequency that is used exclusively for NAVTEX broadcasts internationally? A. 2187.5 kHz B. 518 kHz C. 4209.5 kHz D. VHF channel 16 when the vessel is sailing in Sea Area A1, and 2187.5 kHz when in Sea Area A2. share/E7/7-95J30000664000175000017500000000077614621747037011353 0ustar jtnjtn7-95J3 A If the vessel is experiencing atmospheric interference with NAVTEX broadcasts, especially in the tropics, the GMDSS operator should: A. Select one of the 8 HF MSI frequencies and set-up the transceiver in FEC TELEX mode. B. Select one of the 6 HF MSI frequencies and set-up the transceiver in ARQ TELEX mode. C. Select one of the 6 MF MSI frequencies and set-up the transceiver in FEC TELEX mode. D. Select the MF MSI frequency dedicated to tropical MSI and set-up the transceiver in FEC TELEX mode. share/E7/7-30E30000664000175000017500000000024514621747036011321 0ustar jtnjtn7-30E3 B If a HF-DSC Distress alert is transmitted what frequency is used for follow-on voice transmission? A. 8376.5 kHz B. 8291.0 kHz C. 8401.5 kHz D. 8201.0 kHz share/E7/7-88J60000664000175000017500000000046614621747037011354 0ustar jtnjtn7-88J6 A "SITOR (NBDP)" communications are based on a digital code system: A. Consisting of 7 bits, with four zeros and three ones. B. Consisting of 7 bits, with four ones and three zeroes. C. Consisting of 5 bits TELEX and 8 bits Fax. D. Consisting of 5 bits for ship stations and 7 bits for shore stations. share/E7/7-51H40000664000175000017500000000073014621747036011327 0ustar jtnjtn7-51H4 B Which of these cannot happen when a paper model NAVTEX receiver runs out of paper? A. The unit is unable to print messages and all subsequent MSI broadcasts may be missed until the paper is replaced. B. The system will automatically change from receiving MSI by NAVTEX to receiving it by SafetyNETTM so that no messages will be lost. C. It may give off either an audible and/or visual alarm. D. MSI messages may be missed because the unit cannot print them out. share/E7/7-19C50000664000175000017500000000114414621747036011327 0ustar jtnjtn7-19C5 B Proper watchkeeping includes the following: A. Understanding normal operational indicators, setting the DSC scanner frequencies to minimize alarms, maintaining a proper log. B. Maintaining a proper GMDSS radio station log, understanding normal operational indicators, responding to and comprehending alarms. C. Responding to and comprehending alarms, logging out of Inmarsat-C terminals while at sea, maintaining a proper GMDSS radio station log. D. Maintaining a proper GMDSS radio station log, setting the DSC scanner frequencies to minimize alarms, logging out of Inmarsat-C terminals while at sea. share/E7/7-84J40000664000175000017500000000072014621747037011337 0ustar jtnjtn7-84J4 A In FM communications, the information is applied to the carrier by: A. Varying the frequency of the carrier to convey the information to other stations. B. Varying the amplitude or the frequency of the carrier, depending on Double or Single-Sideband operations. C. Varying only the frequency of the carrier, depending on Double or Single-Sideband operations. D. Varying the amplitude of the carrier and keeping the frequencies in the sidebands constant. share/E7/7-20C60000664000175000017500000000077514621747036011331 0ustar jtnjtn7-20C6 A Which of the following logkeeping statements is FALSE? A. Entries of all company communications using GMDSS satellite equipment are required. B. Entries relating to pre-voyage, pre-departure and daily tests are required. C. A summary of all Distress communications heard and Urgency communications affecting the station's own ship. Also, all Safety communications (other than VHF) affecting the station's own ship must be logged. D. Entries related to failures of compulsory equipment are required. share/E7/7-21D20000664000175000017500000000031314621747036011313 0ustar jtnjtn7-21D2 B What would the number 1090 indicate? A. A ship DSC MMSI number. B. A coast station SITOR (NBDP) SELCAL number. C. A coast station DSC MMSI number. D. A ship station SITOR (NBDP) SELCAL number. share/E7/7-65I20000664000175000017500000000105414621747036011333 0ustar jtnjtn7-65I2 B What is the average length of time required for a TELEX sent by Inmarsat-C to be delivered to the addressee? A. All Inmarsat-C communications are made with real-time connectivity so there is no delay in message delivery. B. The average delivery time for a message sent by Inmarsat-C is about 10 minutes. C. Date/time notification of delivery is possible only through Inmarsat-FBB. D. The average delivery time for a TELEX sent by Inmarsat-C is about 10 minutes, but fax and data messages sent by Inmarsat-C require about 30 minutes for delivery. share/E7/7-81J40000664000175000017500000000065214621747037011340 0ustar jtnjtn7-81J4 D For general communications purposes, simplex frequencies are: A. Normally used with public coast stations for routine telephone communications. B. Normally used between ship stations as well as public coast stations simultaneously. C. Normally used with public coast stations for routine SITOR (NBDP) communications. D. Normally used between ship stations and private coast stations or for ship-ship communications. share/E7/7-19C30000664000175000017500000000045014621747036011324 0ustar jtnjtn7-19C3 A What are the mandatory DSC watchkeeping bands/channels? A. 8 MHz HF DSC, 1 other HF DSC, 2 MHz MF DSC and VHF Ch-70. B. 2 MHz MF DSC, 8 MHz DSC, VHF Ch-16 and 1 other HF DSC. C. VHF Ch-70, 2 MHz MF DSC, 6 MHz DSC and 1 other HF DSC. D. VHF Ch-70, 2 MHZ MF DSC, 4 MHZ DSC and 8 MHz DSC. share/E7/7-14C40000664000175000017500000000115614621747036011324 0ustar jtnjtn7-14C4 C Which of the following documents or publications are required by the FCC for GMDSS vessels on international voyages (other than the Great Lakes)? A. IMO master plan of shore-based facilities (or substitute), station logs, appropriate operator licenses, Inmarsat handbook for GMDSS. B. NGA Pub. 117 (or substitute), station logs, appropriate operator licenses, IAMSAR manual volume III. C. Part 80 FCC rules, station logs, station licenses, ITU publications, ITU manual for Maritime Mobile stations. D. Part 80 FCC rules, station logs, station licenses, ITU publications, IMO manual for Maritime Mobile stations. share/E7/7-80J10000664000175000017500000000025614621747037011334 0ustar jtnjtn7-80J1 B Which modes could be selected to receive vessel traffic lists from high seas coast radio stations: A. AM and VHF-FM B. SSB and FEC C. ARQ and FEC D. VHF-FM and SSB share/E7/7-89J60000664000175000017500000000130514621747037011346 0ustar jtnjtn7-89J6 B Which statement is correct regarding HF SITOR (NBDP) under GMDSS? A. Distress communications other than directly to the Coast Guard or other coast stations on the channels that they normally guard, should be in the broadcast SSB mode. B. Safety communications by direct-printing telegraphy should be in the ARQ mode when communicating with the U.S. Coast Guard or other coast stations on channels that they normally guard. C. The ARQ mode may not be used subsequently to the FEC mode even when it is advantageous to do so. D. Distress communications other than directly to the Coast Guard or other coast stations on the channels that they normally guard, should be in the broadcast FEC or SSB mode. share/E7/7-79I40000664000175000017500000000064014621747037011343 0ustar jtnjtn7-79I4 B Which of the following conditions does not typically impair Inmarsat-FBB communications? A. An obstruction, such as a mast, blocking the signal between the satellite and the SES antenna when the vessel is steering a specific course. B. Normal precipitation from gales and storms. C. A satellite whose signal is on a low elevation, below the horizon. D. Travel beyond the effective radius of the satellite. share/E7/7-1A60000664000175000017500000000042714621747035011237 0ustar jtnjtn7-1A6 B GMDSS is required for which of the following? A. All vessels capable of international voyages. B. SOLAS Convention ships of 300 gross tonnage or more. C. Vessels operating outside of the range of VHF coast radio stations. D. Coastal vessels of less than 300 gross tons. share/E7/7-2A20000664000175000017500000000015014621747035011225 0ustar jtnjtn7-2A2 A What equipment utilizes satellite communications? A. Inmarsat-C B. VHF-MF-HF C. NAVTEX D. SART share/E7/7-58H50000664000175000017500000000033314621747036011336 0ustar jtnjtn7-58H5 C A vessel operating in the Eastern Pacific or along the West coast of North and Central America from Alaska to Ecuador, including Panama and Hawaii, would be operating in which NAVAREA? A. X B. XI C. XII D. IV share/E7/7-7B60000664000175000017500000000023714621747036011246 0ustar jtnjtn7-7B6 C What is the primary frequency range for terrestrial communications using skywave propagation? A. 300-3,000 kHz B. 30-300 MHz C. 3-30 MHz D. 10-30 MHz share/E7/7-55H60000664000175000017500000000066614621747036011345 0ustar jtnjtn7-55H6 C In using SafetyNETTM for the receipt of MSI (Maritime Safety Information): A. Only unscheduled Urgency and Distress messages will be received if the Inmarsat-C SES is not logged in. B. Both scheduled MSI and unscheduled Urgency and Distress messages will be received if the Inmarsat-C SES is logged in. C. All of these answers are correct. D. The Inmarsat-C SES must have Enhanced Group Calling (EGC) capability to receive MSI. share/E7/7-53H40000664000175000017500000000125414621747036011333 0ustar jtnjtn7-53H4 D What determines whether a NAVTEX receiver prints a particular type of message content from a programmed NAVTEX station? A. The serial number and type of message have already been received but additional printouts are generated to ensure receipt aboard the vessel. B. The subject indicator has been programmed for rejection by the operator but the message contains a priority override print command. C. The transmitting station ID covering your area has been programmed for rejection by the operator or has not been previously received. D. The serial number and type of message has not been previously received or the subject indicator has not been programmed for rejection. share/E7/7-83J40000664000175000017500000000036314621747037011341 0ustar jtnjtn7-83J4 B The proper sequence of channel spacing from narrow to widest is: A. SSB voice, SITOR (NBDP), VHF-FM voice. B. SITOR (NBDP), SSB-voice, VHF-FM voice. C. VHF-FM voice, SITOR (NBDP), SSB-voice. D. SITOR (NBDP), VHF-FM voice, SSB-voice. share/E7/7-32E50000664000175000017500000000077214621747036011332 0ustar jtnjtn7-32E5 D Transmission of a DSC Distress alert by a station on behalf of another vessel actually in Distress should NOT occur: A. When the mobile unit actually in Distress is not itself in a position to transmit the Distress alert. B. When the Master or responsible person on the mobile unit not in Distress so decides. C. When the responsible person at the Coast Station determines further help is necessary. D. When communications between the Distress vessel and a Coast station are already in progress. share/E7/7-18C40000664000175000017500000000052514621747036011327 0ustar jtnjtn7-18C4 C At sea, all required equipment (other than Survival Craft Equipment) must be proven operational by: A. Testing at least every 48 hours. B. Weekly testing of all S.C.E. and other compulsory equipment. C. Daily testing or daily successful use of the equipment. D. Daily testing of the S.C.E. and weekly tests of the other equipment. share/E7/7-51H20000664000175000017500000000022214621747036011321 0ustar jtnjtn7-51H2 D When do NAVTEX broadcasts typically achieve maximum transmitting range? A. Local noontime B. Afternoon C. Sunset D. Middle of the night share/E7/7-23D30000664000175000017500000000016414621747036011322 0ustar jtnjtn7-23D3 A A MMSI 030346239 indicates what? A. Group MMSI B. Inmarsat-C I.D. number C. Coast station D. Ship station share/E7/7-87J40000664000175000017500000000043114621747037011341 0ustar jtnjtn7-87J4 B A Coast Station that is described as ATOR typically provides what type of services? A. NAVTEX BFEC weather broadcasts. B. ARQ SITOR (NBDP) connections to shoreside terminals. C. BFEC SITOR (NBDP) connections to shoreside terminals. D. SITOR (NBDP) HF weather broadcasts. share/E7/7-94J30000664000175000017500000000067314621747037011346 0ustar jtnjtn7-94J3 B Which of the following statements concerning SITOR (NBDP) communications is true? A. FEC requests are first acknowledged by the vessel's transmitter before broadcasts can be received. B. FEC mode broadcasts can be passively received without the transmitter being active. C. Weather broadcasts are always made in ARQ mode to ensure reception. D. ARQ mode communications can be passively received without the transmitter being active. share/E7/7-83J60000664000175000017500000000021014621747037011332 0ustar jtnjtn7-83J6 C Communications with an emission of J3E would typically have a channel spacing of: A. 0.5 kHz B. 0.3 kHz C. 3.0 kHz D. 2.8 kHz share/E7/7-71I60000664000175000017500000000053514621747037011340 0ustar jtnjtn7-71I6 C Which of the following is a correctly formatted Inmarsat-C address book entry for sending TELEX communications to two Inmarsat-C terminals in the POR? A. 583452998777 first and 583423500120 second. B. 582450302113 first and 582761579051 second. C. 582452998777 first and 582423500120 second. D. 582762267098 first and 582450302113 second. share/E7/7-11B30000664000175000017500000000033014621747036011310 0ustar jtnjtn7-11B3 A You look up a frequency table and all the listings end in either .0 or .5 kHz. What kind of emission is used with these frequencies? A. F1B/J2B SITOR (NBDP) B. J3E SSB Voice C. F3E FM Voice D. G3E FM Voice share/E7/7-24D20000664000175000017500000000016414621747036011322 0ustar jtnjtn7-24D2 C Which of the following would indicate a MOB AIS SART? A. 003662517 B. 436982011 C. 972350058 D. 970125648 share/E7/7-43F10000664000175000017500000000062214621747036011323 0ustar jtnjtn7-43F1 C What features may be found on GMDSS satellite EPIRB units? A. Strobe light, Distress homing transmission on 406 MHz, float-free release bracket. B. Emergency transmission on 406 MHz, hydrostatic release, AIS homing frequency. C. Float-free release bracket, strobe light & Distress alert transmission on 406 MHz. D. Hydrostatic release, Distress alert transmission on 121.5 MHz, strobe light. share/E7/7-93J50000664000175000017500000000044114621747037011340 0ustar jtnjtn7-93J5 A When requesting a direct TELEX connection to a shore-based TELEX terminal the GMDSS operator must: A. DIRTLX, 0, Country code, TELEX number, +. B. DIRTLX, 00, Ocean Area Code, TELEX number, +. C. DIRTLX, 0, Ocean Area, TELEX number, +. D. DIRTLX, 00, Country code, TELEX number. share/E7/7-58H30000664000175000017500000000025714621747036011341 0ustar jtnjtn7-58H3 B NAVAREAs referred to in NAVTEX are the same as used in: A. GMDSS sea areas B. Inmarsat SafetyNETTM C. International Vessel Traffic Service D. Inmarsat ocean regions share/E7/7-60I40000664000175000017500000000020514621747036011325 0ustar jtnjtn7-60I4 A Which longitude corresponds to the AOR-E satellite for Inmarsat-C communications? A. 54.0 W B. 25.0 E C. 143.5 E D. 98.0 W share/E7/7-48F40000664000175000017500000000105114621747036011330 0ustar jtnjtn7-48F4 A Which statement is NOT true regarding an Inmarsat Distress Alert? A. USCG coast stations will receive the alert and immediately notify the correct RCC. B. The operator selection of LES will determine which associated RCC will receive the alert. C. If the operator selects an invalid or inoperative LES code the NCS for that service will intercept the call and reroute the alert. D. If the LES choice is not updated properly the Distress Alert might be routed to a non-optimum RCC, introducing delays and confusion into the Distress situation. share/E7/7-4A60000664000175000017500000000076114621747035011243 0ustar jtnjtn7-4A6 A Which of the following are required GMDSS functions for vessels? A. Transmit and receive locating signals, general communications and SAR communications. B. Transmit and receive general communications, transmit Distress Alerts by at least one means, MSI. C. Transmit and receive locating signals, send MSI to other ships via EGC, Bridge-to-Bridge communications. D. Transmit and receive SAR communications, transmit Distress Alerts by at least one means, Bridge-to-Bridge communications. share/E7/7-64I40000664000175000017500000000060714621747036011337 0ustar jtnjtn7-64I4 A What features in a Maritime Safety Terminal (MST) are required for FBB units to meet GMDSS requirements? A. Distress Alert button, keyboard and either printer or dedicated display/memory.. B. Printer, keyboard and 505 Distress menus on the keypad. C. Printer, Distress Alert button and dedicated EGC receiver. D. FBB units do not require Maritime Safety terminals to be compliant. share/E7/7-32E60000664000175000017500000000103014621747036011317 0ustar jtnjtn7-32E6 A DSC Relays of DSC Distress alerts received from other ships should be done? A. Only when the original DSC call is not acknowledged, and no follow-on Distress traffic has been heard. B. Only by Inmarsat-C TELEX with Distress priority conveying the follow-on Distress traffic that has been heard. C. Only by Inmarsat-FBB voice or TELEX with Distress priority if no follow-on Distress traffic has been heard. D. Preferably by MF/HF voice or TELEX directly to the RCC conveying the follow-on Distress traffic that has been heard. share/E7/7-54H40000664000175000017500000000042014621747036011326 0ustar jtnjtn7-54H4 C Aboard ship, SafetyNETTM messages can be received by which equipment/methods? A. VHF DSC on the weather channels. B. NAVTEX Receiver on 518 kHz or the Tropical Navtex frequency. C. EGC receiver of the vessel's Inmarsat-C SES. D. HF SITOR (NBDP) MSI frequencies. share/E7/7-91J50000664000175000017500000000051614621747037011341 0ustar jtnjtn7-91J5 B What sequence of ARQ codes matches the following: shore station indicates it is awaiting instructions from the vessel, vessel requests a live connection to a land telex number, vessel indicates it is done with the coast station? A. WRU-AAB, DIRTLX, NNNN B. GA+?, DIRTLX, BRK+ C. GA+?, DIRTLX, KKKK D. WRU-AAB, DIRTLX, ..... share/E7/7-99J30000664000175000017500000000075314621747037011352 0ustar jtnjtn7-99J3 A What is a gel cell battery and how is it maintained & cared for? A. Gel cell batteries are typically sealed; special charging rates and voltages may be required. B. Gel cell batteries are lead acid with a solid electrolyte; each cell is checked with a voltmeter. C. Gel cell batteries are NICAD with a solid electrolyte; each cell is checked with a voltmeter. D. Gel cell batteries are have special liquid electrolytes; they are charged with the NICAD charging rates and voltages. share/E7/7-46F10000664000175000017500000000020314621747036011321 0ustar jtnjtn7-46F1 D Which of the following has been designated for "On-scene" communications in GMDSS? A. Ch-24 B. Ch-2182 C. Ch-70 D. Ch-16 share/E7/7-62I20000664000175000017500000000105114621747036011325 0ustar jtnjtn7-62I2 A What is the primary function of a LES? A. To provide direct communications between the Inmarsat station placing a call and the station receiving the call. B. To monitor and control communications through the Inmarsat satellite for which it is responsible. C. To provide multi-mode communications between the Inmarsat station placing a call and the coast radio station that will deliver it. D. To determine which satellite is best suited to provide communications between the Inmarsat station placing a call and the station receiving the call. share/E7/7-53H10000664000175000017500000000052514621747036011330 0ustar jtnjtn7-53H1 A The NAVTEX message header contains the following? A. The first letter (from A to Z) indicates the NAVTEX transmitting station. B. A two-digit number (01-99) indicates the NAVTEX message category. C. Message numbers include a date/time group, along with the transmitting station's numerical ID. D. None of these answers is correct. share/E7/7-94J10000664000175000017500000000076614621747037011347 0ustar jtnjtn7-94J1 D Which of the following statements concerning SITOR (NBDP) communications is true? A. Communication is established on the working channel and answerbacks are exchanged before FEC broadcasts can be received. B. All of these answers are true. C. Weather broadcasts cannot be made in FEC because sending each character twice would cause the broadcast to be prohibitively long. D. Two-way communication with the coast radio station using FEC is not necessary to be able to receive the broadcasts. share/E7/7-97J30000664000175000017500000000032314621747037011341 0ustar jtnjtn7-97J3 C At mid-day in the summer, what would be the best choice in attempting to communicate, using J3E voice with a shore station some 1800 miles distant? A. VHF-FM B. Lower HF bands C. Higher HF bands D. MF share/E7/7-9B50000664000175000017500000000060214621747036011243 0ustar jtnjtn7-9B5 A Which statement best describes frequency modulation? A. The information signal changes the radio carrier frequency but the amplitude remains constant. B. Both the amplitude and frequency are changed by the modulating signal. C. Frequency modulation is subject to interference by atmospheric noise. D. High level mixing of the final amplifier signal and the information signal. share/E7/7-48F10000664000175000017500000000113314621747036011326 0ustar jtnjtn7-48F1 B What actions should the GMDSS radio operator take prior to any potential Distress situation? A. Create a table or chart of all the DSC coast stations that might be used during the vessel's itinerary. B. All of these answers are good operational practice and should be consistently done. C. Prepare a detailed Distress message file on both satellite & MF-HF SITOR (NBDP) equipment containing all information needed in a Distress so it will be available for last-minute editing. D. Ensure all LES choices are correct and then updated properly as the vessel transits different SAR jurisdictions. share/E7/7-12B40000664000175000017500000000036614621747036011323 0ustar jtnjtn7-12B4 A What is the most common type of antenna for GMDSS MF-HF? A. Vertically polarized whip antenna B. Horizontally polarized long wire antenna. C. Horizontally polarized vertical whip antenna. D. Satellite radome with vertical polarization. share/E7/7-72I20000664000175000017500000000040214621747037011326 0ustar jtnjtn7-72I2 C Which of the following is a correctly formatted Inmarsat-C address book entry for sending communications to a shoreside TELEX terminal number 440122 in the United Kingdom (TELEX country code 51)? A. 51440122+ B. (51)440122 C. 51440122 D. 51440122# share/E7/7-60I20000664000175000017500000000021214621747036011321 0ustar jtnjtn7-60I2 C Which satellite should be chosen when the vessel is operating between Japan and the Bering Sea? A. AOR-W B. IOR C. POR D. AOR-E share/E7/7-14C30000664000175000017500000000044214621747036011320 0ustar jtnjtn7-14C3 B What publications should the GMDSS Radio Operator consult to review the proper procedures to be followed in Distress situations under GMDSS? A. The manufacturer's technical manuals. B. 47 CFR Part 80 Subpart W. C. The manufacturer's operator manuals. D. 47 CFR Part 90 Subpart V. share/E7/7-6A20000664000175000017500000000123714621747036011241 0ustar jtnjtn7-6A2 A Which of the following statements concerning GMDSS maintenance requirements is true? A. The options are duplication of equipment, at-sea maintenance, and shore-based maintenance. B. Compulsory vessels between 300-500 gross tons are required only to provide one maintenance option, while compulsory vessels larger than 500 gross tons and all passenger vessels are required to provide any two of the three maintenance options. C. The "at-sea" maintenance may be waived if the compulsory vessel carries at least three licensed GMDSS Radio Operators. D. Compulsory vessels operating in Sea Area A4 are required to carry at least one licensed GMDSS Radio Maintainer. share/E7/7-73I30000664000175000017500000000035514621747037011337 0ustar jtnjtn7-73I3 C Which of the following is a correctly formatted Inmarsat-C address book entry for sending communications to a fax machine on a vessel's F77 terminal in the AOR-E? A. 581366269025 B. 870466269025 C. 870763972514 D. 581761138138 share/E7/7-30E40000664000175000017500000000110114621747036011312 0ustar jtnjtn7-30E4 C What is the proper format for a Distress follow on voice transmission? (3x is three times), A. All Ships 3x, this is Ship's Name/Call Sign 3x, MMSI, Ship's position, nature of distress and assistance requested. B. Mayday 3x, this is Ship's Name/Call Sign once, MMSI, Ship's position, nature of distress and assistance requested. C. Mayday 3x, this is Ship's Name/Call Sign 3x, MMSI, Ship's position, nature of distress and assistance requested. D. All Stations 3x, this is Ship's Name/Call Sign 3x, MMSI, Ship's position, nature of distress and assistance requested. share/E7/7-23D50000664000175000017500000000046314621747036011326 0ustar jtnjtn7-23D5 B Which of the following statements concerning MMSI is FALSE? A. All Coast Station MMSI must begin with 2 zeros. B. All Coast Station MMSI must begin with the MID then 2 zeros. C. A group call must begin with a single zero followed by the MID. D. The first 3 digits of a ship MMSI comprise the MID. share/E7/7-30E60000664000175000017500000000046514621747036011330 0ustar jtnjtn7-30E6 D What information is NOT vital in a Distress follow on voice transmission after a DSC Alert? A. Ship's position, nature of distress and assistance requested. B. Ship's Name, Call Sign and MMSI number. C. Physical description of the vessel and number of POB. D. Company emergency contact information. share/E7/7-88J20000664000175000017500000000071614621747037011346 0ustar jtnjtn7-88J2 C Which of the following statements concerning SITOR (NBDP) communications is true? A. FEC transmissions are made in data groups consisting of three-character blocks. B. FEC transmissions require a "phasing" or "handshaking" process prior to character transmission. C. FEC transmissions rely upon an error correction technique, which transmits each character twice. D. FEC transmissions rely upon parity and "repeat requests" to ensure error correction. share/E7/7-43F50000664000175000017500000000052614621747036011332 0ustar jtnjtn7-43F5 B Which of the following statements concerning EPIRBs is FALSE? A. The COSPAS-SARSAT system may take a full hour or more to provide an alert. B. The Inmarsat system provides worldwide coverage for Distress alerts. C. The GOES weather satellites are in a geostationary orbit. D. 406 MHz EPIRB units may be equipped with GPS receivers. share/E7/7-81J60000664000175000017500000000052414621747037011340 0ustar jtnjtn7-81J6 B An ITU duplex channel frequency is defined as: A. Transmit and receive frequencies may be identical if communications are ship-shore. B. Transmit and receive frequencies must be different. C. Transmit and receive frequencies must be identical. D. Transmit and receive frequencies may be different if communications are ship-ship. share/E7/7-87J60000664000175000017500000000026514621747037011350 0ustar jtnjtn7-87J6 C What does the term "ARQ" mean in SITOR (NBDP) operations? A. Automation Repeat Request B. Automaton Repeat Request C. Automatic Repeat Request D. Automatic Request Repeat share/E7/7-34E50000664000175000017500000000125514621747036011331 0ustar jtnjtn7-34E5 C How are normal working conditions restored on a SITOR (NBDP) frequency on which radio silence had been imposed? A. The LES that imposed the radio silence must transmit a SITOR (NBDP) message stating "SILENCE FINI". B. The Public Correspondence Station (PCS) that imposed the radio silence must transmit a narrow band direct printing message on the Distress frequency stating "SILENCE FINI". C. The RCC or Coast station that imposed the radio silence must transmit a SITOR (NBDP) message stating "SILENCE FINI". D. The High Seas Service (HSS) that imposed the radio silence must transmit a narrow band direct printing message on the Distress frequency stating "SILENCE FINI". share/E7/7-24D40000664000175000017500000000016614621747036011326 0ustar jtnjtn7-24D4 A Which of the following would indicate an F77 terminal? A. 765044177 B. 0036648202 C. 436682433 D. 367224126 share/E7/7-73I10000664000175000017500000000034314621747037011332 0ustar jtnjtn7-73I1 A Which of the following are correctly formatted Inmarsat-C address book entries for sending communications to an F77 with a fax machine in the AOR-W? A. 870768790319 B. 8704336837925 C. 584768790319 D. 1 870 768790319 share/E7/7-67I20000664000175000017500000000115614621747036011340 0ustar jtnjtn7-67I2 D When Inmarsat-FBB and Inmarsat-C terminals are compared: A. Inmarsat-FBB antennas are larger, but omni-directional, while Inmarsat-C antennas are smaller and parabolic, for aiming at the satellite. B. Inmarsat-FBB antennas are parabolic and smaller for higher gain, while Inmarsat-C antennas are larger but omni-directional. C. Inmarsat-C antennas are smaller, but omni-directional, while Inmarsat-FBB antennas are parabolic for lower gain. D. Inmarsat-FBB antennas are larger, but directional for higher gain, while Inmarsat-C antennas are smaller and non-parabolic, and do not require aiming at the satellite. share/E7/7-1A40000664000175000017500000000065314621747035011236 0ustar jtnjtn7-1A4 D GMDSS is primarily a system based on: A. Ship-to-ship Distress communications using MF or HF radiotelephony. B. VHF digital selective calling from ship to shore. C. Distress, Urgency and Safety communications carried out by the use of narrow-band direct printing telegraphy. D. The linking of search and rescue authorities ashore with shipping in the immediate vicinity of a ship in Distress or in need of assistance. share/E7/7-45F60000664000175000017500000000053414621747036011334 0ustar jtnjtn7-45F6 B Which statement is NOT true regarding the requirements of survival craft portable two-way VHF radiotelephone equipment? A. Watertight to a depth of 1 meter for 5 minutes. B. Operates simplex on Ch-70 and at least one other channel. C. Effective radiated power should be a minimum of 0.25 Watts. D. The antenna is fixed and non-removable. share/E7/7-69I20000664000175000017500000000066614621747037011350 0ustar jtnjtn7-69I2 B A vessel is tracking the AOR-E satellite. To initiate an operator assisted F77 ship-to-shore telephone contact to a shoreside party in the U.S.A., # 202-456-7890, through a European Earth Station, a valid Inmarsat operations/dialing sequence would be? A. Select LES: 001# then dial 1112024567890 B. Select LES: 012# then dial 1112024567890# C. Select LES: 001# then dial 0012024567890# D. Select LES: 001+ then dial 202 4567890 share/E7/7-55H30000664000175000017500000000021114621747036011324 0ustar jtnjtn7-55H3 A Which satellite system promulgates Maritime Safety Information? A. Inmarsat-C SafetyNETTM B. AMVER C. NAVTEX D. Inmarsat-M SES share/E7/7-90J60000664000175000017500000000056114621747037011341 0ustar jtnjtn7-90J6 D During ARQ communications, which of these is least likely to cause a coast station to break the phased radio connection: A. If the error percentage of repeat requests becomes too high. B. If the operator enters "BRK+". C. If the automatic exchange of answerbacks is interrupted by keyboard entries. D. If the operator enters "NNNN" at the end of the message. share/E7/7-4A10000664000175000017500000000107014621747035011230 0ustar jtnjtn7-4A1 B Which of the following is a functional or carriage requirement for compulsory vessels? A. A compulsory vessel must carry at least two (2) FCC licensed GMDSS Radio Operators in all sea areas as well as a GMDSS Maintainer in sea areas A3 & A4. B. A compulsory vessel must satisfy certain equipment carriage requirements based on the intended sea area of operation. C. A compulsory vessel must be able to transmit and respond to Distress alerts and carry only one (1) FCC licensed GMDSS Radio Operator in sea areas A1 & A2. D. None of these answers are correct. share/E7/7-39F10000664000175000017500000000067514621747036011340 0ustar jtnjtn7-39F1 C What indication is given to the personnel in a survival craft of the approach of SAR craft? A. The Satellite EPIRB will change its strobe light pattern to indicate radar interrogation. B. The SART informs survivors when the SART switches to the "standby" mode. C. The SART may provide a visual or audible indication of interrogation by a 3-CM radar. D. The AIS SART will alarm to indicate that SAR craft with radars are getting close. share/E7/7-35E50000664000175000017500000000045114621747036011327 0ustar jtnjtn7-35E5 B The Urgency Priority should be used for: A. Messages concerning the Safety of Life At Sea (SOLAS). B. Messages containing information concerning the Safety of a mobile unit or person. C. Messages detailing important navigational warnings. D. Messages concerning On-scene communications. share/E7/7-31E30000664000175000017500000000116014621747036011317 0ustar jtnjtn7-31E3 A What is the proper procedure to be followed upon receipt of a Distress alert transmitted by use of Digital Selective Calling techniques? A. Set watch on the radiotelephone Distress and Safety frequency associated with the Distress and Safety calling frequency on which the Distress alert was received. B. Set watch on the DSC alerting frequency in the band of frequencies the alert was received. C. Set a continuous watch on VHF-FM Channel 13, 16 and DSC on Channel 70. D. Ship stations equipped with narrow-band direct-printing equipment should respond to the Distress alert as soon as practicable by this means. share/E7/7-53H60000664000175000017500000000037114621747036011334 0ustar jtnjtn7-53H6 B NAVTEX broadcasts are sent: A. Immediately following traffic lists. B. In categories of messages indicated by a single letter or identifier. C. On request of maritime mobile stations. D. Regularly, after the radiotelephone silent periods. share/E7/7-67I40000664000175000017500000000071514621747036011342 0ustar jtnjtn7-67I4 B When Inmarsat-FBB and Inmarsat-C terminals are compared: A. Inmarsat-C antennas are smaller, with active parabolic antennas but no rewind capability. B. Inmarsat-C antennas are smaller, with passive non-parabolic antennas but no rewind capability. C. Inmarsat-FBB antennas are larger, with passive non-parabolic antennas that require rewind capability. D. Inmarsat-FBB antennas are larger, with stationary parabolic antennas but no rewind capability. share/E7/7-3A30000664000175000017500000000045414621747035011236 0ustar jtnjtn7-3A3 A If a vessel is engaged in local trade and at no point in its voyage travels outside the range of a VHF shore station with continuous DSC alerting then the vessel is operating in what area? A. Sea area A1 B. Coastal and international zones C. Inland and coastal waters D. Sea areas A1 and A2 share/E7/7-40F60000664000175000017500000000066014621747036011327 0ustar jtnjtn7-40F6 A What is not an advantage of an AIS SART signal when compared to a radar-based SART signal? A. The AIS SART can be detected much farther away than radar SART models. B. Not every AIS transmission needs to be received to achieve an accurate presentation of the location. C. The AIS SART position has GPS accuracy and transmits on AIS VHF frequencies. D. AIS SART units may be easier to find in poor radar target conditions. share/E7/7-18C60000664000175000017500000000046214621747036011331 0ustar jtnjtn7-18C6 D The best way to test the Inmarsat-C terminal is: A. Send a message to a shore terminal and wait for confirmation. B. Send a message to another ship terminal. C. If the "Send" light flashes, proper operation has been confirmed. D. Compose and send a brief message to your own Inmarsat-C terminal. share/fccexam0000775000175000017500000001502614630161124011670 0ustar jtnjtn#!/bin/sh # study FCC commercial exam question pools # Copyright (C) 2012-2024 John Nogatch # dir where question pools reside? INSTALLDIR="$(dirname "$(readlink -f $0)")" # default html viewer? if [ -n "${HTML_VIEWER+xxx}" ]; then if type "${HTML_VIEWER}" > /dev/null 2>&1; then echo "user specified \$HTML_VIEWER: ${HTML_VIEWER}" else echo "user specified \$HTML_VIEWER: ${HTML_VIEWER} is not executable" HTML_VIEWER="" # this allows questions w/ figs to be supressed fi else HTML_VIEWER="xdg-open" # find default browser fi # dir to keep user's unanswered questions USERDIR=~/.fccexam # create user dir, if needed if [ ! -d "${USERDIR}" ]; then echo "creating ${USERDIR}" mkdir "${USERDIR}" if [ $? -ne 0 ]; then echo "unable to create ${USERDIR} directory" sleep 3 exit 1 fi fi # go to user dir so that question names are accessible cd ${USERDIR} if [ $? -ne 0 ]; then echo "unable to access ${USERDIR} directory" sleep 3 exit 1 fi # if no questions remain... ls ${USERDIR}/* >> /dev/null 2>&1 if [ $? -ne 0 ]; then # check argument for various license names, default to showing usage, version, brief help POOL=`echo $1 | tr [:lower:] [:upper:]` case "${POOL}" in "1" | "3" | "6" | "7" | "7R" | "8" | "9" ) ;; "T" | "GROL" | "MROP" | "GMDSS" | "GMDSSM" | "RGMDSS" ) ;; "Q" | *) echo "usage: fccexam {1|3|5|6|7|7R|8|9|T1|T2|T3|GROL|GROL+|MROP|GMDSS|GMDSS+|RGMDSS}"; echo "fccexam version 1.0.8"; echo "fccexam is an interactive study guide for USA FCC commercial radio examinations."; echo "question pool choices:"; echo " 1 Basic radio law and operating practice" echo " 3 Electronics fundamentals and techniques of radio transmitters and receivers" echo " 6 Advanced Radiotelegraph" echo " 7 GMDSS Radio Operating Practices" echo " 7R Restricted GMDSS Radio Operating Practices" echo " 8 Ship Radar Techniques" echo " 9 GMDSS Radio Maintenance Practices and Procedures" echo " T Radiotelegraph: elements 1, 6."; echo " GROL General Radiotelephone Operator License + Radar Endorsement: elements 1, 3, 8."; echo " MROP Marine Radio Operator Permit: element 1."; echo " GMDSS Global Maritime Distress Safety System Radio Operator: elements 1, 7."; echo " RGMDSS Restricted GMDSS Radio Operator: elements 1, 7R."; echo " GMDSSM GMDSS Radio Maintainer: elements 1, 3, 9."; echo "Questions are chosen randomly from the selected pool."; echo "Incorrect answers cause the question to be asked again later."; echo "Licenses are issued by the FCC, but exams are conducted by COLEM Examiners." echo "For more information about FCC commercial radio licensing:" echo " https://www.fcc.gov/wireless/bureau-divisions/mobility-division/commercial-radio-operator-license-program/examinations"; if [ "${POOL}" != "Q" ]; then sleep 3 exit 1; fi; POOL="Q" while [ $POOL = "Q" ]:; do # read -p "Which pool? ..." POOL; (Debian: read with option other than -r) echo -n "Which pool? {1,3,5,6,7,7R,8,9,T1,T2,T3,GROL,GROL+,MROP,GMDSS,GMDSS+,RGMDSS} " ; read POOL; POOL=`echo ${POOL} | tr [:lower:] [:upper:]` case "$POOL" in "1" | "3" | "5" | "6" | "7" | "7R" | "8" | "9" ) ;; "T1" | "T2" | "T3" | "GROL" | "GROL+" | "MROP" | "GMDSS" | "GMDSS+" | "RGMDSS" ) ;; * ) POOL="Q";; esac; done esac # load the questions case ${POOL} in "1" ) echo "reloading element 1"; ln -s "${INSTALLDIR}"/E1/* .;; "3" ) echo "reloading element 3"; ln -s "${INSTALLDIR}"/E3/* .;; "6" ) echo "reloading element 6"; ln -s "${INSTALLDIR}"/E6/* .;; "7" ) echo "reloading element 7"; ln -s "${INSTALLDIR}"/E7/* .;; "7R" ) echo "reloading element 7R"; ln -s "${INSTALLDIR}"/E7R/* .;; "8" ) echo "reloading element 8"; ln -s "${INSTALLDIR}"/E8/* .;; "9" ) echo "reloading element 9"; ln -s "${INSTALLDIR}"/E9/* .;; "T" ) echo "reloading element 1"; ln -s "${INSTALLDIR}"/E1/* .; echo "reloading element 6"; ln -s "${INSTALLDIR}"/E6/* .;; "GROL" ) echo "reloading element 1"; ln -s "${INSTALLDIR}"/E1/* .; echo "reloading element 3"; ln -s "${INSTALLDIR}"/E3/* .; echo "reloading element 8"; ln -s "${INSTALLDIR}"/E8/* .;; "MROP" ) echo "reloading element 1"; ln -s "${INSTALLDIR}"/E1/* .;; "GMDSS" ) echo "reloading element 1"; ln -s "${INSTALLDIR}"/E1/* .; echo "reloading element 7"; ln -s "${INSTALLDIR}"/E7/* .;; "RGMDSS" ) echo "reloading element 1"; ln -s "${INSTALLDIR}"/E1/* .; echo "reloading element 7R"; ln -s "${INSTALLDIR}"/E7R/* .;; "GMDSSM" ) echo "reloading element 1"; ln -s "${INSTALLDIR}"/E1/* .; echo "reloading element 3"; ln -s "${INSTALLDIR}"/E3/* .; echo "reloading element 9"; ln -s "${INSTALLDIR}"/E9/* .;; "" | * ) echo "POOL variable was not set correctly"; sleep 3; exit 1;; esac else echo "resuming remaining questions ( to discard previous session, rm ~/.fccexam/* )" fi # if element 3, 8 questions are present, display figures for i in 3 8; do ls ${USERDIR}/${i}* >> /dev/null 2>&1 if [ $? -eq 0 ]; then # no HTML_VIEWER available? if [ "${HTML_VIEWER}" = "" ]; then echo "no HTML_VIEWER to display element ${i} figures" else # bring up diagrams for this element ${HTML_VIEWER} ${INSTALLDIR}/E${i}.html 2>/dev/null & if [ $? -ne 0 ]; then echo "${HTML_VIEWER} failed to display element ${i} figures" fi fi fi done # report how many questions remain ls * | wc | awk '{print $1 " questions remain in this pool\n"}' while :; do # random choice from remaining questions Q=`shuf -n 1 -e *` # exit if no more questions if [ "${Q}" = "*" ]; then echo "question pool completed" sleep 3 break fi # if question still exists (might be stale name from old pool)... if [ -e "${Q}" ]; then # no png viewer? if [ -z "${HTML_VIEWER}" ]; then # question references figure? egrep '[Ff]igure ' "${Q}" >> /dev/null if [ $? = 0 ]; then echo "question ${Q} refers to a figure" rm "${Q}" continue fi fi # ...ask the question awk -f "${INSTALLDIR}"/ask.awk "${Q}" else echo "question ${Q} is not found" fi case $? in # if correct, remove the question 0) rm "${Q}";; # check for quit or EOF 2) break;; esac done exit 0 # end of fccexam share/split.awk0000664000175000017500000000751714621717510012207 0ustar jtnjtn# split question pool file into separate file for each question # Copyright (C) 2012-2015 John Nogatch # discard empty lines (NF == 0){ next} # change all tab to space {gsub( /\t/, " ")} # remove leading whitespace {sub( /^[ ]*/, "")} # remove spurious \r {gsub( /\r/, "")} # replace \222 apostrophes {gsub( /\222/, "\47")} # replace 3-char hyphen {gsub( /\342\200\223/, "-")} # replace \223 quotes {gsub( /\223/, "\42")} # replace \224 quotes {gsub( /\224/, "\42")} # replace \226 hyphen {gsub( /\226/, "-")} # replace \240 space {gsub( /\240/, " ")} # replace 3-char exponent leader {gsub( / \342\200.E/, "^")} # replace 3-char apostrophes {gsub( /\342\200\231/, "\47")} # replace 3-char quotes {gsub( /\342\200\234/, "\42")} # replace 3-char quotes {gsub( /\342\200\235/, "\42")} # recognize answer/distractor lines /^[ABCD]\./{ # output answer/distractor to file print $0 > question next } # recognize answer/distractor lines (elements 7, 7R) /^[a-f])/{ # output answer/distractor to file print $0 > question next } # anything other than answer/distractor line { close( question) # avoid leaving too many descriptors open question = "" # no current output file } # recognize answer key lines (elements 1, 3, 8) /^Answer Key:/{ sub( /^Answer Key:/, "") gsub( /:/, "") for (i = NF - 1; i > 0; i -= 2) { print $i " " $(i+1) > "answer" close( "answer") system( "cat " $i " >> answer") system( "mv answer " $i) } next } # recognize answer key lines (element 9) /^Answers:[^-]+$/{ sub( /^Answers:/, "") gsub( /:/, "") for (i = NF - 1; i > 0; i -= 2) { print "9-" $i " " $(i+1) > "answer" close( "answer") system( "cat 9-" $i " >> answer") system( "mv answer 9-" $i) } next } # discard "Section-.:" line (elements 7, 7R) /^Section-[A-Z]: /{ next} # discard page number line (elements 7, 7R) /^- [0-9]+ -$/{ next} # recognize answer key lines (elements 7, 7R) /^Answers:[ ]+[0-9]+[A-Z][0-9]+ - [A-D]/{ sub( /^Answers:/, "") gsub( /-/, "") for (i = NF - 1; i > 0; i -= 2) { print element "-" $i " " $(i+1) > "answer" close( "answer") system( "cat " $i " >> answer") system( "mv answer " element "-" $i) } next } # recognize new question (elements 1, 3, 8) /^[0-9]-[0-9]*/{ question = $1 # new current output file $1 = "" # remove # from question text sub( /^ /, "") # output question to file print $0 > question next } # recognize new question (elements 5 & 6) /^[0-9][AB][0-9]*$/{ question = $1 # new current output file if (getline != 1) print "unable to read answer line " NR # read another line & exit if error if (NF != 1) print "invalid answer line " NR # expecting answer print question " " $1 > question # output # & answer to file if (getline != 1) print "unable to read question line " NR # read another line & exit if error print $0 > question # output question text to file next } # recognize new question (elements 7, 7R) /^[0-9]+[A-Z][0-9]+ /{ question = $1 # new current output file sub( /-/, "", question) # remove "-" # print "e7: " $0 # display question # to help correct typos $1 = "" # remove question # from question text print $0 > question # output question text to question file next } # recognize new question (element 7) /^[0-9]+[A-Z][0-9]* */{ question = "7-" $1 # new current output file sub( /^[0-9]+[A-Z][0-9]*/, "") # remove question # print $0 > question # output complete question text to file next } # recognize new question (element 9) /^[0-9]+[A-Z][0-9]* */{ question = "9-" $1 # new current output file sub( /^[0-9]+[A-Z][0-9]*/, "") # remove question # print $0 > question # output complete question text to file next } # display any line that did not get captured { print $0} share/E6/0000775000175000017500000000000014623226701010607 5ustar jtnjtnshare/E6/6A4470000664000175000017500000000027114623226701011237 0ustar jtnjtn6A447 A Radio frequencies that are useful for long distance communications requiring continuous operation: A.Low frequency B.High frequency C.Very high frequency D.Ultra high frequency share/E6/6A5850000664000175000017500000000026214623226701011242 0ustar jtnjtn6A585 B What is the principal port of the United States, on the Pacific coast, at which navigation lines terminate? A.Los Angeles B.San Francisco C.San Diego D.None of the above share/E6/6A5980000664000175000017500000000066314623226701011253 0ustar jtnjtn6A598 C What is a requirement of all transmitting apparatus used aboard United States vessels? A.Equipment must be approved by the U.S. Coast Guard for maritime mobile use B.Certification is required by the International Maritime Organization (IMO) C.Only equipment that has been type accepted by the FCC for Part 80 operations is authorized D.Programming of all maritime channels must be performed by a licensed Marine Radio Operator share/E6/6A720000664000175000017500000000032214623226701011146 0ustar jtnjtn6A72 A A relay coil has 500 ohms resistance, and operates on 125 mA. What value of resistance should be connected in series with it to operate from 110 VDC? A.380 ohms B.400 ohms C.200 ohms D.None of the above share/E6/6A4210000664000175000017500000000042514623226701011230 0ustar jtnjtn6A421 A What point on a shipboard antenna system displays the maximum potential? A.The end of the antenna furthest from the transmission line connections B.The end of the antenna closest to the transmission line connections C.Near the center of the antenna D.None of the above share/E6/6A1350000664000175000017500000000031214623226701011225 0ustar jtnjtn6A135 B The emission of electrons from a material due to the impact of high-velocity electrons on its surface is: A.Primary electron emission B.Secondary emission C.Mimetic emission D.None of the above share/E6/6A1890000664000175000017500000000051314623226701011241 0ustar jtnjtn6A189 D "The temperature coefficient of an x-cut crystal is negative": A.The operating frequency of the crystal will decrease as the temperature decreases B.The operating frequency of the crystal will decrease as the temperature increases C.The operating frequency of the crystal will increase as the temperature decreases D.B & C share/E6/6A930000664000175000017500000000024714623226701011157 0ustar jtnjtn6A93 A The term cathode ray usually applies to: A.A fairly high velocity electron beam B.Background noise C.The logarithm gain of an electron beam D.None of the above share/E6/6A5660000664000175000017500000000055414623226701011245 0ustar jtnjtn6A566 D What stations shall be in control of distress traffic? A.Control of the distress traffic shall be with the station first hearing the call B.The control of the distress traffic rests with the mobile station in distress C.With the mobile station which sends the distress call in the event that the station in distress is not able to transmit it D.Both B & C share/E6/6A2600000664000175000017500000000041514623226701011230 0ustar jtnjtn6A260 D The chemical composition of the electrolyte in an Edison-type storage cell: A.Is contained in a nickel-plated sheet steel tank B.Has a specific gravity of about 1.200 C.Is a 21% solution of potassium and lithium hydroxides in distilled water D.All of the above share/E6/6A5900000664000175000017500000000065314623226701011242 0ustar jtnjtn6A590 D What is the license term of the First Class Radiotelegraph Operator License? A.The license is valid for the lifetime of the holder B.A license is valid for a period of ten years form the DOI (date of issuance) C.The five year term license is renewable by retaking updated exam Elements 1 and 3 during the last 90 days before expiration D.The license term is five years and may be renewed indefinitely without retesting share/E6/6A510000664000175000017500000000022714623226701011147 0ustar jtnjtn6A51 D One horsepower is: A.746 Watts B.Roughly 3/4 kilowatt C.Corresponds to lifting 550 pounds at the rate of one foot per second D.All of the above share/E6/6A2170000664000175000017500000000043214623226701011231 0ustar jtnjtn6A217 A In connecting head telephones directly in the plate circuit of a vacuum tube one should observe the proper polarity: A.To maintain maximum sensitivity in the headphones B.So its current flows opposed to the field strength of the permanent magnet C.A & B D.None of the above share/E6/6A3450000664000175000017500000000020614623226701011232 0ustar jtnjtn6A345 A A 3 HP 100 V DC motor is 85% efficient when developing its rated output. What is the current? A.23.93 A B.25 A C.20 A D.8.5 A share/E6/6A1980000664000175000017500000000030714623226701011242 0ustar jtnjtn6A198 A Increasing the number of plates of a capacitor: A.Will increase the capacitance B.Will decrease the capacitance C.Will have no effect on the capacitance D.Will make the capacitance fluctuate share/E6/6A4400000664000175000017500000000040614623226701011230 0ustar jtnjtn6A440 D Which antenna system has the ability to discriminate between various directions of receiving or transmitting? A.1/4 stub bi-directional B.Multi-band Marconi 1/2 wave C.1/2 wavelength Yagi perpendicular polarized antenna D.Single element vertical antenna share/E6/6A1610000664000175000017500000000027514623226701011234 0ustar jtnjtn6A161 A Occurs when plate current equals electron emission for any given filament or cathode temperature: A.Plate saturation B.Electron saturation C.Filament saturation D.None of the above share/E6/6A1990000664000175000017500000000043714623226701011247 0ustar jtnjtn6A199 A If the dielectric constants of a capacitor dielectric material between the capacitor plates were changed from 1 to 1: A.The capacitance would be twice its original value B.The capacitance would be half its original value C.The capacitance would decay rapidly D.None of the above share/E6/6A4250000664000175000017500000000045514623226701011237 0ustar jtnjtn6A425 A To reduce the sparking at the contacts of a key used in a radiotelegraph transmitter: A.Connect a suitable key-click filter across the key B.Connect a suitable key-click filter in series with the key C.Connect a suitable high-pass filter across the key D.Increase the contact space of the key share/E6/6A1720000664000175000017500000000044314623226701011233 0ustar jtnjtn6A172 D The functioning of a grid-leak detector: A.Depends on the ability of the grid leak and capacitor to follow the average grid current variations which are directly proportioned to the modulation envelope B.Depends on second harmonic distortion C.Very sensitive to weak signals D.A & C share/E6/6A5070000664000175000017500000000046514623226701011241 0ustar jtnjtn6A507 D With an auto alarm that uses a square-law detector and a mechanical selector what causes the bell to ring? A.Receipt of the true auto-alarm signal, low battery voltage B.Filament circuit open, the 24 V circuit to receiver open C.Battery charger fuse blown, motor stopped or running D.All of the above share/E6/6A1290000664000175000017500000000030714623226701011234 0ustar jtnjtn6A129 A What is the primary purpose of the control grid of the triode? A.To provide a means of obtaining amplification B.To neutralize RF amplifiers C.Blocks passage of electrons D.None of the above share/E6/6A2210000664000175000017500000000040714623226701011226 0ustar jtnjtn6A221 C How may low impedance (75 ohm) head telephones be connected to the output of a vacuum tube? A.By using an impedance matching transformer in the output stage B.Connect them as a cathode bias resistor in the output stage C.Either A or B D.None of the above share/E6/6A310000664000175000017500000000033614623226701011146 0ustar jtnjtn6A31 A The prefix " micro " means: A.Divide by 1,000,000 whatever quantity follows B.Multiply by 1,000,000 whatever quantity follows C.Add 1,000,000 to whatever quantity follows D.Divide by 1,000 whatever quantity follows share/E6/6A4790000664000175000017500000000040014623226701011236 0ustar jtnjtn6A479 D Disadvantages of a stage of RF amplification are: A.A power audio amplifier would be needed to operate a loudspeaker B.An RF amplifier requires additional tuned circuits and tuning elements C.Shielding will probably be necessary D.All of the above share/E6/6A5500000664000175000017500000000041214623226701011227 0ustar jtnjtn6A550 A What is the purpose of blinking in a loran navigational system? A.To warn the receiving operator that difficulty exists at the transmitting stations? B.To warn the operator that the system is in use C.The loran system needs to be aligned D.None of the above share/E6/6A5160000664000175000017500000000041314623226701011232 0ustar jtnjtn6A516 A Normal undistorted modulation is indicated by: A.An increase in antenna current without carrier shift B.A decrease in antenna current without carrier shift C.An increase in antenna current with carrier shift D.A decrease in antenna current with carrier shift share/E6/6A3900000664000175000017500000000055014623226701011234 0ustar jtnjtn6A390 D Important factors in the operation of the vacuum tube as a frequency doubler are: A.Plate tank should be tuned to twice the grid circuit frequency B.The grid bias should be very large, the grid driving voltage must be very large, the plate voltage should be comparatively high C.The plate tank circuit should have a low C to L ratio D.All of the above share/E6/6A4720000664000175000017500000000025414623226701011236 0ustar jtnjtn6A472 A Most receiver hiss is due to: A.Noise generated in the first detector B.Noise generated in the first AF amplifier C.Faulty regeneration control D.None of the above share/E6/6A3280000664000175000017500000000027314623226701011237 0ustar jtnjtn6A328 C Laminated iron is used in armature and field construction to: A.Reduce eddy current losses B.Offer a number of high-resistance paths to Eddy currents C.A or B D.None of the above share/E6/6A3750000664000175000017500000000034114623226701011235 0ustar jtnjtn6A375 C Does grid current flow in a grid-bias modulated stage under modulated conditions? A.Grid current may exist during the positive porions of the AF cycle B.Grid current may cause distortion C.A and B D.None of the above share/E6/6A6090000664000175000017500000000033514623226701011240 0ustar jtnjtn6A609 C What is the maximum transmitter power that a ship station may radiate using radiotelegraphy emissions on frequencies below 27500 kHz? A.400 W B.2 kW, unless a passenger ship 5000 gross tons and over C.3 kW D.1 kW share/E6/6A4540000664000175000017500000000027314623226701011237 0ustar jtnjtn6A454 A A wavetrap in a receiver: A.Prevents the effects of any undesired output of the receiver B.Generates desired frequencies in the output of the receiver C.A & B D.None of the above share/E6/6A1390000664000175000017500000000025414623226701011236 0ustar jtnjtn6A139 A In the usual Class A amplifier: A.There is no grid current B.Plate current flows slightly more than 180 degrees of each cycle C.Biased to twice D.None of the above share/E6/6A4350000664000175000017500000000023414623226701011233 0ustar jtnjtn6A435 A Adding an inductor in series with an antenna will have what effect on the resonant frequency? A.Decrease B.Increase C.Neutralization D.Equalization share/E6/6A570000664000175000017500000000033014623226701011150 0ustar jtnjtn6A57 D When two sine waves of the same frequency do not reach their maximum or minimum values simultaneously: A.A phase difference exists B.A phase difference does not exist C.The sign waves are out of phase D.A & C share/E6/6A4830000664000175000017500000000062614623226701011243 0ustar jtnjtn6A483 D Some components of a three-circuit regenerative circuit tested in troubleshooting: A.All tubes, power supply voltage, continuity of coils B.Proper contacting of each position of tapped switches, pigtail connections, shorted variable capacitor C.Grid leak for open circuit, grid capacitor for short, audio transformer for continuity, jacks & cords, antenna and ground connections D.All of the above share/E6/6A4530000664000175000017500000000036014623226701011233 0ustar jtnjtn6A453 C Why suppress RF harmonics in the output of a transmitter? A.To prevent interference from occurring with other radio services B.To restrict the bandwidth of the particular station to the legal limits C.Both A & B D.None of the above share/E6/6A1470000664000175000017500000000017714623226701011241 0ustar jtnjtn6A147 B What types of vacuum tube filaments are reactivated: A.Barium berylliate B.Thoriated tungsten C.Nickel D.Thorium oxide share/E6/6A890000664000175000017500000000033314623226701011160 0ustar jtnjtn6A89 A The total inductance of two coils in series without any mutual coupling is: A.The sum of the individual inductances B.The product of the individual inductances divided by their sum C.Infinite D.None of the above share/E6/6A3150000664000175000017500000000025514623226701011233 0ustar jtnjtn6A315 C Loose laminations in a filter choke: A.Make it impossible to firmly connect the choke in a circuit B.A & C C.Cause a buzzing or chattering sound D.None of the above share/E6/6A3830000664000175000017500000000045214623226701011237 0ustar jtnjtn6A383 D If a transmitter is adjusted for maximum power for telegraph, what must be done to be amplitude modulated? A.The plate voltage must be reduced B.The plate voltage must be increased C.Tubes would have to dissipate 1.5 times as much power if the plate voltage were not reduced D.Both A and C share/E6/6A1410000664000175000017500000000031614623226701011226 0ustar jtnjtn6A141 C What is the effect of incorrect grid bias in a Class A amplifier? A.Distortion of the output waveshape B.Possible excessive plate dissipation if the bias is too low C.Both A & B D.None of the above share/E6/6A5910000664000175000017500000000107314623226701011240 0ustar jtnjtn6A591 B What is a requirement of every commercial operator on duty and in charge of a transmitting system? A.A copy of the Proof-of-Passing Certificate (PPC) must be on display at the transmitter location B.The original license or a photocopy must be posted or in the operator's personal possession and available for inspection C.The FCC Form 756 certifying the operator's qualifications must be readily available at the transmitting system site D.A copy of the operator's license must be supplied to the radio station's supervisor as evidence of technical qualification share/E6/6A4800000664000175000017500000000036514623226701011240 0ustar jtnjtn6A480 A The sensitivity of a 3 circuit receiver is controlled by: A.The setting of the regeneration control B.The setting of the audio frequency control C.The setting of the radio frequency control D.The setting of the beat frequency oscillator share/E6/6A4010000664000175000017500000000036314623226701011227 0ustar jtnjtn6A401 A How would you determine the cathode bias resistance necessary to provide correct grid bias for an amplifier? A.Bias is equal to IR drop across the cathode resistance B.Measure with a regular multimeter C.Both A & B D.None of the above share/E6/6A5350000664000175000017500000000026214623226701011235 0ustar jtnjtn6A535 D What figure represents the reception pattern of a properly adjusted unilateral radio direction finder? A.A cardioid B.A figure eight C.A heart shaped figure D.Both A & C share/E6/6A4460000664000175000017500000000021414623226701011233 0ustar jtnjtn6A446 C What are the lowest frequencies used in radio communication today? A.SSB voice B.Double-sideband FM voice C.15 kHz D.1 kHz to 5 kHz share/E6/6A2050000664000175000017500000000035514623226701011232 0ustar jtnjtn6A205 D Crystal surfaces should be free of dirt of grease to operate properly: A.Do not touch the faces of the crystal with the fingers B.Clean the faces with soap and water C.Clean the faces with carbon tetrachloride D.All of the above share/E6/6A6070000664000175000017500000000070014623226701011232 0ustar jtnjtn6A607 D Who may program authorized frequency channels into a transmitter or transceiver used in the maritime service? A.Any person who has the authorization of the station licensee or ship's master B.A licensed marine radio operator or higher C.A person holding a restricted radiotelephone operator permit or higher D.Only persons holding a first or second class radiotelegraph operator's certificate or a general radiotelephone operator's license share/E6/6A450000664000175000017500000000042314623226701011150 0ustar jtnjtn6A45 D Conductors differ from nonconductors, i.e.: A.There are a large number of free electrons in a good conductor B.There is a small number of free electrons in a non-conductor C.There is an equal amount of free electrons in a good conductor and in a non-conductor D.A & B share/E6/6A3460000664000175000017500000000021014623226701011226 0ustar jtnjtn6A346 D The speed of a synchronous motor is determined: A.By the number of pairs of poles B.By the line frequency C.By the load D.A & B share/E6/6A650000664000175000017500000000023414623226701011152 0ustar jtnjtn6A65 A The total power dissipation capability of two 10 watt, 500 ohm resistors connected in series is: A.20 watts B.10 watts C.5 watts D.None of the above share/E6/6A4690000664000175000017500000000073614623226701011251 0ustar jtnjtn6A469 A A superheterodyne receiver may not successfully be used for reception of frequencies very near the IF frequency: A.Because those near frequencies would pass directly through the IF amplifier and not be greatly affected by the tuning of the RF or oscillator stages B.Because those near frequencies would not pass directly through the IF amplifier C.Because those near frequencies would be greatly affected by the tuning of the RF or oscillator stages D.None of the above share/E6/6A2280000664000175000017500000000030014623226701011225 0ustar jtnjtn6A228 A What is the maximum permissible RMS value of audio voltage which can be applied to the grid of a Class A audio amplifier which has a grid bias of 10 V? A.7.07 V B.8 V C.10 V D.14.14 V share/E6/6A4990000664000175000017500000000037614623226701011254 0ustar jtnjtn6A499 B Feeding back into the control grids of the IF and RF amplifiers a negative DC bias which is proportioned to the average magnitude of the received carrier wave accomplished: A.Rhymed effect B.Automatic volume control C.Neutralization D.Refraction share/E6/6A50000664000175000017500000000051614623226701011067 0ustar jtnjtn6A5 D When passing through areas of static charge, high voltages can accumulate on antennas which are insulated from ground. What protects a connected receiver from damage? A.Lightning arresters and suppressors B.Protection diodes on receiver input C.Capacitive coupling and static dissipative circuits D.Any combination of the above share/E6/6A2720000664000175000017500000000037214623226701011235 0ustar jtnjtn6A272 A If the voltage of some cells in a battery are found to be reversed, what is indicated? A.Polarity was reversed while charging B.Polarity was doubled while charging C.Polarity has no influence of charging D.Polarity was correct while charging share/E6/6A1080000664000175000017500000000036214623226701011232 0ustar jtnjtn6A108 C The time in seconds for a capacitor to attain 63.2 % of the applied voltage across its terminals is: A.Twice the natural period of oscillation of the circuit B.Varactance C.Time constant D.Equal to the ohmic resistance of the circuit share/E6/6A5970000664000175000017500000000106514623226701011247 0ustar jtnjtn6A597 C What answer format is accepted on commercial radiotelegraph license contain? A.The examiner may use any answer format which ascertains that the examinee can comprehend the message transmitted B.Any of the following: one minute solid copy, answering seven out of ten question, fill-in-the-blank, or multiple choice questions C.Examinees are required to receive international Morse code messages by ear for a period of one minute without error D.Examinees must obtain a passing mark of 75% or higher on questions concerning the transmitted telegraphy message share/E6/6A1400000664000175000017500000000034314623226701011225 0ustar jtnjtn6A140 A The DC bias in a Class A amplifier: A.Usually is negative as measured at the grid with respect to cathode B.Usually is positive as measured at the grid with respect to cathode C.Cannot be determined D.None of the above share/E6/6A880000664000175000017500000000050514623226701011160 0ustar jtnjtn6A88 D What is the total reactance of a series AC circuit, with no resistance and equal inductance and capacitive reactances? A.The two reactances cancel being equal and opposite B.Net impedance is purely resistive and contains no reactive component C.The total reactance is zero at the resonant frequency D.All of the above share/E6/6A4960000664000175000017500000000030314623226701011237 0ustar jtnjtn6A496 D In general, shielding between RF amplifier stages: A.Prevents electromagnetic coupling B.Prevents electrostatic coupling C.Improves the overall stability of a receiver D.All of the above share/E6/6A1600000664000175000017500000000031714623226701011230 0ustar jtnjtn6A160 A The maximum power that can be safely and continuously dissipated in heat on the plate: A.Maximum plate dissipation B.Maximum power dissipation C.Continuous plate dissipation D.Plate heat dissipation share/E6/6A5080000664000175000017500000000042614623226701011237 0ustar jtnjtn6A508 D Intermittent ringing of the bells of an auto alarm with a linear detector and an electronic selector could be caused by: A.An intermittent vacuum tube filament B.Fluctuating line voltage C.Faulty contacts or relay adjustment of warning relay receiver D.All of the above share/E6/6A150000664000175000017500000000010214623226701011137 0ustar jtnjtn6A15 A The unit of inductance is: A.Henry B.Joule C.Coulomb D.Ohm share/E6/6A2320000664000175000017500000000033014623226701011223 0ustar jtnjtn6A232 A What is the DC plate voltage of a resistance-coupled amplifier state with a plate-supply voltage of 260 V, a plate current of 1 mA, and a plate load resistance of 100,000 ohms? A.160 V B.100 V C.200 V D.60 V share/E6/6A4410000664000175000017500000000034314623226701011231 0ustar jtnjtn6A441 B Given the current and resistance of the base of a Marconi antenna, what would be the formula for determining the power? A.P = watts x amps B.P = amps. squared x resistance C.P = current x resistance D.None of the above share/E6/6A5280000664000175000017500000000025114623226701011235 0ustar jtnjtn6A528 C How may the range of a thermocouple ammeter be increased? A.By using a current transformer B.By using a capacitor shunt C.Both A & B D.By using a resistor shunt share/E6/6A3340000664000175000017500000000035514623226701011235 0ustar jtnjtn6A334 B The motor-field rheostat should be ____ when starting a DC motor generator set: A.Minimum resistance in the armature circuit B.Minimum resistance in the field circuit C.Maximum resistance in the field circuit D.None of the above share/E6/6A2610000664000175000017500000000023014623226701011224 0ustar jtnjtn6A261 A The negative plate of an Edison-type storage cell is: A.Finely powdered pure iron B.Green oxide of nickel C.Potassium oxide D.None of the above share/E6/6A2850000664000175000017500000000035614623226701011243 0ustar jtnjtn6A285 A A battery with a terminal voltage of 12.5 V is to be trickle-charged at a 0.5 A rate. What resistance should be connected in series with the battery to charge from a 110 V line? A.195 ohms B.300 ohms C.95 ohms D.None of the above share/E6/6A5820000664000175000017500000000031314623226701011234 0ustar jtnjtn6A582 C Upon what band, in addition to the 350 to 515 kHz band must a main receiver on a United States ship be capable of operation? A.600 TO 700 kHz B.1000 TO 1200 kHz C.100 TO 200 kHz D.516 TO 615 kHz share/E6/6A4240000664000175000017500000000025514623226701011234 0ustar jtnjtn6A424 D Effects of dirty or salt-encrusted insulation are: A.Erratic readings of antenna current B.Increased corona discharge C.Decreased radiation power D.All of the above share/E6/6A670000664000175000017500000000020614623226701011153 0ustar jtnjtn6A67 A What is the maximum current carrying capacity of a resistor of 5000 ohms, 200 watts? A.0.2 A B.1 A C.1.2 A D.None of the above share/E6/6A4630000664000175000017500000000030614623226701011234 0ustar jtnjtn6A463 D Basically, am FM receiver is a conventional superheterodyne but differs in: A.The method of detection B.The reduction of sensitivity to amplitude modulation C.De-emphasis D.All of the above share/E6/6A2880000664000175000017500000000034014623226701011237 0ustar jtnjtn6A288 A If a receiver storage A battery could not be kept charged, and maintain the required watch period, what should you do? A.Increase the charging rate B.Get a new battery C.Discontinue the required watch period D.B & C share/E6/6A520000664000175000017500000000031514623226701011146 0ustar jtnjtn6A52 C What factors determine the heat generated in a conductor? A.It is directly proportional to the resistance B.It is directly proportional to the square of the current C.Both A & B D.None of the above share/E6/6A860000664000175000017500000000032114623226701011152 0ustar jtnjtn6A86 D What is the total impedance of a parallel capacitor and inductor with equal values of reactance? A.Infinite total reactance B.Zero total reactance C.Parallel impedance is resistive and infinite D.B & C share/E6/6A4710000664000175000017500000000035014623226701011232 0ustar jtnjtn6A471 D To obtain maximum response to weak CW signals with a superheterodyne receiver: A.RF gain control should be fully advanced B.BFO control varied to obtain the clearest tone C.AVC advanced to the best volume D.All of the above share/E6/6A3650000664000175000017500000000013214623226701011232 0ustar jtnjtn6A365 B The second harmonic of a 380 kHz frequency is: A.1520 kHz B.760 kHz C.190 kHz D.2 share/E6/6A400000664000175000017500000000014614623226701011145 0ustar jtnjtn6A40 A Electrical resistance is measured with: A.An ohmmeter B.A wattmeter C.An Ammeter D.A voltmeter share/E6/6A3190000664000175000017500000000026414623226701011237 0ustar jtnjtn6A319 C Full wave rectification has ____ than half-wave: A.Better output voltage regulation B.Smaller filter components for a given ripple percentage C.A and B D.None of the above share/E6/6A4070000664000175000017500000000042014623226701011227 0ustar jtnjtn6A407 A When is a transmitter tuned to reduced power? A.The receiver is initially reduced because the receiver is very sensitive B.The receiver is non adjustable in almost all applications C.The receiver has a pre-stage amplifier that self-adjusts D.In the doubler stages share/E6/6A4640000664000175000017500000000036114623226701011236 0ustar jtnjtn6A464 A A form of regenerative receiver in which the detector breaks into and out of oscillation at a rate above audibility: A.Superregenerative receiver B.Superheterodyne receiver C.Discriminator receiver D.Detuned radio frequency receiver share/E6/6A2670000664000175000017500000000033414623226701011237 0ustar jtnjtn6A267 C The condition of charge of an Edison cell can be determined: A.By reading the terminal voltage under load B.By checking the voltage against a standard discharge curve C.Both A & B D.Checking the specific gravity share/E6/6A2330000664000175000017500000000033414623226701011230 0ustar jtnjtn6A233 A Why is it necessary to use two tubes in a Class B audio amplifier? A.To prevent the excessive distortion which would result from the use of only one tube in Class B B.To eliminate hum C.A & B D.None of the above share/E6/6A3030000664000175000017500000000036314623226701011230 0ustar jtnjtn6A303 C The principal function of the filter in a power supply: A.To remove the variations in amplitude of the rectifier output B.To provide a relatively unvarying DC voltage for use in the various circuits C.Either A or B D.None of the above share/E6/6A2920000664000175000017500000000023614623226701011236 0ustar jtnjtn6A292 C When lead-acid cells are subject to low temperatures they should: A.To prevent freezing B.To provide the maximum capacity C.A & B D.None of the above share/E6/6A3880000664000175000017500000000025614623226701011246 0ustar jtnjtn6A388 A When the relative amplitudes of the positive and negative modulation peaks are unsymmetrical: A.Carrier shift B.Frequency shift C.Amplifier shift D.None of the above share/E6/6A1170000664000175000017500000000022314623226701011226 0ustar jtnjtn6A117 B The ratio of magnetic flux density to the field strength is known as: A.Residual magnetism B.Permeability C.Reluctance D.None of the above share/E6/6A3740000664000175000017500000000024314623226701011235 0ustar jtnjtn6A374 C The efficiency of a grid-bias modulated stage should be: A.Maximum at complete modulation B.Minimum at zero modulation C.Either A or B D.None of the above share/E6/6A1700000664000175000017500000000026014623226701011226 0ustar jtnjtn6A170 D Cavity resonators are: A.A form of resonant tank circuit B.Consist of a hollow metal cylinder bead on all sides C.Have a very high Q and selectivity D.All of the above share/E6/6A1780000664000175000017500000000030014623226701011231 0ustar jtnjtn6A178 A Given the following vacuum tube constants: Gp = 1000 V, Ip = 150 mA, Ig = 10 mA, Grid leaks = 5000 ohms. What would be the grid bias voltage? A.50 V B.100 V C.25 V D.None of the above share/E6/6A4760000664000175000017500000000031414623226701011237 0ustar jtnjtn6A476 D In a tuned RF receiver the heterodyne method, over the autodyne reception, has: A.Great sensitivity B.More stable operation of the circuit C.Wider control of the beat-frequency D.All of the above share/E6/6A3870000664000175000017500000000045414623226701011245 0ustar jtnjtn6A387 A Given a vacuum tube of the following characteristics: plate voltage 1000 V, plate current 127 ma, filament current 5.4 amp, mutual conductance 8000 microvolts, and amplification factor of 25. What is the correct volume of negative grid bias for Class B amplifier? A.40 V B.50 V C.30 V D.60 V share/E6/6A3800000664000175000017500000000033314623226701011232 0ustar jtnjtn6A380 C A plate choke in a Heising modulator: A.Builds up audio modulating voltages B.Feeds audio modulating voltages to the plate of the RF modulated amplifier to produce plate modulation C.A and B D.None of the above share/E6/6A3980000664000175000017500000000050614623226701011245 0ustar jtnjtn6A398 A An RF filter in the plate circuit of a tube detector is sometimes necessary to: A.Prevent RF variations from affecting the following audio stages B.Alter the impedance of the detector load circuit C.Insert RF variations from affecting the audio stages D.To prevent RF variations from affecting the following RF stages share/E6/6A3770000664000175000017500000000035414623226701011243 0ustar jtnjtn6A377 B For 100% modulation, DC power input to the modulated RF amplifier should: A.Be the same as the AC power from the modulation B.Be 1/2 the AC power from the modulation C.Be 1/4 the AC power from the modulation D.None of the above share/E6/6A4730000664000175000017500000000035114623226701011235 0ustar jtnjtn6A473 A High IF frequencies in a superheterodyne receiver: A.Reduce image frequency response B.Increases image frequency response C.Places the image frequency as close as possible to the normal received frequency D.None of the above share/E6/6A560000664000175000017500000000050614623226701011154 0ustar jtnjtn6A56 A Assuming a power source to have a fixed value of internal impedance, maximum power will be transferred to the load when: A.The load impedance equals the internal impedance of the source B.The load impedance is higher than the source impedance C.The load impedance is lower than the source impedance D.None of the above share/E6/6A2360000664000175000017500000000040414623226701011231 0ustar jtnjtn6A236 C Even harmonics may be reduced in the output of an audio frequency amplifier: A.By operating the state push-pull B.In a single tube amplifier, by operating the stage only on the linear part of the tube's characteristic curve C.A & B D.None of the above share/E6/6A3050000664000175000017500000000046514623226701011235 0ustar jtnjtn6A305 A A high-resistance fixed resistor is shunted across each unit of a high voltage series capacitor bank in the power-supply filter circuit to: A.Insure that the correct voltage appears across each unit B.Discharge the capacitors C.Does not insure the correct voltage across each unit D.None of the above share/E6/6A4310000664000175000017500000000045214623226701011231 0ustar jtnjtn6A431 A A transmitter operating on 5000 kHz uses a 1000 kHz crystal with a tempered coefficient of - 4 Hz/MHz/0 degrees centigrade. What is the change in the output frequency of the transmitter if the temperature increases 6 degrees centigrade? A.499.88 kHz B.5000.12 kHz C.4120.0 kHz D.5120.0 kHz share/E6/6A500000664000175000017500000000035414623226701011147 0ustar jtnjtn6A50 A The effective value of an RF current and the heating value of the current are: A.The same B.Effective value divided by two equals the heating value C.Effective value multiplied by two equals the heating value D.None of the above share/E6/6A3320000664000175000017500000000023614623226701011231 0ustar jtnjtn6A332 C ____ are used in a DC motor to reduce brush sparking without moving the brushes: A.Interpoles B.Commutating poles C.Either A or B D.None of the above share/E6/6A6150000664000175000017500000000071614623226701011240 0ustar jtnjtn6A615 C What is the order of priority of radiotelegraph communications in the maritime services? A.Alarm, radio-direction finding, and health and welfare communications B.Navigation hazards, meteorological warnings, priority traffic C.Distress calls, and signals, followed by communications preceded by urgency and safety signals D.Government precedence, messages concerning safety of life and protection of property and traffic concerning grave imminent danger share/E6/6A5140000664000175000017500000000037114623226701011233 0ustar jtnjtn6A514 D Harmonic radiation by a transmitter may be prevented: A.By using a suitable crystal filter B.By using a Faraday shield between the final amplifier and antenna circuit C.By using suitable tuned filters in the transmission line system D.B & C share/E6/6A4230000664000175000017500000000052414623226701011232 0ustar jtnjtn6A423 C A master-oscillator power-amplifier transmitter has been operating normally. The antenna ammeter suddenly reads zero. All filaments are burning and plate and grid meters read normal currents and voltages. What happened? A.A shorted antenna ammeter B.An open connection in the remote reading meter C.Both a and b D.None of the above share/E6/6A4360000664000175000017500000000023014623226701011230 0ustar jtnjtn6A436 B Adding a capacitor in series with an antenna will have what effect on resonant frequency? A.Decrease B.Increase C.Neutralization D.Equalization share/E6/6A2080000664000175000017500000000036514623226701011236 0ustar jtnjtn6A208 D Use of a low pass filter network: A.Ripple filter in power supplies, harmonic suppression filters in antenna systems B.Line noise filters, tone control systems C.Crossover networks, output filters of detector circuits D.All of the above share/E6/6A5760000664000175000017500000000054014623226701011241 0ustar jtnjtn6A576 D If you receive a distress call signed by a call signal composed of five letters, could you determine the type of craft which transmitted the signal? A.Five letter call signals are assigned to aircraft stations B.Three letter call signals are assigned to land stations C.Four letter call signals are assigned to ship stations D.All of the above share/E6/6A5570000664000175000017500000000046314623226701011244 0ustar jtnjtn6A557 C Between what points on a ship, compulsorily equipped with a radiotelegraph installation, is a reliable intercommunication system required? A.Between the forward bridge and the radio room B.Between the radio room and engineering C.Between the radio room and the navigation bridge D.None of the above share/E6/6A1300000664000175000017500000000053014623226701011222 0ustar jtnjtn6A130 C What is the primary purpose of the screen grid of the tetrode? A.Reduces the grid to plate capacitance, making it unnecessary to neutralize RF amplifiers except at very high frequencies B.Makes the plate current substantially independent of plate voltage, permitting much higher values of amplification C.Both A & B D.None of the above share/E6/6A1840000664000175000017500000000031014623226701011227 0ustar jtnjtn6A184 D When used as an RF amplifier, a pentode vacuum tube: A.Usually does not require neutralization B.Usually requires neutralization C.May require neutralization at ultra-high frequencies D.A & C share/E6/6A900000664000175000017500000000024314623226701011150 0ustar jtnjtn6A90 C One wave-length is: A.The distance a wave will travel in the time for one cycle B.Centimeter wavelength = 30,000 / frequency MHz C.A and B D.Neither A or B share/E6/6A3560000664000175000017500000000031714623226701011237 0ustar jtnjtn6A356 C What is the primary reason for the use of a crystal controlled oscillator for use as a transmitter? A.No cross-modulation B.Increase in gain C.Frequency stability D.Impedance gain and wider bandpass share/E6/6A5520000664000175000017500000000036014623226701011233 0ustar jtnjtn6A552 A If the velocity of a radio wave is 186,000 statute miles per second, how many nautical miles does a radar pulse travel in one microsecond? A.0.1614 nautical miles B.11614 nautical miles C.0.2014 nautical miles D.2200 nautical miles share/E6/6A440000664000175000017500000000021214623226701011143 0ustar jtnjtn6A44 A A minute subdivision of matter having the smallest known unit of negative electrical charge is: A.Electron B.Ion C.Gilbert D.Joule share/E6/6A5920000664000175000017500000000063414623226701011243 0ustar jtnjtn6A592 C What is the experience requirement of a First Class Radiotelegrapher? A.The applicant must have been employed as a radio operator on board a United States ship for at least six months B.The operator must have held a Second Class Radiotelegraph Operator's Certificate for at least six months C.The applicant must have a background of sending or receiving radiotelegraph messages for one year D.Both A & B share/E6/6A4580000664000175000017500000000046314623226701011244 0ustar jtnjtn6A458 A Advantages of high-frequency radio communication: A.The upper frequencies are substantially free of atmospheric interference, small antennas permit efficient mobile operation B.Man-made noises are no problem, reflections may easily occur from buildings and other objects C.A & B D.None of the above share/E6/6A6050000664000175000017500000000076414623226701011242 0ustar jtnjtn6A605 C Which operator is authorized to make equipment adjustments at maritime radio stations which may affect transmitter operation? A.The holder of a marine radio operator permit or higher class license B.The holder of a restricted radiotelephone operator permit when the radiated power is less than 100 watts C.Only the holders of a first or second class radiotelegraph of the general radiotelephone operator's license D.The holder of a GMDSS radio operator or higher class radiotelephone license share/E6/6A5110000664000175000017500000000040614623226701011227 0ustar jtnjtn6A511 D If the auto-alarm bell rings and the release button doesn't stop it: A.Bell relay K-107 could be stuck, or there could be an open filament B.The alarm bell relay circuit ground could be bad C.There could be failure or low line voltage D.All of the above share/E6/6A200000664000175000017500000000037514623226701011147 0ustar jtnjtn6A20 A C = capacity in farads. Q = the measure of the quantity of charge of electricity in Coulombs. E = the applied voltage. So Q = CE: A.Determines the quantity of charge in a capacitor B.Determines the Q of a circuit C.Both A & B D.None of the above share/E6/6A6010000664000175000017500000000076214623226701011234 0ustar jtnjtn6A601 B How does a radiotelegraph operator transmit a routine call to another station? A.The letters "CQ" are followed by the call sign of the station called and the call sign of the originating station B.The station is called not more than twice, followed by the word "DE" and the call sign of the calling station not more than twice C.The originating station must obtain permission from the nearest public coast station D.Routine calls are initiated by using the appropriate service abbreviation share/E6/6A4820000664000175000017500000000024214623226701011234 0ustar jtnjtn6A482 D Low sensitivity of a 3 circuit regenerative receiver might be caused by: A.Faulty tube B.Out of phase feedback C.Insufficient feedback D.All of the above share/E6/6A5880000664000175000017500000000116114623226701011244 0ustar jtnjtn6A588 C How does a First Class Radiotelegraph Operator renew an unexpired license? A.Renewal document indicating license serial number must be forwarded to the FCC during the last 90 days of the license term B.Application is made to the nearest Commercial Operator Licensing Examination Manager (COLEM) during the final six months of the license term C.By submitting Form 756, current license copy, and appropriate fee to the FCC during the last year of the five year license term D.A current Radio telegraphy Proficiency Testimonial (RPT) obtained from the ship's master must be attached to the renewal application Form 739 share/E6/6A950000664000175000017500000000030714623226701011156 0ustar jtnjtn6A95 B The tendency of a tank circuit to keep oscillating for a time after the excitation energy has been removed is: A.Push-pull effect B.Flywheel effect C.Polarizing effect D.Parasitic oscillation share/E6/6A5220000664000175000017500000000054314623226701011233 0ustar jtnjtn6A522 D What is indicated if a voltmeter connected between the negative side of a ship's DC line and ground reads the full line voltage? A.It indicates that the voltmeter leads are reversed B.This indicates that the positive side of the line, rather then the negative side is grounded C.The generator terminals should be reversed D.Both B & C are correct share/E6/6A1900000664000175000017500000000040414623226701011230 0ustar jtnjtn6A190 C If you apply DC voltage to the opposite plane surfaces of a quartz crystal: A.The crystal plate will always undergo a physical distortion B.The crystal might crack under the strain of displacement caused by too much voltage C.A & B D.None of the above share/E6/6A1530000664000175000017500000000035414623226701011233 0ustar jtnjtn6A153 A If a DC filament supply is used, it is advisable to periodically reverse the polarity of the filament potential: A.To lengthen the life of the filament B.To lengthen the life of the power source C.Both A & B D.None of the above share/E6/6A4620000664000175000017500000000030614623226701011233 0ustar jtnjtn6A462 A Modulation of an RF carrier produces in the plate circuit of the last radio stage of the system: A.High-level modulation B.Low-level modulation C.Medium-level modulation D.None of the above share/E6/6A2780000664000175000017500000000020114623226701011232 0ustar jtnjtn6A278 D What may be used to neutralize an acid electrolyte? A.Ammonium hydroxide B.Baking soda C.Washing soda D.All of the above share/E6/6A550000664000175000017500000000026614623226701011156 0ustar jtnjtn6A55 A An "harmonic" is: A.A whole multiple of an original frequency B.The heating value of an RF current C.The internal impedance of a power source D.A multiple of the power factor share/E6/6A2870000664000175000017500000000053314623226701011242 0ustar jtnjtn6A287 C What capacity in amperes of storage battery is required to operate a 50 W emergency transmitter for 6 hr.? Assume a continuous transmitter load of 70% of the key-locked demand of 40 A, and an emergency light load of 1.5 A. A.A battery rated greater than 177 amperhours B.A battery rated at least 177 amperhours C.A & B D.None of the above share/E6/6A2490000664000175000017500000000024214623226701011235 0ustar jtnjtn6A249 B The formation of hydrogen gas around the positive electrode of a primary cell is: A.Depolarization B.Polarization C.Manganese dioxide D.None of the above share/E6/6A1340000664000175000017500000000035514623226701011233 0ustar jtnjtn6A134 B When free electrons in a conductor acquire sufficient energy to leave the conductor and pass into the surrounding space, it is expressed as: A.Secondary emission B.Electron emission C.Primary electron release D.None of the above share/E6/6A2530000664000175000017500000000037414623226701011236 0ustar jtnjtn6A253 D The condition of a dry "B" battery may be determined: A.By measuring the voltage under normal load B.By measuring the voltage under no load C.A loss of 20 % of the voltage under normal load indicates that the battery should be replaced D.A & C share/E6/6A2060000664000175000017500000000020314623226701011223 0ustar jtnjtn6A206 D A purplish glow from within a tube indicates: A.A soft tube B.A hard tube C.Air or undesired gases within the tube D.A & C share/E6/6A100000664000175000017500000000045214623226701011142 0ustar jtnjtn6A10 D Factors which determine the amplitude of the voltage induced in a conductor which is cutting magnetic lines of force: A.Flux density B.Velocity that the conductor cuts the magnetic lines of force C.The angle at which the conductor cuts through the magnetic lines of force D.All of the above share/E6/6A1820000664000175000017500000000024714623226701011236 0ustar jtnjtn6A182 C A power detector may be operated: A.As a square law detector B.As a linear detector C.As either a square law detector or a linear detector D.None of the above share/E6/6A2960000664000175000017500000000031514623226701011240 0ustar jtnjtn6A296 A What care should be taken with selecting water to add to a storage cell? A.It should be chemically pure or distilled B.It should be only sea water C.Tap water is as good as any D.None of the above share/E6/6A470000664000175000017500000000034614623226701011156 0ustar jtnjtn6A47 C The difference between electrical power and electrical energy is: A.Electrical power is the rate of doing work by electricity B.Electrical energy is the ability to accomplish work by electricity C.A & B D.None of the above share/E6/6A1520000664000175000017500000000026214623226701011230 0ustar jtnjtn6A152 A Use of an AC filament supply is desirable: A.Mostly for practical reasons. It is easily obtainable B.Hum may be introduced into the amplifier C.A & B D.None of the above share/E6/6A2430000664000175000017500000000045114623226701011231 0ustar jtnjtn6A243 D The ratios of primary and secondary currents in a power transformer: A.Are approximately in inverse ratio to the turns ratio B.Is to some extent affected by the diameter of the primary and secondary wire C.The current ratio is in inverse proportion to the voltage ratio D.All of the above share/E6/6A4180000664000175000017500000000030414623226701011232 0ustar jtnjtn6A418 C When hoisting a shipboard antenna, to avoid damage to the wire and insulators: A.Avoid bending the wire B.Avoid smashing the insulators against metal objects C.A and B D.None of the above share/E6/6A1120000664000175000017500000000032014623226701011217 0ustar jtnjtn6A112 B The total impedance of a series AC circuit with an inductive reactance of 24 ohms, a resistance of 16 ohms, and a capacitive reactance of 16 ohms is: A.20 ohms B.16 ohms C.10 ohms D.None of the above share/E6/6A3850000664000175000017500000000043214623226701011237 0ustar jtnjtn6A385 D A shunt-fed plate circuit of a vacuum tube amplifier has a short circuit of the plate RF choke. What happens? A.The plate tank circuit would be effectively shorted B.The DC plate current would increase, possibly to excess C.No RF output could be expected D.All of the above share/E6/6A80000664000175000017500000000020614623226701011066 0ustar jtnjtn6A8 D Voltage may be expressed by what other expression? A.Difference of potential B.IF drop C.Electromotive force D.All of the above share/E6/6A4500000664000175000017500000000037214623226701011233 0ustar jtnjtn6A450 A On an average yearly basis the received Trans-Atlantic signals increased in strength in proportion to the degree of ____. Made on the basis of the 11 year cycle: A.Sun spot activity B.Aurora borealis C.Extratropical Advection D.Perigean tide share/E6/6A6120000664000175000017500000000107114623226701011230 0ustar jtnjtn6A612 B What is the antenna requirement aboard a survival craft equipped with a non-portable radiotelegraph installation? A.The minimum lifeboat antenna requirement is an HF half-wave dipole capable of efficiently tuning distress frequencies B.The antenna must be single wire inverted L type of maximum practicable length and height above the waterline C.The antenna must be tested at least once during each voyage and a minimum of once a week on longer voyages D.The antenna must be located a minimum of 8 meters above the waterline to insure the safety of passengers share/E6/6A690000664000175000017500000000027714623226701011165 0ustar jtnjtn6A69 A The current through two resistors in series is 3 A. Resistance #1 is 50 ohms, resistance #2 drops 50 V across its terminals. What is the total voltage? A.200 V B.220 V C.110 V D.180 V share/E6/6A1040000664000175000017500000000044314623226701011226 0ustar jtnjtn6A104 A What is voltage regulation as applied to power supplies? A.The ratio of change in voltage between no load and full load to the full-load voltage output B.The ratio of output to input voltage C.Voltage output of the power supply under full load D.The ratio of input to output voltage share/E6/6A1590000664000175000017500000000027514623226701011243 0ustar jtnjtn6A159 A A case in which the grid is held at an excessively negative value for a period of time thereby cutting off plate current: A.Blocked grid B.Blocked plate C.Motorboating D.Tuned grid share/E6/6A780000664000175000017500000000024714623226701011162 0ustar jtnjtn6A78 A If capacitors of 3, 5, and 7 microfarad are connected in parallel, what is the total capacitance? A.9 microfarad B.15 microfarad C.10 microfarad D.3 microfarad share/E6/6A1480000664000175000017500000000021214623226701011230 0ustar jtnjtn6A148 A A tungsten filament is operated at ____ temperature than a thoriated tungsten filament: A.A higher B.A lower C.The same D.Unknown share/E6/6A3310000664000175000017500000000042014623226701011223 0ustar jtnjtn6A331 A When the field of a shunt-wound DC motor opens while the machine is operating under no load: A.The motor would race, and if unchoked, might destroy itself B.The motor would quit running without damage C.The motor would burn out the field coils D.None of the above share/E6/6A2910000664000175000017500000000027614623226701011241 0ustar jtnjtn6A291 D The tops of lead-acid batteries should be kept dry: A.To prevent slow discharge of the battery B.To prevent terminal overload C.To reduce the formation of terminal corrosion D.A & C share/E6/6A3330000664000175000017500000000033714623226701011234 0ustar jtnjtn6A333 C A short in the armature coils of a DC motor causes: A.No excessive sparking at the commutator brushes B.No overheating of the motor C.Reduction of speed under load, and excessive armature current D.All of the above share/E6/6A1150000664000175000017500000000020414623226701011223 0ustar jtnjtn6A115 C The ratio of peak-to-effective voltage values of a sign wave are: A.1.414 to 1 B.1 to 0.707 C.Both A and B D.Neither A or B share/E6/6A3590000664000175000017500000000042614623226701011243 0ustar jtnjtn6A359 C The buffer amplifier stage of a transmitter: A.To hold any discriminator signals until verified by the varactor diode circuits B.Buffers any signals that may have been imposed upon the carrier signal C.To improve the frequency stability of the oscillator D.Both A and C share/E6/6A2900000664000175000017500000000026114623226701011232 0ustar jtnjtn6A290 A If a battery has 12.4 V on open circuit and 12.2 V when its charging circuit is closed: A.Could have polarity reversed B.Could be overloaded C.A & B D.None of the above share/E6/6A840000664000175000017500000000020214623226701011146 0ustar jtnjtn6A84 A The wavelength of the period of one complete cycle of a radio wave of 0.000,001 second is: A.300 M B.3000 M C.30 M D.70 cm share/E6/6A2190000664000175000017500000000024114623226701011231 0ustar jtnjtn6A219 A What turns ratio does a transformer need to match a source impedance of 500 ohms to a load of 10 ohms? A.7.1 to 1 B.7 to 1 C.14 to 1 D.None of the above share/E6/6A4280000664000175000017500000000043314623226701011236 0ustar jtnjtn6A428 D Instruments used to indicate various DC currents and voltages in a transmitter may be protected against damage to stray RF by: A.Insufficient grid blocking bias is applied to the grid when the key is open B.Shorted bias resistor C.Shorted key-click filter D.All of the above share/E6/6A5050000664000175000017500000000070014623226701011227 0ustar jtnjtn6A505 A The auto-alarm signal is: A.Four consecutive dashes from C.5 to D.5 seconds, separated by spaces ranging from 0.1 to 0.5 seconds. The combination may not exceed 5 seconds B.Three consecutive dashes from D.5 to 5.5 seconds, separated by spaces ranging from 0.5 to A.0 seconds C.Five consecutive dashes from B.5-3.5 seconds, separated by spaces ranging from 0.01 to 0.25 seconds. The combination may not exceed 5 seconds D.None of the above share/E6/6A5100000664000175000017500000000030214623226701011221 0ustar jtnjtn6A510 C The auto-alarm bell rings and the release button stops it: A.There could be reception of a true alarm signal B.There could be reception of a false alarm signal C.A or B D.Neither A or B share/E6/6A2630000664000175000017500000000014414623226701011232 0ustar jtnjtn6A263 A The average fully-charged voltage of an Edison storage cell is: A.1.2 V B.1.5 V C.2 V D.1 V share/E6/6A970000664000175000017500000000027714623226701011166 0ustar jtnjtn6A97 B High or low frequency oscillations occurring in circuits other than the original tank desired output frequencies are: A.Harmonics B.Parasitic oscillations C.Hysteresis D.Eddy currents share/E6/6A2260000664000175000017500000000025114623226701011230 0ustar jtnjtn6A226 A A properly operated Class A audio amplifier: A.Produces no serious modification of the input waveform B.Serious distortion is present C.A & B D.All of the above share/E6/6A3300000664000175000017500000000031514623226701011225 0ustar jtnjtn6A330 A The speed of a series DC motor may increase and destroy the motor by centrifugal action: A.When operated without a load B.When operated on AC C.When operated under varying load D.None of the above share/E6/6A70000664000175000017500000000060514623226701011070 0ustar jtnjtn6A7 B Modern reserve transmitters are solid-state designs and transmit using only A2 modulation. When measuring transmitter center frequency, what precaution must be taken: A.Antenna must be grounded to suppress spurious side-lobes B.Modulation must be reduced to zero to eliminate sidebands C.Voltage to the PA must be kept at half-value D.Antenna current must be reduced to about 2.5 uA share/E6/6A4030000664000175000017500000000020414623226701011223 0ustar jtnjtn6A403 B Which type of amplifier circuit is used in a link coupling R-F? A.Push-push B.Push-pull C.Phase splitter D.FM discriminator share/E6/6A4980000664000175000017500000000052614623226701011250 0ustar jtnjtn6A498 B An auxiliary receiving antenna on a ship with a radio direction finder: A.Is mainly a spare antenna B.Enables the radio operator to maintain watch on 500 kHz whether or not the direction finder is in use C.Enables the radio operator to use the direction finder whether or not the communications receiver is in use D.None of the above share/E6/6A2130000664000175000017500000000016014623226701011223 0ustar jtnjtn6A213 A What substance is the most widely used in crystal oscillators? A.Quartz B.Galena C.Silicon D.Tourmaline share/E6/6A2350000664000175000017500000000067214623226701011237 0ustar jtnjtn6A235 C A vacuum tube operated Class C audio amplifier is not feasible, either in single or push-pull: A.Since the plate current only flows 120 degrees, even in push-pull, only 2/3 of the cycle is reproduced and the resultant distortion would be unacceptable for audio B.Tank circuits, which replace the missing portions of the cycle, can't be used in an audio amplifier because they only operate on one frequency C.A & B D.None of the above share/E6/6A1870000664000175000017500000000042214623226701011236 0ustar jtnjtn6A187 B If the crystal will undergo very small changes in its operating frequency with relatively large temperature variations: A.A high-temperature coefficient crystal B.A low-temperature coefficient crystal C.A constant-temperature coefficient crystal D.None of the above share/E6/6A3210000664000175000017500000000034214623226701011225 0ustar jtnjtn6A321 D Electrolyte capacitors are desirable over other types because: A.A large capacitance may be obtained with small physical dimensions B.They have a cathode C.The wet-type electrolytic capacitor is "self-healing" D.A & C share/E6/6A4450000664000175000017500000000067014623226701011240 0ustar jtnjtn6A445 C What is meant by the term polarization of a radio wave? A.Electromagnetic waves penetrate conductors because of eddy currents B.Electromagnetically charged waves cross the zero axis in perpendicular patterns causing polarization to appear C.The polarization of a radio wave is determined by the direction of the electromagnetic wave plane D.The polarization of a radio wave is determined by the direction of the magnetic wave plane share/E6/6A5600000664000175000017500000000037114623226701011234 0ustar jtnjtn6A560 D How frequently must an entry be made in a ship radiotelegraph log while a radio watch is being maintained? A.At least every 15 minutes B.This is in addition to the entries referring to silent periods C.At least every 30 minutes D.Both A & B share/E6/6A20000664000175000017500000000063214623226701011063 0ustar jtnjtn6A2 D Weather information is commonly sent by radio in map form by one-way facsimile transmission. Two common parameters which must be set by the receiving station are: A.Lines-per-inch (LPI), and primary scan direction (PSD) B.Frequency shift (FS), and phase response pattern (PRP) C.Black-mode signal (BMS), and frequency jitter tolerance (FJT) D.Index of cooperation (IOC), and revolutions per minute (RPM) share/E6/6A4850000664000175000017500000000055514623226701011246 0ustar jtnjtn6A485 C How could you test a regenerative receiver to determine if the detector is oscillating? A.Touch a finger on grounded wire to the grid circuit. You will hear a "plop" if the circuit was oscillating B.Vary the regeneration control to its maximum limits. You will hear a "plop" as the circuit goes in and out of oscillation C.Either A or B D.None of the above share/E6/6A2580000664000175000017500000000031714623226701011240 0ustar jtnjtn6A258 A The negative plate of a lead-acid storage cell: A.Is composed of pure spongy lead B.Is composed of lead peroxide C.Is composed of a compound of pure spongy lead and lead peroxide D.None of the above share/E6/6A3520000664000175000017500000000021314623226701011226 0ustar jtnjtn6A352 A The voltage of an alternator will: A.Decrease under load B.Increase under load C.Load has no effect on voltage D.None of the above share/E6/6A710000664000175000017500000000027414623226701011153 0ustar jtnjtn6A71 A A circuit passes 3 A. The internal resistance of the source is 2 ohms. The total resistance is 50 ohms. What is the terminal voltage of the source? A.150 V B.100 V C.110 V D.240 V share/E6/6A1310000664000175000017500000000057514623226701011234 0ustar jtnjtn6A131 A What is the primary purpose of the suppressor grid of a pentode? A.Is highly negative with respect to the plate and returns secondary emission to the plate, increasing the permissible gain and the tube efficiency B.Reduces interelectrode capacitance between control grid and plate making plate efficiency about 10% greater than a triode C.Both A & B D.Neither of the above share/E6/6A4100000664000175000017500000000020114623226701011216 0ustar jtnjtn6A410 A What would be the dB change in field intensity at a given distance if the power is doubled? A.3 dB B.6 dB C.2 dB D.10 dB share/E6/6A3890000664000175000017500000000054014623226701011243 0ustar jtnjtn6A389 D What may be used as indicating devices in neutralizing an RF amplifier stage? A.Neon bulb, sensitive wavemeter B.A flashlight bulb connected to a small loop of wire, a sensitive thermocoupler either attached to a small loop of wire C.Amplifier grid current meter, a thermocouple meter connected in series with the plate tank D.All of the above share/E6/6A4560000664000175000017500000000022614623226701011237 0ustar jtnjtn6A456 D An artificial antenna sometimes used in testing a transmitter: A.Dummy antenna B.Dummy load C.Prevents undesired radiation D.All of the above share/E6/6A3170000664000175000017500000000034714623226701011237 0ustar jtnjtn6A317 C Why should the case of a high-voltage transformer be grounded? A.To protect personnel handling the equipment from shock B.To prevent high static voltages building up between the case and grounds C.A & B D.None of the above share/E6/6A6130000664000175000017500000000050614623226701011233 0ustar jtnjtn6A613 C What document is issued after a radio station inspection aboard a large ship that is not a passenger vessel? A.Great Lakes Radio Agreement surety authorization B.International Maritime Organization safety permit C.Cargo ship safety radiotelegraphy or radiotelephony certificate D.Safety Convention radio certification share/E6/6A4550000664000175000017500000000041714623226701011240 0ustar jtnjtn6A455 D The follow devices that could be used to indicate oscillation in a crystal oscillator are: A.Plate DC milliammeter, grid DC ammeter, neon bulb B.Thermogalvanometer, wavemeter C.Flashlight bulb on a loop of wire, heterodyne type frequency meter D.All of the above share/E6/6A250000664000175000017500000000022614623226701011147 0ustar jtnjtn6A25 C What factors determine the charge stored in a capacitor? A.Capacitance of the capacitor B.The applied voltage C.Both A & B D.None of the above share/E6/6A1240000664000175000017500000000017714623226701011234 0ustar jtnjtn6A124 A A tube containing either a filament or cathode structure, grid, and a plate is a: A.Triode B.Tetrode C.Pentode D.Diode share/E6/6A4330000664000175000017500000000062614623226701011236 0ustar jtnjtn6A433 A What are the three factors to consider when figuring the surge impedance of a non-resonant transmission line? A.Diameter of the conductor, space between conductors, dielectric constant of insulating material B.Voltage on RF line, diameter of conductors, space between dielectric C.Diameter of shielding, space between dielectric constant, insulating shield around the conductor D.None of the above share/E6/6A3110000664000175000017500000000036314623226701011227 0ustar jtnjtn6A311 D If a 60 Hz transformer is connected to a 120 Hz source of the same voltage: A.The impedance of the transformers would be greater B.The current would be reduced C.There would be a decrease in power delivered to the load D.All the above share/E6/6A5610000664000175000017500000000044714623226701011241 0ustar jtnjtn6A561 C At what time(s) are routine transmissions forbidden in the bands of 480 to 515 kHz? A.Routine transmissions are forbidden in 480 to 515 kHz B.480 to 515 kHz are out of the marine radio band C.Routine transmissions are forbidden during the international silent period D.None of the above share/E6/6A4860000664000175000017500000000053214623226701011242 0ustar jtnjtn6A486 A How would you adjust a regenerative receiver without RF amplifier stages to receive radiotelegraph signals through interference? A.Provide the maximum selectivity and gain at the incoming signal frequency B.Increase the degree of coupling between the antenna and grid coils C.Provide the minimum possible regeneration D.None of the above share/E6/6A580000664000175000017500000000040614623226701011155 0ustar jtnjtn6A58 C Which method may be used to obtain more than one value of voltage from a fixed DC source? A.Use a resistance type voltage divider B.Connect voltage regulator tubes of suitable values and tap off the desired output voltage C.Both A & B D.None of the above share/E6/6A4480000664000175000017500000000040014623226701011232 0ustar jtnjtn6A448 C Communication at frequencies in the order of 15 kHz are usually accomplished by ground waves, and require generation of ____ power outputs for reliable and continuous operation: A.High power B.Low power C.Extremely high power D.Extremely low power share/E6/6A3620000664000175000017500000000057614623226701011243 0ustar jtnjtn6A362 C If a class B linear final R-F amplifier were in saturation and no modulation what would happen when modulated? A.The carrier frequency would override the grid-plate current and the result would be positive shift resulting in amplification B.The Class B linear amplifier only modulates below cut-off C.A condition of negative carrier shift would be the result D.Both A and B share/E6/6A6140000664000175000017500000000050314623226701011231 0ustar jtnjtn6A614 B What is the minimum radio operator license requirement of a chief radio officer on U.S. passenger ships? A.First or Second Class Radiotelegraph Operator Certificate with six month endorsement B.First Class Radiotelegraph Operator Certificate C.General Radiotelephone Operator License D.Marine Radio Operator Permit share/E6/6A5320000664000175000017500000000070414623226701011233 0ustar jtnjtn6A532 D What is the directional reception pattern of a loop antenna? A.A vertical loop antenna has a bidirectional pattern which is maximum in the directions in the plane of the loop, and minimum in the directions broadside to the loop B.A horizontal loop antenna is nondirectional along the plane of the loop. It has minimum radiation or reception vertically C.A horizontal loop antenna is directional along the plane of the loop antenna D.Both A & B share/E6/6A5700000664000175000017500000000026114623226701011233 0ustar jtnjtn6A570 A What space of time should elapse between the transmission of the international auto-alarm signal and the distress call? A.2 minutes B.4 minutes C.5 minutes D.10 minutes share/E6/6A2970000664000175000017500000000034714623226701011246 0ustar jtnjtn6A297 D If the circuit breakers refuse to stay closed when you place the emergency batteries on charge, what is the trouble? A.Internally shorted cells B.Reversed charging polarity C.Grounded circuit connections D.Any of the above share/E6/6A4890000664000175000017500000000030114623226701011237 0ustar jtnjtn6A489 D What type of radio receiver do not respond to static interference? A.AM receivers are less responsive B.FM receivers have better sensitivity to such interference C.Both AM & FM D.B & C share/E6/6A5790000664000175000017500000000026414623226701011247 0ustar jtnjtn6A579 D While a vessel is in port, how frequently should the emergency equipment be tested? A.Once a day B.Once a week C.Once a month D.Only when the vessel is ready to leave port share/E6/6A4490000664000175000017500000000020214623226701011233 0ustar jtnjtn6A449 C Frequencies with substantially line propagations: A.VHF, UHF, microwave B.About 50-30,000 MHz C.A & B D.None of the above share/E6/6A1880000664000175000017500000000050514623226701011241 0ustar jtnjtn6A188 A A separate source of power is sometimes desirable for crystal-oscillator units in a transmitter: A.To prevent dynamic instability of the crystal oscillator B.To prevent thermocoupling of the crystal oscillator C.To prevent overtuning of the crystal oscillator D.To cause dynamic instability of the crystal oscillator share/E6/6A2790000664000175000017500000000034314623226701011242 0ustar jtnjtn6A279 A To prevent corrosion of battery terminals: A.Occasionally clean and coat them with Vaseline or other suitable lubricants B.Use only brass terminals C.Use only stainless steel terminals D.Keep battery on trickles charge share/E6/6A1500000664000175000017500000000042514623226701011227 0ustar jtnjtn6A150 C The cathode of an indirectly heated type of vacuum tube should be maintained at nearly the same potential as the heater circuit: A.To reduce hum pickup into the cathode B.To prevent breakdown of the insulation between the heater and cathode C.A & B D.None of the above share/E6/6A3610000664000175000017500000000022714623226701011233 0ustar jtnjtn6A361 B What class of amplifier is used as linear in order not to distort the modulation components? A.Class A B.Class B C.Class C D.None of the above share/E6/6A3480000664000175000017500000000021614623226701011236 0ustar jtnjtn6A348 A The speed of a DC series motor is determined: A.By the load B.By the number of pairs of poles C.By the commutator D.None of the above share/E6/6A1090000664000175000017500000000016414623226701011233 0ustar jtnjtn6A109 B What is the reactance of a 2-henry choke at 3000 Hz? A.5300 ohms B.37,680 ohms C.376,800 ohms D.53,000 ohms share/E6/6A5780000664000175000017500000000034714623226701011250 0ustar jtnjtn6A578 D How frequently must the quantity of fuel in the supply tank for use with an oil or gas driven emergency generator be checked while the vessel is in the open sea? A.Once a week B.Every 12 hours C.Every 48 hours D.Once daily share/E6/6A3400000664000175000017500000000051514623226701011230 0ustar jtnjtn6A340 D Causes of excessive sparking at the brushes of a DC motor or generator include: A.Brushes not properly set at neutral point, dirt on commutator, motor overloaded B.Weak spring tension on brushes, brushes worn, commutator worn eccentric C.High mica-insulation between bars, commutator bars of uneven height D.All of the above share/E6/6A2220000664000175000017500000000045314623226701011230 0ustar jtnjtn6A222 C Why do headphones usually have high-impedance windings? A.They can usually be operated without an impedance matching transformer B.They represent a closer match to the plate load impedance for the tube delivering necessary driving power than low impedance planes C.A & B D.None of the above share/E6/6A2830000664000175000017500000000015514623226701011236 0ustar jtnjtn6A283 A What form of energy is stored in a lead-acid storage battery? A.Chemical B.Mechanical C.Heat D.Light share/E6/6A490000664000175000017500000000040514623226701011154 0ustar jtnjtn6A49 A A liquid which is capable of conducting electricity, but undergoes decomposition while doing so is: A.An electrolyte B.A ferromagnetic material under the influence of a magnetizing force C.Equal to the ohmic resistance of the circuit D.None of the above share/E6/6A5930000664000175000017500000000125514623226701011244 0ustar jtnjtn6A593 C What examination requirements are necessary to obtain a Second Class Radiotelegraph Operator's Certificate? A.Written Element 1 (radio law), Element 3 (electronic fundamentals), Element 5 (radiotelegraph operations) and sending/receiving 16/20 words per minute B.Telegraphy Element 1 (sending/receiving 16 code groups per minute) and Telegraphy Element 2 (16 code groups and 20 words per minute text.) C.Successful completion of written test Elements 1, 5 and 6 on basic radio law and operating practices plus telegraphy Elements 1 and 2 D.Successful completion of written test Elements 1, 3, 5 and 6 on basic radio law and operating practices plus telegraphy Elements 1 and B share/E6/6A340000664000175000017500000000017714623226701011154 0ustar jtnjtn6A34 D Factors which influence the resistance of a conductor: A.Cross-sectional area B.Length C.Temperature D.All of the above share/E6/6A2550000664000175000017500000000026014623226701011232 0ustar jtnjtn6A255 A A means of comparing the weight of a volume of liquid with the same volume of distilled water: A.Specific gravity B.Specific mass C.Specific volume D.None of the above share/E6/6A5530000664000175000017500000000057414623226701011243 0ustar jtnjtn6A553 C In all cases other than those in which the transmitter output must be maintained at a fixed value, what amount of power should be employed for routine communications? A.The maximum amount of power to maintain communications B.The transmitter must be maintained at a fixed value C.The minimum amount of power necessary to ensure reliable communications D.None of the above share/E6/6A940000664000175000017500000000026314623226701011156 0ustar jtnjtn6A94 D Shielding an RF inductance: A.Increases the losses of the inductance B.Lowers the inductance value and the Q C.Increases the coil capacity to the shield D.All of the above share/E6/6A3060000664000175000017500000000050514623226701011231 0ustar jtnjtn6A306 A Part of the secondary winding of a transmitters power transformer is accidentally shorted. What should be the immediate effect? A.The current would rise to an excessive value and trip the circuit breaker B.The short would burn the transformer C.The current in the secondary winding would decrease D.None of the above share/E6/6A2930000664000175000017500000000060014623226701011232 0ustar jtnjtn6A293 A If an electrolyte in a lead-acid storage cell becomes low due to evaporation: A.The level should be brought to about 1/4 inch above the tops of the plates with pure water B.The level should be brought to about 1/4 inch above the tops of the plates with tap water C.The level should be brought to about 1/4 inch above the tops of the plates with salt water D.None of the above share/E6/6A1450000664000175000017500000000032314623226701011230 0ustar jtnjtn6A145 B A charge due to the accumulation of negative electrons because the plate potential cannot attract all of the electrons leaving the emitter: A.Getter B.Space charge C.Plate saturation D.None of the above share/E6/6A2840000664000175000017500000000017114623226701011235 0ustar jtnjtn6A284 C How may polarity of a storage battery be determined? A.Voltmeter B.Salt water method C.A & B D.None of the above share/E6/6A5730000664000175000017500000000037414623226701011243 0ustar jtnjtn6A573 C What is the purpose of an auto-alarm signal keying device on a compulsorily equipped ship? A.To automatically produce Morse code B.To automatically send an SOS signal C.To automatically produce the correct auto-alarm signal D.None of the above share/E6/6A3720000664000175000017500000000052614623226701011237 0ustar jtnjtn6A372 B Given the following: (1) audio power for 100% modulation equals 50% of DC input power to RF modulated amplifier, (2) load presented to the modulated tube consists of the DC plate impedance of the modulated amplifier, (3) constant grid excitation voltage, very low distortion, what type of modulation? A.Grid B.Plate C.Cathode D.Anode share/E6/6A3440000664000175000017500000000056014623226701011234 0ustar jtnjtn6A344 A Emery cloth should never be used to clean the commutator of a motor or generator: A.Because it contains particles which may lodge between commutator segments and cause short circuits B.Because it may polish the commutator too smooth for good brush contact C.Because it may decrease the insulating quality of its mica between the interpoles D.None of the above share/E6/6A3680000664000175000017500000000053414623226701011243 0ustar jtnjtn6A368 A How can an R-F amplifier stage be neutralized? A.Vary the tuning of the plate tank circuit while observing the amp. meter B.Vary the tuning of the plate tank circuit while observing the SWR meter C.Neutralization is done by circuit design either by increasing the input impedance or lowering the inductance value D.Both A and C are correct share/E6/6A830000664000175000017500000000027614623226701011160 0ustar jtnjtn6A83 D The formula for determining the wavelength when the frequency is known is: A.Wavelength = 300,000/ f kHz B.Wavelength = 300,000,000/ f Hz C.Wavelength = 300/ f MHz D.All of the above share/E6/6A1460000664000175000017500000000026214623226701011233 0ustar jtnjtn6A146 B A material flashed by the application of heat after the tube is evacuated that absorbs any gases remaining inside the tube: A.Space charge B.Getter C.Collector D.Emitter share/E6/6A1160000664000175000017500000000023614623226701011231 0ustar jtnjtn6A116 A The opposition to the creation of magnetic lines of force in a magnetic circuit is known as: A.Reluctance B.Hysteresis C.Permeability D.Eddy currents share/E6/6A6000000664000175000017500000000072214623226701011227 0ustar jtnjtn6A600 A What is an operating control requirement of a ship station using telegraphy? A.The ship station must be capable of automatically changing from telegraphy transmission to telegraph reception B.A ship station control operator must stand watch on emergency channels at all times C.Only a licensed First Class Radiotelegraph Operator may operate a ship station D.The ship station must be capable of changing from one radio channel to another within five seconds share/E6/6A5370000664000175000017500000000024614623226701011241 0ustar jtnjtn6A537 D How is the unilateral effect obtained in a direction finder? A.With a balancing capacitor B.With a compensator C.With insulating material D.None of the above share/E6/6A6040000664000175000017500000000073414623226701011236 0ustar jtnjtn6A604 C When may a public coast station authorized to use high frequency narrow-band direct-printing (NB-DP) establish contact with a ship station using telegraphy? A.Never. Contact may only be established using NB-DP circuits B.When the ship is in excess of 300 gross tons C.When the radio station license reflects authority for this type of operation and harmful interference is avoided D.When it is known that the vessel does not have a selective ringing or calling device share/E6/6A4200000664000175000017500000000037214623226701011230 0ustar jtnjtn6A420 A Field intensity is: A.Directly proportional to the antenna current B.Inversely proportional to the antenna current C.Directly proportional to the square of the antenna current D.Directly proportional to the square root of the antenna current share/E6/6A1050000664000175000017500000000021214623226701011221 0ustar jtnjtn6A105 D An EMF may be generated by sound waves by what principle? A.Electrostatic B.Piezo-electric C.Resistance change D.All of the above share/E6/6A660000664000175000017500000000024214623226701011152 0ustar jtnjtn6A66 A What is the total power dissipation capability of two 10 watt 500 ohm resistors connected in parallel? A.20 watts B.40 watts C.5 watts D.None of the above share/E6/6A270000664000175000017500000000025214623226701011150 0ustar jtnjtn6A27 A The formula for determining the power in a DC circuit when the voltage and resistance are known is: A.P = ( E squared) R B.P = EI C.P = ( I squared) R D.PF = W/IE share/E6/6A4900000664000175000017500000000022414623226701011233 0ustar jtnjtn6A490 D Audio howl may be caused by: A.A "fringe" setting of the regeneration control B.A defective tube C.An open grid resistor D.All of the above share/E6/6A3920000664000175000017500000000040214623226701011232 0ustar jtnjtn6A392 A To avoid damage to components what precautions should be observed in tuning a transmitter? A.It should be adjusted at reduced power B.It should be adjusted under normal power C.Plate tank circuits are tuned for maximum DC current D.None of the above share/E6/6A6160000664000175000017500000000061614623226701011240 0ustar jtnjtn6A616 B What should a station operator do before making a transmission? A.Check transmitting equipment to be certain it is properly calibrated B.Except for the transmission of distress calls, determine that the frequency is not in use by monitoring the frequency before transmitting C.Ask if the frequency is in use D.Transmit a general notification that the operator wishes to utilize the channel share/E6/6A1740000664000175000017500000000026314623226701011235 0ustar jtnjtn6A174 A A diode detector ordinarily produces ____ overall distortion of the audio output wave than does a triode detector: A.Lower B.Higher C.Practically the same D.Either A or B share/E6/6A850000664000175000017500000000036114623226701011155 0ustar jtnjtn6A85 B The efficiency of a radio device is: A.The ratio of the power input to the power output B.The ratio of the useful power output to the power input C.The ratio of the minimum power output to the maximum power output D.None of the above share/E6/6A5450000664000175000017500000000040614623226701011236 0ustar jtnjtn6A545 C How should a radar set be adjusted by the operator to reduce "sea return"? A.Rotate the antenna for a deep null B.Reduce the gain control C.The operator should manually adjust the "suppressor" control or sensitivity time control, STC D.None of the above share/E6/6A4290000664000175000017500000000055114623226701011240 0ustar jtnjtn6A429 D In a radiotelegraph transmitter with a DC generator plate voltage source, an AC generator filament supply, and grid-bias keying, what could be wrong when the emission continues with the key contacts open? A.Insufficient grid blocking bias is applied to the grid when the key is open B.Shorted bias resistor C.Shorted key-click filter D.All of the above share/E6/6A3910000664000175000017500000000036114623226701011235 0ustar jtnjtn6A391 A If a 1500 kHz radio wave is modulated by a 2000 Hz sine wave tone, what frequencies does the modulated wave contain? A.1500 kHz , 1502 kHz , 1498 kHz B.1500 MHz , 1502 MHz , 1498 MHz C.1500 Hz , 1502 Hz , 1498 Hz D.None of the above share/E6/6A2500000664000175000017500000000025414623226701011230 0ustar jtnjtn6A250 D A dry cell may be tested: A.Must be tested under normal load condition B.May be tested under no load condition C.May be taken by any conventional voltmeter D.A & C share/E6/6A2100000664000175000017500000000023214623226701011220 0ustar jtnjtn6A210 A The best suited material for use as an antenna strain insulator exposed to the elements: A.Glazed porcelain B.Glass C.Graphite composite D.Rubber share/E6/6A1550000664000175000017500000000035614623226701011237 0ustar jtnjtn6A155 C The screen grid in a vacuum tube: A.Makes it unnecessary to neutralize RF amplifiers except at very high frequencies, B.Makes it possible to obtain much higher values of amplification than with triodes C.A & B D.None of the above share/E6/6A350000664000175000017500000000023314623226701011146 0ustar jtnjtn6A35 A Halving the cross-sectional area of a conductor will: A.Double the resistance B.Half the resistance C.Not affect the resistance D.None of the above share/E6/6A4270000664000175000017500000000032214623226701011232 0ustar jtnjtn6A427 A What may be observed as the antenna circuit is brought into resonance about the plate current of the final amplifier? A.It will increase B.It will decrease C.It will remain constant D.None of the above share/E6/6A3780000664000175000017500000000032514623226701011242 0ustar jtnjtn6A378 A When a radiotelephone transmitter is 100% modulated by sinusoidal waveform , how much antenna current will be observed? A.22.5 % increase B.22.5 % decrease C.12.25% increase D.No change in antenna current share/E6/6A800000664000175000017500000000027214623226701011151 0ustar jtnjtn6A80 D If a turn in an inductor is shorted: A.There will be an decrease of induction B.There will be a decrease of Q C.There will be overheating with possible burnout D.All of the above share/E6/6A4160000664000175000017500000000053414623226701011235 0ustar jtnjtn6A416 A Keying a simple-oscillator type of emergency transmitter may be accomplished by: A.Inserting the key in series with the primary of the high voltage plate transformer B.Inserting the key in parallel with the primary of the high voltage plate transformer C.Inserting the key in series with the final output to the antenna D.None of the above share/E6/6A5990000664000175000017500000000074314623226701011253 0ustar jtnjtn6A599 C What happens to a lower grade of Commercial Radiotelegraph License when a licensee qualifies for a higher grade? A.The lower grade is allowed to expire and may not be renewed B.The Second or Third Class Radiotelegraph license is modified to a higher class C.The lower grade is canceled. Only one unexpired radiotelegraph operator's certificate may be held at the same time D.Licensees are permitted to hold any number of radiotelegraph operator certificates at the same time share/E6/6A480000664000175000017500000000027214623226701011155 0ustar jtnjtn6A48 C A positive temperature coefficient means: A.Resistance increases as the temperature increases B.Resistance decreases as the temperature decreases C.Both A & B D.None of the above share/E6/6A1180000664000175000017500000000027114623226701011232 0ustar jtnjtn6A118 B The magnetic force which remains in a substance after the original magnetizing force has been removed is known as: A.Reluctance B.Residual magnetism C.Permeability D.Hysteresis share/E6/6A2480000664000175000017500000000022314623226701011233 0ustar jtnjtn6A248 D Secondary cells: A.Can be recharged B.Cannot be recharged C.The products of the chemical change are not soluble in the electrolyte D.A & C share/E6/6A4780000664000175000017500000000042314623226701011242 0ustar jtnjtn6A478 D Advantages of a stage of RF amplification are: A.Improved sensitivity, improved signal-to-noise ratio B.Improved selectivity, improved signal-to-noise ratio C.Improved signal-to-noise ratio, more efficient and more stable operation of the detector D.All of the above share/E6/6A3960000664000175000017500000000037514623226701011247 0ustar jtnjtn6A396 A The degree of coupling is varied in a pi-network used to transfer energy from a vacuum tube plate circuit to an antenna: A.By adjusting the series capacitors B.By adjusting the tank capacitors C.By changing the plate voltage D.None of the above share/E6/6A3580000664000175000017500000000050514623226701011240 0ustar jtnjtn6A358 D The primary function of the power-amplifier stage of a marine radiotelegraph transmitter is: A.To transmit messages concerning the safety and health of the ship personnel B.To transmit messages concerning the weather and safety of upcoming storms C.Both A and B D.To improve the frequency stability of the oscillator share/E6/6A1950000664000175000017500000000011414623226701011233 0ustar jtnjtn6A195 C Types of transistors: A.Point-contact B.Junction C.Both A & B D.NPP share/E6/6A280000664000175000017500000000023214623226701011147 0ustar jtnjtn6A28 B The formula for finding power in a DC circuit when current and resistance are known: A.P = IE B.P = ( I Squared) R C.PF = W/IE D.None of the above share/E6/6A4040000664000175000017500000000035214623226701011230 0ustar jtnjtn6A404 C An advantage of link coupling between RF amplifier stages is: A.The flexibility of mechanical construction possible B.Reduction of tube capacitance effects on the L/C ratio of the tank circuits C.Both A and B D.Neither A or B share/E6/6A210000664000175000017500000000026214623226701011143 0ustar jtnjtn6A21 D Resistance is: A.The quantity which determines power loss or dissipation B.The factor of proportionality between voltage and current C.Measured in ohms D.All of the above share/E6/6A2860000664000175000017500000000035614623226701011244 0ustar jtnjtn6A286 A A discharged storage battery of 3 cells has an open circuit voltage of 1.8 V per cell and an internal resistance of 0.1 ohm per cell. What voltage is needed to give an initial charging rate of 10 A? A.8.4 V B.10 V C.15 V D.12.5 V share/E6/6A2150000664000175000017500000000017614623226701011234 0ustar jtnjtn6A215 D The advantage of a single-button carbon microphone: A.High output voltage B.Sensitivity C.Low cost D.All of the above share/E6/6A2990000664000175000017500000000027614623226701011251 0ustar jtnjtn6A299 A How would you connect a group of similar cells in a storage battery to obtain the maximum zero resistance current? A.In parallel B.In series C.In series/parallel D.None of the above share/E6/6A3950000664000175000017500000000030514623226701011237 0ustar jtnjtn6A395 A The disadvantage of using a self-excited oscillator type of transmitter for shipboard service: A.Frequency instability B.Parasitic oscillations C.Violent sound intensities D.Large capacity share/E6/6A1710000664000175000017500000000022014623226701011223 0ustar jtnjtn6A171 D The diode detector: A.Is square law on weak signals B.Is practically linear on strong signals C.Is square law on strong signals D.A & B share/E6/6A2560000664000175000017500000000021614623226701011234 0ustar jtnjtn6A256 D Edison type batteries: A.Have plates up nickel B.Have plates of iron C.Have plates of compounds of nickel and iron D.All of the above share/E6/6A590000664000175000017500000000020314623226701011151 0ustar jtnjtn6A59 A The conductance (G) of a circuit if 6 A flows when 12 VDC is applied is: A.0.5 mho B.1.0 mho C.0.25 mho D.None of the above share/E6/6A4570000664000175000017500000000036414623226701011243 0ustar jtnjtn6A457 D The system producing A-2 emission by a "chopper" may be thought of: A.As a double-keying system B.The automatic "chopper" turns the transmitter on and off at a rapid rate C.The other key is a normal hand operated key D.All of the above share/E6/6A1190000664000175000017500000000044214623226701011233 0ustar jtnjtn6A119 A The direction of electron flow through a coil and the manner of winding the turns: A.Influence the direction of magnetic line of force generated by an electromagnet B.Are determined by the left-hand status rule C.Are determined by the diameter of the wire and length D.Both A and C share/E6/6A2200000664000175000017500000000014514623226701011224 0ustar jtnjtn6A220 C What microphones have a high impedance output? A.Crystal B.Dynamic C.Any D.None of the above share/E6/6A2040000664000175000017500000000026514623226701011231 0ustar jtnjtn6A204 C The breakdown voltage rating of a capacitor are determined by: A.The type of dielectric material used B.The thickness of the dielectric material C.A & B D.None of the above share/E6/6A4930000664000175000017500000000041314623226701011236 0ustar jtnjtn6A493 A An oscillator in a receiver operating on a frequency near the IF of the receiver: A.Beats with the IF in the second detector to produce an audible note B.May cause audio howl in the receiver C.Increases sensitivity D.May cause noisy operation of the receiver share/E6/6A2380000664000175000017500000000036714623226701011243 0ustar jtnjtn6A238 A Decoupling networks in the plate circuit of a multistage audio amplifier: A.Prevents oscillations from occurring in the amplifier B.Result in oscillations in the amplifier C.Allow variable oscillations in the amplifier D.None of the above share/E6/6A1910000664000175000017500000000052014623226701011230 0ustar jtnjtn6A191 D "The temperature coefficient of a y-cut crystal is positive" means: A.The operating frequency of the crystal will decrease as the temperature decreases B.The operating frequency of the crystal will increase as the temperature increases C.The operating frequency of the crystal will decrease as the temperature increases D.A & B share/E6/6A5170000664000175000017500000000052614623226701011240 0ustar jtnjtn6A517 C If a vacuum tube in the only RF stages of your receiver burned out, make a temporary repair by: A.Remove its tube and connect a small (about 0.001 microfarad) capacitor between the control grid and plate connections B.Connect the antenna to the control grid of the stage following the one which was burned out C.Either A or B D.A & B share/E6/6A3080000664000175000017500000000023414623226701011232 0ustar jtnjtn6A308 B The ratio of the frequencies of the output and input circuits of a single-phase full-wave rectifier: A.1 to 1 B.2 to 1 C.1 to 2 D.None of the above share/E6/6A5300000664000175000017500000000042714623226701011233 0ustar jtnjtn6A530 B By what factor must the voltage of an AC circuit, as indicated on the scale of an AC voltmeter, be multiplied to obtain the peak value? A.The multiplying factor is .414 B.The multiplying factor is A.414 C.The multiplying factor is A.114 D.The multiplying factor is A.141 share/E6/6A2800000664000175000017500000000030414623226701011227 0ustar jtnjtn6A280 D Why should there be ventilation to the room housing a large group of storage cells? A.To prevent gas accumulation B.To prevent overheating C.To prevent the terminals from shorting D.A & B share/E6/6A3700000664000175000017500000000051314623226701011231 0ustar jtnjtn6A370 C When the first speech-amplifier of a transmitter were overexcited, but the modulation capabilities were not exceeded what would be the effect on the output? A.The waveform would be sawtooth causing undermodulation B.The waveform would be square wave creating cross-modulation C.The output would be distorted D.Both A and C share/E6/6A3180000664000175000017500000000030214623226701011227 0ustar jtnjtn6A318 A When connecting electrolytic capacitors in series: A.Observe the polarity marked on the component B.There is no polarity to observe C.Connect anode to anode D.Connect cathode to cathode share/E6/6A5010000664000175000017500000000041514623226701011226 0ustar jtnjtn6A501 D A shorted grid capacitor in a three-circuit regenerative receiver would: A.Render the receiver mostly or completely inoperative B.Have no noticeable effect C.Some forms of plate detection might occur but with considerably reduced sensitivity and volume D.A & C share/E6/6A2310000664000175000017500000000046714623226701011235 0ustar jtnjtn6A231 A Why is a push-pull audio frequency amplifier preferable to a single-tube stage? A.When compared with a single-tube stage, power output is doubled B.When compared with a single-tube stage, power output is the same C.When compared with a single-tube stage, power output is cut in half D.None of the above share/E6/6A5960000664000175000017500000000071314623226701011245 0ustar jtnjtn6A596 D What must every examination for the code portion of a radiotelegraph license contain? A.Applicants for Commercial Radiotelegraph licenses must be examined using a message format that they are likely to receive aboard ship B.Both a telegraphy sending and a receiving distress signals C.The proper transmission of radiotelegraph distress signals D.All alphabet letters, all numerals, period, comma, question mark, slant mark and prosigns AR, BT, and SK share/E6/6A5490000664000175000017500000000052214623226701011241 0ustar jtnjtn6A549 A During daytime hours, approximately what is the maximum distance in nautical miles from LORAN transmitting stations from which LORAN lines of position can be determined? A.About 700 miles B.During nighttime hours, the maximum distance is increased to about 1800 miles by the use of sky waves C.About 1000 miles D.About 1500 miles share/E6/6A2750000664000175000017500000000035614623226701011242 0ustar jtnjtn6A275 D To maintain a group of storage cells in good operating condition: A.Observe correct charge and discharge rates B.Overcharge about once a month to remove sulfation C.Keep all terminal corrections clean and tight D.All of the above share/E6/6A5380000664000175000017500000000050414623226701011237 0ustar jtnjtn6A538 C What is the function of the balancing capacitor in a direction finder? A.To maximize "antenna effect" and so obtain a sharper null point indication of direction B.To reduce the noise factor in the first IF C.To minimize "antenna effect" and so obtain a sharper null point indication of direction D.None of the above share/E6/6A4600000664000175000017500000000025314623226701011232 0ustar jtnjtn6A460 B The relationship between the antenna current and radiated power of an antenna: A.P= I x I x R B.P= I x I x radiation resistance C.No relationship exists D.P=E x I share/E6/6A3540000664000175000017500000000034614623226701011237 0ustar jtnjtn6A354 B The operation of a dynatron oscillator depends on what? A.The positive emission from the anode B.The secondary emission from the anode C.Cathode being in saturation D.Positive resistance characteristic of the tetrode tube share/E6/6A3570000664000175000017500000000052614623226701011242 0ustar jtnjtn6A357 B What is are the advantages of self excited oscillator and master-oscillator power-amplifier transmitters? A.The master-oscillator has fewer parts than the self-excited and is simpler to construct B.The self-excited oscillator transmitter is simpler to construct and has fewer parts than the masteroscillator C.Either A or B D.Neither share/E6/6A2730000664000175000017500000000036414623226701011237 0ustar jtnjtn6A273 D Distilled water should be added to a lead-acid storage cell: A.To keep the electrolyte 1/4 inch above the to of the plates B.To keep the useful plate area sufficient to maintain the full capacity of the cell C.None of the above D.A & B share/E6/6A1830000664000175000017500000000024114623226701011231 0ustar jtnjtn6A183 A Used to multiply the fundamental frequency by two: A.Frequency doubler B.Harmonic generator with a suitable resonant circuit C.A & B D.None of the above share/E6/6A1760000664000175000017500000000037214623226701011240 0ustar jtnjtn6A176 A Why is a center top usually provided for vacuum tube plate and grid return circuits when and AC filament supply is used? A.To prevent hum voltage from modulating the normal signals B.To allow more filament current C.A & B D.None of the above share/E6/6A3290000664000175000017500000000025314623226701011236 0ustar jtnjtn6A329 B The ____ of a DC motor periodically change the armature coils to maintain one direction of rotation: A.Field coils B.Connector C.Brushes D.Auxiliary speed control share/E6/6A240000664000175000017500000000030114623226701011140 0ustar jtnjtn6A24 C Decibel is: A.The unit used to express the ratio between two sound power levels B.The unit used to express the ratio between two electrical power levels C.Both A & B D.None of the above share/E6/6A1790000664000175000017500000000040314623226701011236 0ustar jtnjtn6A179 C What currents will be indicated by a milliammeter connected between the center top of the filament transformer of a tetrode and negative high voltage? A.Plate current B.Screen grid current C.Combined plate and screen grid currents D.None of the above share/E6/6A2400000664000175000017500000000041514623226701011226 0ustar jtnjtn6A240 B The chief advantage of Class A audio operation is compared to the other classes of audio-frequency amplifiers: A.Hum currents are in phase B.Low distortion of the output signal C.Tendency for regeneration is increased D.Elimination of cathode bypass capacitors share/E6/6A160000664000175000017500000000022114623226701011142 0ustar jtnjtn6A16 B The ratio of current through a conductor to the voltage which produces it is: A.Inductance B.Conductance C.Resistance D.None of the above share/E6/6A460000664000175000017500000000037314623226701011155 0ustar jtnjtn6A46 D Direction of flow of DC electricity in a conductor can be determined by: A.A magnetic compass and the left hand rule B.A magnetic compass and the right hand rule C.Connecting an ammeter with marked polarities in series with the circuit D.A & C share/E6/6A380000664000175000017500000000024514623226701011154 0ustar jtnjtn6A38 A A resistance across which a constant voltage is applied is doubled. What power dissipation will result? A.One half B.One fourth C.Doubled D.None of the above share/E6/6A790000664000175000017500000000024514623226701011161 0ustar jtnjtn6A79 B How many capacitors of 400 volts and 2 microfarad each would be necessary to obtain a combination rated at 1600 volts and 1.5 microfarad? A.10 B.12 C.14 D.16 share/E6/6A920000664000175000017500000000030314623226701011147 0ustar jtnjtn6A92 D Shock excitation into an L-C circuit is the result of: A.A voltage being momentarily introduced B.The capacitor may be charged C.The inductor may have a voltage induced D.All of the above share/E6/6A3270000664000175000017500000000021414623226701011231 0ustar jtnjtn6A327 D A compound-wound DC motor: A.Has constant speed under changing load conditions B.Low starting torque C.High starting torque D.A & B share/E6/6A5150000664000175000017500000000042114623226701011230 0ustar jtnjtn6A515 A The keying circuit of the ships transmitter is disconnected: A.When the auto-alarm antenna switch is placed in the auto-alarm operating position B.When the auto-alarm antenna switch is placed in the auto-alarm off position C.Manually as desired D.None of the above share/E6/6A700000664000175000017500000000047414623226701011154 0ustar jtnjtn6A70 A An 18 ohm and a 15 ohm resistor are connected in parallel; a 36 ohm resistor is connected in series with this combination; a 22 ohm resistor is connected in parallel with this total combination. The total current is 5 A. What current is flowing in the 15 ohm resistor? A.0.908 A B.1.000 A C.1.908 A D.0.809 A share/E6/6A3670000664000175000017500000000046514623226701011245 0ustar jtnjtn6A367 D Three main factors to consider about grid-leak in a vacuum tube transmitter: A.The value of grid leak current and grid leak anode to grid B.The value of grid leak resistance and duration of time the grid current is flowing C.Internal resistance of the tube between the grid and cathode D.Both B and C share/E6/6A530000664000175000017500000000015414623226701011150 0ustar jtnjtn6A53 D What is the ratio of peak to average value of a sine wave? A.1.57 to 1 B.1 to 0.636 C.1 to 1 D.A & B share/E6/6A140000664000175000017500000000010014623226701011134 0ustar jtnjtn6A14 B The unit of conductance is: A.Ohm B.Mho C.Henry D.Ampere share/E6/6A3240000664000175000017500000000031514623226701011230 0ustar jtnjtn6A324 A A shunt-wound DC motor: A.Has a practically constant speed under widely varying load conditions B.Has poor speed regulation under varying load conditions C.High starting torque D.None of the above share/E6/6A5770000664000175000017500000000027214623226701011244 0ustar jtnjtn6A577 B While the vessel is in the open sea, how frequently must the specific gravity of the emergency battery be taken? A.Every 12 hours B.Once daily C.Every 48 hours D.Once every week share/E6/6A2340000664000175000017500000000037214623226701011233 0ustar jtnjtn6A234 D If the coupling capacitor leaked in a resistance-coupled audio frequency amplifier: A.Excessive plate current would result B.A large value of grid current would result C.There would be extreme distortion, and very low gain D.All of the above share/E6/6A4390000664000175000017500000000044014623226701011236 0ustar jtnjtn6A439 D By reducing the physical length of a Hertzian antenna what are the results? A.The resonant frequency will be reduced B.The signal on a nearby frequency will be saturated upon modulation C.The antenna trap is reduced causing cross modulation D.The resonant frequency will increase share/E6/6A2660000664000175000017500000000031214623226701011232 0ustar jtnjtn6A266 A To increase the power output of a storage cell: A.Low internal resistance is desirable B.High internal resistance is desirable C.Low terminal voltage under load is desirable D.None of the above share/E6/6A4750000664000175000017500000000054514623226701011244 0ustar jtnjtn6A475 D Image response may be minimized in a superheterodyne receiver: A.By using one or more tuned RF stages ahead of the mixer B.By choosing a suitable IF (such that the image frequency will fall within the receiver's operating range) C.By choosing a suitable IF (such that the image frequency will fall outside of the receiver's operating range) D.A & C share/E6/6A4430000664000175000017500000000026714623226701011240 0ustar jtnjtn6A443 C What modulation is contained in static and lightning radio waves? A.All odd harmonic frequencies B.All even harmonic frequencies C.Amplitude modulation D.Frequency modulation share/E6/6A5690000664000175000017500000000035514623226701011247 0ustar jtnjtn6A569 C When the auto-alarm bell rings, what should the operator do? A.Proceed immediately to the radio room and press the reset button B.If the bell stops, the operator should listen for further signals C.Both A & B D.None of the above share/E6/6A640000664000175000017500000000024714623226701011155 0ustar jtnjtn6A64 A The minimum power dissipation rating of a resistor of 20,000 ohms across a potential of 500 V should be: A.25 watts B.12.5 watts C.15 watts D.None of the above share/E6/6A3430000664000175000017500000000024314623226701011231 0ustar jtnjtn6A343 D RF interference may be minimized: A.By the use of brush by-pass capacitors B.Low frequency filters C.Shielding of long connecting leads D.All of the above share/E6/6A3260000664000175000017500000000023714623226701011235 0ustar jtnjtn6A326 B This partially counteracts the line voltage and so limits the armature current in a DC motor: A.EMF B.Counter EMF C.Opposition EMF D.None of the above share/E6/6A1960000664000175000017500000000032614623226701011241 0ustar jtnjtn6A196 D When using and storing crystal microphones: A.They should be protected from shock and vibration B.They should be protected from humidity C.They should be protected from high temperatures D.All of the above share/E6/6A370000664000175000017500000000020014623226701011142 0ustar jtnjtn6A37 D Good insulators at radio frequencies are: A.Pyrex, mica B.Isolantite, steatite, polyethylene C.Rubber, porcelain D.A & B share/E6/6A1000000664000175000017500000000044314623226701011222 0ustar jtnjtn6A100 B To double the resonant frequency of a resonant circuit: A.Make C one third of its original value B.Make L and C both half their original values C.Decreasing the value of both L and C in any proportion so that their product will be one-half of the original values D.None of the above share/E6/6A6030000664000175000017500000000053514623226701011234 0ustar jtnjtn6A603 A How often must a radiotelegraph station transmit its call sign when a transmission is maintained for more than 20 minutes in the band 405-525 kHz? A.At 20 minute intervals B.At least every 10 minutes C.At 15 minute intervals unless public correspondence is in progress D.At the beginning and end of each communication with any other station share/E6/6A90000664000175000017500000000016114623226701011067 0ustar jtnjtn6A9 D Amperage may also be known by: A.Electron flow B.Electron drift C.Electric current flow D.All of the above share/E6/6A3390000664000175000017500000000027614623226701011244 0ustar jtnjtn6A339 D What disadvantage is there to a dynamotor? A.Compactness B.Operating efficiency C.It can be operated from batteries D.Its output voltage is dependent on the source voltage stability share/E6/6A5190000664000175000017500000000044314623226701011240 0ustar jtnjtn6A519 C The D'Arsonval type meter consists of: A.A permanent magnet, a movable coil with pointer attached rotating in jewel bearing B.A movable coil with pointer attached rotating in jewel bearings, and two spiral springs (one on each side of the removable coil) C.A & B D.None of the above share/E6/6A5430000664000175000017500000000026114623226701011233 0ustar jtnjtn6A543 C In what part of the RF spectrum do marine radar systems operate? A.In the order of 10,000 MHz or 3000 MHz B.Wavelength of 3 cm or 10 cm C.Both A & B D.None of the above share/E6/6A5120000664000175000017500000000045514623226701011234 0ustar jtnjtn6A512 A If the vacuum tube heater in an approved auto-alarm system burns out: A.A pair of contacts close and energize the bell relay B.A pair on contacts open and energize the ball relay C.A pair of contacts close and de-energize the bell relay D.A pair of contacts open and deenergize the bell relay share/E6/6A3640000664000175000017500000000030714623226701011235 0ustar jtnjtn6A364 A What effect would insufficient radio-frequency excitation have on Class C modulated amplifier output? A.A negative carrier shift B.A positive carrier shift C.Both A and B D.None of the above share/E6/6A960000664000175000017500000000031314623226701011154 0ustar jtnjtn6A96 C Power factor is defined as: A.The ratio between the resistance and the impedance in a circuit B.The ratio between the true power and the apparent power of a circuit C.Both A&B D.None of the above share/E6/6A1920000664000175000017500000000033014623226701011230 0ustar jtnjtn6A192 B Two dissimilar metals joined together and producing a current between them when the junction is heated is: A.A point contact type transistor B.A thermocouple C.A junction contact type transistor D.A solenoid share/E6/6A2290000664000175000017500000000042214623226701011233 0ustar jtnjtn6A229 D Distortion in a Class A amplifier can be caused by: A.Insufficient plate and screen potentials, incorrect grid bias defective rube B.Leaky or shorted input coupling capacitor C.Excessive anokutyde if grid signal, incorrect value of load impedance D.All of the above share/E6/6A3790000664000175000017500000000043714623226701011247 0ustar jtnjtn6A379 A What can be done in a Heising modulation system to obtain 100% modulation? A.Use a series resistor between the amplifier and modulator in the DC plate supply B.Nothing needs to be done C.Use a series capacitor between amplifier and modulator in the DC grid supply D.Both A and C share/E6/6A4920000664000175000017500000000053314623226701011240 0ustar jtnjtn6A492 C In the case of an open secondary winding in a coupling transformer causing no signal in the first AF stage, satisfactory repair could be made by: A.Replacing the transformer B.Disconnecting the secondary winding and changing the coupling system to impedance coupling with a grid resistor and coupling capacitor C.A & B D.None of the above share/E6/6A2820000664000175000017500000000032414623226701011233 0ustar jtnjtn6A282 C What is the effect of low temperature on the operation of a lead-acid storage battery? A.Electrolyte may freeze and split the battery if sg too low B.The capacity is decreased C.A & B D.None of the above share/E6/6A5470000664000175000017500000000052314623226701011240 0ustar jtnjtn6A547 A What is the relationship between a master and a slave station in reference to LORAN navigation systems? A.A master station originates the RF pulse which then travels in all directions and is intercepted by the slave station B.The slave station originates the RF pulse C.There must be at least two slave stations D.All of the above share/E6/6A4940000664000175000017500000000024114623226701011236 0ustar jtnjtn6A494 A Generally used to prevent any undesired frequencies from appearing in the output of a receiver: A.Wave trap B.Wave guide C.Ripple filter D.Tarody screen share/E6/6A3970000664000175000017500000000045114623226701011243 0ustar jtnjtn6A397 A In order of selectivity, the best receivers are: A.Superheterodyne, tuned radio frequency, superregenerative B.Tuned radio-frequency, superheterodyne, superregenerative C.Superregenerative, tuned radio-frequency, superheterodyne D.Tuned radio frequency, superregenerative, superheterodyne share/E6/6A260000664000175000017500000000021014623226701011141 0ustar jtnjtn6A26 D Ohm's law for AC circuits when I = amperes, E = volts, Z = impedance in volts is: A.I = E/Z B.E = IZ C.Z= Z/I D.All of the above share/E6/6A5400000664000175000017500000000042614623226701011233 0ustar jtnjtn6A540 C On shipboard what factors may effect the accuracy of a direction finder after it has been properly installed, calibrated? A.A received wave which has been bent by night effect B.By any changing of the position of nearby metallic objects C.Both A & B D.None of the above share/E6/6A10000664000175000017500000000050314623226701011057 0ustar jtnjtn6A1 A SITOR-ARQ is a common mode of data communications in the maritime service. It is a system based on transmission bursts and acknowledgements. What is the baud, and interval between the burst transmissions: A.100 baud, 240 ms interval B.50 baud, 1000 microsecond interval C.200 baud, 10 ms interval D.None of the above share/E6/6A5330000664000175000017500000000043414623226701011234 0ustar jtnjtn6A533 A What is the reception pattern of a vertical antenna? A.It has minimum radiation or reception vertically B.A vertical Jackson antenna has a pattern which is nondirectional with regard to all compass points C.It has maximum radiation or reception vertically D.None of the above share/E6/6A1210000664000175000017500000000013014623226701011216 0ustar jtnjtn6A121 D Electromagnets are used in: A.loudspeakers B.meters C.motors D.All of the above share/E6/6A1280000664000175000017500000000046414623226701011237 0ustar jtnjtn6A128 A The maximum negative anode voltage with respect to the cathode. It equals the DC voltage at the input to the plus the peak AC voltage applied during the nonconducting portion of the cycle of operation of the tube: A.Maximum inverse plate voltage B.Mutual conductance C.Both A & B D.None of the above share/E6/6A4610000664000175000017500000000017514623226701011236 0ustar jtnjtn6A461 D Iron compound cylinders found in inductances: A.Increase Q B.Increase selectivity C.Increase gain D.All of the above share/E6/6A4090000664000175000017500000000036614623226701011242 0ustar jtnjtn6A409 C What is a self rectified circuit? A.Provides a tone frequency for F3F emissions B.An op-amp circuit that provides a feed-back to the input C.Provides a tone frequency for A-2 emissions D.A self oscillating frequency discriminator circuit share/E6/6A6060000664000175000017500000000073114623226701011235 0ustar jtnjtn6A606 A Who may install, maintain or adjust radiotelephone transmitters which radiate less than 50 watts carrier power? A.Anyone under the immediate supervision and responsibility of a person holding a first of second class radiotelegraph or general radiotelephone operator license B.Only a properly licensed radiotelephone operator C.Any holder of a marine radio operator permit or higher D.Only persons holding an operator certificate containing a ship radar endorsement share/E6/6A4770000664000175000017500000000064514623226701011247 0ustar jtnjtn6A477 D A regenerative receiver's operation is: A.An incoming RF carrier is coupled into the tuned-grid circuit and applied to the grid B.It is then amplified in the usual manner. A controllable portion of the plate signal is coupled back into the grid circuit C.The coupled back signal is in phase with the original signal thus amplifying it and providing a greater output signal in the plate circuit D.All of the above share/E6/6A1380000664000175000017500000000047214623226701011237 0ustar jtnjtn6A138 D Factors which determine bios voltage of a vacuum tube: A.Class of operation, plate supply voltage, permissible distortion B.Grid signal magnitude, permissible plate dissipation, desired amplification factor C.The no-signal plate current desired, the desirability of drawing grid current D.All of the above share/E6/6A5650000664000175000017500000000047414623226701011245 0ustar jtnjtn6A565 A What transmission should precede the transmission of the distress call? A.The distress call, when sent in radiotelegraph on 500 kHz shall as a general rule, be immediately preceded by the auto-alarm signal B.SOS should be sent three times C.The words "MAY DAY" should be sent three times D.None of the above share/E6/6A4970000664000175000017500000000035614623226701011250 0ustar jtnjtn6A497 D Minimizes transfer of harmonic frequencies between two inductively coupled circuits: A.*** B.Induces magnetic shielding between two coils C.Transfers energy between two coils D.None of the above share/E6/6A5420000664000175000017500000000027514623226701011237 0ustar jtnjtn6A542 C Within what frequency band limits do all United States marine radio beacon stations operate? A.From 280 to 385 kHz B.From 162 to 385 kHz C.From 285 to 315 kHz D.From 300 to 465 kHz share/E6/6A4700000664000175000017500000000035214623226701011233 0ustar jtnjtn6A470 A Some superheterodyne receives employ a crystal-controlled oscillator: A.To insure maximum stability of operation B.To reduce noise generated by a conventional oscillator C.Because it require no shielding D.To control feedback share/E6/6A5480000664000175000017500000000035614623226701011245 0ustar jtnjtn6A548 D How can the operator of a LORAN receiver on shipboard identify the transmitting stations that are being received? A.By their pulse recurrence rate B.By reference to their frequency of transmission C.None of the above D.Both A & B share/E6/6A3600000664000175000017500000000022514623226701011230 0ustar jtnjtn6A360 C Which class of amplifier is used in the final amplifier stage for maximum plate efficiency? A.Class A B.Class B C.Class C D.Filtered Class D share/E6/6A2160000664000175000017500000000023714623226701011233 0ustar jtnjtn6A216 D A carbon microphone should not be: A.Jarred while in operation B.Tapped while in operation C.Subjected to violent sound intensities D.All of the above share/E6/6A1940000664000175000017500000000032314623226701011234 0ustar jtnjtn6A194 D Transistors may be compared to a conventional triode vacuum tube functionally: A.Emitter corresponds to the cathode B.Collector corresponds to the plate C.Base corresponds to the grid D.All of the above share/E6/6A3810000664000175000017500000000032314623226701011232 0ustar jtnjtn6A381 A What value of sinusoidal audio power is required to insure 100% modulation when the DC plate input to a modulated Class C amplifier has an efficiency of 60 % , and is 200 W? A.100 W B.50 W C.25 W D.12 W share/E6/6A4440000664000175000017500000000026714623226701011241 0ustar jtnjtn6A444 A The difference between a Hertz and Marconi antenna is: A.The physical length B.The positioning of the capacitor feed traps C.The grounding of RF shielding D.None of the above share/E6/6A2700000664000175000017500000000034114623226701011227 0ustar jtnjtn6A270 D If the polarity is reversed when charging a storage cell: A.No damage in a lead-acid cell unless excessive B.Damage in an Edison-cell C.No damage in an Edison-cell if temperatures below 115 degrees Fahrenheit D.A & C share/E6/6A2460000664000175000017500000000030514623226701011232 0ustar jtnjtn6A246 A The turns ratio of a transformer varies: A.As the square root of the impedance ratio B.As the square of the impedance ratio C.As one-half the impedance ratio D.As twice the impedance ratio share/E6/6A1220000664000175000017500000000044114623226701011224 0ustar jtnjtn6A122 C What will be the effect of a small increase in the number of turns upon the field strength of a single layer solenoid? A.Decrease in field strength if the coil length is increased B.Unchanged if the spacing is reduced to keep the length constant C.Both A and B D.None of the above share/E6/6A180000664000175000017500000000036514623226701011155 0ustar jtnjtn6A18 B The property of a conductor or coil which causes a voltage to be developed across its terminals when the number of magnetic lines of force in the circuit or coil is changed is: A.Capacitance B.Inductance C.Conductance D.None of the above share/E6/6A2030000664000175000017500000000047114623226701011227 0ustar jtnjtn6A203 D Indications of a defective vacuum tube in a transmitter: A.Gas blow within the tube, excessive plate color due to overheating B.No light from the filament, insufficient plate current, reduced output C.Excessive plate current, possible internal arcing, fluctuating plate or grid current D.All of the above share/E6/6A4110000664000175000017500000000040214623226701011222 0ustar jtnjtn6A411 C Keying can be accomplished at various points in a radiotelegraph transmitter. Some are: A.At the primary of power transformer, at filament centertap, at screen grid circuit B.At the control grid circuit, at the DC supply C.A or B D.None of the above share/E6/6A5340000664000175000017500000000052714623226701011240 0ustar jtnjtn6A534 A What is the principal function of a vertical sense antenna associated with a unilateral radio direction finder? A.To determine from which direction the signal is coming B.A vertical sense antenna is not associated with a radio direction finder C.Unilateral radio direction finders are associated with loop antennas D.None of the above share/E6/6A2950000664000175000017500000000046514623226701011245 0ustar jtnjtn6A295 D Your emergency battery has a specific gravity reading of 1.120. What should be done? A.Place the battery on charge at once B.Bring the electrolyte level to about 1/4 inch above the top of the plates C.The battery will be fully charged when the specific gravity reads 1.280 to 1.300 D.All of the above share/E6/6A1070000664000175000017500000000053414623226701011232 0ustar jtnjtn6A107 B Permeability is: A.The magnetic field created by a conductor wound on a laminated core and carrying any electric current B.The ratio of magnetic flux density in a substance to the magnetizing force which produces it C.Polarized molecular alignment in a ferromagnetic material while under the influence of a magnetizing force D.Both A and C share/E6/6A1370000664000175000017500000000076614623226701011244 0ustar jtnjtn6A137 B Characteristics of a vacuum tube operating as a class B amplifier: A.Low plate circuit efficiency, about 25%; practically no grid driving power; plate current flowing for 360 degrees of each cycle; practically no distortion of the output waveshape B.Plate circuit efficiency, about 50-60%; plate current flows slightly more than 180 degrees of each cycle, medium power output C.High efficiency, up to 80%; plate current drawn in bursts; great distortion of output waveshape D.None of the above share/E6/6A2020000664000175000017500000000041514623226701011224 0ustar jtnjtn6A202 A Emergency repairs to an inductance coil having burned or charred insulation: A.Are generally impractical, short of rewinding the coil with good wire B.Are always practical if repaired by coating the bad turns with insulating varnish C.A & B D.None of the above share/E6/6A230000664000175000017500000000011214623226701011137 0ustar jtnjtn6A23 D The unit of capacitance is: A.Farad B.Microfarad C.Coulomb D.A & B share/E6/6A3510000664000175000017500000000035014623226701011227 0ustar jtnjtn6A351 C What conditions must be met before two AC generators can be operated in parallel? A.Output voltages must be equal, frequencies must match B.Phase rotation, and relative phase positions must match C.A & B D.None of the above share/E6/6A5200000664000175000017500000000041514623226701011227 0ustar jtnjtn6A520 B What is the purpose of multiplier resistance used with a voltmeter? A.Multiplier resistance is not used with a voltmeter B.To increase the voltage indicating range of the voltmeter C.To decrease the voltage indicating range of the voltmeter D.None of the above share/E6/6A630000664000175000017500000000025614623226701011154 0ustar jtnjtn6A63 A If a vacuum tube with a filament rating of 0.25 A and 5 V is operated from a 6 volt battery, what value of resistor is necessary? A.4 ohms B.5 ohms C.10 ohms D.2 ohms share/E6/6A2570000664000175000017500000000024214623226701011234 0ustar jtnjtn6A257 D The electrolyte of a lead-acid storage cell: A.Concentrated sulfuric acid B.Dilute sulfuric acid C.Has a specific gravity about 1.3 fully charged D.B & C share/E6/6A5310000664000175000017500000000047614623226701011240 0ustar jtnjtn6A531 A What is the meaning of "zero beat" as used in connection with frequency measuring equipment? A.Zero beat occurs when two frequencies are being mixed together and have no difference frequency between them B.To achieve this the frequencies must be suppressed C.The transmitter must be nulled D.None of the above share/E6/6A2410000664000175000017500000000037614623226701011235 0ustar jtnjtn6A241 D Which is not the principle advantage of transformer coupling compared to resistance coupling in audiofrequency amplifiers? A.Greater gain per stage B.Can provide necessary impedance matching C.A & B D.A transformer is expensive, heavy, and bulky share/E6/6A4810000664000175000017500000000044214623226701011235 0ustar jtnjtn6A481 A A regenerative, oscillating-detector receives directly coupled to an antenna: A.May radiate energy that can beat with other carrier frequencies and cause heterodyning interference in a number of receivers B.Cannot radiate energy C.Radiates extremely high energy D.None of the above share/E6/6A3130000664000175000017500000000034014623226701011224 0ustar jtnjtn6A313 D A 500 Hz AC plate supply, rectified by a full-wave, unfiltered rectifier circuit. What would the emission be? A.A modulated continuous wave of 500 Hz B.A modulated continuous wave of 1000 Hz C.A-2 D.All of the above share/E6/6A3940000664000175000017500000000046414623226701011244 0ustar jtnjtn6A394 D Excessive plate current of an RF amplifier may be caused by: A.Plate-tank circuit off resonance, defective tube B.Excessive loading of plate tank, insufficient bias, parasitic oscillations C.Excessive plate and screen voltage, excessive excitation voltage, improper neutralization D.All of the above share/E6/6A1850000664000175000017500000000031314623226701011233 0ustar jtnjtn6A185 C A quartz crystal in a radio transmitter: A.Is used to provide a high degree of master-oscillator frequency stability B.May be the sole tuned circuit in the oscillator C.A & B D.None of the above share/E6/6A6100000664000175000017500000000055714623226701011236 0ustar jtnjtn6A610 C Where must ship station logs be kept during a voyage? A.They must be secured in the vessel's strongbox for safekeeping B.In the personal custody of the licensed commercial radio operator C.At the principal radiotelephone operating position or radiotelegraph operating room D.All logs are turned over to the ship's master when the radio operator goes off duty share/E6/6A5810000664000175000017500000000026714623226701011243 0ustar jtnjtn6A581 C Explain the use and meaning of the following indicator or prefix "RP" on radiotelegrams: A.Please reply B.Repeat following parts of message C."Reply paid" D.None of the above share/E6/6A2180000664000175000017500000000022314623226701011230 0ustar jtnjtn6A218 A What should the plate current do in the operation of a Class B audio amplifier? A.Fluctuate B.Remain Steady C.Increase D.None of the above share/E6/6A5390000664000175000017500000000045014623226701011240 0ustar jtnjtn6A539 B What is indicated by the bearing obtained from the use of a bilateral radio direction finder? A.A line of direction which passes through two stations B.A line of direction which passes through the originating station C.A line of direction can read in either direction D.None of the above share/E6/6A5620000664000175000017500000000044414623226701011237 0ustar jtnjtn6A562 B What time system shell be used in making log entries with respect to the observance of the international silent period? A.Zulu time according to the twelve hour system B.Greenwich Mean Time according to the 24 hour system C.Zulu time according to the 12 hour time D.None of the above share/E6/6A1680000664000175000017500000000021014623226701011230 0ustar jtnjtn6A168 A A tuned circuit made up of inductance and capacitance is: A.An oscillator B.A neutralizer C.Voltage divider D.None of the above share/E6/6A4140000664000175000017500000000032214623226701011226 0ustar jtnjtn6A414 C What is one of the advantages frequency-shift keying has over "on-off" keying? A.Increase of transmitter bandwidth B.Decrease of signal-to-noise ratio C.Increase of signal-to-noise ratio D.Both A and C share/E6/6A5240000664000175000017500000000036414623226701011236 0ustar jtnjtn6A524 C How may the power in a AC circuit be determined? A.The power in an AC circuit may be determined by a wattmeter B.By multiplying the product of the circuit voltage and current by the power factor C.Both answers A & B D.None of the above share/E6/6A4220000664000175000017500000000024214623226701011226 0ustar jtnjtn6A422 D A defective vacuum tube in a transmitter may be indicated by: A.Gas glow within the tube B.No light from the filament C.Reduced output D.All of the above share/E6/6A820000664000175000017500000000035114623226701011151 0ustar jtnjtn6A82 C The formula for determining the resonant frequency of a circuit when the inductance and capacitance are known is: A.f = 1/(2 pi times the square root of LC) B.f = 0.159/(the square root of LC) C.Both A & B D.None of the above share/E6/6A5270000664000175000017500000000022414623226701011234 0ustar jtnjtn6A527 C What types of meters may be used to measure RF currents? A.The hot wire ammeter B.The thermocouple ammeter C.Both A & B D.None of the above share/E6/6A1690000664000175000017500000000030714623226701011240 0ustar jtnjtn6A169 B Some radio-frequency amplifiers must be neutralized: A.To maintain linear operation B.To prevent sustained oscillations from occurring in the amplifier C.Sustain feedback D.None of the above share/E6/6A1100000664000175000017500000000037514623226701011227 0ustar jtnjtn6A110 B If there is no resistance in either leg of a circuit with an inductance of 5 henrys in parallel with a capacitance of 1 microfarad, what is the equivalent impedance of the parallel network circuit? A.Zero B.Infinite C.Median D.None of the above share/E6/6A5290000664000175000017500000000036714623226701011246 0ustar jtnjtn6A529 A By what factor must the voltage of an ac circuit, as indicated on the scale of an AC voltmeter, be multiplied to obtain the average voltage value? A.By the factor of 0.9 B.By the factor of 9.0 C.By the factor of A.0 D.By the factor of B.0 share/E6/6A1330000664000175000017500000000037014623226701011227 0ustar jtnjtn6A133 C In what types of circuits do beam power vacuum tubes find application? A.As audio amplifier in the output and power stages of circuits having low to moderately high output ratings B.As an RF power amplifier C.Both A & B D.None of the above share/E6/6A1250000664000175000017500000000024314623226701011227 0ustar jtnjtn6A125 B A tube similar to a triode with the addition of a spirally wound screen grid between the plate and control grid is a: A.Diode B.Tetrode C.Pentode D.Triode share/E6/6A1200000664000175000017500000000027614623226701011230 0ustar jtnjtn6A120 A Adding an iron core to an air-core inductance: A.Increases the inductance B.Decreases the inductance C.Does not affect the inductance D.Causes parasitic oscillations in the inductor share/E6/6A2420000664000175000017500000000021114623226701011222 0ustar jtnjtn6A242 D Efficiency of a power transformer is determined by: A.Eddy current losses B.Hysteresis losses C.Copper losses D.All of the above share/E6/6A1630000664000175000017500000000025314623226701011232 0ustar jtnjtn6A163 A Lack of requirement for neutralizing, except at ultra high frequencies, is an advantage of a tetrode over ____: A.A Triode B.A Pentode C.A & B D.None of the above share/E6/6A1770000664000175000017500000000054614623226701011244 0ustar jtnjtn6A177 D How would you determine the cathode-bias resistance necessary to provide correct grid bias for an amplifier? A.Bias equals the IR drop across the cathode B.Bias is found by dividing the desired DC bias voltage by the total no-signal cathode current C.For a tetrode or pentode, the screen current must be added to the plate current D.All of the above share/E6/6A1930000664000175000017500000000022414623226701011233 0ustar jtnjtn6A193 D Waveguides: A.A type of transmission line B.Hollow rectangular or circular pipe C.Fine application as transmission lines D.All of the above share/E6/6A1420000664000175000017500000000014414623226701011226 0ustar jtnjtn6A142 A The approximate efficiency of a Class A vacuum tube amplifier: A.20%-30% B.60% C.85% D.100% share/E6/6A390000664000175000017500000000037714623226701011163 0ustar jtnjtn6A39 D The needle of a magnetic compass when placed within a coil carrying an electric current: A.Will tend to become parallel with the axis of the coil B.Will point to the north pole end of the coil C.Will point to the south pole end of the coil D.A & B share/E6/6A1020000664000175000017500000000033514623226701011224 0ustar jtnjtn6A102 C If L and C in a parallel resonant circuit resonants at 1000 kHz are so varied that their product remains constant, what will be the resulting resonant frequency? A.10,000 kHz B.100 kHz C.1 MHz D.None of the above share/E6/6A5870000664000175000017500000000120414623226701011241 0ustar jtnjtn6A587 C Under what condition may an eligible person hold a radiotelegraph operator's license and a Marine Radio Operator permit? A.When the planned telegraphy operation will occur aboard ship in international waters and another vessel is licensed for operation on the inland waterways B.When the commercial radio operator is legally eligible for both foreign and domestic employment C.No person may hold any class of radiotelegraph operator's certificate and a Marine Radio Operator Permit D.Commercial radiotelegraphers are required to also hold a Marine Radio Operator Permit when the operation occurs on vessels of less than 1600 gross tons share/E6/6A4020000664000175000017500000000055514623226701011233 0ustar jtnjtn6A402 A What is a method of link coupling between two R-F amplifier stages? A.The coupling together of two circuits which may be separated by a relatively large distance with lowimpedance B.The coupling together of two circuits which may be separated by a relatively short distance C.Isolating one R-F amplifier stage by using a closed loop coupler D.Either B or C share/E6/6A2390000664000175000017500000000055514623226701011243 0ustar jtnjtn6A239 A An audio-transformer is seldom used as the output device in the plate circuit of a tetrode audio-amplifier stage: A.Because an ordinary transformer cannot supply enough impedance to the plate circuit B.Because an ordinary transformer supplies too much impedance to the plate circuit C.Because an ordinary transformer would be too costly D.None of the above share/E6/6A1260000664000175000017500000000042314623226701011230 0ustar jtnjtn6A126 A Theoretical gain of a tube. The ratio of a small change in plate voltage to give a certain small change in plate current to a change in grid which would cause the same current: A.Amplification factor B.Power factor C.Maximum inverse plate voltage D.None of the above share/E6/6A170000664000175000017500000000030114623226701011142 0ustar jtnjtn6A17 A The product of the number of turns and the current in amperes used to describe relative magnitude is: A.Ampere turns B.Joules per second C.Push-pull convergence D.Dissipation collection share/E6/6A4380000664000175000017500000000050414623226701011236 0ustar jtnjtn6A438 B To operate on a lower resonant frequency on an available Marconi antenna which would be the correct procedure? A.Add a capacitor in series with the antenna B.Add an inductor in series with the antenna C.Add a screen grid bypass capacitor parallel to the antenna trap D.Add an RF choke across the feed line to ground share/E6/6A2230000664000175000017500000000025114623226701011225 0ustar jtnjtn6A223 D A "choke" coil: A.Offers a relatively high impedance to AC currents B.Has a high "Q" (low RF losses) C.Offers a low resistance to DC currents D.All of the above share/E6/6A2890000664000175000017500000000032614623226701011244 0ustar jtnjtn6A289 D Abnormally low input power terminal voltage of a lifeboat radiotelegraph transmitter while in operation could be caused by: A.Reversed polarity B.Excessive overload C.A partially discharged battery D.B & C share/E6/6A410000664000175000017500000000022014623226701011137 0ustar jtnjtn6A41 A The sum of all voltage drops around a simple DC circuit, including the source, is: A.Zero B.Insignificant C.Infinite D.None of the above share/E6/6A2540000664000175000017500000000014314623226701011231 0ustar jtnjtn6A254 A Spare "B" batteries should be stored: A.In a dry place B.In a hot place C.Anywhere D.A & C share/E6/6A2690000664000175000017500000000017014623226701011237 0ustar jtnjtn6A269 D Sulfation: A.Reduces terminal voltage B.Increases internal resistance C.Reduces power output D.All of the above share/E6/6A330000664000175000017500000000034114623226701011144 0ustar jtnjtn6A33 A The prefix " meg " means: A.Multiply by 1,000,000 whatever quantity follows B.Multiply by 100,000 whatever quantity follows C.Multiply by 1,000 whatever quantity follows D.Divide by 1,000,000 whatever quantity follows share/E6/6A3230000664000175000017500000000055014623226701011230 0ustar jtnjtn6A323 D The power transformer and rectifier of a radio receiver are designed to supply a plate voltage of 250 V when operating from a 110 V 60 Hz supply, if the transformer is connected to 110 VDC what will happen? A.The secondary would burn out B.The primary would overheat and burn out C.The circuit breaker would open to protect the circuit D.Either A or B share/E6/6A300000664000175000017500000000027714623226701011151 0ustar jtnjtn6A30 A The prefix " kilo " means: A.To multiply by 1000 whatever quantity follows B.To divide by 1000 whatever quantity follows C.To add 1000 to whatever quantity follows D.None of the above share/E6/6A2680000664000175000017500000000024214623226701011236 0ustar jtnjtn6A268 C The charge of a lead-acid storage cell: A.May be determined by hydrometer readings B.By measuring voltage under a heavy load C.A or B D.None of the above share/E6/6A2240000664000175000017500000000040214623226701011224 0ustar jtnjtn6A224 D Why is correct grid bias necessary for audio frequency amplifier? A.To minimize distortion B.To set the operating conditions for determining the class of amplifications C.So as not to exceed the rated plate dissipation of the tube D.All of the above share/E6/6A5180000664000175000017500000000022314623226701011233 0ustar jtnjtn6A518 A A ____ provides a very high degree of selectivity in a receiver: A.Crystal filter B.Low pass filter C.Bleeder resistor D.By-pass capacitor share/E6/6A30000664000175000017500000000073014623226701011063 0ustar jtnjtn6A3 A 2182 kHz is the international radiotelephone distress frequency. It is also used for a calling channel. The authorized mode of emission is H3E (single-sideband full carrier). A3E (double-sideband full carrier) is only authorized for equipment: A.Solely intended for distress and safety communications B.Built and sold after the GMDSS implementation date C.Built and sold before the GMDSS implementation date D.Solely intended for ship-to-shore public correspondence share/E6/6A5540000664000175000017500000000035014623226701011234 0ustar jtnjtn6A554 D What is the definition of a "station open to public service"? A.A station which handles public correspondence B.Paid or toll messages C.Radiotelephone facilities for the general public at prescribed rates D.All of the above share/E6/6A4080000664000175000017500000000033514623226701011235 0ustar jtnjtn6A408 D What is meant by split tuning? A.An effect resulting from excessive coupling between two tuned circuits which are at the same frequency B.Also known as double hump C.Also known as critical coupling D.Both A and B share/E6/6A5040000664000175000017500000000036014623226701011230 0ustar jtnjtn6A504 A The auto alarm receiver is tuned to ____ but is able to respond to signals from ____ to ____ (+/- 12.5 kHz) A.500 kHz, 487.5 kHz, 512.5 kHz B.500 kHz, 485.0 kHz, 515 kHz C.500 kHz, 490.00 kHz, 510 kHz D.500 kHz, 470.00 kHz, 530 kHz share/E6/6A5680000664000175000017500000000026214623226701011243 0ustar jtnjtn6A568 A For how long must mobile stations listen after hearing an urgency signal? A.For at least 5 minutes B.For at least 30 minutes C.For at least 3 minutes D.None of the above share/E6/6A2070000664000175000017500000000027514623226701011235 0ustar jtnjtn6A207 A Given a solenoid with a resistance of 5 ohms and 0.34 through the winding when 1108 at 60 Hz is applied. What is the impedance? A.367 ohms B.350 ohms C.360 ohms D.None of the above share/E6/6A1060000664000175000017500000000030414623226701011224 0ustar jtnjtn6A106 D How can you correct power factor in an electrical circuit? A.Inductance is used to correct a leading angle B.Capacitance is used to correct a lagging angle C.Neither A or B D.Both A and B share/E6/6A2110000664000175000017500000000014414623226701011223 0ustar jtnjtn6A211 D Materials frequently used for relay contacts: A.Tungsten B.Silver C.Gold D.All of the above share/E6/6A5710000664000175000017500000000027514623226701011241 0ustar jtnjtn6A571 C While a vessel is at sea, how frequently must the auto-alarm be tested? A.At least once ever 6 hours B.At least once ever 12 hours C.At least once ever 24 hours D.None of the above share/E6/6A3690000664000175000017500000000052114623226701011240 0ustar jtnjtn6A369 B What is the purpose of a speech amplifier in connection with the modulator of a transmitter? A.Used to raise the gain of signal after filtering B.To raise the signal-to-noise ratio and the output voltage of microphones C.To feed the mixer where signal-to-noise ratio is raised D.To pre-amp the weaker of the two signals received share/E6/6A220000664000175000017500000000013114623226701011137 0ustar jtnjtn6A22 A The unit of AC impedance in a circuit is: A.Ohm B.Mho C.Joule D.None of the above share/E6/6A3530000664000175000017500000000043314623226701011233 0ustar jtnjtn6A353 C What effect will high coupling between the plate and grid circuits of a quartz-crystal oscillator have? A.The grid to plate capacitance will be destroyed B.The oscillation will be higher because of higher Q C.Overheating of the crystal and possible breakage D.Overmodulation share/E6/6A3000000664000175000017500000000027514623226701011227 0ustar jtnjtn6A300 B How would you connect a group of similar cells in a storage battery to obtain the maximum no-bond output voltage? A.In parallel B.In series C.In series/parallel D.None of the above share/E6/6A3710000664000175000017500000000025014623226701011230 0ustar jtnjtn6A371 D The bias of a grid-modulated R-F stage is adjusted: A.Below cut-off frequency B.At grid saturation C.At bias D.1 and half to 3 times plate current cutoff value share/E6/6A3200000664000175000017500000000017314623226701011226 0ustar jtnjtn6A320 A Voltage regulation is ____ with a high resistance choke: A.Made worse B.Made better C.The same D.None of the above share/E6/6A1670000664000175000017500000000032014623226701011231 0ustar jtnjtn6A167 D Low plate current may be caused by: A.Low filament emission and voltage B.Excessive bias value, shorted screen by-pass capacitor C.Open grid circuit, low screen grid supply voltage D.All of the above share/E6/6A4840000664000175000017500000000044314623226701011241 0ustar jtnjtn6A484 D Noisy operation of a regenerative, 3-circuit receiver with two stages of AF amplification may be caused by: A.Defective tubes, poor connections B.Defective audio transformers C.Defective grid resistance of grid-capacitor, or defective elements in the power supply D.All of the above share/E6/6A1570000664000175000017500000000024014623226701011231 0ustar jtnjtn6A157 D The gain of a triode audio amplifier is a function of: A.Tube transconduction B.Plate load impedance C.Transformer step-up (if used) D.All of the above share/E6/6A5440000664000175000017500000000040314623226701011232 0ustar jtnjtn6A544 B Approximately at what speed does the antenna of a navigational radar rotate? A.At speeds ranging from about 6 to 19 RPM B.At speeds ranging from about 6 to 15 RPM C.At speeds ranging from about 15 to 30 RPM D.At speeds ranging from about 20 to 40 RPM share/E6/6A2010000664000175000017500000000040414623226701011221 0ustar jtnjtn6A201 D Permanent magnets used in head telephones: A.Place the diaphragms under tension so that the sensitivity of the telephones will be increased B.Improve the frequency response C.Prevents production of second harmonics in the telephones D.All of the above share/E6/6A2520000664000175000017500000000036414623226701011234 0ustar jtnjtn6A252 D "A", "B", and "C" batteries are alike, but specifically constructed for a particular function. Explain: A."B" battery is for plate and screen power B."C" battery for grid bias voltage C."A" battery for filament power D.All of the above share/E6/6A3930000664000175000017500000000075214623226701011243 0ustar jtnjtn6A393 A A transmitter has a master-oscillator, intermediate amplifier, and final amplifier. In what order should the circuit be adjusted in putting the transmitter in operation? A.Master-oscillator, intermediate amplifier, final amplifier, antenna circuit B.Antenna circuit, master-oscillator, intermediate amplifier, final amplifier C.Final amplifier, antenna circuit, master-oscillator, intermediate amplifier D.Master-oscillator, intermediate amplifier, antenna circuit, final amplifier share/E6/6A3220000664000175000017500000000016114623226701011225 0ustar jtnjtn6A322 A The most common values of chokes range from: A.5 H to 30 H B.30 H-100 H C.1 H to 100 H D.100 H to 1000 H share/E6/6A4420000664000175000017500000000070314623226701011232 0ustar jtnjtn6A442 D A vertical loop antenna has a: A.Omni-directional pattern which is maximum in the directions of the plane of the loop, and minimum in the directions broadside to the loop B.Non-directional with regard to compass points C.Has minimum radiation or reception in the direction of the ends of the antenna D.Has a bi-directional pattern which is maximum in the direction of the plane of the loop, and minimum in the directions broadside to the loop share/E6/6A3730000664000175000017500000000020214623226701011227 0ustar jtnjtn6A373 B Modulation occurring in an RF stage other than the final power amplifier: A.High level B.Low level C.Pre-emphasis D.Plate share/E6/6A320000664000175000017500000000025214623226701011144 0ustar jtnjtn6A32 A The factor by which the product of volts and amperes must be multiplied to obtain true power is: A.Power factor B.Apparent power C.Phase angle D.None of the above share/E6/6A5580000664000175000017500000000055514623226701011247 0ustar jtnjtn6A558 B Are there any age requirements that a person must meet before he can be issued a radiotelegraph operator license? A.At least 18 years of age for a second class license B.At least 21 years of age for a first class license C.Persons under 21 now holding a radiotelegraph first class license may renew same without regard to age requirement D.All of the above share/E6/6A110000664000175000017500000000023614623226701011143 0ustar jtnjtn6A11 D An electrical potential may be generated by: A.Varying a magnetic field through a circuit B.Chemical action C.Photo-electric action D.All of the above share/E6/6A3100000664000175000017500000000033014623226701011220 0ustar jtnjtn6A310 A What is the maximum allowable secondary voltage of a transformer used as a center-tapped full-wave rectifier with tubes having a peak inverse voltage rating of 10,000 V? A.7070 V B.14140 V C.10000 V D.5000 V share/E6/6A4880000664000175000017500000000046314623226701011247 0ustar jtnjtn6A488 C To adjust a regenerative receiver for maximum sensitivity: A.The station is tuned in with the receiver in the oscillating condition B.Slowly back the regeneration control off until the receiver just breaks out of oscillation and is also below the fringe howl point C.First A then B D.First B then A share/E6/6A5260000664000175000017500000000055414623226701011241 0ustar jtnjtn6A526 B Does an AC ammeter indicate peak, average, or effective values of current? A.The conventional AC ammeter is calibrated to indicate effective (TRM) values of current B.The conventional AC ammeter is calibrated to indicate effective (RMS) values of current C.An AC ammeter indicates peak values of current D.An AC ammeter indicates average values of current share/E6/6A3090000664000175000017500000000032614623226701011235 0ustar jtnjtn6A309 A A capacitor is sometimes placed in series with the primary of a power transformer: A.To improve the power factor B.To improve output voltage regulation C.To rectify the primary windings D.None of the above share/E6/6A5130000664000175000017500000000030114623226701011223 0ustar jtnjtn6A513 A Unused portions of inductances in receivers are ____ to reduce any losses that might occur in these unused windings: A.Shorted B.Removed from the circuit C.Insulated D.Straightened out share/E6/6A1440000664000175000017500000000014414623226701011230 0ustar jtnjtn6A144 C The approximate efficiency of a Class C vacuum tube amplifier: A.20%-30% B.60% C.85% D.100% share/E6/6A5800000664000175000017500000000023314623226701011233 0ustar jtnjtn6A580 D You intercept "CQ CQ WSV TFC"; what does this mean? A.General call to all stations B.Call letter of a coastal station C.Traffic D.All of the above share/E6/6A2770000664000175000017500000000023214623226701011235 0ustar jtnjtn6A277 D What may cause sulfation of a lead-acid cell? A.It is a normal process B.Overdischarging C.Local action with improper charging D.All of the above share/E6/6A5550000664000175000017500000000041514623226701011237 0ustar jtnjtn6A555 C In the transmission of the international Morse code, what are the relative time lengths of dashes, dots? A.Dashes are about four times as long as dots B.Dots are about half the length of dashes C.Dashes are about three times as long as dots D.None of the above share/E6/6A2590000664000175000017500000000031714623226701011241 0ustar jtnjtn6A259 B The positive plate of a lead-acid storage cell: A.Is composed of pure spongy lead B.Is composed of lead peroxide C.Is composed of a compound of pure spongy lead and lead peroxide D.None of the above share/E6/6A1490000664000175000017500000000020014623226701011226 0ustar jtnjtn6A149 A The presence of gas within a tube is indicated: A.By a blue glow B.By a red glow C.By a yellow glow D.None of the above share/E6/6A600000664000175000017500000000017214623226701011146 0ustar jtnjtn6A60 A Two 10 W, 500 ohm resistors in parallel will dissipate how many watts? A.20 watts B.10 watts C.30 watts D.40 watts share/E6/6A2740000664000175000017500000000034014623226701011232 0ustar jtnjtn6A274 D Local action in a lead-acid storage cell: A.Causes a slow discharge in the cell B.Forms a very hard sulfate on the plates C.May be reduced by trickle charging when the battery is not in actual use D.All of the above share/E6/6A5670000664000175000017500000000041714623226701011244 0ustar jtnjtn6A567 A During what periods must a distress message be repeated following the initial transmission? A.Until an answer is received, especially during the silent periods B.Must repeated every 15 minutes C.Must be repeated every 5 minutes D.Must be repeated every 3 minutes share/E6/6A5510000664000175000017500000000042214623226701011231 0ustar jtnjtn6A551 D What precautions should an operator or serviceman observe when working with cathode-ray tubes? A.The tube must not strike against any hard surface B.The tube might implode C.Safety goggles and gloves should be worn when handling cathode-ray tubes D.All of the above share/E6/6A5060000664000175000017500000000030714623226701011233 0ustar jtnjtn6A506 D The determining factor of the setting of the sensitivity control of an auto-alarm receiver: A.Prevailing static at a given time B.Radio interference at a given time C.Signal strength D.A & B share/E6/6A5250000664000175000017500000000025114623226701011232 0ustar jtnjtn6A525 B The product of the readings of an AC voltmeter and ammeter in an AC circuit is called what? A.Reverse power B.Apparent power C.Current power D.None of the above share/E6/6A1110000664000175000017500000000030314623226701011217 0ustar jtnjtn6A111 C What is the total impedance of a series AC circuit having a resistance of 6 ohms, an inductive reactance of 17 ohms, and zero capacitive reactance? A.15 ohms B.27 ohms C.18 ohms D.5 ohms share/E6/6A40000664000175000017500000000055514623226701011071 0ustar jtnjtn6A4 D Ship's power is generated as 3-phase and is ungrounded. On a delta-wound transformer with 120 VAC line-to-line secondary, what is the voltmeter reading from line to ground: A.Approx 67 volts for a normal balanced system with no faults B.0 VAC for a system with that phase faulted to ground C.120 VAC when another phase is faulted to ground D.Any of the above share/E6/6A3490000664000175000017500000000025014623226701011235 0ustar jtnjtn6A349 B What is the line current of a 7 HP motor operating on 120 V at full load, a power factor of 0.8, and 95% efficiency? A.56 A B.57.2 A C.58 A D.None of the above share/E6/6A4260000664000175000017500000000032214623226701011231 0ustar jtnjtn6A426 A In a self excited oscillator, a swinging antenna: A.Will cause serious frequency instability B.Will cause no noticeable frequency instability C.May cause minor frequency instability D.None of the above share/E6/6A1810000664000175000017500000000022314623226701011227 0ustar jtnjtn6A181 D Materials which can be used as crystal detectors: A.Silicon, galena B.Carborundum, iron pyrites C.Silicon, iron pyrites D.All of the above share/E6/6A760000664000175000017500000000057414623226701011163 0ustar jtnjtn6A76 D The voltage drop across an individual capacitor of a group of capacitors connected in series across an AC source is: A.Inversely proportional to the ratio of the capacitance of the capacitor being considered B.Inversely proportional to the total capacitance of the combination C.Directly proportional to the applied voltage across the series combination D.All of the above share/E6/6A2300000664000175000017500000000036214623226701011226 0ustar jtnjtn6A230 D Vacuum tubes operating as Class A amplifiers may be used as: A.Audio power amplifiers, audio voltage amplifiers, microphones amplifiers, line amplifiers B.Oscilloscope amplifiers, modulators C.Phonograph amplifiers D.All of the above share/E6/6A2620000664000175000017500000000022614623226701011232 0ustar jtnjtn6A262 B The positive plate of an Edison-type storage cell is: A.Finely powdered pure iron B.Green oxide of nickel C.Lithium oxide D.None of the above share/E6/6A4950000664000175000017500000000033514623226701011243 0ustar jtnjtn6A495 C By-pass capacitors across the cathode-bias resistors of an RF amplifier: A.Prevent variations of bias during excitation of the amplifier B.Results in better gain of the amplifier stage C.A & B D.None of the above share/E6/6A5560000664000175000017500000000041614623226701011241 0ustar jtnjtn6A556 C Why is the clock on a compulsorily equipped ship radiotelegraph station required to have a sweep second hand? A.To be able to accurately time the spaces and dashes of the auto-alarm system B.To accurately time the silent periods C.Both A & B D.None of the above share/E6/6A4670000664000175000017500000000026614623226701011245 0ustar jtnjtn6A467 A An incoming signal causing image interference is ____ the IF above or below the frequency to which the receiver is tuned: A.Twice B.Three times C.Half of D.Three quarters of share/E6/6A60000664000175000017500000000067614623226701011077 0ustar jtnjtn6A6 B Vertical shipboard antennas for use in the MF band (410-525 kHz) are often fitted with top-hat loading sections. What is the purpose of these structures? A.Provides aerodynamic compensation for stress during high winds B.Permits a physically short antenna to appear electrically longer C.Improves the near-field radiated pattern at the expense of the far-field pattern D.Prevents salt build-up on antennas from shunting RF energy to ground share/E6/6A750000664000175000017500000000027514623226701011160 0ustar jtnjtn6A75 C A capacitor's charge is stored: A.Upon the inner surface of the capacitor plates B.As an electrostatic field which exists in the space between the plates C.A & B D.None of the above share/E6/6A4510000664000175000017500000000035214623226701011232 0ustar jtnjtn6A451 D Harmonic radiation is: A.Radiation occurring on frequencies that are whole multiples of the original frequency B.Is always higher than the fundamental frequency C.Reduced by proper tuning of the transmitter D.All of the above share/E6/6A5230000664000175000017500000000056114623226701011234 0ustar jtnjtn6A523 C Why are copper oxide rectifiers, associated with DC voltmeters to measure AC, unsuitable for the measurement of voltages at radio frequencies? A.Because of the relatively low shunt capacitance of the copper oxide rectifier B.The AC & DC voltages will read low C.Because of the relatively large shunt capacitance of the copper oxide rectifier D.All of the above share/E6/6A5890000664000175000017500000000100014623226701011235 0ustar jtnjtn6A589 A How does an eligible Second Class Radiotelegraph Operator upgrade his license to First Class? A.By submitting the necessary Proof-of-Passing Certificates (PPC) from a COLEM along with the required fee and Form 756 to the FCC B.By fulfilling the Six Months Service Endorsement requirement C.By presenting a one year radiotelegraph experience certification to a commercial radio operator examination manager D.By complying with the ITU Provision "D" concerning telegraphy operation in the Maritime Service share/E6/6A3360000664000175000017500000000052714623226701011240 0ustar jtnjtn6A336 A When increased output is desired from a motor-generator, what is the usual procedure? A.Decrease the resistance after rheostat in series with the generator field B.Increase the resistance of the rheostat in series with the generator field C.Output cannot be easily increased D.Shut down the motor-generator and restart under full load share/E6/6A620000664000175000017500000000037214623226701011152 0ustar jtnjtn6A62 B If the voltage to a circuit is doubled and the resistance is increased to three times the original value, what will be the final current? A.1/3 the original current B.2/3 the original current C.3 times the original current D.None of the above share/E6/6A5090000664000175000017500000000040214623226701011232 0ustar jtnjtn6A509 D An open filament on an auto-alarm with a linear detector and an electronic selector will: A.De-energize the restore relay K-105 B.K105 applies voltage to K-100, time delay relay C.K106 causes the bell to ring after about 2 minutes D.All of the above share/E6/6A5750000664000175000017500000000047414623226701011246 0ustar jtnjtn6A575 C With what type(s) of emission and upon what frequency should a transmitter be adjusted to transmit a distress call? A.The distress wave of 600 kHz and type C emission B.The distress wave of 400 kHz and type C emission C.The international distress wave of 500 kHz / type A-2 OR B emission D.None of the above share/E6/6A4740000664000175000017500000000025714623226701011243 0ustar jtnjtn6A474 A What is the IF of a superheterodyne receiver receiving on 1000 kHz and the mixing oscillator is tuned to 1500 kHz? A.500 kHz B.2500 kHz C.2000 kHz D.None of the above share/E6/6A3860000664000175000017500000000026614623226701011245 0ustar jtnjtn6A386 A The total bandwidth of a transmitter using A-2 emission with a modulating frequency of 800 Hz and a carrier frequency of 500 kHz is: A.1600 Hz B.1.6 kHz C.800 kHz D.1000 kHz share/E6/6A1230000664000175000017500000000032514623226701011226 0ustar jtnjtn6A123 C Can a transformer be used with direct current? A.In general, no B.If the DC current is periodically interrupted it would be possible to use an original DC voltage source C.Both A and B D.None of the above share/E6/6A290000664000175000017500000000023014623226701011146 0ustar jtnjtn6A29 A The formula for finding power in a DC circuit when current and voltage are known: A.P = EI B.P = ( I squared ) R C.PF = W/IE D.None of the above share/E6/6A5860000664000175000017500000000021214623226701011236 0ustar jtnjtn6A586 B In what city is the major telecommunication center of the United States located? A.Houston B.New York City C.Washington D.Chicago share/E6/6A2650000664000175000017500000000014414623226701011234 0ustar jtnjtn6A265 C The average fully charged voltage of a lead-acid cell is: A.1.0 V B.1.56 V C.2.06 V D.2.5 V share/E6/6A5640000664000175000017500000000047714623226701011247 0ustar jtnjtn6A564 C Describe how a distress call should be made: A.The distress call should be made three times B.SOS should be called twice C.The distress call shall include the distress signal transmitted three times, the word DE, and the call signal of the mobile station in distress transmitted three times D.None of the above share/E6/6A3550000664000175000017500000000040614623226701011235 0ustar jtnjtn6A355 A To provide additional feedback voltage in a crystal oscillator what is sometimes needed? A.An additional plate grid feedback capacitor B.Adding a coupling circuit in series with the plate resistors C.An astable multivibrator D.A monostable multivibrator share/E6/6A3470000664000175000017500000000022214623226701011232 0ustar jtnjtn6A347 D The speed of an induction motor is determined: A.By the number of pairs of poles B.By the line frequency C.By the load D.All of the above share/E6/6A990000664000175000017500000000030614623226701011161 0ustar jtnjtn6A99 D The velocity of propagation of radio frequency waves in free space is: A.300,000 meters / second B.186,284 miles / second C.The same as the velocity of light in free space D.All of the above share/E6/6A2440000664000175000017500000000024114623226701011227 0ustar jtnjtn6A244 A A transformer has a primary voltage of 100, primary turns = 200, and secondary turns = 40. What is the secondary voltage? A.20 V B.240 V C.140 V D.340 V share/E6/6A3120000664000175000017500000000032014623226701011221 0ustar jtnjtn6A312 D If a 500 Hz transformer is connected to a 60 Hz source of the same voltage: A.The primary would draw excessive current B.The transformer would overheat C.The primary might burn out D.All of the above share/E6/6A2270000664000175000017500000000044414623226701011235 0ustar jtnjtn6A227 D What is the main advantage obtained by using two triodes in push-pull in a Class a audio frequency amplifier? A.Increased power output B.Cancellation of even harmonic distortion in the output C.Elimination of DC saturation, elimination of cathode by-pass capacitor D.All of the above share/E6/6A3660000664000175000017500000000037114623226701011240 0ustar jtnjtn6A366 D Two effects of over-excitation of a Class B amplifier grid circuit are: A.Increased plate efficiency, decreased power output B.Decreased plate efficiency, excessive grid current C.Excessive plate current, excessive distortion D.Both B and C share/E6/6A360000664000175000017500000000031214623226701011145 0ustar jtnjtn6A36 B Name four conducting materials in order of their conductivity. A.Gold, silver, copper, platinum B.Silver, gold, zinc, platinum C.Silver, copper, zinc, aluminum D.Aluminum, zinc, copper, platinum share/E6/6A1270000664000175000017500000000021214623226701011225 0ustar jtnjtn6A127 D Effectiveness of the grid in causing changes of plate current: A.Transconductance B.Mutual conductance C.Plate resistance D.A & B share/E6/6A3140000664000175000017500000000056314623226701011234 0ustar jtnjtn6A314 A The purpose of an air gap in a filter choke coil core. Which is the incorrect answer? A.To decrease the effective inductance for the AC component of current by increasing the DC saturation B.To increase the effective inductance for the AC component of current by decreasing the DC saturation C.The inductance of the coil in general's decreased D.All of the above share/E6/6A1430000664000175000017500000000014414623226701011227 0ustar jtnjtn6A143 B The approximate efficiency of a Class B vacuum tube amplifier: A.20%-30% B.60% C.85% D.100% share/E6/6A3420000664000175000017500000000027414623226701011234 0ustar jtnjtn6A342 D Causes of motor-generator bearing overheating include: A.Incorrect kind of lubrication, lack of ventilation B.Constant overload, dirt in bearings C.Misalignment D.All of the above share/E6/6A1660000664000175000017500000000035014623226701011233 0ustar jtnjtn6A166 A Tubes operated as Class C amplifiers are not suited for audio-frequency amplifiers: A.Because of excessive distortion B.Because of current requirement C.Because of reduced life expectancy of the filament D.None of the above share/E6/6A3410000664000175000017500000000033414623226701011230 0ustar jtnjtn6A341 D By-pass capacitors are often connected across the brushes of a high-voltage DC generator: A.To regulate the voltage B.To protect the generator winding from high voltage surges C.To reduce RF interference D.B & C share/E6/6A1970000664000175000017500000000044014623226701011237 0ustar jtnjtn6A197 A What effect does a change in the dielectric constant of a capacitor dielectric material have upon the capacitance of a capacitor: A.Capacity varies directly with the dielectric constant B.Capacity may fluctuate wildly C.There is no effect upon the capacitance D.None of the above share/E6/6A870000664000175000017500000000033314623226701011156 0ustar jtnjtn6A87 A The total inductance of two coils in parallel without any mutual coupling is: A.Equal to the product of the two inductances divided by their sum B.The sum of the individual inductances C.Zero D.None of the above share/E6/6A5210000664000175000017500000000047714623226701011240 0ustar jtnjtn6A521 B What is the purpose of a shunt as used with an ammeter? A.To permit a decrease in the indicating range of the meter B.To permit an increase in the indicating range of the meter which is almost inversely proportional to the resistance of the shunt C.A shunt should not be used with a ammeter D.None of the above share/E6/6A6020000664000175000017500000000073214623226701011232 0ustar jtnjtn6A602 B What is the proper procedure to conduct a radiotelegraph equipment test? A.By transmitting "EI" on the test frequency as a warning that a test transmission is about to be made B.Sending a series of "VVV" followed by the call sign of the testing station at about 10 words-perminute C.The test transmission may not proceed until all stations on frequency have signalled their consent D.The nearest public or private coast station must be notified of an impending test share/E6/6A5460000664000175000017500000000040614623226701011237 0ustar jtnjtn6A546 D In determining a "fix" position by a marine LORAN system, what is the minimum number of land transmitters involved? A.A master & a slave station B.1 slave station C.2 slave stations & 1 master station D.Four, or two pairs of "master and "slave" stations share/E6/6A5840000664000175000017500000000046714623226701011250 0ustar jtnjtn6A584 A For how long a period of continuous operation should the emergency power supply of a compulsorily equipped ship station be capable of energizing the emergency radiotelegraph installation? A.At least 6 consecutive hours B.At least 12 hours C.At least 24 consecutive hours D.At least 48 consecutive hours share/E6/6A610000664000175000017500000000022514623226701011146 0ustar jtnjtn6A61 D A 20 ohm resistor with a current of 0.25 A passing through it will dissipate how many watts? A.10 watts B.20 watts C.0.025 watts D.1.25 watts share/E6/6A4000000664000175000017500000000032014623226701011217 0ustar jtnjtn6A400 A In a self-biased RF amplifier stage: plate voltage is 1250 V, plate current 150 ma, grid current 15 ma, grid-leak resistance of 4000 ohms, what is the operating grid bias? A.60 V B.30 V C.90 V D.50 V share/E6/6A4320000664000175000017500000000054114623226701011231 0ustar jtnjtn6A432 C The correct formula for determining the surge impedance of a quarter wavelength matching line is: A.Impedance total equal 0.25 over 1 squared B.Impedance total equal impedance of the antenna times impedance of the line squared over 1 times C.14 C.Impedance zero equal impedance of antenna times impedance of the line squared D.None of the above share/E6/6A1620000664000175000017500000000032214623226701011226 0ustar jtnjtn6A162 B The most desirable factor in the choice of a vacuum tube for a voltage amplifier: A.A low value of transconductance B.A high value of transconductance C.High output tube capacitance D.None of the above share/E6/6A4650000664000175000017500000000041214623226701011234 0ustar jtnjtn6A465 D A tuned RF amplifier stage ahead of the mixer stage in a superheterodyne receiver: A.Improves receiver sensitivity, improves image rejection B.Improves selectivity, improves stability C.Improves signal-to-noise ratio, reduced interference D.All of the above share/E6/6A5630000664000175000017500000000022014623226701011230 0ustar jtnjtn6A563 C What is the international radiotelegraph distress frequency for stations in the mobile service? A.300 kHz B.400 kHz C.500 kHz D.600 kHz share/E6/6A5360000664000175000017500000000036514623226701011242 0ustar jtnjtn6A536 C From how many simultaneous directions is a direction finder capable of receiving signals if adjusted to take unilateral bearings through 360 degrees? A.From 360 degrees B.From 180 degrees C.From all but one direction D.None of the above share/E6/6A1540000664000175000017500000000047314623226701011236 0ustar jtnjtn6A154 D Bias voltage on the grid of an AF amplifier tube: A.Determines the operating conditions of the tube B.The correct value is essential for undistorted Class A output C.In power amplifiers the plate current must be limited to safe value not to exceed the rated plate dissipation of the tube D.All of the above share/E6/6A4300000664000175000017500000000054614623226701011234 0ustar jtnjtn6A430 A A station has an assigned frequency of 8000 kHz and a frequency tolerance of plus or minus 0.04%. The oscillator operates at 1/8th of the input. What is the maximum permitted deviation of the oscillation frequency in Hz, which will not exceed the tolerance? A.Plus or minus 400 Hz B.Plus or minus 320 Hz C.Plus or minus 800 Hz D.Plus or minus 640 Hz share/E6/6A1510000664000175000017500000000050114623226701011223 0ustar jtnjtn6A151 D Transmitting tube filaments should be maintained at recommended voltages: A.To realize the greatest life-expectancy B.If the filament voltage is too low, the emission will be reduced and operation of the circuit may be adversely affected C.If the voltage is too high, the filament may burn out D.All of the above share/E6/6A4050000664000175000017500000000045314623226701011233 0ustar jtnjtn6A405 C What effect does excessive coupling between the output circuit of an oscillator and an antenna have? A.The effect of cross-modulation of nearby frequencies B.Instability of the oscillator and feedback op-amp C.The oscillator will be very unstable D.Frequency discrimination will be unstable share/E6/6A3820000664000175000017500000000037414623226701011241 0ustar jtnjtn6A382 C What would be the antenna current when a transmitter has an antenna current of 8 amp, under A -1, even if it is 100% modulated by sinusoidal modulation? A.9.8 amp B.The antenna current will increase by 22.5% C.Either A or B D.None of the above share/E6/6A3380000664000175000017500000000034414623226701011237 0ustar jtnjtn6A338 C Output voltage of a dynamotor may be regulated: A.Only by changing the speed of the motor B.A series resistance in the output line could be used to reduce the available output voltage C.Either A or B D.None of the above share/E6/6A1140000664000175000017500000000031214623226701011222 0ustar jtnjtn6A114 A For protection of personnel handling a transmitter: A.Ground all exposed metal parts B.Transmitter is equipped to shunt grounded faults C.Discontinue operating on high power D.None of the above share/E6/6A2760000664000175000017500000000023114623226701011233 0ustar jtnjtn6A276 D What may cause the plates of a lead-acid call to buckle? A.Excessive sulfation B.Overheating C.Overdischarging of the battery D.All of the above share/E6/6A1750000664000175000017500000000030114623226701011227 0ustar jtnjtn6A175 D Operating conditions for determining that a tube is being used as a power detector: A.Bias at about cutoff B.High input grid resistance C.Plate circuit rectification D.All of the above share/E6/6A1580000664000175000017500000000036014623226701011235 0ustar jtnjtn6A158 C "Load" on a vacuum tube commonly refers to: A.The impedance through which plate current flows to produce a useful output B.Increases as the load impedance approaches the internal plate impedance in value C.A & B D.None of the above share/E6/6A3350000664000175000017500000000035714623226701011240 0ustar jtnjtn6A335 D If a motor generator fails to start when the start button is depressed, the trouble may be: A.Blown fuse or tripped circuit breaker B.Open armature or motor-field rheostat C.Broken connections, defective brushes D.All of the above share/E6/6A730000664000175000017500000000030514623226701011150 0ustar jtnjtn6A73 C Given: Input power to a receiver is 75 watts. How much power does the receiver consume in 24 hours of continuous operation? A.1800 watthours B.1.80 kilowatthours C.A & B D.None of the above share/E6/6A1560000664000175000017500000000035014623226701011232 0ustar jtnjtn6A156 D The suppressor grid in a multielement vacuum tube: A.Is highly negative with respect to the plate B.Returns secondary electrons to the plate C.Increases the permissible gain and the efficiency of the tube D.All of the above share/E6/6A770000664000175000017500000000026014623226701011154 0ustar jtnjtn6A77 B What is the total capacitance of the capacitors of 3, 5, and 7 microfarad connected in series? A.14.79 microfarad B.1.479 microfarad C.15 microfarad D.None of the above share/E6/6A4060000664000175000017500000000033714623226701011235 0ustar jtnjtn6A406 C How is power output of a transmitter adjusted? A.It should radiate the minimum power necessary to insure reliable communications B.It may be controlled by varying the plate supply C.Both A and B D.None of the above share/E6/6A1800000664000175000017500000000033714623226701011234 0ustar jtnjtn6A180 A A dynatron oscillator is a ____ which depends upon the negative resistance characteristic of a tetrode tube for its operation: A.Tuned circuit operation B.Diode detector C.Magnetron oscillator D.Meystron oscillator share/E6/6A3630000664000175000017500000000030014623226701011225 0ustar jtnjtn6A363 D A class C amplifier: A.Has an output for the entire input signal cycle B.Output is present for less than 180 degrees of the input cycle C.Bias is set well beyond cutoff D.Both B and C share/E6/6A3010000664000175000017500000000026114623226701011223 0ustar jtnjtn6A301 A What current will flow in a 6 V storage battery with an internal resistance of 0.01 ohms, when a 3 W, 6 V lamp is connected? A.0.4995 A B.0.4885 A C.0.5566 A D.0.5795 A share/E6/6A190000664000175000017500000000024314623226701011151 0ustar jtnjtn6A19 A The charge of electricity which passes a given point in one second when a current of one ampere is flowing is: A.Coulomb B.Joule C.Watt D.None of the above share/E6/6A1640000664000175000017500000000100414623226701011226 0ustar jtnjtn6A164 C Characteristics of a vacuum tube operating as a Class C amplifier: A.Low plate circuit efficiency, about 25%; practically no grid driving power; plate current flowing for 360 degrees of each cycle; practically no distortion of the output waveshape B.Plate circuit efficiency, about 50-60%; plate current flows slightly more than 180 degrees of each cycle; medium power output C.High plate circuit efficiency, up to 80%; plate current drawn in bursts; great distortion of output waveshape D.None of the above share/E6/6A910000664000175000017500000000046514623226701011157 0ustar jtnjtn6A91 A In an AC circuit, a series inductance acting alone: A.Causes the current to lag the applied voltage by 90 degrees B.Causes the current to lead the applied voltage by 90 degrees C.Causes the current to lag the applied voltage by 45 degrees D.Causes the current to lead the applied voltage by 45 degrees share/E6/6A2090000664000175000017500000000033614623226701011235 0ustar jtnjtn6A209 B A special type of power supply filter choke whose inductance is inversely proportioned to values of DC within specified limits is: A.Smoothing choke B.Swinging choke C.Radio frequency choke D.Audio frequency choke share/E6/6A6110000664000175000017500000000063014623226701011227 0ustar jtnjtn6A611 D How often must compulsory radiotelegraph installations on passenger vessels be inspected? A.When the vessel is placed in service and every 2 years thereafter B.At least every 3 years when the ship is within 75 miles of an FCC field office C.The ship's master is responsible for completion of the Annual Equipment Verification Report D.Equipment inspections are required at least once every 12 months share/E6/6A5000000664000175000017500000000051014623226701011221 0ustar jtnjtn6A500 C The center-tap connection in a filament supply transformer: A.Prevents hum voltages from modulating the normal signal B.The voltage change on one side of the filament will be effectively cancelled out by an equal and opposite voltage change at the other side of the filament, yielding no hum C.A & B D.None of the above share/E6/6A4120000664000175000017500000000035314623226701011230 0ustar jtnjtn6A412 C What is the term used when the receiving operator may interrupt the transmitting operator at any point during transmission? A.Modulation compandering B.Interruption shift keying C.Break-in operation D.Transmission shift keying share/E6/6A3160000664000175000017500000000024614623226701011234 0ustar jtnjtn6A316 D Poor regulation in a power supply may be caused by: A.No bleeder resistance B.High resistance filter chokes C.Insufficient filter capacity D.All of the above share/E6/6A2140000664000175000017500000000035114623226701011226 0ustar jtnjtn6A214 B Why is an oscillator crystal operated at a constant temperature? A.Just because, stupid! B.To maintain a constant frequency output from the oscillator C.Constant temperature allows easier frequency change D.None of the above share/E6/6A3500000664000175000017500000000017314623226701011231 0ustar jtnjtn6A350 A Alternators are usually rated in: A.Volt-amperes output B.Watts C.Amperes D.*** share/E6/6A4150000664000175000017500000000054014623226701011231 0ustar jtnjtn6A415 A Code speed or number of words per minute transmitted have what effect if any on the bandwidth of emission of a radiotelegraph transmitter? A.It does have an effect. Bandwidth increases as the code speed is increased B.No effect. Bandwidth decreases as the code speed is increased C.Signal strength increases as the speed increases D.Both A & C share/E6/6A2000000664000175000017500000000023514623226701011222 0ustar jtnjtn6A200 D Contacts which slide together on opening and closing: A.Are butt joined B.Are known as self-wiping C.Keep the contacts clean by their action D.B & C share/E6/6A1130000664000175000017500000000030414623226701011222 0ustar jtnjtn6A113 D Essentials for making a good solder connection are: A.Bright, clean parts B.Plenty of heat with the minimum amount of solder used C.Discontinue operating on high power D.None of the above share/E6/6A4910000664000175000017500000000051014623226701011232 0ustar jtnjtn6A491 D If signals are heard with headphones in the detector plate circuit of a receiver, but none are heard with headphones in the first AF stage plate circuit, what might be the cause? A.Open winding of the coupling transformer B.Defective coupling capacitor, improper operating potentials C.Defective tube D.All of the above share/E6/6A2120000664000175000017500000000026014623226701011223 0ustar jtnjtn6A212 D Why is rosin used as a soldering flux? A.It is noncorrosive B.It allows a perfect soldering bond to be made C.It possesses good insulation qualities D.All of the above share/E6/6A3840000664000175000017500000000041114623226701011233 0ustar jtnjtn6A384 D A series-fed plate circuit of a vacuum tube amplifier has a short circuit of the plate bypass capacitor. What happened? A.It would short out the power supply B.It would remove the plate voltage C.It would possibly damage the power supply D.All of the above share/E6/6A4370000664000175000017500000000040214623226701011232 0ustar jtnjtn6A437 D The radiated wavelength of a Hertzian antenna is: A.1/2 the physical length of the modulated coaxial B.1/4 the physical length of the modulated RF line C.1/2 the physical length of the antenna D.Approximately twice the physical length of the antenna share/E6/6A2510000664000175000017500000000025114623226701011226 0ustar jtnjtn6A251 D In the usual type dry cell: A.The negative electrode is made of zinc B.The positive electrode is made of carbon C.The negative electrode is made of zinc D.A & B share/E6/6A6080000664000175000017500000000033114623226701011233 0ustar jtnjtn6A608 A What is the maximum authorized bandwidth of a high frequency radiotelegraphy signal, emission A1A, in the maritime service? A.0.4 kHz B.0.2 kHz C.Minimum necessary to complete necessary communications D.1 kHz share/E6/6A2710000664000175000017500000000026114623226701011231 0ustar jtnjtn6A271 A You may measure the voltage of a battery under heavy load: A.To determine its condition of charge B.To determine its polarity C.To determine its age D.None of the above share/E6/6A1030000664000175000017500000000031314623226701011221 0ustar jtnjtn6A103 A What is the resonant frequency of a tuned circuit consisting of a 500 picofarad capacitor, a 150 microfarad tuning coil, and 10 ohms resistance? A.581 kHz B.753 kHz C.498 kHz D.None of the above share/E6/6A680000664000175000017500000000023114623226701011152 0ustar jtnjtn6A68 D What is the total resistance of a parallel circuit consisting of a 10 ohm branch and a 25 ohm branch? A.@ ohms B.10.3 ohms C.7.0 ohms D.7.14 ohms share/E6/6A2450000664000175000017500000000021414623226701011230 0ustar jtnjtn6A245 B What factors determine the no-load voltage ratio of a power transformer? A.Power ratio B.Turns ratio C.Voltage ratio D.Power factor share/E6/6A4170000664000175000017500000000061614623226701011237 0ustar jtnjtn6A417 D The plate current of the final RF amplifier in a transmitter increases and radiation decreases, if the antenna circuit is in good order, what could be the cause? A.Neutralization may have been upset B.The plate circuit may have been detuned, bias may have been lost C.Grid excitation may have decreased, there may be a faulty tube, or there may be parasitic oscillations D.All of the above share/E6/6A3250000664000175000017500000000021514623226701011230 0ustar jtnjtn6A325 D A series DC motor has: A.Maximum torque at low speed B.Quick starting C.Poor speed regulation under varying loads D.All of the above share/E6/6A5830000664000175000017500000000044414623226701011242 0ustar jtnjtn6A583 B After a distress call has been transmitted, every distress-traffic radiotelegram shall contain what symbol in the preamble? A.SOS followed by the call signal B.The distress signal preceding the call and repeated at the beginning of the preamble C.All of the above D.None of the above share/E6/6A2250000664000175000017500000000033514623226701011232 0ustar jtnjtn6A225 A When a tube is used as a Class B amplifier what portion of the excitation voltage cycle does plate current flow? A.Slightly more than 180 degrees B.Slightly less than 180 degrees C.360 degrees D.None of the above share/E6/6A3040000664000175000017500000000041314623226701011225 0ustar jtnjtn6A304 C Advantages of capacitor input and choke-input filters when used with rectifiers: A.Capacitor-input filter provides higher output voltage under reasonably light load conditions B.Choke-input filter offers better voltage regulations C.A & B D.None of the above share/E6/6A3370000664000175000017500000000027514623226701011241 0ustar jtnjtn6A337 D A dynamotor is: A.A combination motor-generator which utilizes a common field winding B.Usually run by battery power C.A higher efficiency than a motor-generator D.All of the above share/E6/6A4660000664000175000017500000000024114623226701011235 0ustar jtnjtn6A466 A What is the "mixer" tube in the superheterodyne receiver? A.The first detector B.The second detector C.The beat frequency oscillator D.None of the above share/E6/6A120000664000175000017500000000012314623226701011137 0ustar jtnjtn6A12 D Ohm's law is stated as: A.E = IR B.I = E / R C.R = E / I D.All of the above share/E6/6A5720000664000175000017500000000035414623226701011240 0ustar jtnjtn6A572 B Upon hearing an SOS, what should an operator do? A.Should repeat the SOS to all traffic B.Immediately cease all transmissions capable of interfering with the distress traffic C.Contact the vessel in distress D.None of the above share/E6/6A5020000664000175000017500000000044314623226701011230 0ustar jtnjtn6A502 C The first detector in a superheterodyne receiver: A.Acts as a mixer, providing the action which produces the desired intermediate frequency B.The first detector must be operated on the non linear portion of its characteristic to provide the proper action C.A & B D.None of the above share/E6/6A980000664000175000017500000000024514623226701011162 0ustar jtnjtn6A98 D What are effects of parasitic oscillations? A.Change of bias B.Reduced efficiency of the amplifier tube C.Distortion of the modulated wave D.All of the above share/E6/6A1360000664000175000017500000000076614623226701011243 0ustar jtnjtn6A136 A Characteristics of a vacuum tube operating as a class A amplifier: A.Low plate circuit efficiency, about 25%; practically no grid driving power; plate current flowing for 360 degrees of each cycle; practically no distortion of the output waveshape B.Plate circuit efficiency, about 50-60%; plate current flows slightly more than 180 degrees of each cycle, medium power output C.High efficiency, up to 80%; plate current drawn in bursts; great distortion of output waveshape D.None of the above share/E6/6A5590000664000175000017500000000042114623226701011240 0ustar jtnjtn6A559 D Upon compulsorily equipped vessels which are required to have an accurate clock in the radio room, how frequently must this clock be adjusted and be compared with standard time? A.Every three hours B.Ever four hours C.Every six hours D.At least once every 24 hours share/E6/6A1860000664000175000017500000000022514623226701011236 0ustar jtnjtn6A186 D Advantage of crystal control over tuned circuit oscillators: A.Very high Q B.Compact size C.Excellent frequency stability D.All of the above share/E6/6A3020000664000175000017500000000054614623226701011232 0ustar jtnjtn6A302 C The charging rate of a storage cell charged from a fixed voltage source decreases as the charging progresses opposition to the charging voltage? A.Because as cell voltages increase, offering more opposition to the charging voltage B.When the effective charging potential is reduced, the charging current is decreased C.Both A & B D.None of the above share/E6/6A430000664000175000017500000000040114623226701011142 0ustar jtnjtn6A43 D The diameter of a conductor six inches long is doubled, what will be the effect on the resistance? A.One-fourth the original value B.One-half the original value C.The resistance varies inversely with the cross-sectional area of the conductor D.A & C share/E6/6A5950000664000175000017500000000051214623226701011241 0ustar jtnjtn6A595 C What examination credit is accorded Amateur Extra Class operators? A.20 code groups and 25 text words per minute B.Amateur radio operators are not eligible for commercial radio operator examination credit C.Commercial radio operator telegraphy Elements 1 and 2 D.Written Element 1, basic radio law and operating practices share/E6/6A4590000664000175000017500000000042414623226701011242 0ustar jtnjtn6A459 D Transmitters that employ variometers rather than variable capacitors as tuning elements do so because of: A.The size of required variable capacitors in the medium frequency band B.There is no such thing as a variometer! C.Variometers can be relatively compact D.A & C share/E6/6A5410000664000175000017500000000035214623226701011232 0ustar jtnjtn6A541 B What is indicated by the bearing obtained from the use of a unilateral radio direction finder? A.The direction of another station B.The sense of direction of the originating station C.All bearings are from D.None of the above share/E6/6A810000664000175000017500000000044214623226701011151 0ustar jtnjtn6A81 A The relationship between the number of turns and the inductance of a coil may be expressed by: A.The inductance varies approximately as the square of the number of turns B.The inductance varies approximately as the square root of the number of turns C.Both A & B D.None of the above share/E6/6A4340000664000175000017500000000025514623226701011235 0ustar jtnjtn6A434 C If the output frequency after passing through three doubler stages is 16,800 kHz, give the crystal frequency of a transmitter: A.2160 kHz B.2 GHz C.2110 kHz D.2 kHz share/E6/6A2940000664000175000017500000000037714623226701011246 0ustar jtnjtn6A294 C An Edison storage battery should not be charged at less than the manufacturer's specified rate: A.In order that the capacity of the battery shall be maximum after charge B.The chemical reactions of the Edison-type cell C.A & B D.None of the above share/E6/6A2370000664000175000017500000000035514623226701011237 0ustar jtnjtn6A237 A The main advantage of a tuned audio frequency amplifier in a receiver used for the reception of CW: A.A reduction in interference from unwanted signals B.The desired audio beat frequency is attenuates C.A & B D.None of the above share/E6/6A3760000664000175000017500000000037414623226701011244 0ustar jtnjtn6A376 D What might be the cause of a positive shift in carrier amplitude during modulation? A.Parasitic oscillations, excessive audio drive B.Incorrect tuning of final amplifier C.Insufficient RF excitation, incorrect neutralization D.All of the above share/E6/6A2810000664000175000017500000000022414623226701011231 0ustar jtnjtn6A281 D Radio equipment on which electrolyte may be used: A.Electrolyte capacitor B.Electrolyte rectifier C.Electrolyte detector D.All of the above share/E6/6A2470000664000175000017500000000021314623226701011231 0ustar jtnjtn6A247 D Primary cells: A.Can be recharged B.Cannot be recharged C.An attempt to recharge it would not restore the eroded electrode D.B & D share/E6/6A4520000664000175000017500000000030214623226701011226 0ustar jtnjtn6A452 C Harmonic radiation from a transmitter may cause interference: A.Where the fundamental signal cannot be heard because of "skip" B.In other shipboard equipment C.A & B D.None of the above share/E6/6A1320000664000175000017500000000015114623226701011223 0ustar jtnjtn6A132 A Thoriated tungsten is usually used to make: A.Filaments B.Heaters C.Cathodes D.None of the above share/E6/6A2980000664000175000017500000000026514623226701011246 0ustar jtnjtn6A298 C Heat developed within a storage cell under charge or discharge conditions is caused by: A.I2R losses B.Energy transfer due to chemical reactions C.A & B D.None of the above share/E6/6A130000664000175000017500000000014314623226701011142 0ustar jtnjtn6A13 C The unit of electrical power is: A.Watt B.Joule per second C.Both A & B D.None of the above share/E6/6A4190000664000175000017500000000026114623226701011235 0ustar jtnjtn6A419 A If a field strength is 100 microvolts per meter at 100 miles, what is the field strength at 200 miles? A.50 microvolts B.10 microvolts C.200 microvolts D.150 microvolts share/E6/6A1010000664000175000017500000000036214623226701011223 0ustar jtnjtn6A101 C How may the Q of a parallel resonant circuit be increased? A.Increasing coupling to the resonant circuit B.Using coil and capacitor supports of special low - loss materials C.Both A and B D.Decreasing coupling to the resonant circuit share/E6/6A5030000664000175000017500000000041614623226701011231 0ustar jtnjtn6A503 D The advantage of using iron cores of special construction in RF transformers and inductance? A.Increase of Q and gain of circuits using such cores B.Increase of selectivity and gain of circuits using such cores C.Increase of Q and selectivity D.All of the above share/E6/6A540000664000175000017500000000034714623226701011155 0ustar jtnjtn6A54 A When the current sine wave in a circuit reaches its peak value before the voltage wave: A.It is said to have a leading power factor B.It is said to have a lagging power factor C.It is said to be in phase D.None of the above share/E6/6A1730000664000175000017500000000045514623226701011237 0ustar jtnjtn6A173 D Characteristic of a square law type of vacuum tube detector: A.High sensitivity is provided due to the audio output signal amplitude being proportioned to the square of the radio frequency voltage B.High percentage of second harmonic distortion C.Works on weak signals only D.All of the above share/E6/6A1650000664000175000017500000000024314623226701011233 0ustar jtnjtn6A165 C Plate current flows for less than 180 degrees (about 120 degrees when the grid bias is about twice cutoff value) in what class amplifier? A.A B.B C.C D.AB share/E6/6A4870000664000175000017500000000046214623226701011245 0ustar jtnjtn6A487 B How would you reduce or eliminate broadcast signal interference of reception on 500 kHz? A.Use a regenerative receiver without RF amplifier stages B.Use a suitable wavetrap resonated to reject the undesired signals C.Use a crystal detector receiver tuned to the exact frequency D.None of the above share/E6/6A4130000664000175000017500000000043214623226701011227 0ustar jtnjtn6A413 C Which of the following best explains frequency-shift keying? A.The shifting of frequencies by modulating the carrier antenna B.Changing the frequency of the input when the key is depressed C.Changing the frequency of the output when the key is depressed D.None of the above share/E6/6A3070000664000175000017500000000031514623226701011231 0ustar jtnjtn6A307 C Bleeder resistors are used in power supplies: A.To improve the output voltage regulation B.They also discharge the filter capacitor when the power is turned off C.Either A or B D.None of the above share/E6/6A420000664000175000017500000000022114623226701011141 0ustar jtnjtn6A42 A If a resistance to which a constant voltage is applied is halved, what power dissipation will result? A.Doubled B.Halved C.Tripled D.Same share/E6/6A740000664000175000017500000000042414623226701011153 0ustar jtnjtn6A74 B The total reactance when two capacitances of equal value are connected in series is: A.The product of the two individual reactances in ohms B.The sum of the two individual reactances in ohms C.The difference of the two individual reactances in ohms D.None of the above share/E6/6A3990000664000175000017500000000045514623226701011251 0ustar jtnjtn6A399 A In an RF amplifier with fixed bias, as the plate circuit is varied from below resonance to above resonance, what will the grid current do? A.The grid current will rise slightly at resonance B.The grid current will dip slightly at resonance C.The grid current will not vary D.None of the above share/E6/6A5740000664000175000017500000000040714623226701011241 0ustar jtnjtn6A574 C On a United States vessel equipped with an approved auto-alarm, where is the control button which silences the warning bells located? A.On the navigation bridge B.In main engineering control C.In the main radiotelegraph operating room D.None of the above share/E6/6A5940000664000175000017500000000122414623226701011241 0ustar jtnjtn6A594 A How does an applicant qualify for a Third Class Radiotelegraph Operator's Certificate? A.By passing the appropriate written examinations and receiving by ear code groups and plain text for a period of one minute without error at the appropriate speed B.Applicant must send and receive radiotelegraphy at the prescribed speed and be at least 21 years old C.By the successful completion of radiotelegraphy Elements 1 and 2 plus written examinations on radio law, telegraphy practices and transmitter maintenance D.By passing a written examination on radio law, electronic fundamentals and radiotelegraph practices plus a telegraphy receiving examination share/E6/6A2640000664000175000017500000000043614623226701011237 0ustar jtnjtn6A264 D Decrease in capacity of an Edison-type storage cell can be caused by: A.Frequent overheating, and operating conditions over 115 degrees fahrenheit B.Charging at less than the normal rate C.Adding impure water to the electrolyte, or a weak or aged electrolyte D.All of the above share/E6/6A4680000664000175000017500000000026314623226701011243 0ustar jtnjtn6A468 A A superheterodyne receiver is adjusted to 2738 kHz. The IF is 475 kHz. What is the grid circuit of the second detector tuned to? A.475 kHz B.950 kHz C.2263 kHz D.3213 kHz share/E8/0000775000175000017500000000000014621245446010616 5ustar jtnjtnshare/E8/8-18B20000664000175000017500000000075514621245446011331 0ustar jtnjtn8-18B2 B The characteristics of a field-effect transistor (FET) used in a modern RADAR switching power supply can be compared as follows: A. "On" state compares to a bipolar transistor. "Off" state compares to a 1-Megohm resistor. B. "On" state compares to a pure resistor. "Off" state compares to a mechanical relay. C. "On" state compares to an low resistance inductor. "Off" state compares to a 10-Megohm resistor. D. "On" state compares to a resistor. "Off" state compares to a capacitor. share/E8/8-44F20000664000175000017500000000031514621245446011324 0ustar jtnjtn8-44F2 D Range rings on the PPI indicator are oval in shape. Which circuit would you suspect is faulty? A. Timing circuit. B. Video amplifier circuit. C. Range marker circuit. D. Sweep generation circuit. share/E8/8-14B50000664000175000017500000000034514621245445011322 0ustar jtnjtn8-14B5 B Pulse-forming networks are usually composed of the following: A. Series capacitors and shunt inductors. B. Series inductors and shunt capacitors. C. Resonant circuit with an inductor and capacitor. D. None of the above. share/E8/8-29D30000664000175000017500000000033414621245446011327 0ustar jtnjtn8-29D3 D The purpose of the aquadag coating on the CRT is: A. To protect the electrons from strong electric fields. B. To act as a second anode. C. To attract secondary emissions from the CRT screen. D. All of the above share/E8/8-33D40000664000175000017500000000024514621245446011324 0ustar jtnjtn8-33D4 A The panel control for the variable range marker is normally a: A. Variable resistor. B. Variable inductance. C. Variable capacitance. D. Variable resolver. share/E8/8-14B60000664000175000017500000000040014621245445011313 0ustar jtnjtn8-14B6 C An artificial transmission line is used for: A. The transmission of RADAR pulses. B. Testing the RADAR unit, when actual targets are not available. C. Determining the shape and duration of pulses. D. Testing the delay time for artificial targets. share/E8/8-25C50000664000175000017500000000021014621245446011315 0ustar jtnjtn8-25C5 B What circuit controls the suppression of sea clutter? A. EBL circuit. B. STC circuit. C. Local oscillator. D. Audio amplifier. share/E8/8-4A20000664000175000017500000000035214621245445011233 0ustar jtnjtn8-4A2 D A shipboard RADAR transmitter has a pulse repetition frequency (PRF) of 1,000 Hz, a pulse width of 0.5 microseconds, peak power of 150 KW, and a minimum range of 75 meters. Its duty cycle is: A. 0.5 B. 0.05 C. 0.005 D. 0.0005 share/E8/8-10A10000664000175000017500000000051514621245445011310 0ustar jtnjtn8-10A1 D In the circuit shown in Fig. 8A4, U5 pins 1 and 4 are high and both are in the reset state. Assume one clock cycle occurs of Clk A followed by one cycle of Clk B. What are the output states of the two D-type flip flops? A. Pin 5 low, Pin 9 low. B. Pin 5 high, Pin 9 low. C. Pin 5 low, Pin 9 high. D. Pin 5 high, Pin 9 high. share/E8/8-14B30000664000175000017500000000031514621245446011316 0ustar jtnjtn8-14B3 A The purpose of the pulse-forming network is to: A. Determine the width of the modulating pulses. B. Determine the pulse repetition rate. C. Act as a high pass filter. D. Act as a log pass filter. share/E8/8-35D50000664000175000017500000000016614621245446011331 0ustar jtnjtn8-35D5 B How many sequential memory cells with target returns are required to display the target? A. 1 B. 2 C. 4 D. 8 share/E8/8-15B50000664000175000017500000000031414621245446011320 0ustar jtnjtn8-15B5 B A directional coupler has an attenuation of -30 db. A measurement of 100 milliwatts at the coupler indicates the power of the line is: A. 10 watts. B. 100 watts. C. 1,000 watts. D. 10,000 watts. share/E8/8-44F40000664000175000017500000000060414621245446011327 0ustar jtnjtn8-44F4 C While the vessel is docked the presentation of the pier is distorted near the center of the PPI with the pier appearing to bend in a concave fashion. This is a primary indication of what? A. The deflection coils need adjusting. B. The centering magnets at the CRT neck need adjusting. C. The waveguide compensation delay line needs adjusting. D. The CRT filaments are weakening. share/E8/8-21C60000664000175000017500000000055314621245446011324 0ustar jtnjtn8-21C6 D How may the frequency of the klystron be varied? A. Small changes can be made by adjusting the anode voltage. B. Large changes can be made by adjusting the frequency. C. By changing the phasing of the buncher grids D. Small changes can be made by adjusting the repeller voltage and large changes can be made by adjusting the size of the resonant cavity. share/E8/8-25C10000664000175000017500000000026514621245446011323 0ustar jtnjtn8-25C1 D The STC circuit is used to: A. Increase receiver stability. B. Increase receiver sensitivity. C. Increase receiver selectivity. D. Decrease sea return on a RADAR receiver. share/E8/8-8A10000664000175000017500000000032014621245445011231 0ustar jtnjtn8-8A1 C The basic frequency determining element in a Gunn oscillator is: A. The power supply voltage. B. The type of semiconductor used. C. The resonant cavity. D. The loading of the oscillator by the mixer. share/E8/8-9A10000664000175000017500000000022414621245445011235 0ustar jtnjtn8-9A1 A Blocking oscillators operate on the formula of: A. T = R x C. B. I = E/R. C. By using the receiver's AGC. D. None of the above are correct. share/E8/8-9A20000664000175000017500000000053714621245445011245 0ustar jtnjtn8-9A2 B The block diagram of a typical RADAR system microprocessor is shown in Fig. 8A2. Choose the most correct statement regarding this system. A. The ALU is used for address decoding. B. The Memory and I/O communicate with peripherals. C. The control unit executes arithmetic manipulations. D. The internal bus is used simultaneously by all units. share/E8/8-38D40000664000175000017500000000045014621245446011327 0ustar jtnjtn8-38D4 A Bearing resolution is: A. The ability to distinguish two adjacent targets of equal distance. B. The ability to distinguish two targets of different distances. C. The ability to distinguish two targets of different elevations. D. The ability to distinguish two targets of different size. share/E8/8-35D30000664000175000017500000000025314621245446011324 0ustar jtnjtn8-35D3 C The term DRAM stands for: A. Digital refresh access memory. B. Digital recording access memory. C. Dynamic random access memory. D. Digital response area motion. share/E8/8-20C50000664000175000017500000000024514621245446011320 0ustar jtnjtn8-20C5 D What component of a RADAR receiver is represented by block 49 in Fig. 8A1? A. Discriminator. B. IF amplifier. C. Klystron. D. Crystal detector (the mixer). share/E8/8-45F10000664000175000017500000000065114621245446011327 0ustar jtnjtn8-45F1 D A circuit card in a RADAR system has just been replaced with a spare card. You notice the voltage level at point E in Fig. 8F12 is negative 4.75 volts when the inputs are all at 5 volts. The problem is: A. The 25 K resistor is open. B. The 100 K resistor has been mistakenly replaced with a 50 K resistor. C. The op amp is at the rail voltage. D. The 50 K resistor has been mistakenly replaced with a 25 K resistor. share/E8/8-46F30000664000175000017500000000035014621245446011326 0ustar jtnjtn8-46F3 D An increase in magnetron current that coincides with a decrease in power output is an indication of what? A. The pulse length decreasing. B. A high SWR. C. A high magnetron heater voltage. D. The external magnet weakening. share/E8/8-29D50000664000175000017500000000043214621245446011330 0ustar jtnjtn8-29D5 B In a raster-type display, the electron beam is scanned: A. From the center of the display to the outer edges. B. Horizontally and vertically across the CRT face. C. In a rotating pattern which follows the antenna position. D. From one specified X-Y coordinate to the next. share/E8/8-23C20000664000175000017500000000043114621245446011315 0ustar jtnjtn8-23C2 A Video amplifiers in pulse RADAR receivers must have a broad bandwidth because: A. Weak pulses must be amplified. B. High frequency sine waves must be amplified. C. The RADARs operate at PRFs above 100. D. The pulses produced are normally too wide for video amplification. share/E8/8-28C10000664000175000017500000000051614621245446011325 0ustar jtnjtn8-28C1 C The purpose of the discriminator circuit in a RADAR set is to: A. Discriminate against nearby objects. B. Discriminate against two objects with very similar bearings. C. Generate a corrective voltage for controlling the frequency of the klystron local oscillator. D. Demodulate or remove the intelligence from the FM signal. share/E8/8-18B50000664000175000017500000000070414621245446011326 0ustar jtnjtn8-18B5 D A major consideration for the use of a switching regulator power supply over a linear regulator is: A. The switching regulator has better regulation. B. The linear regulator does not require a transformer to step down AC line voltages to a usable level. C. The switching regulator can be used in nearly all applications requiring regulated voltage. D. The overall efficiency of a switching regulator is much higher than a linear power supply. share/E8/8-48F20000664000175000017500000000035114621245446011330 0ustar jtnjtn8-48F2 B The echo box is used for: A. Testing the wavelength of the incoming echo signal. B. Testing and tuning of the RADAR unit by providing artificial targets. C. Amplification of the echo signal. D. Detection of the echo pulses. share/E8/8-31D30000664000175000017500000000024314621245446011317 0ustar jtnjtn8-31D3 A Which of the following functions is not affected by the timing circuit? A. Resolver output. B. Pulse repetition frequency. C. Sweep drive. D. Modulation. share/E8/8-28C20000664000175000017500000000040614621245446011324 0ustar jtnjtn8-28C2 B The MTI circuit: A. Acts as a mixer in a RADAR receiver. B. Is a filter, which blocks out stationary targets, allowing only moving targets to be detected. C. Is used to monitor transmitter interference. D. Will pick up targets, which are not in motion. share/E8/8-16B50000664000175000017500000000017114621245446011322 0ustar jtnjtn8-16B5 C A keep-alive voltage is applied to: A. The crystal detector. B. The ATR tube. C. The TR tube. D. The magnetron. share/E8/8-16B30000664000175000017500000000045214621245446011322 0ustar jtnjtn8-16B3 D The TR box: A. Prevents the received signal from entering the transmitter. B. Protects the receiver from the strong RADAR pulses. C. Turns off the receiver when the transmitter is on. D. Protects the receiver from the strong RADAR pulses and mutes the receiver when the transmitter is on. share/E8/8-39E60000664000175000017500000000027714621245446011342 0ustar jtnjtn8-39E6 C What is the most common type of RADAR antenna used aboard commercial maritime vessels? A. Parabolic. B. Truncated parabolic. C. Slotted waveguide array. D. Multi-element Yagi array. share/E8/8-49F30000664000175000017500000000041614621245446011334 0ustar jtnjtn8-49F3 D Why should long horizontal runs of waveguide be avoided? A. They must be insulated to prevent electric shock. B. To prevent damage from shipboard personnel. C. To minimize reception of horizontally polarized returns. D. To prevent accumulation of condensation. share/E8/8-24C30000664000175000017500000000031714621245446011322 0ustar jtnjtn8-24C3 A In the AFC system, the discriminator compares the frequencies of the: A. Magnetron and klystron. B. PRR generator and magnetron. C. Magnetron and crystal detector. D. Magnetron and video amplifier. share/E8/8-28C60000664000175000017500000000033714621245446011333 0ustar jtnjtn8-28C6 B When the receiver employs an MTI circuit: A. The receiver gain increases with time. B. Only moving targets will be displayed. C. The receiver AGC circuits are disabled. D. Ground clutter will be free of "rabbits." share/E8/8-1A50000664000175000017500000000025014621245445011230 0ustar jtnjtn8-1A5 B Which of the following components allows the use of a single antenna for both transmitting and receiving? A. Mixer. B. Duplexer. C. Synchronizer. D. Modulator. share/E8/8-3A30000664000175000017500000000016314621245445011233 0ustar jtnjtn8-3A3 D An S-band RADAR operates in which frequency band? A. 1 - 2 GHz. B. 4 - 8 GHz. C. 8 - 12 GHz. D. 2 - 4 GHz. share/E8/8-24C10000664000175000017500000000031014621245446011311 0ustar jtnjtn8-24C1 B The AFC system is used to: A. Control the frequency of the magnetron. B. Control the frequency of the klystron. C. Control the receiver gain. D. Control the frequency of the incoming pulses. share/E8/8-46F20000664000175000017500000000030214621245446011322 0ustar jtnjtn8-46F2 C In a RADAR unit, if the crystal mixer becomes defective, replace the: A. Crystal only. B. The crystal and the ATR tube. C. The crystal and the TR tube. D. The crystal and the klystron. share/E8/8-2A50000664000175000017500000000033114621245445011231 0ustar jtnjtn8-2A5 C How long would it take for a RADAR pulse to travel to a target 10 nautical miles away and return to the RADAR receiver? A. 12.34 microseconds. B. 1.234 microseconds. C. 123.4 microseconds. D. 10 microseconds. share/E8/8-43E40000664000175000017500000000030314621245446011321 0ustar jtnjtn8-43E4 A To insert RF energy into or extract RF energy from a waveguide, which of the following would not be used? A. Coupling capacitance. B. Current loop. C. Aperture window. D. Voltage probe. share/E8/8-4A50000664000175000017500000000032014621245445011231 0ustar jtnjtn8-4A5 B What is the average power if the RADAR set has a PRF of 1000 Hz, a pulse width of 1 microsecond, and a peak power rating of 100 kilowatts? A. 10 watts. B. 100 watts. C. 1,000 watts. D. None of these. share/E8/8-6A20000664000175000017500000000026314621245445011236 0ustar jtnjtn8-6A2 C If the pulse repetition frequency (PRF) is 2000 Hz, what is the pulse repetition interval (PRI)? A. 0.05 seconds. B. 0.005 seconds. C. 0.0005 seconds. D. 0.00005 seconds. share/E8/8-24C20000664000175000017500000000023414621245446011317 0ustar jtnjtn8-24C2 D A circuit used to develop AFC voltage in a RADAR receiver is called the: A. Peak detector. B. Crystal mixer. C. Second detector. D. Discriminator. share/E8/8-41E40000664000175000017500000000066314621245446011330 0ustar jtnjtn8-41E4 C Which of the following statements about antenna resolvers is correct? A. Most resolvers contain a rotor winding and a delta stator winding. B. Resolvers consist of a two rotor windings and two stator windings that are 90 degrees apart. C. The basic resolver contains a rotor winding and two stator windings that are 90 degrees apart. D. Resolvers consist of a "Y" connected rotor winding and a delta connected stator winding. share/E8/8-22C30000664000175000017500000000032614621245446011320 0ustar jtnjtn8-22C3 A The I.F. Amplifier bandwidth is: A. Wide for short ranges and narrow for long ranges. B. Wide for long ranges and narrow for short ranges. C. Constant for all ranges. D. Adjustable from the control panel. share/E8/8-46F40000664000175000017500000000043414621245446011332 0ustar jtnjtn8-46F4 A It is reported that the RADAR is not receiving small targets. The most likely causes are: A. Magnetron, IF amplifier, or receiver tuning. B. PFN, crystals, or processor memory. C. Crystals, local oscillator tuning, or power supply. D. Fuse blown, IF amp, or video processor. share/E8/8-49F10000664000175000017500000000072614621245446011336 0ustar jtnjtn8-49F1 A Why is coaxial cable often used for S-band installations instead of a waveguide? A. Losses can be kept reasonable at S-band frequencies and the installation cost is lower. B. A waveguide will not support the power density required for modern S-band RADAR transmitters. C. S-band waveguide flanges show too much leakage and are unsafe for use near personnel. D. Dimensions for S-band waveguide do not permit a rugged enough installation for use by ships at sea. share/E8/8-23C10000664000175000017500000000054214621245446011317 0ustar jtnjtn8-23C1 C Which of the following statements is correct? A. The video amplifier is located between the mixer and the I.F. amplifier. B. The video amplifier operates between 60 MHz and 120 Mhz. C. The video amplifier is located between the I.F. amplifier and the display system. D. The video amplifier is located between the local oscillator and the mixer. share/E8/8-25C40000664000175000017500000000045614621245446011330 0ustar jtnjtn8-25C4 A Sea clutter on the RADAR scope cannot be effectively reduced using front panel controls. What circuit would you suspect is faulty? A. Sensitivity Time Control (STC) circuit. B. False Target Eliminator (FTE) circuit. C. Fast Time Constant (FTC) circuit. D. Intermediate Frequency (IF) circuit. share/E8/8-24C50000664000175000017500000000050314621245446011321 0ustar jtnjtn8-24C5 B A RADAR transmitter is operating on 3.0 GHz and the reflex klystron local oscillator, operating at 3.060 GHz, develops a 60 MHz IF. If the magnetron drifts higher in frequency, the AFC system must cause the klystron repeller plate to become: A. More positive. B. More negative. C. Less positive. D. Less negative. share/E8/8-33D20000664000175000017500000000046414621245446011325 0ustar jtnjtn8-33D2 A The purpose of the variable range marker is to: A. Provide an accurate means of determining the range of a moving target. B. Provide a bearing line between own ship and a moving target. C. Indicate the distance between two different targets. D. Provide a means of calibrating the fixed range rings. share/E8/8-22C50000664000175000017500000000033714621245446011324 0ustar jtnjtn8-22C5 C The high-gain IF amplifiers in a RADAR receiver may amplify a 2 microvolt input signal to an output level of 2 volts. This amount of amplification represents a gain of: A. 60 db. B. 100 db. C. 120 db. D. 1,000 db. share/E8/8-4A60000664000175000017500000000035414621245445011241 0ustar jtnjtn8-4A6 C A search RADAR has a pulse width of 1.0 microsecond, a pulse repetition frequency (PRF) of 900 Hz, and an average power of 18 watts. The unit's peak power is: A. 200 kilowatts. B. 180 kilowatts. C. 20 kilowatts. D. 2 kilowatts. share/E8/8-13B40000664000175000017500000000031014621245445011310 0ustar jtnjtn8-13B4 A In a pulse modulated magnetron what device determines the shape and width of the pulse? A. Pulse Forming Network. B. Thyratron. C. LC parallel circuit. D. Dimensions of the magnetron cavity. share/E8/8-7A50000664000175000017500000000020614621245445011237 0ustar jtnjtn8-7A5 A Which is typical current for a silicon crystal used in a RADAR mixer or detector circuit? A. 3 mA B. 15 mA C. 50 mA D. 100 mA share/E8/8-26C20000664000175000017500000000055614621245446011330 0ustar jtnjtn8-26C2 C A constant frequency switching power supply regulator with an input voltage of 165 volts DC, and a switching frequency of 20 kHz, has an "ON" time of 27 microseconds when supplying 1 ampere to its load. What is the output voltage across the load? A. It cannot be determined with the information given. B. 305.55 volts DC. C. 89.1 volts DC. D. 165 volts DC. share/E8/8-7A40000664000175000017500000000025314621245445011240 0ustar jtnjtn8-7A4 D Silicon crystals: A. Are very sensitive to static electric charges. B. Should be wrapped in lead foil for storage. C. Tolerate very low currents. D. All of these. share/E8/8-37D40000664000175000017500000000051314621245446011326 0ustar jtnjtn8-37D4 D In a display system power supply, what is the purpose of the inverter? A. Inverts the polarity of the DC voltage applied to the voltage regulators. B. Provides the dual polarity 12 volt DC supply. C. Acts as the voltage regulator for the 5 volt DC supply. D. Produces the pulsed DC input voltage to the power transformer. share/E8/8-23C50000664000175000017500000000022014621245446011314 0ustar jtnjtn8-23C5 D Which of the following signals are usually an input to the video amplifier? A. Range. B. Brilliance. C. Contrast. D. All of the above. share/E8/8-44F30000664000175000017500000000046214621245446011330 0ustar jtnjtn8-44F3 A What would be the most likely defective area when there is no target video in the center of the CRT and the blank spot gets smaller in diameter as your range scale is increased? A. The TR (TRL) Cell. B. The local oscillator is misadjusted. C. Video amplifier circuit. D. The IF amplifier circuit. share/E8/8-44F60000664000175000017500000000035014621245446011327 0ustar jtnjtn8-44F6 C The raster scan RADAR display has missing video in a rectangular block on the screen. Where is the most likely problem area? A. Horizontal sweep circuit. B. Power supply. C. Memory area failure. D. Vertical blanking pulse. share/E8/8-39E10000664000175000017500000000023414621245446011326 0ustar jtnjtn8-39E1 A Slotted waveguide arrays, when fed from one end exhibit: A. Frequency scan. B. High VSWR. C. Poor performance in rain. D. A narrow elevation beam. share/E8/8-42E50000664000175000017500000000023714621245446011327 0ustar jtnjtn8-42E5 C Waveguide theory is based on the principals of: A. Ohm's Law. B. High standing waves. C. Skin effect and use of 1/4 wave stubs. D. None of the above. share/E8/8-32D10000664000175000017500000000042214621245446011315 0ustar jtnjtn8-32D1 D Accurate range markers must be developed using very narrow pulses. A circuit that could be used to provide these high-quality pulses for the CRT is a: A. Ringing oscillator. B. Monostable multivibrator. C. Triggered bi-stable multivibrator. D. Blocking oscillator. share/E8/8-27C50000664000175000017500000000026414621245446011330 0ustar jtnjtn8-27C5 A In a RADAR receiver the most common types of interference are? A. Weather and sea return. B. Sea return and thermal. C. Weather and electrical. D. Jamming and electrical. share/E8/8-26C30000664000175000017500000000050614621245446011324 0ustar jtnjtn8-26C3 D The circuit shown in Fig. 8C10 is the output of a switching power supply. Measuring from the junction of CR6, CR7 and L1 to ground with an oscilloscope, what waveform would you expect to see? A. Filtered DC. B. Pulsating DC at line frequency. C. AC at line frequency. D. Pulsating DC much higher than line frequency. share/E8/8-48F10000664000175000017500000000041114621245446011324 0ustar jtnjtn8-48F1 C A thick layer of rust and corrosion on the surface of the parabolic dish will have what effect? A. No noticeable effect. B. Scatter and absorption of RADAR waves. C. Decrease in performance, especially for weak targets. D. Slightly out of focus PPI scope. share/E8/8-17B40000664000175000017500000000026514621245446011326 0ustar jtnjtn8-17B4 D The timer circuit: A. Determines the pulse repetition rate (PRR). B. Determines range markers. C. Provides blanking and unblanking signals for the CRT. D. All of the above share/E8/8-24C60000664000175000017500000000017314621245446011325 0ustar jtnjtn8-24C6 C What component is block 50 in Fig. 8A1? A. IF amplifier. B. AFC amplifier. C. Discriminator. D. Crystal detector. share/E8/8-2A30000664000175000017500000000025314621245445011232 0ustar jtnjtn8-2A3 A RADAR range is measured by the constant: A. 150 meters per microsecond. B. 150 yards per microsecond. C. 300 yards per microsecond. D. 18.6 miles per microsecond. share/E8/8-37D60000664000175000017500000000030214621245446011324 0ustar jtnjtn8-37D6 C What display system power supply output would use a tripler circuit? A. The logic circuit supply. B. The sweep circuit supply. C. The HV supply for the CRT anode. D. The resolver drive share/E8/8-11B60000664000175000017500000000021314621245445011312 0ustar jtnjtn8-11B6 D Which of the following is not part of the transmitting system? A. Magnetron. B. Modulator. C. Pulse Forming Network. D. Klystron. share/E8/8-6A60000664000175000017500000000044114621245445011240 0ustar jtnjtn8-6A6 D What is the relationship between pulse repetition rate and pulse width? A. Higher PRR with wider pulse width. B. The pulse repetition rate does not change with the pulse width. C. The pulse width does not change with the pulse repetition rate. D. Lower PRR with wider pulse width. share/E8/8-40E40000664000175000017500000000041214621245446011317 0ustar jtnjtn8-40E4 C A certain length of transmission line has a characteristic impedance of 72 ohms. If the line is cut at its center, each half of the transmission line will have a ZO of: A. 36 ohms. B. 144 ohms. C. 72 ohms. D. The exact length must be known to determine Zo. share/E8/8-47F60000664000175000017500000000043514621245446011336 0ustar jtnjtn8-47F6 C An increase in the deflection on the magnetron current meter could likely be caused by: A. Insufficient pulse amplitude from the modulator. B. Too high a B1 level on the magnetron. C. A decrease of the magnetic field strength. D. A lower duty cycle, as from 0.0003 to 0.0002. share/E8/8-11B20000664000175000017500000000040414621245445011310 0ustar jtnjtn8-11B2 B The purpose of the modulator is to: A. Transmit the high voltage pulses to the antenna. B. Provide high voltage pulses of the proper shape and width to the magnetron. C. Adjust the pulse repetition rate. D. Tune the Magnetron to the proper frequency. share/E8/8-31D10000664000175000017500000000034714621245446011322 0ustar jtnjtn8-31D1 A Timing circuits are used to provide what function? A. Develop synchronizing pulses for the transmitter system. B. Synchronize the antenna and display system. C. Adjust the sea return. D. Control the North Up presentation. share/E8/8-5A10000664000175000017500000000025414621245445011234 0ustar jtnjtn8-5A1 D For a range of 5 nautical miles, the RADAR pulse repetition frequency should be: A. 16.2 Hz or more. B. 16.2 MHz or less. C. 1.62 kHz or more. D. 16.2 kHz or less. share/E8/8-17B50000664000175000017500000000047014621245446011325 0ustar jtnjtn8-17B5 A Pulse RADARs require precise timing for their operation. Which type circuit below might best be used to provide these accurate timing pulses? A. Single-swing blocking oscillator. B. AFC controlled sinewave oscillator. C. Non-symmetrical astable multivibrator. D. Triggered flip-flop type multivibrator. share/E8/8-18B10000664000175000017500000000040414621245446011317 0ustar jtnjtn8-18B1 C An advantage of resonant charging is that it: A. Eliminates the need for a reverse current diode. B. Guarantees perfectly square output pulses. C. Reduces the high-voltage power supply requirements. D. Maintains a constant magnetron output frequency. share/E8/8-21C10000664000175000017500000000027114621245446011314 0ustar jtnjtn8-21C1 A The error voltage from the discriminator is applied to the: A. Repeller (reflector) of the klystron. B. Grids of the IF amplifier. C. Grids of the RF amplifiers. D. Magnetron. share/E8/8-17B60000664000175000017500000000021114621245446011317 0ustar jtnjtn8-17B6 C Unblanking pulses are produced by the timer circuit. Where are they sent? A. IF amplifiers. B. Mixer. C. CRT. D. Discriminator. share/E8/8-10A20000664000175000017500000000030014621245445011301 0ustar jtnjtn8-10A2 C If more light strikes the photodiode in Fig. 8A5, there will be: A. Less diode current. B. No change in diode current. C. More diode current. D. There is wrong polarity on the diode. share/E8/8-38D60000664000175000017500000000041514621245446011332 0ustar jtnjtn8-38D6 B How do you eliminate stationary objects such as trees, buildings, bridges, etc., from the PPI presentation? A. Remove the discriminator from the unit. B. Use a discriminator as a second detector. C. Calibrate the IF circuit. D. Calibrate the local oscillator. share/E8/8-50F50000664000175000017500000000036514621245446011331 0ustar jtnjtn8-50F5 D If a CRT is dropped: A. Most likely nothing will happen because they are built with durability in mind. B. It might go out of calibration. C. The phosphor might break loose. D. It might implode, causing damage to workers and equipment. share/E8/8-11B30000664000175000017500000000060114621245445011310 0ustar jtnjtn8-11B3 A Which of the following statements about most modern RADAR transmitter power supplies is false? A. High voltage supplies may produce voltages in excess of 5,000 volts AC. B. There are usually separate low voltage and high voltage supplies. C. Low voltage supplies use switching circuits to deliver multiple voltages. D. Low voltage supplies may supply both AC and DC voltages. share/E8/8-8A30000664000175000017500000000070114621245445011236 0ustar jtnjtn8-8A3 C When comparing TTL and CMOS logic families, which of the following is true: A. CMOS logic requires a supply voltage of 5 volts +/- 20%, whereas TTL logic requires 5 volts +/- 5%. B. Unused inputs should be tied high or low as necessary especially in the CMOS family. C. At higher operating frequencies, CMOS circuits consume almost as much power as TTL circuits. D. When a CMOS input is held low, it sources current into whatever it drives. share/E8/8-35D40000664000175000017500000000050114621245446011321 0ustar jtnjtn8-35D4 A How does the dual memory function reduce sea clutter? A. Successive sweeps are digitized and compared. Only signals appearing in both sweeps are displayed. B. The dual memory system makes the desired targets larger. C. It reduces receiver gain for closer signals. D. It increases receiver gain for real targets. share/E8/8-8A50000664000175000017500000000025314621245445011242 0ustar jtnjtn8-8A5 D A Gunn diode oscillator takes advantage of what effect? A. Negative resistance. B. Avalanche transit time. C. Bulk-effect. D. Negative resistance and bulk-effect. share/E8/8-41E60000664000175000017500000000031314621245446011322 0ustar jtnjtn8-41E6 D RADAR antenna direction must be sent to the display in all ARPAs or RADAR systems. How is this accomplished? A. 3-phase synchros. B. 2-phase resolvers. C. Optical encoders. D. Any of the above. share/E8/8-46F60000664000175000017500000000024714621245446011336 0ustar jtnjtn8-46F6 D Low or no mixer current could be caused by: A. Local oscillator frequency misadjustment. B. TR cell failure. C. Mixer diode degradation. D. All of the above. share/E8/8-16B10000664000175000017500000000032414621245446011316 0ustar jtnjtn8-16B1 B The ATR box: A. Protects the receiver from strong RADAR signals. B. Prevents the received signal from entering the transmitter. C. Turns off the receiver when the transmitter is on. D. All of the above. share/E8/8-1A10000664000175000017500000000076114621245445011233 0ustar jtnjtn8-1A1 A Choose the most correct statement containing the parameters which control the size of the target echo. A. Transmitted power, antenna effective area, transmit and receive losses, RADAR cross section of the target, range to target. B. Height of antenna, power radiated, size of target, receiver gain, pulse width. C. Power radiated, antenna gain, size of target, shape of target, pulse width, receiver gain. D. Magnetron gain, antenna gain, size of target, range to target, wave-guide loss. share/E8/8-33D50000664000175000017500000000023114621245446011320 0ustar jtnjtn8-33D5 D An important component of the VRM system is the: A. Resolver. B. Interference rejection circuit. C. STC sensitivity control. D. Shift register. share/E8/8-30D20000664000175000017500000000025614621245446011321 0ustar jtnjtn8-30D2 C Which of the following would not normally be an input to the video amplifier? A. Fixed range rings. B. Variable range rings. C. Resolver signal. D. Low level video. share/E8/8-39E40000664000175000017500000000036714621245446011340 0ustar jtnjtn8-39E4 A The center of the transmitted lobe from a slotted waveguide array is: A. Several degrees offset from a line perpendicular to the antenna. B. Perpendicular to the antenna. C. Maximum at the right hand end. D. Maximum at the left hand end. share/E8/8-31D60000664000175000017500000000017514621245446011326 0ustar jtnjtn8-31D6 D The sweep drive is initiated by what circuit? A. Resolver. B. Sweep amplifier. C. Video amplifier. D. Synchronizer. share/E8/8-17B10000664000175000017500000000027514621245446011324 0ustar jtnjtn8-17B1 B What RADAR circuit determines the pulse repetition rate (PRR)? A. Discriminator. B. Timer (synchronizer circuit). C. Artificial transmission line. D. Pulse-rate-indicator circuit. share/E8/8-30D50000664000175000017500000000030214621245446011314 0ustar jtnjtn8-30D5 D The main purpose of the sweep generator is to provide: A. Antenna information. B. Range rings. C. Composite video to the cathode of the CRT. D. The drive signal to the sweep amplifier. share/E8/8-30D40000664000175000017500000000013214621245446011314 0ustar jtnjtn8-30D4 C How many deflection coils are driven by the sweep amplifier? A. 4 B. 3 C. 2 D. 1 share/E8/8-50F30000664000175000017500000000032514621245446011323 0ustar jtnjtn8-50F3 B While making repairs or adjustments to RADAR units: A. Wear fire-retardant clothing. B. Discharge all high-voltage capacitors to ground. C. Maintain the filament voltage. D. Reduce the magnetron voltage. share/E8/8-20C20000664000175000017500000000025714621245446011320 0ustar jtnjtn8-20C2 C In the receive mode, frequency conversion is generally accomplished by a: A. Tunable wave-guide section. B. Pentagrid converter. C. Crystal diode. D. Ferrite device. share/E8/8-40E30000664000175000017500000000036214621245446011322 0ustar jtnjtn8-40E3 B If long-length transmission lines are not properly shielded and terminated: A. The silicon crystals can be damaged. B. Communications receiver interference might result. C. Overmodulation might result. D. Minimal RF loss can result. share/E8/8-9A50000664000175000017500000000033414621245445011243 0ustar jtnjtn8-9A5 B In the Line-Driver/Coax/Line-receiver circuit shown in Fig. 8A3, what component is represented by the blank box marked "X"? A. 25-ohm resistor. B. 51-ohm resistor. C. 10-microhm inductor. D. 20-microhm inductor. share/E8/8-45F40000664000175000017500000000035514621245446011333 0ustar jtnjtn8-45F4 A In the circuit contained in Fig. 8F12, there are 5 volts present at points B and C, and there are zero volts present at points A and D. What is the voltage at point E? A. -1.5 Volts. B. 3.75 Volts. C. 23.75 Volts. D. 4.5 Volts. share/E8/8-1A30000664000175000017500000000017114621245445011230 0ustar jtnjtn8-1A3 A What type of transmitter power is measured over a period of time? A. Average. B. Peak. C. Reciprocal. D. Return. share/E8/8-38D10000664000175000017500000000056014621245446011326 0ustar jtnjtn8-38D1 C The heading flash is a momentary intensification of the sweep line on the PPI presentation. Its function is to: A. Alert the operator when a target is within range. B. Alert the operator when shallow water is near. C. Inform the operator of the dead-ahead position on the PPI scope. D. Inform the operator when the antenna is pointed to the rear of the ship. share/E8/8-38D50000664000175000017500000000031414621245446011327 0ustar jtnjtn8-38D5 D The output of an RC integrator, when driven by a square wave with a period of much less than one time constant is a: A. Sawtooth wave. B. Sine wave. C. Series of narrow spikes. D. Triangle wave. share/E8/8-33D30000664000175000017500000000054514621245446011326 0ustar jtnjtn8-33D3 D How is the variable range marker usually adjusted for accuracy? A. Adjusting the frequency of the VRM oscillator at the maximum range. B. Adjusting the frequency of the VRM oscillator at the minimum range. C. Adjusting the readout to match at the median range ring. D. The minimum and maximum ranges are aligned with the matching fixed range ring. share/E8/8-15B20000664000175000017500000000047014621245446011320 0ustar jtnjtn8-15B2 B In a circular resonant cavity with flat ends, the E-field and the H-field form with specific relationships. The: A. E-lines are parallel to the top and bottom walls. B. E-lines are perpendicular to the end walls. C. H-lines are perpendicular to the side walls. D. H-lines are circular to the end walls. share/E8/8-1A20000664000175000017500000000025614621245445011233 0ustar jtnjtn8-1A2 B Which of the following has NO effect on the maximum range capability? A. Carrier frequency. B. Recovery time. C. Pulse repetition frequency. D. Receiver sensitivity. share/E8/8-14B10000664000175000017500000000047614621245446011324 0ustar jtnjtn8-14B1 B The pulse developed by the modulator may have an amplitude greater than the supply voltage. This is possible by: A. Using a voltage multiplier circuit. B. Employing a resonant charging choke. C. Discharging a capacitor through an inductor. D. Discharging two capacitors in series and combining their charges. share/E8/8-8A40000664000175000017500000000036414621245445011244 0ustar jtnjtn8-8A4 A The primary operating frequency of a reflex klystron is controlled by the: A. Dimensions of the resonant cavity. B. Level of voltage on the control grid. C. Voltage applied to the cavity grids. D. Voltage applied to the repeller plate. share/E8/8-41E20000664000175000017500000000023414621245446011320 0ustar jtnjtn8-41E2 B On a basic synchro system, the angular information is carried on the: A. DC feedback signal. B. Stator lines. C. Deflection coils. D. Rotor lines. share/E8/8-37D30000664000175000017500000000047214621245446011331 0ustar jtnjtn8-37D3 A In a display system power supply what is the purpose of the chopper? A. It acts as an electronic switch between the raw DC output and the inverter. B. It interrupts the AC supply line at a varying rate depending on the load demands. C. It regulates the 5 volt DC output. D. It pre-regulates the AC input. share/E8/8-43E10000664000175000017500000000036614621245446011327 0ustar jtnjtn8-43E1 C A rotary joint is used to: A. Couple two waveguides together at right angles. B. Act as a switch between two waveguide runs. C. Connect a stationary waveguide to the antenna array. D. Maintain pressurization at the end of the waveguide. share/E8/8-15B30000664000175000017500000000023314621245446011316 0ustar jtnjtn8-15B3 C A ferrite circulator is most commonly used in what portion of a RADAR system? A. The antenna. B. The modulator. C. The duplexer. D. The receiver. share/E8/8-10A30000664000175000017500000000043214621245445011310 0ustar jtnjtn8-10A3 B In the circuit shown in Fig. 8A6, which of the following is true? A. With A and B high, Q1 is saturated and Q2 is off. B. With either A or B low, Q1 is saturated and Q2 is off. C. With A and B low, Q2 is on and Q4 is off. D. With either A or B low, Q1 is off and Q2 is on. share/E8/8-19C10000664000175000017500000000043314621245446011323 0ustar jtnjtn8-19C1 A Which of the following statements is true? A. The front end of the receiver does not provide any amplification to the RADAR signal. B. The mixer provides a gain of at least 6 db. C. The I.F. amplifier is always a high gain, narrow bandwidth amplifier. D. None of the above. share/E8/8-12B10000664000175000017500000000020514621245445011307 0ustar jtnjtn8-12B1 D High voltage is applied to what element of the magnetron? A. The waveguide. B. The anode. C. The plate cap. D. The cathode. share/E8/8-9A30000664000175000017500000000040414621245445011237 0ustar jtnjtn8-9A3 D The phantastron circuit is capable of: A. Stabilizing the magnetron. B. Preventing saturation of the RADAR receiver. C. Being used to control repeller voltage in the AFC system. D. Developing a linear ramp voltage when triggered by an external source. share/E8/8-30D10000664000175000017500000000023214621245446011312 0ustar jtnjtn8-30D1 D What are the usual input signals to the video amplifier? A. Low level video. B. Fixed range rings. C. Variable range rings. D. All of the above. share/E8/8-6A50000664000175000017500000000031614621245445011240 0ustar jtnjtn8-6A5 C Small targets are best detected by: A. Short pulses transmitted at a fast rate. B. Using J band frequencies. C. Using a long pulse width with high output power. D. All of these answers are correct. share/E8/8-6A30000664000175000017500000000031714621245445011237 0ustar jtnjtn8-6A3 D The pulse repetition rate (PRR) refers to: A. The reciprocal of the duty cycle. B. The pulse rate of the local oscillator tube. C. The pulse rate of the klystron. D. The pulse rate of the magnetron. share/E8/8-4A40000664000175000017500000000036714621245445011243 0ustar jtnjtn8-4A4 C If a RADAR transmitter has a pulse repetition frequency (PRF) of 900 Hz, a pulse width of 0.5 microseconds and a peak power of 15 kilowatts, what is its average power output? A. 15 kilowatts. B. 13.5 watts. C. 6.75 watts. D. 166.67 watts. share/E8/8-32D50000664000175000017500000000027614621245446011330 0ustar jtnjtn8-32D5 C What is the distance between range markers if the controlling oscillator is operating at 20 kHz? A. 1 nautical miles. B. 2 nautical miles. C. 4 nautical miles. D. 8 nautical miles. share/E8/8-19C20000664000175000017500000000021514621245446011322 0ustar jtnjtn8-19C2 B Logarithmic receivers: A. Can't be damaged. B. Can't be saturated. C. Should not be used in RADAR systems. D. Have low sensitivity. share/E8/8-1A60000664000175000017500000000024614621245445011236 0ustar jtnjtn8-1A6 D The sweep frequency of a RADAR indicator is determined by what parameter? A. Carrier frequency. B. Pulse width. C. Duty cycle. D. Pulse repetition frequency. share/E8/8-12B40000664000175000017500000000037614621245445011323 0ustar jtnjtn8-12B4 D The magnetron is: A. A type of diode that requires an internal magnetic field. B. A triode that requires an external magnetic field. C. Used as the local oscillator in the RADAR unit. D. A type of diode that requires an external magnetic field. share/E8/8-11B50000664000175000017500000000037714621245445011324 0ustar jtnjtn8-11B5 B The purpose of the Synchronizer is to: A. Generate the modulating pulse to the magnetron. B. Generate a timing signal that establishes the pulse repetition rate. C. Insure that the TR tube conducts at the proper time. D. Control the pulse width. share/E8/8-9A60000664000175000017500000000040114621245445011237 0ustar jtnjtn8-9A6 C Choose the most correct statement: A. The magnetron anode is a low voltage circuit. B. The anode of the magnetron carries high voltage. C. The filament of the magnetron carries dangerous voltages. D. The magnetron filament is a low voltage circuit. share/E8/8-42E10000664000175000017500000000014414621245446011320 0ustar jtnjtn8-42E1 D Waveguides can be constructed from: A. Brass. B. Aluminum. C. Copper. D. All of the above. share/E8/8-45F30000664000175000017500000000040014621245446011321 0ustar jtnjtn8-45F3 C The RADAR display has sectors of solid video (spoking). What would be the first thing to check? A. Antenna information circuits failure. B. Frequency of raster scan. C. For interference from nearby ships. D. Constant velocity of antenna rotation. share/E8/8-42E30000664000175000017500000000024514621245446011324 0ustar jtnjtn8-42E3 A Waveguide theory is based upon: A. The movement of an electromagnetic field. B. Current flow through conductive wires. C. Inductance. D. Resonant charging. share/E8/8-27C10000664000175000017500000000026014621245446011320 0ustar jtnjtn8-27C1 B One of the best methods of reducing noise in a RADAR receiver is? A. Changing the frequency. B. Isolation. C. Replacing the resonant cavity. D. Changing the IF strip. share/E8/8-27C30000664000175000017500000000024614621245446011326 0ustar jtnjtn8-27C3 A Noise can appear on the LCD as: A. Erratic video and sharp changes in intensity. B. Black spots on the screen. C. Changes in bearings. D. None of the above. share/E8/8-46F50000664000175000017500000000026014621245446011330 0ustar jtnjtn8-46F5 C A high magnetron current indicates a/an: A. Defective AFC crystal. B. Increase in duty cycle. C. Defective external magnetic field. D. High standing wave ratio (SWR). share/E8/8-43E20000664000175000017500000000042314621245446011322 0ustar jtnjtn8-43E2 A Resistive losses in a waveguide are very small because: A. The inner surface of the waveguide is large. B. The inner surface of the waveguide is small. C. The waveguide does not require a ground connection. D. The heat remains in the waveguide and cannot dissipate. share/E8/8-12B50000664000175000017500000000066614621245445011326 0ustar jtnjtn8-12B5 C A negative voltage is commonly applied to the magnetron cathode rather than a positive voltage to the magnetron anode because: A. The cathode must be made neutral to force electrons into the drift area. B. A positive voltage would tend to nullify or weaken the magnetic field. C. The anode can be operated at ground potential for safety reasons. D. The cavities might not be shock-excited into oscillation by a positive voltage. share/E8/8-40E20000664000175000017500000000045114621245446011320 0ustar jtnjtn8-40E2 C The impedance total (ZO) of a transmission line can be calculated by ZO = sqrt(L/C) when L and C are known. When a section of transmission line contains 250 microhenries of L and 1000 picofarads of C, its impedance total (ZO) will be: A. 50 ohms. B. 250 ohms. C. 500 ohms. D. 1,000 ohms. share/E8/8-18B60000664000175000017500000000055014621245446011326 0ustar jtnjtn8-18B6 B Which of the following characteristics are true of a power MOSFET used in a RADAR switching supply? A. Low input impedance; failure mode can be gate punch-through. B. High input impedance; failure mode can be gate punch-through. C. High input impedance; failure mode can be thermal runaway. D. Low input impedance; failure mode can be gate breakdown. share/E8/8-21C50000664000175000017500000000035114621245446011317 0ustar jtnjtn8-21C5 B The klystron local oscillator is constantly kept on frequency by: A. Constant manual adjustments. B. The Automatic Frequency Control circuit. C. A feedback loop from the crystal detector. D. A feedback loop from the TR box. share/E8/8-18B30000664000175000017500000000057114621245446011326 0ustar jtnjtn8-18B3 C A pulse-width modulator in a switching power supply is used to: A. Provide the reference voltage for the regulator. B. Vary the frequency of the switching regulator to control the output voltage. C. Vary the duty cycle of the regulator switch to control the output voltage. D. Compare the reference voltage with the output voltage sample and produce an error voltage. share/E8/8-17B20000664000175000017500000000017114621245446011320 0ustar jtnjtn8-17B2 D The triggering section is also known as the: A. PFN. B. Timer circuit. C. Blocking oscillator. D. Synchronizer. share/E8/8-32D30000664000175000017500000000040114621245446011314 0ustar jtnjtn8-32D3 A A gated LC oscillator, operating at 27 kHz, is being used to develop range markers. If each cycle is converted to a range mark, the range between markers will be: A. 3 nautical miles. B. 6 nautical miles. C. 8 nautical miles. D. 12 nautical miles. share/E8/8-22C60000664000175000017500000000017714621245446011327 0ustar jtnjtn8-22C6 B In a RADAR receiver AGC and IAGC can vary between: A. 10 and 15 db. B. 20 and 40 db. C. 30 and 60 db. D. 5 and 30 db. share/E8/8-22C20000664000175000017500000000017614621245446011322 0ustar jtnjtn8-22C2 C The usual intermediate frequency of a shipboard RADAR unit is: A. 455 kHz. B. 10.7 MHz. C. 30 or 60 MHz. D. 120 MHz. share/E8/8-49F40000664000175000017500000000040014621245446011326 0ustar jtnjtn8-49F4 A Long horizontal sections of waveguides are not desirable because: A. Moisture can accumulate in the waveguide. B. The waveguide can sag, causing loss of signal. C. Excessive standing waves can occur. D. The polarization of the signal might shift. share/E8/8-47F10000664000175000017500000000040514621245446011326 0ustar jtnjtn8-47F1 B If the magnetron is allowed to operate without the magnetic field in place: A. Its output will be somewhat distorted. B. It will quickly destroy itself from excessive current flow. C. Its frequency will change slightly. D. Nothing serious will happen. share/E8/8-11B40000664000175000017500000000030414621245445011311 0ustar jtnjtn8-11B4 C The purpose of the Pulse Forming Network is to: A. Act as a low pass filter. B. Act as a high pass filter. C. Produce a pulse of the correct width. D. Regulate the pulse repetition rate. share/E8/8-27C40000664000175000017500000000021014621245446011316 0ustar jtnjtn8-27C4 D RADAR interference on a communications receiver appears as: A. A varying tone. B. Static. C. A hissing tone. D. A steady tone. share/E8/8-5A60000664000175000017500000000027114621245445011240 0ustar jtnjtn8-5A6 A For a range of 10 nautical miles, the RADAR pulse repetition frequency (PRF) should be: A. Approximately 8.1 kHz or less. B. 900 Hz. C. 18.1 kHz or more. D. 120.3 microseconds. share/E8/8-1A40000664000175000017500000000020114621245445011223 0ustar jtnjtn8-1A4 C What RADAR component controls timing throughout the system? A. Power supply. B. Indicator. C. Synchronizer. D. Receiver. share/E8/8-9A40000664000175000017500000000053414621245445011244 0ustar jtnjtn8-9A4 A The block diagram of a typical RADAR system microprocessor is shown in Fig. 8A2. Choose the most correct statement regarding this system. A. The ALU executes arithmetic manipulations. B. The ALU is used for address decoding. C. General registers are used for arithmetic manipulations. D. Address pointers are contained in the control unit. share/E8/8-32D40000664000175000017500000000024514621245446011323 0ustar jtnjtn8-32D4 D What would be the frequency of a range ring marker oscillator generating range rings at 10 nautical miles intervals? A. 24 kHz B. 16 kHz C. 12 kHz D. 8 kHz share/E8/8-42E60000664000175000017500000000031314621245446011323 0ustar jtnjtn8-42E6 B How is the signal removed from a waveguide or magnetron? A. With a thin wire called a T-hook. B. With a thin wire called a J-Hook. C. With a coaxial connector. D. With a waveguide flange joint. share/E8/8-39E30000664000175000017500000000032514621245446011331 0ustar jtnjtn8-39E3 D Good bearing resolution largely depends upon: A. A high transmitter output reading. B. A high duty cycle. C. A narrow antenna beam in the vertical plane. D. A narrow antenna beam in the horizontal plane. share/E8/8-37D20000664000175000017500000000030314621245446011321 0ustar jtnjtn8-37D2 D The display power supply provides the following: A. 5 volts DC for logic circuits. B. +/- 12 volts DC for analog and sweep circuits. C. 17kV DC for the CRT HV anode. D. All of the above share/E8/8-12B60000664000175000017500000000041614621245445011320 0ustar jtnjtn8-12B6 B The anode of a magnetron is normally maintained at ground potential: A. Because it operates more efficiently that way. B. For safety purposes. C. Never. It must be highly positive to attract the electrons. D. Because greater peak-power ratings can be achieved. share/E8/8-28C40000664000175000017500000000035614621245446011332 0ustar jtnjtn8-28C4 A The condition known as "glint" refers to a shifting of clutter with each RADAR pulse and can be caused by a: A. Improperly functioning MTI filter. B. Memory failure. C. Low AFC voltage. D. Interference from electrical equipment. share/E8/8-43E60000664000175000017500000000044014621245446011325 0ustar jtnjtn8-43E6 B At microwave frequencies, waveguides are used instead of conventional coaxial transmission lines because: A. They are smaller and easier to handle. B. They have considerably less loss. C. They are lighter since they have hollow centers. D. Moisture is never a problem with them. share/E8/8-48F60000664000175000017500000000026014621245446011333 0ustar jtnjtn8-48F6 B What kind of display would indicate water in the waveguide? A. Spoking. B. Large circular rings near the center. C. Loss of range rings. D. Wider than normal targets. share/E8/8-7A10000664000175000017500000000024114621245445011232 0ustar jtnjtn8-7A1 B What component of a RADAR receiver is represented by block 46 in Fig. 8A1? A. The ATR box. B. The TR box. C. The RF Attenuator. D. The Crystal Detector. share/E8/8-2A20000664000175000017500000000012314621245445011225 0ustar jtnjtn8-2A2 C One RADAR mile is how many microseconds? A. 6.2 B. 528.0 C. 12.34 D. 0.186 share/E8/8-6A10000664000175000017500000000020314621245445011227 0ustar jtnjtn8-6A1 B If the PRF is 2500 Hz, what is the PRI? A. 40 microseconds. B. 400 microseconds. C. 250 microseconds. D. 800 microseconds. share/E8/8-3A20000664000175000017500000000050314621245445011230 0ustar jtnjtn8-3A2 A Practical RADAR operation requires the use of microwave frequencies so that: A. Stronger target echoes will be produced. B. Ground clutter interference will be minimized. C. Interference to other communication systems will be eliminated. D. Non-directional antennas can be used for both transmitting and receiving. share/E8/8-34D10000664000175000017500000000032214621245446011316 0ustar jtnjtn8-34D1 B The purpose of the Electronic Bearing Line is to: A. Indicate your own vessel's heading. B. Measure the bearing of a specific target. C. Indicate True North. D. Display the range of a specific target. share/E8/8-11B10000664000175000017500000000034614621245445011314 0ustar jtnjtn8-11B1 A The magnetron is used to: A. Generate the output signal at the proper operating frequency. B. Determine the shape and width of the transmitted pulses. C. Modulate the pulse signal. D. Determine the pulse repetition rate. share/E8/8-35D20000664000175000017500000000033114621245446011320 0ustar jtnjtn8-35D2 B While troubleshooting a memory problem in a raster scan RADAR, you discover that the "REFRESH" cycle is not operating correctly. What type of memory circuit are you working on? A. SRAM B. DRAM C. ROM D. PROM share/E8/8-28C50000664000175000017500000000036314621245446011331 0ustar jtnjtn8-28C5 D An ion discharge (TR) cell is used to: A. Protect the transmitter from high SWRs. B. Lower the noise figure of the receiver. C. Tune the local oscillator of the RADAR receiver. D. Protect the receiver mixer during the transmit pulse. share/E8/8-35D60000664000175000017500000000035514621245446011332 0ustar jtnjtn8-35D6 A What is the primary purpose of display system memory? A. Eliminate fluctuating targets such as sea return. B. Display stationary targets. C. Display the last available targets prior to a power dropout. D. Store target bearings. share/E8/8-18B40000664000175000017500000000036414621245446011327 0ustar jtnjtn8-18B4 A In a fixed-frequency switching power supply, the pulse width of the switching circuit will increase when: A. The load impedance decreases. B. The load current decreases. C. The output voltage increases. D. The input voltage increases. share/E8/8-10A60000664000175000017500000000052214621245445011313 0ustar jtnjtn8-10A6 A You are troubleshooting a component on a printed circuit board in a RADAR system while referencing the Truth Table in Fig. 8A8. What kind of integrated circuit is the component? A. D-type Flip-Flop, 3-State, Inverting. B. Q-type Flip-Flop, Non-Inverting. C. Q-type Directional Shift Register, Dual. D. D to Q Convertor, 2-State. share/E8/8-29D40000664000175000017500000000037114621245446011331 0ustar jtnjtn8-29D4 A LCD patterns are formed when: A. Current passes through the crystal causing them to align. B. When voltage is reduced to the raster scan display. C. When the deflection coils are resonant. D. When the ships antenna's bearing is true North. share/E8/8-27C60000664000175000017500000000020314621245446011322 0ustar jtnjtn8-27C6 C Noise can: A. Mask larger targets. B. Change bearings. C. Mask small targets. D. Increase RADAR transmitter interference. share/E8/8-34D60000664000175000017500000000047714621245446011336 0ustar jtnjtn8-34D6 C A true bearing presentation appears as follows: A. The bow of the vessel always points up. B. The course of the five closest targets is displayed. C. North is at the top of the display and the ship's heading flasher indicates the vessel's course. D. The course and distance of the closest target is displayed. share/E8/8-35D10000664000175000017500000000017514621245446011325 0ustar jtnjtn8-35D1 D In a digitized RADAR, the 360 degree sweep is divided into how many digitized segments? A. 16 B. 64 C. 255 D. 4,096 share/E8/8-5A50000664000175000017500000000025114621245445011235 0ustar jtnjtn8-5A5 B For a range of 30 nautical miles, the RADAR pulse repetition frequency should be: A. 0.27 kHz or less. B. 2.7 kHz or less. C. 27 kHz or more. D. 2.7 Hz or more. share/E8/8-43E50000664000175000017500000000047714621245446011336 0ustar jtnjtn8-43E5 D The following is true concerning waveguides: A. Conduction is accomplished by the polarization of electromagnetic and electrostatic fields. B. Ancillary deflection is employed. C. The magnetic field is strongest at the center of the waveguide. D. The magnetic field is strongest at the edges of the waveguide. share/E8/8-38D30000664000175000017500000000066214621245446011333 0ustar jtnjtn8-38D3 C In order to ensure that a practical filter is able to remove undesired components from the output of an analog-to-digital converter, the sampling frequency should be: A. The same as the lowest component of the analog frequency. B. Two times the highest component of the analog frequency. C. Greater than two times the highest component of the sampled frequency. D. The same as the highest component of the sampled frequency. share/E8/8-44F50000664000175000017500000000054214621245446011331 0ustar jtnjtn8-44F5 B In a RADAR using digital video processing, a bright, wide ring appears at a fixed distance from the center of the display on all digital ranges. The transmitter is operating normally. What receiver circuit would you suspect is causing the problem? A. VRM circuit. B. Video storage RAM or shift register. C. Range ring generator. D. EBL circuit. share/E8/8-3A60000664000175000017500000000016314621245445011236 0ustar jtnjtn8-3A6 D An X band RADAR operates in which frequency band? A. 1 - 2 GHz. B. 2 - 4 GHz. C. 4 - 8 GHz. D. 8 - 12 GHz. share/E8/8-48F30000664000175000017500000000041014621245446011325 0ustar jtnjtn8-48F3 C What should be done to the interior surface of a waveguide in order to minimize signal loss? A. Fill it with nitrogen gas. B. Paint it with nonconductive paint to prevent rust. C. Keep it as clean as possible. D. Fill it with a high-grade electrical oil. share/E8/8-36D40000664000175000017500000000040514621245446011325 0ustar jtnjtn8-36D4 A Which answer best describes a line on the display which indicates a target's position. The speed is shown by the length of the line and the course by the direction of the line. A. Vector. B. Electronic Bearing Line. C. Range Marker. D. Heading Marker. share/E8/8-19C50000664000175000017500000000046114621245446011330 0ustar jtnjtn8-19C5 B What is the main difference between an analog and a digital receiver? A. Special amplification circuitry. B. The presence of decision circuitry to distinguish between "on" and "off" signal levels. C. An AGC stage is not required in a digital receiver. D. Digital receivers produce no distortion. share/E8/8-15B40000664000175000017500000000051514621245446011322 0ustar jtnjtn8-15B4 A A circulator provides what function in the RF section of a RADAR system? A. It replaces the TR cell and functions as a duplexer. B. It cools the magnetron by forcing a flow of circulating air. C. It permits tests to be made to the thyristors while in use. D. It transmits antenna position to the indicator during operation. share/E8/8-45F60000664000175000017500000000031414621245446011330 0ustar jtnjtn8-45F6 A The indicated distance from your own vessel to a lighthouse is found to be in error. What circuit would you suspect? A. Range ring oscillator. B. Video amplifier. C. STC circuit. D. FTC circuit. share/E8/8-32D20000664000175000017500000000015614621245446011322 0ustar jtnjtn8-32D2 C Range markers are determined by: A. The CRT. B. The magnetron. C. The timer. D. The video amplifier. share/E8/8-49F20000664000175000017500000000040214621245446011326 0ustar jtnjtn8-49F2 B RADAR interference to a communications receiver is eliminated by: A. Not operating other devices when RADAR is in use. B. Properly grounding, bonding, and shielding all units. C. Using a high pass filter on the power line. D. Using a link coupling. share/E8/8-41E10000664000175000017500000000041214621245446011315 0ustar jtnjtn8-41E1 A The position of the PPI scope sweep must indicate the position of the antenna. The sweep and antenna positions are frequently kept in synchronization by the use of: A. Synchro systems. B. Servo systems. C. DC positioning motors. D. Differential amplifiers. share/E8/8-33D10000664000175000017500000000027014621245446011317 0ustar jtnjtn8-33D1 C The variable range marker signal is normally fed to the input of the: A. Sweep amplifier. B. Low voltage power supply regulator. C. Video amplifier. D. Range ring oscillator. share/E8/8-14B40000664000175000017500000000042214621245446011316 0ustar jtnjtn8-14B4 C The shape and duration of the high-voltage pulse delivered to the magnetron is established by: A. An RC network in the keyer stage. B. The duration of the modulator input trigger. C. An artificial delay line. D. The time required to saturate the pulse transformer. share/E8/8-42E20000664000175000017500000000027414621245446011325 0ustar jtnjtn8-42E2 C A microwave transmission line constructed of a center conductor suspended between parallel conductive ground planes is called: A. Microstrip. B. Coax. C. Stripline. D. Waveguide. share/E8/8-47F30000664000175000017500000000040414621245446011327 0ustar jtnjtn8-47F3 A Loss of distant targets during and immediately after wet weather indicates: A. A leak in waveguide or rotary joint. B. High atmospheric absorption. C. Dirt or soot on the rotary joint. D. High humidity in the transmitter causing power supply loading. share/E8/8-45F20000664000175000017500000000032214621245446011323 0ustar jtnjtn8-45F2 B A defective crystal in the AFC section will cause: A. No serious problems. B. Bright flashing pie sections on the PPI. C. Spiking on the PPI. D. Vertical spikes that constantly move across the screen. share/E8/8-41E30000664000175000017500000000025414621245446011323 0ustar jtnjtn8-41E3 A What is the most common type of antenna position indicating device used in modern RADARs? A. Resolvers. B. Servo systems. C. Synchro transmitters. D. Step motors. share/E8/8-26C50000664000175000017500000000045614621245446011332 0ustar jtnjtn8-26C5 C When monitoring the gate voltage of a power MOSFET in the switching power supply of a modern RADAR, you would expect to see the gate voltage change from "low" to "high" by how much? A. 1 volt to 2 volts. B. 300 microvolts to 700 microvolts. C. Greater than 2 volts. D. 1.0 volt to 20.0 volts. share/E8/8-10A50000664000175000017500000000055314621245445011316 0ustar jtnjtn8-10A5 D The block diagram of a typical RADAR system microprocessor is shown in Fig. 8A2. Choose the most correct statement regarding this system. A. The ALU is used for address decoding. B. General registers are used for arithmetic manipulations. C. The control unit executes arithmetic manipulations. D. Address pointers are contained in the general registers. share/E8/8-50F60000664000175000017500000000077314621245446011335 0ustar jtnjtn8-50F6 A Prior to removing, servicing or making measurements on any solid state circuit boards from the RADAR set, the operator should ensure that: A. The proper work surfaces and ESD grounding straps are in place to prevent damage to the boards from electrostatic discharge. B. The waveguide is detached from the antenna to prevent radiation. C. The magnetic field is present to prevent over-current damage or overheating from occurring in the magnetron. D. Only non-conductive tools and devices are used. share/E8/8-20C30000664000175000017500000000044614621245446011321 0ustar jtnjtn8-20C3 B An RF mixer has what purpose in a RADAR system? A. Mixes the CW transmitter output to form pulsed waves. B. Converts a low-level signal to a different frequency. C. Prevents microwave oscillations from reaching the antenna. D. Combines audio tones with RF to produce the RADAR signal. share/E8/8-34D50000664000175000017500000000053414621245446011327 0ustar jtnjtn8-34D5 B Which of the following statements about "true bearing" is correct? A. The ship's heading flasher is at the top of the screen. B. True North is at the top of the screen and the heading flasher indicates the vessel's course. C. The true bearing of the nearest target is indicated. D. The relative bearing of the nearest target is indicated. share/E8/8-3A50000664000175000017500000000034014621245445011232 0ustar jtnjtn8-3A5 A The major advantage of an S-band RADAR over an X-band RADAR is: A. It is less affected by weather conditions. B. It has greater bearing resolution. C. It is mechanically less complex. D. It has greater power output. share/E8/8-44F10000664000175000017500000000052314621245446011324 0ustar jtnjtn8-44F1 B When you examine the RADAR you notice that there is no target video in the center of the CRT. The blank spot gets smaller in diameter as you increase the range scale. What operator front panel control could be misadjusted? A. TUNE. B. Sensitivity Time Control (STC). C. Anti-Clutter Rain (ACR). D. False Target Elimination (FTE). share/E8/8-19C40000664000175000017500000000023314621245446011324 0ustar jtnjtn8-19C4 A What section of the receiving system sends signals to the display system? A. Video amplifier. B. Audio amplifier. C. I.F. Amplifier. D. Resolver. share/E8/8-50F10000664000175000017500000000104014621245446011314 0ustar jtnjtn8-50F1 D Choose the most correct statement with respect to component damage from electrostatic discharge: A. ESD damage occurs primarily in passive components which are easily identified and replaced. B. ESD damage occurs primarily in active components which are easily identified and replaced. C. The technician will feel a small static shock and recognize that ESD damage has occurred to the circuit. D. ESD damage may cause immediate circuit failures, but may also cause failures much later at times when the RADAR set is critically needed. share/E8/8-49F60000664000175000017500000000042614621245446011340 0ustar jtnjtn8-49F6 C What is the most important factor to consider in locating the antenna? A. Allow the shortest cable/waveguide run. B. Maximum height for best long range operation. C. The antenna is in a location that is not shadowed by other structures. D. Easy access for maintenance. share/E8/8-20C40000664000175000017500000000023714621245446011320 0ustar jtnjtn8-20C4 C In a RADAR unit, the mixer uses a: A. Pentagrid converter tube. B. Field-effect transistor. C. Silicon crystal or PIN diode. D. Microwave transistor. share/E8/8-31D20000664000175000017500000000021514621245446011315 0ustar jtnjtn8-31D2 B The circuit that develops timing signals is called the: A. Resolver. B. Synchronizer. C. Pulse forming network. D. Video amplifier. share/E8/8-36D20000664000175000017500000000057314621245446011331 0ustar jtnjtn8-36D2 C What does the term ARPA/CAS refer to? A. The basic RADAR system in operation. B. The device which displays the optional U.S.C.G. Acquisition and Search RADAR information on a CRT display. C. The device which acquires and tracks targets that are displayed on the RADAR indicator's CRT. D. The device which allows the ship to automatically steer around potential hazards. share/E8/8-33D60000664000175000017500000000052514621245446011327 0ustar jtnjtn8-33D6 B Which of the following statements about the Variable Range Marker system is correct? A. The VRM is an auxiliary output of the fixed range marker oscillator. B. The VRM system develops a single adjustable range ring. C. The VRM system is calibrated using a frequency counter. D. The VRM system is controlled by a crystal oscillator. share/E8/8-23C30000664000175000017500000000106614621245446011323 0ustar jtnjtn8-23C3 D In video amplifiers, compensation for the input and output stage capacitances must be accomplished to prevent distorting the video pulses. This compensation is normally accomplished by connecting: A. Inductors in parallel with both the input and output capacitances. B. Resistances in parallel with both the input and output capacitances. C. An inductor in parallel with the input capacitance and an inductor in series with the output capacitance. D. An inductor in series with the input capacitance and an inductor in parallel with the output capacitance. share/E8/8-39E50000664000175000017500000000046414621245446011337 0ustar jtnjtn8-39E5 B How does antenna length affect the horizontal beamwidth of the transmitted signal? A. The longer the antenna the wider the horizontal beamwidth. B. The longer the antenna the narrower the horizontal beamwidth. C. The horizontal beamwidth is not affected by the antenna length. D. None of the above. share/E8/8-5A30000664000175000017500000000030314621245445011231 0ustar jtnjtn8-5A3 C The minimum range of a RADAR is determined by: A. The frequency of the RADAR transmitter. B. The pulse repetition rate. C. The transmitted pulse width. D. The pulse repetition frequency. share/E8/8-48F40000664000175000017500000000024214621245446011331 0ustar jtnjtn8-48F4 A Which of the following is the most useful instrument for RADAR servicing? A. Oscilloscope. B. Frequency Counter. C. R. F. Wattmeter. D. Audio generator. share/E8/8-38D20000664000175000017500000000040514621245446011325 0ustar jtnjtn8-38D2 B The major advantage of digitally processing a RADAR signal is: A. Digital readouts appear on the RADAR display. B. Enhancement of weak target returns. C. An improved operator interface. D. Rectangular display geometry is far easier to read on the CRT. share/E8/8-21C20000664000175000017500000000022314621245446011312 0ustar jtnjtn8-21C2 B In a RADAR unit, the local oscillator is a: A. Hydrogen Thyratron. B. Klystron. C. Pentagrid converter tube. D. Reactance tube modulator. share/E8/8-13B10000664000175000017500000000030314621245445011307 0ustar jtnjtn8-13B1 C In a solid-state RADAR modulator, the duration of the transmitted pulse is determined by: A. The thyratron. B. The magnetron voltage. C. The pulse forming network. D. The trigger pulse. share/E8/8-50F20000664000175000017500000000045714621245446011330 0ustar jtnjtn8-50F2 C Before testing a RADAR transmitter, it would be a good idea to: A. Make sure no one is on the deck. B. Make sure the magnetron's magnetic field is far away from the magnetron. C. Make sure there are no explosives or flammable cargo being loaded. D. Make sure the Coast Guard has been notified. share/E8/8-16B40000664000175000017500000000031414621245446011320 0ustar jtnjtn8-16B4 A What device is located between the magnetron and the mixer and prevents received signals from entering the magnetron? A. The ATR tube. B. The TR tube. C. The RF Attenuator. D. A resonant cavity. share/E8/8-15B60000664000175000017500000000072714621245446011331 0ustar jtnjtn8-15B6 A What is the purpose or function of the RADAR duplexer/circulator? A. An electronic switch that allows the use of one antenna for both transmission and reception. B. A coupling device that is used in the transition from a rectangular waveguide to a circular waveguide. C. A modified length of waveguide used to sample a portion of the transmitted energy for testing purposes. D. A dual section coupling device that allows the use of a magnetron as a transmitter. share/E8/8-24C40000664000175000017500000000027114621245446011322 0ustar jtnjtn8-24C4 C An AFC system keeps the receiver tuned to the transmitted signal by varying the frequency of the: A. Magnetron. B. IF amplifier stage. C. Local oscillator. D. Cavity duplexer. share/E8/8-40E50000664000175000017500000000042614621245446011325 0ustar jtnjtn8-40E5 D Standing waves on a transmission line may be an indication that: A. All energy is being delivered to the load. B. Source and surge impedances are equal to ZO and ZL. C. The line is terminated in impedance equal to ZO. D. Some of the energy is not absorbed by the load. share/E8/8-20C10000664000175000017500000000040314621245446011310 0ustar jtnjtn8-20C1 D The diagram in Fig. 8C9 shows a simplified RADAR mixer circuit using a crystal diode as the first detector. What is the output of the circuit when no echoes are being received? A. 60 MHz CW. B. 4095 MHz CW. C. 4155 MHz CW. D. No output is developed. share/E8/8-36D60000664000175000017500000000044414621245446011332 0ustar jtnjtn8-36D6 D The ARPA term CPA refers to: A. The furthest point a ship or target will get to your own ship's bow. B. Direction of target relative to your own ship's direction. C. The combined detection and processing of targets. D. The closest point a ship or target will approach your own ship. share/E8/8-29D10000664000175000017500000000033614621245446011327 0ustar jtnjtn8-29D1 A Modern liquid crystal displays have a pixel count of: A. Greater than 200 pixels per inch. B. Greater than 50 pixels per inch. C. Can have no more than 125 pixels per inch. D. Can implement 1,000 pixels per inch. share/E8/8-10A40000664000175000017500000000031614621245445011312 0ustar jtnjtn8-10A4 C What is the correct value of RS in Fig. 8A7, if the voltage across the LED is 1.9 Volts with 5 Volts applied and If max equals 40 milliamps? A. 4,700 ohms. B. 155 ohms. C. 77 ohms. D. 10,000 ohms. share/E8/8-37D50000664000175000017500000000020014621245446011320 0ustar jtnjtn8-37D5 A What would be a common switching frequency for a display system power supply? A. 18 kHz B. 120 Hz C. 60 kHz D. 120 kHz share/E8/8-5A40000664000175000017500000000026714621245445011243 0ustar jtnjtn8-5A4 A Short range RADARs would most likely transmit: A. Narrow pulses at a fast rate. B. Narrow pulses at a slow rate. C. Wide pulses at a fast rate. D. Wide pulses at a slow rate. share/E8/8-23C40000664000175000017500000000021314621245446011315 0ustar jtnjtn8-23C4 A Which of the following signals is not usually an input to the video amplifier? A. Resolver. B. Range. C. Brilliance. D. Contrast. share/E8/8-40E60000664000175000017500000000042714621245446011327 0ustar jtnjtn8-40E6 A What precautions should be taken with horizontal waveguide runs? A. They should be sloped slightly downwards at the elbow and a small drain hole drilled in the elbow. B. They should be absolutely level. C. They should not exceed 10 feet in length. D. None of the above. share/E8/8-7A20000664000175000017500000000040114621245445011231 0ustar jtnjtn8-7A2 D A basic sample-and-hold circuit contains: A. An analog switch and an amplifier. B. An analog switch, a capacitor, and an amplifier. C. An analog multiplexer and a capacitor. D. An analog switch, a capacitor, amplifiers and input and output buffers. share/E8/8-21C30000664000175000017500000000025414621245446011317 0ustar jtnjtn8-21C3 A What component of a RADAR receiver is represented by block 48 in Fig. 8A1? A. Klystron (local oscillator). B. Discriminator. C. IF amplifier. D. Crystal detector. share/E8/8-25C30000664000175000017500000000027514621245446011326 0ustar jtnjtn8-25C3 C Sea return is: A. Sea water that gets into the antenna system. B. The return echo from a target at sea. C. The reflection of RADAR signals from nearby waves. D. None of the above. share/E8/8-8A60000664000175000017500000000033514621245445011244 0ustar jtnjtn8-8A6 B Fine adjustments of a reflex klystron are accomplished by: A. Adjusting the flexible wall of the cavity. B. Varying the repeller voltage. C. Adjusting the AFC control system. D. Varying the cavity grid potential. share/E8/8-3A10000664000175000017500000000017314621245445011232 0ustar jtnjtn8-3A1 C Frequencies generally used for marine RADAR are in the ___ part of the radio spectrum. A. UHF B. EHF C. SHF D. VHF share/E8/8-36D30000664000175000017500000000045414621245446011330 0ustar jtnjtn8-36D3 D Which of the following would not be considered an input to the computer of a collision avoidance system? A. Own ship's exact position from navigation satellite receiver. B. Own ship's gyrocompass heading. C. Own ship's speed from Doppler log. D. Own ship's wind velocity from an anemometer. share/E8/8-47F50000664000175000017500000000062114621245446011332 0ustar jtnjtn8-47F5 A On a vessel with two RADARs, one has a different range indication on a specific target than the other. How would you determine which RADAR is incorrect? A. Check the sweep and timing circuits of both indicators for correct readings. B. Triangulate target using the GPS and visual bearings. C. Check antenna parallax. D. Use the average of the two indications and adjust both for that amount. share/E8/8-2A10000664000175000017500000000024214621245445011226 0ustar jtnjtn8-2A1 D A radio wave will travel a distance of three nautical miles in: A. 6.17 microseconds. B. 37.0 microseconds. C. 22.76 microseconds. D. 18.51 microseconds. share/E8/8-16B20000664000175000017500000000030014621245446011311 0ustar jtnjtn8-16B2 C When a pulse RADAR is radiating, which elements in the TR box are energized? A. The TR tube only. B. The ATR tube only. C. Both the TR and ATR tubes. D. Neither the TR nor ATR tubes. share/E8/8-7A60000664000175000017500000000024114621245445011237 0ustar jtnjtn8-7A6 C What component of a RADAR receiver is represented by block 47 in Fig. 8A1? A. The ATR box. B. The TR box. C. The RF Attenuator. D. The Crystal Detector. share/E8/8-2A40000664000175000017500000000031214621245445011227 0ustar jtnjtn8-2A4 D If a target is 5 miles away, how long does it take for the RADAR echo to be received back at the antenna? A. 51.4 microseconds. B. 123 microseconds. C. 30.75 microseconds. D. 61.7 microseconds. share/E8/8-26C60000664000175000017500000000071414621245446011330 0ustar jtnjtn8-26C6 D The nominal output high of the comparator shown in Fig. 8C11 is 4.5 volts. Choose the most correct statement which describes the trip points. A. Upper trip point is 4.5 volts. Lower trip point is approximately 0 volts. B. Upper trip point is 2.5 volts. Lower trip point is approximately 2.0 volts. C. Upper trip point is 900 microvolts. Lower trip point is approximately 0 volts. D. Upper trip point is +1.285 volts. Lower trip point is -1.285 volts. share/E8/8-29D60000664000175000017500000000052214621245446011331 0ustar jtnjtn8-29D6 C Select the statement, which is most correct regarding a raster scan display. A. Raster displays are the same as conventional T.V. receivers. B. The scan rate for a RADAR system is 30 frames per second. C. Raster scanning is controlled by clock pulses and requires an address bus. D. Raster scanning is not used in RADAR systems. share/E8/8-3A40000664000175000017500000000023614621245445011235 0ustar jtnjtn8-3A4 B A RADAR operating at a frequency of 3 GHz has a wavelength of approximately: A. 1 centimeter. B. 10 centimeters. C. 3 centimeters. D. 30 centimeters. share/E8/8-30D30000664000175000017500000000026614621245446011323 0ustar jtnjtn8-30D3 B The purpose of the sweep amplifier is to: A. Increase the power of the video amplifier. B. Drive the CRT deflection coils. C. Drive the resolver coils. D. All of the above. share/E8/8-12B30000664000175000017500000000021214621245445011307 0ustar jtnjtn8-12B3 A What device is used as a transmitter in a marine RADAR system? A. Magnetron. B. Klystron. C. Beam-powered pentode. D. Thyratron. share/E8/8-20C60000664000175000017500000000021114621245446011312 0ustar jtnjtn8-20C6 A In a RADAR unit, the mixer uses: A. PIN diodes and silicon crystals. B. PIN diodes. C. Boettcher crystals. D. Silicon crystals. share/E8/8-13B50000664000175000017500000000025114621245445011315 0ustar jtnjtn8-13B5 D What device(s) may act as the modulator of a RADAR system? A. Magnetron. B. Klystron. C. Video amplifier. D. Thyratron or a silicon-controlled rectifier (SCR). share/E8/8-47F40000664000175000017500000000043314621245446011332 0ustar jtnjtn8-47F4 D In a marine RADAR set, a high VSWR is indicated at the magnetron output. The waveguide and rotary joint appear to be functioning properly. What component may be malfunctioning? A. The magnetron B. The waveform generator C. The STC circuit D. The waveguide array termination share/E8/8-36D50000664000175000017500000000051014621245446011323 0ustar jtnjtn8-36D5 C What is the purpose or function of the "Trial Mode" used in most ARPA equipment? A. It selects trial dots for targets' recent past positions. B. It is used to display target position and your own ship's data such as TCPA, CPA, etc. C. It is used to allow results of proposed maneuvers to be assessed. D. None of these. share/E8/8-26C10000664000175000017500000000075114621245446011324 0ustar jtnjtn8-26C1 B Prior to making "power-on" measurements on a switching power supply, you should be familiar with the supply because of the following: A. You need to know where the filter capacitors are so they can be discharged. B. If it does not use a line isolation transformer you may destroy the supply with grounded test equipment. C. It is not possible to cause a component failure by using ungrounded test equipment. D. So that measurements can be made without referring to the schematic. share/E8/8-23C60000664000175000017500000000030414621245446011320 0ustar jtnjtn8-23C6 B The video (second) detector in a pulse modulated RADAR system would most likely use a/an: A. Discriminator detector. B. Diode detector. C. Ratio detector. D. Infinite impedance detector. share/E8/8-17B30000664000175000017500000000015314621245446011321 0ustar jtnjtn8-17B3 A Operation of any RADAR system begins in the: A. Triggering section. B. Magnetron. C. AFC. D. PFN. share/E8/8-4A30000664000175000017500000000040614621245445011234 0ustar jtnjtn8-4A3 A A pulse RADAR transmits a 0.5 microsecond RF pulse with a peak power of 100 kilowatts every 1600 microseconds. This RADAR has: A. An average power of 31.25 watts. B. A PRF of 3,200. C. A maximum range of 480 kilometers. D. A duty cycle of 3.125 percent. share/E8/8-28C30000664000175000017500000000036614621245446011332 0ustar jtnjtn8-28C3 C Where is a RF attenuator used in a RADAR unit? A. Between the antenna and the receiver. B. Between the magnetron and the antenna. C. Between the magnetron and the AFC section of the receiver. D. Between the AFC section and the klystron. share/E8/8-19C30000664000175000017500000000016614621245446011330 0ustar jtnjtn8-19C3 D RADAR receivers are similar to: A. FM receivers. B. HF receivers. C. T.V. receivers. D. Microwave receivers. share/E8/8-29D20000664000175000017500000000020014621245446011316 0ustar jtnjtn8-29D2 B Voltages used in CRT anode circuits are in what range of value? A. 0.5-10 mV. B. 10-50 kV. C. 20-50 mV. D. 200-1000 V. share/E8/8-32D60000664000175000017500000000026014621245446011322 0ustar jtnjtn8-32D6 B What would be the frequency of a range ring marker oscillator generating range rings at intervals of 0.25 nautical miles? A. 161 kHz B. 322 kHz C. 644 kHz D. 1288 kHz share/E8/8-46F10000664000175000017500000000075014621245446011330 0ustar jtnjtn8-46F1 B Silicon crystals are used in RADAR mixer and detector stages. Using an ohmmeter, how might a crystal be checked to determine if it is functional? A. Its resistance should be the same in both directions. B. Its resistance should be low in one direction and high in the opposite direction. C. Its resistance cannot be checked with a dc ohmmeter because the crystal acts as a rectifier. D. It would be more appropriate to use a VTVM and measure the voltage drop across the crystal. share/E8/8-13B60000664000175000017500000000033614621245445011322 0ustar jtnjtn8-13B6 B The purpose of a modulator in the transmitter section of a RADAR is to: A. Improve bearing resolution. B. Provide the correct waveform to the transmitter. C. Prevent sea return. D. Control magnetron power output. share/E8/8-37D10000664000175000017500000000040314621245446011321 0ustar jtnjtn8-37D1 B The display power supply provides the following: A. +18 volts DC for the pulse forming network. B. 5 volts DC for logic circuits and +/- 12 volts DC for analog and sweep circuits. C. 80 volts AC for the antenna resolver circuits. D. All of the above share/E8/8-25C60000664000175000017500000000047214621245446011330 0ustar jtnjtn8-25C6 A The sensitivity time control (STC) circuit: A. Decreases the sensitivity of the receiver for close objects. B. Increases the sensitivity of the receiver for close objects. C. Increases the sensitivity of the receiver for distant objects. D. Decreases the sensitivity of the transmitter for close objects. share/E8/8-2A60000664000175000017500000000040214621245445011231 0ustar jtnjtn8-2A6 B What is the distance in nautical miles to a target if it takes 308.5 microseconds for the RADAR pulse to travel from the RADAR antenna to the target and back. A. 12.5 nautical miles. B. 25 nautical miles. C. 50 nautical miles. D. 2.5 nautical miles. share/E8/8-49F50000664000175000017500000000035414621245446011337 0ustar jtnjtn8-49F5 B In a RADAR system, waveguides should be installed: A. Slightly bent for maximum gain. B. As straight as possible to reduce distortion. C. At 90 degree angles to improve resonance. D. As long as possible for system flexibility. share/E8/8-21C40000664000175000017500000000022714621245446011320 0ustar jtnjtn8-21C4 C What device(s) could be used as the local oscillator in a RADAR receiver? A. Thyratron B. Klystron C. Klystron and a Gunn Diode D. Gunn diode share/E8/8-14B20000664000175000017500000000046314621245446011321 0ustar jtnjtn8-14B2 D Pulse transformers and pulse-forming networks are commonly used to shape the microwave energy burst RADAR transmitter. The switching devices most often used in such pulse-forming circuits are: A. Power MOSFETS and Triacs. B. Switching transistors. C. Thyratrons and BJT's. D. SCR's and Thyratrons. share/E8/8-6A40000664000175000017500000000026114621245445011236 0ustar jtnjtn8-6A4 A If the RADAR unit has a pulse repetition frequency (PRF) of 2000 Hz and a pulse width of 0.05 microseconds, what is the duty cycle? A. 0.0001 B. 0.0005 C. 0.05 D. 0.001 share/E8/8-48F50000664000175000017500000000022114621245446011327 0ustar jtnjtn8-48F5 D A non-magnetic screwdriver should always be used when replacing what component? A. TR tube. B. Mixer. C. Video amplifier. D. Magnetron. share/E8/8-42E40000664000175000017500000000043514621245446011326 0ustar jtnjtn8-42E4 D A waveguide is used at RADAR microwave frequencies because: A. It is easier to install than other feedline types. B. It is more rugged than other feedline types. C. It is less expensive than other feedline types. D. It has lower transmission losses than other feedline types. share/E8/8-16B60000664000175000017500000000047514621245446011332 0ustar jtnjtn8-16B6 D A DC keep-alive potential: A. Is applied to a TR tube to make it more sensitive. B. Partially ionizes the gas in a TR tube, making it very sensitive to transmitter pulses. C. Fully ionizes the gas in a TR tube. D. Is applied to a TR tube to make it more sensitive and partially ionizes the gas in a TR tube. share/E8/8-13B20000664000175000017500000000022514621245445011313 0ustar jtnjtn8-13B2 A The modulation frequency of most RADAR systems is between: A. 60 and 500 Hz. B. 3000 and 6000 Hz. C. 1500 and 7500 Hz. D. 1000 and 3000 Hz. share/E8/8-40E10000664000175000017500000000037114621245446011320 0ustar jtnjtn8-40E1 D The VSWR of a microwave transmission line device might be measured using: A. A dual directional coupler and a power meter. B. A network analyzer. C. A spectrum analyzer. D. A dual directional coupler, a power meter, and a network analyzer. share/E8/8-12B20000664000175000017500000000024514621245445011314 0ustar jtnjtn8-12B2 C The characteristic of the magnetron output pulse that relates to accurate range measurement is its: A. Amplitude. B. Decay time. C. Rise time. D. Duration. share/E8/8-7A30000664000175000017500000000036014621245445011236 0ustar jtnjtn8-7A3 A When comparing a TTL and a CMOS NAND gate: A. Both have active pull-up characteristics. B. Both have three output states. C. Both have comparable input power sourcing. D. Both employ Schmitt diodes for increased speed capabilities. share/E8/8-22C40000664000175000017500000000032714621245446011322 0ustar jtnjtn8-22C4 D A logarithmic IF amplifier is preferable to a linear IF amplifier in a RADAR receiver because it: A. Has higher gain. B. Is more easily aligned. C. Has a lower noise figure. D. Has a greater dynamic range. share/E8/8-34D30000664000175000017500000000020614621245446011321 0ustar jtnjtn8-34D3 A Which of the following inputs is required to indicate azimuth? A. Gyro signals. B. Synchronizer C. Resolver. D. Range rings. share/E8/8-31D50000664000175000017500000000022014621245446011314 0ustar jtnjtn8-31D5 B The output from the synchronizer usually consists of a: A. Sine wave. B. Pulse or square wave. C. Triangle wave. D. None of the above. share/E8/8-47F20000664000175000017500000000045014621245446011327 0ustar jtnjtn8-47F2 D Targets displayed on the RADAR display are not on the same bearing as their visual bearing. What should you first suspect? A. A bad reed relay in the antenna pedestal. B. A sweep length misadjustment. C. One phase of the yoke assembly is open. D. Incorrect antenna position information. share/E8/8-34D40000664000175000017500000000033314621245446011323 0ustar jtnjtn8-34D4 C Bearing information from the gyro is used to provide the following: A. The heading of the nearest target. B. Range and bearing to the nearest target. C. Vessel's own heading. D. The range of a selected target. share/E8/8-43E30000664000175000017500000000022014621245446011316 0ustar jtnjtn8-43E3 D A right-angle bend in an X-band waveguide must have a radius greater than: A. Three inches. B. Six inches. C. One inch. D. Two inches. share/E8/8-22C10000664000175000017500000000023114621245446011311 0ustar jtnjtn8-22C1 D Overcoupling in a RADAR receiver will cause? A. Improved target returns. B. Increase the range of the IAGC. C. Decrease noise. D. Oscillations. share/E8/8-4A10000664000175000017500000000036014621245445011231 0ustar jtnjtn8-4A1 B A pulse RADAR has a pulse repetition frequency (PRF) of 400 Hz, a pulse width of 1 microsecond, and a peak power of 100 kilowatts. The average power of the RADAR transmitter is: A. 25 watts. B. 40 watts. C. 250 watts. D. 400 watts. share/E8/8-31D40000664000175000017500000000020714621245446011320 0ustar jtnjtn8-31D4 C The synchronizer primarily affects the following circuit or function: A. Mixer. B. Receiver. C. Modulator. D. I.F. Amplifier. share/E8/8-27C20000664000175000017500000000030514621245446011321 0ustar jtnjtn8-27C2 D The primary cause of noise in a RADAR receiver can be attributed to: A. Electrical causes. B. Atmospheric changes. C. Poor grounding. D. Thermal noise caused by RADAR receiver components. share/E8/8-19C60000664000175000017500000000020614621245446011326 0ustar jtnjtn8-19C6 C In a RADAR receiver, the RF power amplifier: A. Is high gain. B. Is low gain. C. Does not exist. D. Requires wide bandwidth. share/E8/8-8A20000664000175000017500000000030514621245445011235 0ustar jtnjtn8-8A2 B Which of the following is not a method of analog-to-digital conversion? A. Delta-sigma conversion. B. Dynamic-range conversion. C. Switched-capacitor conversion. D. Dual-slope integration. share/E8/8-30D60000664000175000017500000000032214621245446011317 0ustar jtnjtn8-30D6 A The main purpose of the video amplifier is to provide: A. Composite video to the cathode of the CRT. B. Resolver signals C. Antenna X and Y signals. D. Provide the drive signal to the sweep amplifier. share/E8/8-34D20000664000175000017500000000031314621245446011317 0ustar jtnjtn8-34D2 D The Electronic Bearing Line is: A. The ships heading line. B. A line indicating True North. C. Used to mark a target to obtain the distance. D. A line from your own vessel to a specific target. share/E8/8-41E50000664000175000017500000000035114621245446011323 0ustar jtnjtn8-41E5 B An antenna synchro transmitter is composed of the following: A. Three rotor and two stator windings. B. Two rotor and three stator windings. C. Three rotor and three stator windings. D. A single rotor and 3 stator windings. share/E8/8-36D10000664000175000017500000000062214621245446011323 0ustar jtnjtn8-36D1 B The ship's speed indication on the ARPA display can be set manually, but does not change with changes in the vessel's speed. What other indication would point to a related equipment failure? A. "GYRO OUT" is displayed on the ARPA indicator. B. "LOG OUT" is displayed on the ARPA indicator. C. "TARGET LOST" is displayed on the ARPA indicator. D. "NORTH UP" is displayed on the ARPA indicator. share/E8/8-50F40000664000175000017500000000033114621245446011321 0ustar jtnjtn8-50F4 C While removing a CRT from its operating casing, it is a good idea to: A. Discharge the first anode. B. Test the second anode with your fingertip. C. Wear gloves and goggles. D. Set it down on a hard surface. share/E8/8-45F50000664000175000017500000000026314621245446011332 0ustar jtnjtn8-45F5 B If the TR tube malfunctions: A. The transmitter might be damaged. B. The receiver might be damaged. C. The klystron might be damaged. D. Magnetron current will increase. share/E8/8-25C20000664000175000017500000000034614621245446011324 0ustar jtnjtn8-25C2 B The STC circuit: A. Increases the sensitivity of the receiver for close targets. B. Decreases sea return on the PPI scope. C. Helps to increase the bearing resolution of targets. D. Increases sea return on the PPI scope. share/E8/8-15B10000664000175000017500000000022014621245446011310 0ustar jtnjtn8-15B1 D The ferrite material in a circulator is used as a(an): A. Electric switch. B. Saturated reactor. C. Loading element. D. Phase shifter. share/E8/8-26C40000664000175000017500000000121414621245446011322 0ustar jtnjtn8-26C4 A With regard to the comparator shown in Fig. 8C11, the input is a sinusoid. Nominal high level output of the comparator is 4.5 volts. Choose the most correct statement regarding the input and output. A. The leading edge of the output waveform occurs 180 degrees after positive zero crossing of the input waveform. B. The rising edge of the output waveform trails the positive zero crossing of the input waveform by 45 degrees. C. The rising edge of the output waveform trails the negative zero crossing of the input waveform by 45 degrees. D. The rising edge of the output waveform trails the positive peak of the input waveform by 45 degrees. share/E8/8-39E20000664000175000017500000000022014621245446011322 0ustar jtnjtn8-39E2 B A typical shipboard RADAR antenna is a: A. Rotary parabolic transducer. B. Slotted waveguide array. C. Phased planar array. D. Dipole. share/E8/8-13B30000664000175000017500000000036614621245445011322 0ustar jtnjtn8-13B3 D A shipboard RADAR uses a PFN driving a magnetron cathode through a step-up transformer. This results in which type of modulation? A. Frequency modulation. B. Amplitude modulation. C. Continuous Wave (CW) modulation. D. Pulse modulation. share/E8/8-5A20000664000175000017500000000025114621245445011232 0ustar jtnjtn8-5A2 B For a range of 100 nautical miles, the RADAR pulse repetition frequency should be: A. 8.1 kHz or less. B. 810 Hz or less. C. 8.1 kHz or more. D. 81 kHz or more. share/E7R/0000775000175000017500000000000014623217205010731 5ustar jtnjtnshare/E7R/7R-24D40000664000175000017500000000052614621717561011572 0ustar jtnjtn7R-24D4 A Which of the following situations would normally use the Urgency priority? A. A serious medical situation involving a crewmember. B. A collision with the ship taking on water. C. Important company communications related to an itinerary change. D. Scenarios concerning the Safety of navigation or important meteorological warnings. share/E7R/7R-15C30000664000175000017500000000016514621717561011567 0ustar jtnjtn7R-15C3 A A MMSI 030346239 indicates what? A. Group MMSI B. Inmarsat-C I.D. number C. Coast station D. Ship station share/E7R/7R-4A40000664000175000017500000000036514621717561011506 0ustar jtnjtn7R-4A4 A What equipment can be used to receive Maritime Safety Information? A. NAVTEX, EGC receiver or HF SITOR (NBDP). B. EGC receiver, Inmarsat B or F77 terminal. C. HF SITOR (NBDP), Inmarsat B or NAVTEX. D. All of these answers are correct. share/E7R/7R-27E50000664000175000017500000000066414621717562011603 0ustar jtnjtn7R-27E5 B At what point does a SART begin transmitting? A. It immediately begins radiating when placed in the "on" position. B. If it has been placed in the "on" position, it will respond when it has been interrogated by a 9-GHz radar signal. C. It must be manually activated or water activated before radiating. D. If it has been placed in the "on" position, it will begin transmitting immediately upon detecting that it is in water. share/E7R/7R-36E10000664000175000017500000000113414621717562011570 0ustar jtnjtn7R-36E1 B What actions should the GMDSS radio operator take prior to any potential Distress situation? A. Create a table or chart of all the DSC coast stations that might be used during the vessel's itinerary. B. All of these answers are good operational practice and should be consistently done. C. Prepare a detailed Distress message file on both satellite & MF-HF SITOR (NBDP) equipment containing all information needed in a Distress so it will be available for last-minute editing. D. Ensure all LES choices are correct and then updated properly as the vessel transits different SAR jurisdictions. share/E7R/7R-27E60000664000175000017500000000025614621717562011601 0ustar jtnjtn7R-27E6 C A SART's signal cannot be detected: A. In poor visibility, or at night. B. In heavy seas. C. By a search vessel's 10 cm Radar. D. By a search vessel's 3 cm Radar. share/E7R/7R-4A30000664000175000017500000000111214621717561011474 0ustar jtnjtn7R-4A3 D GMDSS-equipped ships will be required to perform which of the following communications functions? A. Distress alerting, MSI, SAR and on-scene communications & receipt of satellite alerts from other vessels. B. SAR and on-scene communications, Bridge-to-Bridge and general radio communications, MSI and relay of satellite alerts from other vessels. C. Bridge-to-Bridge and general radio communications, RDF of EPIRB homing signals, Distress alerting and MSI. D. Transmit distress alerts, SAR and on-scene communications, MSI, Bridge-to-Bridge and general radio communications. share/E7R/7R-30E40000664000175000017500000000063514621717562011572 0ustar jtnjtn7R-30E4 C Which of the following statements concerning COSPAS-SARSAT is false? A. EPIRBs, ELTs, and PLBs use the system primarily for Distress alerting. B. These satellites monitor 406 MHz for EPIRB signals. C. After initiating a call request and selecting the LES, these satellites may be used for commercial messages. D. These satellites use Doppler shift measurement to determine the location of the beacons. share/E7R/7R-2A10000664000175000017500000000016214621717561011474 0ustar jtnjtn7R-2A1 D Which GMDSS system utilizes terrestrial radio techniques? A. F-77 B. Inmarsat-C C. GPS D. VHF-MF-HF-DSC share/E7R/7R-37F20000664000175000017500000000022314621717562011571 0ustar jtnjtn7R-37F2 B When do NAVTEX broadcasts typically achieve maximum transmitting range? A. Local noontime B. Middle of the night C. Afternoon D. Sunset share/E7R/7R-27E10000664000175000017500000000067614621717562011602 0ustar jtnjtn7R-27E1 C What indication is given to the personnel in a survival craft of the approach of SAR craft? A. The Satellite EPIRB will change its strobe light pattern to indicate radar interrogation. B. The SART informs survivors when the SART switches to the "standby" mode. C. The SART may provide a visual or audible indication of interrogation by a 3-cm radar. D. The AIS SART will alarm to indicate that SAR craft with radars are getting close. share/E7R/7R-20D10000664000175000017500000000117614621717561011565 0ustar jtnjtn7R-20D1 B Which statement is true regarding the receipt and acknowledgement of Distress alerts by ship stations? A. Ship stations in receipt of a Distress alert should acknowledge it immediately to assist the coast station in responding to the Distress alert. B. A ship station that receives a Distress alert must, as soon as possible, inform the Master or person responsible for the ship of the contents of the Distress alert. C. Ship stations that receive a Distress alert from a vessel in their vicinity must immediately send a DSC relay to inform the RCC. D. Alerts concerning navigational hazards are second only to Safety traffic. share/E7R/7R-18C20000664000175000017500000000106114621717561011565 0ustar jtnjtn7R-18C2 A Which of the following statements is true regarding Distress alerting under GMDSS? A. The Distress alert must identify the station in Distress and its position and may additionally include information regarding the nature of the Distress. B. Ship to shore Distress alerts are used to alert other ships in port of navigational hazards. C. Ship-to-ship Distress alerts are used to alert other ships in the vicinity of navigational hazards and bad weather. D. The vessel nearest to the emergency must notify the Coast Guard before leaving the vicinity. share/E7R/7R-35E10000664000175000017500000000062314621717562011571 0ustar jtnjtn7R-35E1 C Which action should the GMDSS radio operator take in a Distress situation when embarking in survival craft? A. EPIRB and SART switched on manually prior to embarking; remain aboard vessel in Distress. B. Notify RCC (Rescue Coordination Center) through VHF DSC in portable equipment. C. Switch on EPIRB and SART immediately and leave on. D. Communicate via Inmarsat-C from the survival craft. share/E7R/7R-21D30000664000175000017500000000064514621717561011570 0ustar jtnjtn7R-21D3 C Under what condition would you not relay a DSC Distress alert? A. If the mobile unit in Distress is incapable of further Distress alert communications. B. If no Coast Station/Mobile Unit acknowledgement of the alert is observed. C. A coast station DSC acknowledgment of the original Distress alert was received by your vessel. D. No distress traffic has been heard and the DSC alert is unacknowledged via DSC. share/E7R/7R-19D30000664000175000017500000000021714621717561011572 0ustar jtnjtn7R-19D3 A You receive a VHF-DSC Distress alert. What Channel should you monitor for further information? A. Ch-16 B. Ch-06 C. Ch-22A D. Ch-70 share/E7R/7R-49G50000664000175000017500000000040214621717562011577 0ustar jtnjtn7R-49G5 A What precautions should be taken when reviewing received Distress messages? A. Take steps not to accidentally send a DSC acknowledgement or relay. B. Press the "Call" key when finished. C. Always save the message. D. No precautions are necessary. share/E7R/7R-9B30000664000175000017500000000044214621717561011507 0ustar jtnjtn7R-9B3 C What publications should the GMDSS Radio Operator consult to review the proper procedures to be followed in Distress situations under GMDSS? A. The manufacturer's technical manuals. B. The manufacturer's operator manuals. C. 47 CFR Part 80 Subpart W. D. 47 CFR Part 90 Subpart V. share/E7R/7R-17C20000664000175000017500000000110014621717561011556 0ustar jtnjtn7R-17C2 B Which of the following statements on DSC acknowledgement and relay of DSC Distress alerts is true? A. Operators cannot initiate acknowledgements or relays. B. Most equipment was designed to allow for DSC acknowledgements and ALL SHIPS DSC relays but this should only be done per current regulations. C. The equipment was designed to allow for DSC acknowledgements and relays and the operator should follow the software menu structure accordingly. D. DSC acknowledgements and relays are automatically transmitted by the unit to ensure the RCC receives the Distress. share/E7R/7R-26D40000664000175000017500000000070014621717562011567 0ustar jtnjtn7R-26D4 C The vessel's GMDSS operator fails to properly record the particulars of an incoming DSC Distress alert. Which statement is true? A. The details of the DSC alert are obtainable from the DSC address book. B. The details of the DSC Distress alert are irrevocably lost. C. The details of the DSC alert should be obtainable by accessing the DSC call data directory. D. The details of the DSC Distress alert are never stored for later review. share/E7R/7R-16C50000664000175000017500000000063314621717561011572 0ustar jtnjtn7R-16C5 D Which statement is true regarding vessel position when sending a "Distress Hot Key" alert? A. The operator must choose to include the position. B. The vessel's position will always be correct if taken from the connected GPS. C. A connected GPS is always required to ensure the Distress position is accurate. D. The position will either be taken from the connected GPS or the updated manual position. share/E7R/7R-48G40000664000175000017500000000067114621717562011605 0ustar jtnjtn7R-48G4 A If the vessel you wish to call is not listed in your VHF address book, what action would not resolve the problem? A. Look in the DSC Distress call data directory for the MMSI number of the other vessel. B. The vessel's MMSI number could be manually entered during the call setup. C. The vessel's name and MMSI number may be entered in the address book for use. D. Look the number up in the ITU books and manually call the vessel. share/E7R/7R-22D40000664000175000017500000000076314621717561011573 0ustar jtnjtn7R-22D4 C The EPIRB on the bridge wing is observed with the strobe light flashing and the control switch in the "ON" position. What action(s) should be taken? A. Disabling the EPIRB is all that is necessary. B. Contact the nearest USCG Coast Station and request that they send the alert reset signal. C. Contact the nearest coast station or RCC to cancel the distress alert and subsequently disable the EPIRB. D. Disable the EPIRB and wait for the USCG to advise that the transmission has stopped. share/E7R/7R-1A40000664000175000017500000000065414621717561011504 0ustar jtnjtn7R-1A4 D GMDSS is primarily a system based on: A. Ship-to-ship Distress communications using MF or HF radiotelephony. B. VHF digital selective calling from ship to shore. C. Distress, Urgency and Safety communications carried out by the use of narrow-band direct printing telegraphy. D. The linking of search and rescue authorities ashore with shipping in the immediate vicinity of a ship in Distress or in need of assistance. share/E7R/7R-50G10000664000175000017500000000027414621717562011572 0ustar jtnjtn7R-50G1 D What information is normally entered in the address book? A. The vessel's IMN. B. The vessel's call sign and name. C. The vessel's IMO number. D. Vessel's name and MMSI number. share/E7R/7R-29E60000664000175000017500000000027414621717562011603 0ustar jtnjtn7R-29E6 B The SART is required to have sufficient battery capacity to operate in the stand-by mode for what period of time? A. Three days B. Four days C. Eight hours D. Forty-eight hours share/E7R/7R-13B30000664000175000017500000000113414621717561011561 0ustar jtnjtn7R-13B3 C Which is true concerning a required watch on VHF Ch-16? A. When a vessel is in an A1 sea area and subject to the Bridge-to-Bridge act and in a VTS system, a watch is required on Ch-16 in addition to both Ch-13 and the VTS channel. B. It is not compulsory at all times while at sea until further notice, unless the vessel is in a VTS system. C. When a vessel is in an A1 sea area and subject to the Bridge-to-Bridge act and in a VTS system, a watch is not required on Ch-16 provided the vessel monitors both Ch-13 and the VTS channel. D. It is not always compulsory in sea areas A2, A3 and A4. share/E7R/7R-31E10000664000175000017500000000062314621717562011565 0ustar jtnjtn7R-31E1 C What features may be found on GMDSS satellite EPIRB units? A. Strobe light, Distress homing transmission on 406 MHz, float-free release bracket. B. Emergency transmission on 406 MHz, hydrostatic release, AIS homing frequency. C. Float-free release bracket, strobe light & Distress alert transmission on 406 MHz. D. Hydrostatic release, Distress alert transmission on 121.5 MHz, strobe light. share/E7R/7R-26D10000664000175000017500000000100314621717562011561 0ustar jtnjtn7R-26D1 D Which of the following steps should be taken, if possible, when the vessel must be abandoned because of a Distress situation? A. Alert the U.S. Coast Guard by using the survival craft's portable Inmarsat unit. B. Program the SART and EPIRB to transmit the vessel's location and situation. C. No additional steps are needed as the SART and EPIRB will both automatically float free and operate properly. D. Secure the EPIRB to the survival craft and mount the SART in a position to maximize its elevation. share/E7R/7R-34E10000664000175000017500000000062014621717562011565 0ustar jtnjtn7R-34E1 D The "On Scene Coordinator" may be which of the following? A. The vessel in Distress will always be the "On Scene Coordinator" for itself. B. The first search vessel to arrive on the scene is always designated as the OSC. C. Only shore authorities, Coast Station or RCC's can be the "On Scene Coordinator." D. Any involved vessel so designated by the Search and Rescue Mission Coordinator. share/E7R/7R-11B10000664000175000017500000000035114621717561011555 0ustar jtnjtn7R-11B1 C Which FCC license meets the requirement to serve as a GMDSS operator? A. General Radiotelephone Operator's License. B. Marine Radio Operator's Permit. C. GMDSS Radio Operator's License D. GMDSS Radio Maintainer's License. share/E7R/7R-37F40000664000175000017500000000073114621717562011577 0ustar jtnjtn7R-37F4 D Which of these cannot happen when a paper model NAVTEX receiver runs out of paper? A. The unit is unable to print messages and all subsequent MSI broadcasts may be missed until the paper is replaced. B. It may give off either an audible and/or visual alarm. C. MSI messages may be missed because the unit cannot print them out. D. The system will automatically change from receiving MSI by NAVTEX to receiving it by SafetyNETTM so that no messages will be lost. share/E7R/7R-38F30000664000175000017500000000105614621717562011600 0ustar jtnjtn7R-38F3 B Which of the following statements is true? A. No NAVTEX receiver can be programmed to reject category A, B, D and L messages since they are mandatory to be received via NAVTEX. B. A GMDSS Radio Operator may choose to program certain NAVTEX receivers to reject category A, B, D and L messages if they are being received by another MSI system. C. Upon entering a new NAVTEX station's broadcast range, the GMDSS Radio Operator enters the station's SELCAL number. D. The GMDSS Radio Operator can select the "None" option in the message category menu. share/E7R/7R-48G10000664000175000017500000000050514621717562011576 0ustar jtnjtn7R-48G1 B How are Routine calls usually formatted/initiated? A. By pressing the "Distress Hot Key". B. By making the appropriate key strokes to select the appropriate menu choices. C. By pressing the "Alarm" button and then selecting from various options. D. Using Ch-70 to make Routine priority DSC calls is not permitted. share/E7R/7R-47G40000664000175000017500000000045414621717562011603 0ustar jtnjtn7R-47G4 B To send a Distress alert use the following procedure: A. Initiate a menu call to select Ch-16 for voice communications. B. Use the "Distress Hot Key" in an appropriate manner. C. Always insert the nature of the Distress first. D. Make a voice Mayday call on Ch-16 before any other action. share/E7R/7R-47G60000664000175000017500000000052114621717562011600 0ustar jtnjtn7R-47G6 C A DSC Safety priority call might be used under the following circumstances: A. A crew member is missing and presumed lost overboard. B. There is a fire in the engine room. C. A lifeboat has been lost over the side in heavy weather and is adrift. D. A medical situation that did not present an imminent danger of loss of life. share/E7R/7R-6A60000664000175000017500000000031414621717561011504 0ustar jtnjtn7R-6A6 D A ship operating in sea area A-1 must have the following provisions for maintenance: A. Shore maintenance. B. Duplication of equipment. C. At Sea Maintenance. D. Any one of these is sufficient. share/E7R/7R-25D50000664000175000017500000000025714621717562011576 0ustar jtnjtn7R-25D5 A The Radiotelephone Safety signal is: A. "Securite" repeated 3 times B. "Safety Safety Safety" C. "Pan Pan" repeated 3 times D. "Securite Securite" repeated 3 times share/E7R/7R-27E30000664000175000017500000000063114621717562011573 0ustar jtnjtn7R-27E3 A How can a SART's detection and effective range be maximized? A. The SART should be held or mounted as high as possible and in a vertical position. B. The SART should be placed in water immediately so it will begin transmitting. C. Switch the SART into the "high" power position. D. If possible, the SART should be mounted horizontally so that its signal matches that of the searching radar signal. share/E7R/7R-34E60000664000175000017500000000027714621717562011602 0ustar jtnjtn7R-34E6 D Passenger vessel "On Scene" communications should be conducted with aircraft on which of the following channels or frequencies? A. 9 GHz B. VHF Ch-13 C. VHF Ch-26 D. VHF 121.5 MHz share/E7R/7R-44G10000664000175000017500000000055514621717562011577 0ustar jtnjtn7R-44G1 B Which of the following control selections may result in limited receiving range? A. Setting the squelch control to its minimum level. B. Setting the squelch control to its maximum level. C. The power switch is set to the "high" output position, resulting in receiver overloading. D. Setting the channel selection switch midway between channels 6 and 16. share/E7R/7R-19D20000664000175000017500000000056214621717561011574 0ustar jtnjtn7R-19D2 D Why should you always follow on with a voice transmission after sending a DSC Distress alert? A. A voice follow on transmission is always necessary in a genuine Distress. B. To provide more information than is contained in the DSC message. C. To confirm for coast stations and other mariners that the Distress is genuine. D. All of these answers are correct. share/E7R/7R-8B30000664000175000017500000000106214621717561011505 0ustar jtnjtn7R-8B3 D Which statement is false regarding a GMDSS-equipped ship? A. A conditional or partial exemption may be granted, in exceptional circumstances, for a single voyage outside the sea area for which the vessel is equipped. B. The regulations apply to all passenger ships regardless of size and cargo ships of 300 gross tons and upwards. C. Ships must carry at least two persons holding a GMDSS Radio Operator's license for Distress and Safety radio-communications purposes. D. Ships must have the required equipment inspected at least once every five years. share/E7R/7R-15C60000664000175000017500000000050114621717561011564 0ustar jtnjtn7R-15C6 C Which of the following statements concerning MMSI is true? A. All ship station MMSI must begin with a single zero and include the MID. B. All group station MMSI must begin with the MID. C. None of these answers are correct. D. All Coast Station MMSI must be 9 digits and begin with the MID and then two zeros. share/E7R/7R-43G30000664000175000017500000000047114621717562011575 0ustar jtnjtn7R-43G3 A Setting the squelch control to just beyond the point where the background noise disappears results in: A. Maximum sensitivity without background noise. B. Reduced sensitivity without background noise. C. Minimum background noise with reduced sensitivity. D. Greater bandwidth without background noise. share/E7R/7R-26D50000664000175000017500000000060114621717562011570 0ustar jtnjtn7R-26D5 C What action(s) should be taken when abandoning ship? A. Send a VHF-DSC Distress alert on Ch-16 before going to the boats. B. Activate the EPIRB and leave it secured to the mounting bracket. C. Take EPIRB, SART and SCT units to the survival craft and use as circumstances dictate. D. Once in the survival craft - activate the EPIRB and send a VHF-DSC Distress alert on Ch-16 share/E7R/7R-47G10000664000175000017500000000051014621717562011571 0ustar jtnjtn7R-47G1 C The quickest way to transmit a DSC Distress alert is: A. Select "Distress" priority from the menu and transmit an "all ships" call. B. Transmit a "MAYDAY" call on Ch-16. C. Press the "Distress Hot Key" as specified by the equipment manufacturer. D. Select "Distress Relay Select" from the menu and transmit the call. share/E7R/7R-6A10000664000175000017500000000130114621717561011474 0ustar jtnjtn7R-6A1 D Which of the following statements concerning maintenance requirements is false? A. Compulsory vessels sailing in Sea Areas A1 and A2 must provide any one of the three maintenance options which are duplication of equipment, shore-based, or at-sea maintenance capability. B. Compulsory vessels sailing in Sea Areas A3 and A4 must provide any two of the three maintenance options which are duplication of equipment, shore-based, or at-sea maintenance capability. C. Equipment warranties do not satisfy GMDSS maintenance requirements. D. If shore-based maintenance is used, maintenance services do not have to be completed or performance verified unless the vessel will be sailing to a non-US port. share/E7R/7R-23D20000664000175000017500000000120114621717561011556 0ustar jtnjtn7R-23D2 D When can routine communications be resumed when radio silence has been imposed? A. After determining that the frequency or channel appears to be no longer in use. B. After determining that geographic distance from the Distress situation will prohibit any other signal from interfering with emergency communications. C. If, in the master's opinion, communications on that frequency will interfere with emergency communications. D. Routine communications can resume after the Rescue Coordination Center transmits a message on the frequency or channel being used for emergency communications stating that such traffic has concluded. share/E7R/7R-5A20000664000175000017500000000056714621717561011511 0ustar jtnjtn7R-5A2 B What statement is true regarding the additional equipment carriage requirement imposed for the survival craft of vessels over 500 gross tons? A. Additional carriage of two radio equipped lifeboats aft. B. A second radar transponder is required. C. Four additional portable VHF radios are required. D. The ability to communicate in all modes with any shore station. share/E7R/7R-50G60000664000175000017500000000042114621717562011571 0ustar jtnjtn7R-50G6 D When initiating a DSC call through the menu system what is the most likely information that will be displayed after making the first correct keystroke? A. The Telecom-1 menu. B. The particulars of the previous call. C. The priority menu. D. The call setup menu. share/E7R/7R-3A30000664000175000017500000000045514621717561011504 0ustar jtnjtn7R-3A3 A If a vessel is engaged in local trade and at no point in its voyage travels outside the range of a VHF shore station with continuous DSC alerting then the vessel is operating in what area? A. Sea area A1 B. Coastal and international zones C. Inland and coastal waters D. Sea areas A1 and A2 share/E7R/7R-2A30000664000175000017500000000016214621717561011476 0ustar jtnjtn7R-2A3 B What equipment is used in or near the survival craft? A. NAVTEX B. EPIRB C. Fathometer D. COSPAS-SARSAT share/E7R/7R-32E50000664000175000017500000000021114621717562011563 0ustar jtnjtn7R-32E5 D What is an example of a locating signal? A. SSB phone traffic B. Ship to shore transmissions C. Loran C D. A float-free EPIRB share/E7R/7R-31E60000664000175000017500000000026414621717562011573 0ustar jtnjtn7R-31E6 C Which of the following EPIRBs is most likely to be used to transmit a Distress alert signal? A. S-Band EPIRBs B. X-Band EPIRBs C. 406 MHz EPIRBs D. 121.5/243 MHz EPIRBs share/E7R/7R-14C30000664000175000017500000000021714621717561011564 0ustar jtnjtn7R-14C3 B What does the MID (Maritime Identification Digits) signify? A. Port of registry B. Nationality C. Gross tonnage D. Passenger vessel share/E7R/7R-21D20000664000175000017500000000063614621717561011567 0ustar jtnjtn7R-21D2 B Your ship received a Distress relay from a coast station on DSC VHF channel 70. What action should the watch officer take? A. Retransmit the DSC call on Ch-70 to other vessels in the vicinity. B. Monitor Ch-16 to determine if there are any genuine Distress communications. C. Monitor Ch-06 to determine if there are any genuine Distress communications. D. Transmit a voice "Mayday Relay" call on Ch-13. share/E7R/7R-2A40000664000175000017500000000026714621717561011505 0ustar jtnjtn7R-2A4 C What equipment is programmed to initiate transmission of Distress alerts and calls to individual stations? A. NAVTEX B. GPS C. DSC Controller D. DSC Scanning Watch Receiver share/E7R/7R-41F30000664000175000017500000000021214621717562011563 0ustar jtnjtn7R-41F3 C Which satellite system promulgates Maritime Safety Information? A. AMVER B. NAVTEX C. Inmarsat-C SafetyNETTM D. Inmarsat-M SES share/E7R/7R-10B10000664000175000017500000000054514621717561011561 0ustar jtnjtn7R-10B1 D Which of the following maintenance functions is not the responsibility of the GMDSS Radio Operator? A. Visual inspection of equipment, including the antenna and associated components. B. Perform on-the-air verification checks. C. Perform scheduled testing of the battery's charged condition. D. Aligning the power output stage for maximum power. share/E7R/7R-46G20000664000175000017500000000057514621717562011604 0ustar jtnjtn7R-46G2 A What is the reason for the USA-INT control or function? A. It changes some channels that are normally duplex INT channels into simplex USA channels. B. It changes some channels that are normally simplex INT channels into duplex USA channels. C. When the control is set to "INT" the range is increased. D. It changes duplex USA channels to simplex for International use. share/E7R/7R-46G10000664000175000017500000000073214621717562011576 0ustar jtnjtn7R-46G1 D The nearest Coast Guard station is being called by a vessel on Ch-22. That vessel's USA-INT switch is set to INT. What will be the results? A. There should be no problem carrying on communications. B. The Coast Guard station will not hear the call due to listening on a duplex receiving frequency. C. Neither station will hear the other's calls. D. The Coast Guard station will probably hear the call and respond but the vessel called will not hear the response. share/E7R/7R-24D20000664000175000017500000000062014621717562011564 0ustar jtnjtn7R-24D2 C Which of the following situations would normally use the Urgency priority? A. A crewmember falling over the side. B. A serious medical situation involving a crewmember with potential loss of life. C. A cargo shift or weather situation considered to be of greater hazard than would justify a Safety priority designation. D. An important meteorological warning concerning hazardous weather. share/E7R/7R-29E50000664000175000017500000000050514621717562011577 0ustar jtnjtn7R-29E5 A Which is NOT a valid maintenance and testing function for a SART? A. Operational test with several vessels to determine effective transmitting range. B. Inspection of container for apparent damage. C. Inspect battery expiration date and the lanyard condition. D. Brief operational test utilizing own ship's radar. share/E7R/7R-22D10000664000175000017500000000046314621717561011565 0ustar jtnjtn7R-22D1 D What action should you take after sending a false Distress alert on VHF? A. Send a DSC cancellation message on Ch-70. B. Make a voice announcement to cancel the alert on Ch-13. C. Make a voice announcement to cancel the alert on Ch-22A. D. Make a voice announcement to cancel the alert on Ch-16. share/E7R/7R-33E30000664000175000017500000000061014621717562011565 0ustar jtnjtn7R-33E3 C Equipment for radiotelephony use in survival craft stations under GMDSS must have what characteristic(s)? A. Permanently-affixed antenna, watertight, power 1W or 25W. B. Watertight, power a minimum of 1W, operation on CH-16, Ch-13 & Ch-70. C. Operation on Ch-16, watertight, permanently-affixed antenna. D. Operation on Ch-16, Ch-13 & Ch-70, power 1W, permanently-affixed antenna. share/E7R/7R-23D30000664000175000017500000000105414621717561011565 0ustar jtnjtn7R-23D3 A What is meant by the term "Seelonce Mayday"? A. Stations not directly involved with the on-going Distress communications may not transmit on the Distress frequency or channel. B. Stations remaining off the air to safeguard proprietary information. C. Two three-minute silent periods, at 15 and 45 minutes after the hour, that provide a transmitting "window" for distressed vessels to transmit Distress alerts using J3E. D. Communications on a Distress frequency or channel is banned for 24 hours following the cessation of the Distress traffic. share/E7R/7R-9B10000664000175000017500000000047714621717561011515 0ustar jtnjtn7R-9B1 A Which of the following references should be consulted for information on the proper setup and use of GMDSS equipment? A. The manufacturer's operating manuals. B. 47 CFR Part 80 Subpart W. C. Instructions are available through the Maritime Safety Information (MSI) system. D. ITU List of Equipment Operations. share/E7R/7R-7A40000664000175000017500000000017014621717561011503 0ustar jtnjtn7R-7A4 B What is the frequency range for Ultra High Frequency? A. 3-30 MHz B. 300-3,000 MHz C. 30-300 MHz D. 10-30 MHz share/E7R/7R-24D10000664000175000017500000000014514621717562011565 0ustar jtnjtn7R-24D1 B The Radiotelephone Urgency signal is: A. Mayday B. Pan Pan C. Securite D. Seelonce Feenee share/E7R/7R-37F60000664000175000017500000000050014621717562011573 0ustar jtnjtn7R-37F6 B What is the transmitting range of most NAVTEX stations? A. Typically 50-100 nautical miles (90-180 km) from shore. B. Typically 200-400 nautical miles (360-720 km). C. Typically upwards of 1000 nautical miles (1800 km) during the daytime. D. It is limited to line-of-sight or about 30 nautical miles (54 km). share/E7R/7R-43G60000664000175000017500000000055014621717562011576 0ustar jtnjtn7R-43G6 C Proper and legal VHF operations require all of these except? A. The channel must be designated as valid for the nature or type of communications desired. B. Simplex, duplex and alpha channel modes must be correctly selected. C. The correct bandwidth must be selected by the operator. D. The power level must be appropriately chosen by the operator. share/E7R/7R-41F10000664000175000017500000000016114621717562011564 0ustar jtnjtn7R-41F1 A SafetyNETTM promulgates what type of information? A. MSI B. Traffic Lists C. News advisories D. MARAD share/E7R/7R-19D10000664000175000017500000000022114621717561011563 0ustar jtnjtn7R-19D1 C If a VHF-DSC Distress alert is transmitted what channel is used for follow-on voice transmission? A. Ch-12 B. Ch-70 C. Ch-16 D. Ch-13 share/E7R/7R-26D20000664000175000017500000000063414621717562011573 0ustar jtnjtn7R-26D2 A If your vessel has suffered a casualty severe enough to disable both ship's power and the GMDSS console RSE you should: A. Activate the EPIRB and/or use the SCT to make a "Mayday" call on Ch-16. B. Use UHF Transceivers to contact other vessels. C. Activate the EPIRB and/or use the SCT to make a "Mayday" call on Ch-70. D. Make a "Mayday" call on Ch-70 and Ch-06 using the Survival Craft Transceiver. share/E7R/7R-6A40000664000175000017500000000110214621717561011476 0ustar jtnjtn7R-6A4 C What statement is correct regarding the maintenance requirements for A3 ships under GMDSS? A. If the vessel selects at-sea maintenance no additional parts and spares are required. B. On-board maintenance provided by a person holding a GMDSS Maintainer's license will fully meet the requirements. C. Redundancy of functions of certain equipment and on-board maintenance provided by a person holding a GMDSS Maintainer's license will partially meet this requirement. D. Shoreside maintenance and scheduled tests and inspections will not partially meet this requirement. share/E7R/7R-25D20000664000175000017500000000053014621717562011565 0ustar jtnjtn7R-25D2 B Which of the following situations would normally use the Voice designation "Securite"? A. Messages concerning the Safety of Life At Sea (SOLAS). B. Messages detailing important navigational warnings. C. Messages containing information concerning the Safety of a mobile unit or person. D. Messages concerning On-scene communications. share/E7R/7R-44G20000664000175000017500000000041114621717562011567 0ustar jtnjtn7R-44G2 C While conducting routine communications using the wheelhouse VHF with a station 1 mile distant, your recommended power setting would be: A. 25 watts after dark. B. 25 watts during a clear sunny day. C. 1 watt, day or night. D. 1 watt using DSC at night. share/E7R/7R-39F60000664000175000017500000000037214621717562011604 0ustar jtnjtn7R-39F6 C NAVTEX broadcasts are sent: A. Immediately following traffic lists. B. On request of maritime mobile stations. C. In categories of messages indicated by a single letter or identifier. D. Regularly, after the radiotelephone silent periods. share/E7R/7R-9B40000664000175000017500000000115614621717561011513 0ustar jtnjtn7R-9B4 D Which of the following documents or publications are required by the FCC for GMDSS vessels on international voyages (other than the Great Lakes)? A. IMO master plan of shore-based facilities (or substitute), station logs, appropriate operator licenses, Inmarsat handbook for GMDSS. B. NGA Pub. 117 (or substitute), station logs, appropriate operator licenses, IAMSAR manual volume III. C. Part 80 FCC rules, station logs, station licenses, ITU publications, IMO manual for Maritime Mobile stations. D. Part 80 FCC rules, station logs, station licenses, ITU publications, ITU manual for Maritime Mobile stations. share/E7R/7R-10B40000664000175000017500000000064314621717561011563 0ustar jtnjtn7R-10B4 C Which of the following service or maintenance functions may NOT be performed by the holder of a GMDSS Radio Operator License? A. Reset tripped circuit breakers or replace defective fuses. B. Routine battery maintenance if used as part of the GMDSS station. C. Any adjustments or maintenance that may affect the proper operation of the station. D. Replacement of consumable items such as paper, ribbons, etc. share/E7R/7R-19D50000664000175000017500000000100114621717561011564 0ustar jtnjtn7R-19D5 B What information should be included in a Distress follow on voice transmission after a DSC Alert? A. Ship's Name and Call Sign, MMSI number, DSC frequency used and any other information that might facilitate rescue. B. Ship's Name and Call Sign, MMSI number & position, the nature of distress and assistance requested. C. Ship's position, Ship's IMN, the nature of distress and assistance requested. D. Ship's Name and Call sign, repeat IMN, provide any other information that might facilitate rescue. share/E7R/7R-35E30000664000175000017500000000065714621717562011602 0ustar jtnjtn7R-35E3 A Which statement is NOT true regarding the COSPAS-SARSAT system? A. The position of the EPRIB is always transmitted in the outgoing transmission (unless the unit is a GPIRB). B. Signals received by low altitude, near-polar orbiting satellites are relayed to a ground receiving station (LUT). C. Doppler shift is used to locate the position of the EPIRB. D. EPIRBs are satellite beacons used as alerting & homing devices. share/E7R/7R-24D30000664000175000017500000000053314621717561011567 0ustar jtnjtn7R-24D3 D Which of the following situations would not properly use the Urgency priority? A. Treatment of a crewmember breaking a leg in a cargo hold. B. Leaking oil from a minor tank fracture requiring a mandatory pollution report. C. An unexpected deviation in the forecast track line of a typhoon. D. Abandoning the vessel just before sinking. share/E7R/7R-44G50000664000175000017500000000061314621717562011576 0ustar jtnjtn7R-44G5 D Describing VHF transmissions as "line of sight" does not mean: A. Vessel antenna height will not affect the radius of propagation. B. The normal transmission range to a coast station is approximately is 10 NM. C. Coast station antenna height has no effect on the radius of transmission. D. VHF communications are effective only with nearby stations within visual range of the bridge. share/E7R/7R-43G40000664000175000017500000000035114621717562011573 0ustar jtnjtn7R-43G4 B The "Scan" function is used to: A. Monitor Ch-16 continuously and switching to either Ch-70 or Ch-13 every 5 seconds. B. Sequentially scan all or selected channels. C. Scan Ch-70 for Distress alerts. D. None of the above. share/E7R/7R-50G40000664000175000017500000000053714621717562011577 0ustar jtnjtn7R-50G4 C The VHF-DSC self-test function (if available) usually performs the following: A. Transmits a very weak DSC signal which is picked up by the Ch-70 receiver. B. Transmits a weak voice signal which is picked up on Ch-16. C. Makes a diagnostic test of the system without actually transmitting a signal. D. Does a check sum of the memory chips. share/E7R/7R-28E20000664000175000017500000000154014621717562011573 0ustar jtnjtn7R-28E2 C What radar display changes indicate the correct approach to a SART and what care should be taken in a SAR situation? A. The line of dots indicate the SART's position, the dots become increasing arcs as the distance to the SART lessens, rescuing vessels should increase speed to reach Distress more quickly. B. A line of dots on a radar screen rotates to indicate the SART's position along its line of bearing; rescuing vessels should steer for the center of the line of dots. C. The line of dots indicate the SART's position, the dots become increasing arcs as the distance to the SART lessens, rescuing vessels should reduce speed as the arcs get greater in degree. D. The line of dots indicate the SART's position, the dots become decreasing arcs as the distance to the SART lessens, rescuing vessels should reduce speed as the arcs lessen in degree. share/E7R/7R-7A20000664000175000017500000000016214621717561011502 0ustar jtnjtn7R-7A2 D What is the frequency range for High Frequency? A. 300-3,000 kHz B. 30-300 MHz C. 10-30 MHz D. 3-30 MHz share/E7R/7R-5A10000664000175000017500000000102114621717561011472 0ustar jtnjtn7R-5A1 A Which statement is true regarding a vessel equipped with GMDSS equipment that will remain in Sea Area A1 at all times? A. The vessel must be provided with a radio installation capable of initiating the transmission of ship-to-shore Distress alerting from the position from which the ship is normally navigated. B. VHF DSC alerting may be the sole means of Distress alerting. C. HF or MF DSC may satisfy the equipment requirement. D. HF SSB with 2182 kHz automatic alarm generator may satisfy the equipment requirement. share/E7R/7R-22D30000664000175000017500000000057514621717561011573 0ustar jtnjtn7R-22D3 B What action is not applicable in preventing transmissions of false Distress alerts? A. Proper watch officer instruction and training. B. Disabling the unit's ability to perform DSC Relays & acknowledgments. C. Ensure that the protective cover over the "Distress Hot Key" is secure. D. Ensure that all officers read the operating manuals and are familiar with the menus. share/E7R/7R-43G20000664000175000017500000000037514621717562011577 0ustar jtnjtn7R-43G2 D The Dual Watch (DW) function is used to: A. Listen to Ch-70 at the same time while monitoring Ch-16. B. Sequentially monitor 4 different channels. C. None of the above D. Listening on any selected channel while periodically monitoring Ch-16. share/E7R/7R-30E20000664000175000017500000000026614621717562011570 0ustar jtnjtn7R-30E2 A Which of the following satellite systems is of particular & dedicated importance to search and rescue missions under GMDSS? A. COSPAS/SARSAT B. Inmarsat C. GPS D. Iridium share/E7R/7R-32E10000664000175000017500000000032014621717562011560 0ustar jtnjtn7R-32E1 B Which of the following would best be used for visual detection of a distressed vessel? A. A 9-GHz SART's beacon. B. An EPIRB's strobe light. C. A 121.5-MHz EPIRB beacon. D. A 406-MHz EPIRB beacon. share/E7R/7R-13B50000664000175000017500000000042414621717561011564 0ustar jtnjtn7R-13B5 A How long must the radio log be retained on board before sending it to the shoreside licensee? A. At least 30 days after the last entry. B. At least one year after the last entry. C. At least two years after the last entry. D. At least 90 days after the last entry. share/E7R/7R-12B60000664000175000017500000000052614621717561011567 0ustar jtnjtn7R-12B6 A At sea, all required equipment (other than Survival Craft Equipment) must be proven operational by: A. Daily testing or daily successful use of the equipment. B. Testing at least every 48 hours. C. Weekly testing of all S.C.E. and other compulsory equipment. D. Daily testing of the S.C.E. and weekly tests of the other equipment. share/E7R/7R-49G30000664000175000017500000000037214621717562011603 0ustar jtnjtn7R-49G3 C What precautions should be taken when reviewing previously transmitted messages? A. Press the "Call" key when finished. B. Always save the message. C. Take steps not to accidentally send the message again. D. No precautions are necessary. share/E7R/7R-40F40000664000175000017500000000042014621717562011564 0ustar jtnjtn7R-40F4 A Aboard ship, SafetyNETTM messages can be received by which equipment/methods? A. EGC receiver of the vessel's Inmarsat-C SES. B. VHF DSC on the weather channels. C. NAVTEX Receiver on 518 kHz or the Tropical Navtex frequency D. HF SITOR (NBDP) MSI frequencies. share/E7R/7R-7A30000664000175000017500000000016714621717561011510 0ustar jtnjtn7R-7A3 A What is the frequency range for Very High Frequency? A. 30-300 MHz B. 3-30 MHz C. 300-3,000 kHz D. 10-30 MHz share/E7R/7R-22D60000664000175000017500000000102714621717561011567 0ustar jtnjtn7R-22D6 D The EPIRB on the bridge wing is observed with the strobe light flashing and the control switch in the "OFF" position. What action should be taken? A. Place the control switch in the "OFF" position. B. No action is needed - the strobe light indicates the automatic monthly self test is in progress. C. Wait for the USCG or NOAA to confirm that the unit is actually transmitting. D. Assume the unit is transmitting and follow the recommended procedures to properly cancel a false distress alert being broadcast from an EPIRB. share/E7R/7R-4A10000664000175000017500000000107114621717561011476 0ustar jtnjtn7R-4A1 B Which of the following is a functional or carriage requirement for compulsory vessels? A. A compulsory vessel must carry at least two (2) FCC licensed GMDSS Radio Operators in all sea areas as well as a GMDSS Maintainer in sea areas A3 & A4. B. A compulsory vessel must satisfy certain equipment carriage requirements based on the intended sea area of operation. C. A compulsory vessel must be able to transmit and respond to Distress alerts and carry only one (1) FCC licensed GMDSS Radio Operator in sea areas A1 & A2. D. None of these answers are correct. share/E7R/7R-40F50000664000175000017500000000027314621717562011573 0ustar jtnjtn7R-40F5 D SafetyNETTM messages can be received by which of the following shipboard equipment? A. NAVTEX B. MF and HF SITOR (NBDP) C. Inmarsat F77 EGC receiver D. Inmarsat-C EGC receiver share/E7R/7R-14C50000664000175000017500000000020714621717561011565 0ustar jtnjtn7R-14C5 C Which of the following MMSI numbers indicates a U.S. flag ship station? A. 430326890 B. 033609991 C. 303236824 D. 257326819 share/E7R/7R-17C60000664000175000017500000000052314621717561011572 0ustar jtnjtn7R-17C6 B DSC relays of Distress alerts by vessels: A. Should be done for all Distress alerts received aboard the ship. B. Should be avoided; unless an acknowledgement has not been heard. C. Should be transmitted to all ships involved in Distress traffic. D. Are the best means to provide for a retransmission of Distress communications. share/E7R/7R-45G40000664000175000017500000000016014621717562011573 0ustar jtnjtn7R-45G4 D What channel would you use to place a call to a shore telephone? A. Ch-16 B. Ch-70 C. Ch-06 D. Ch-28 share/E7R/7R-8B60000664000175000017500000000055214621717561011513 0ustar jtnjtn7R-8B6 A Which situation is least likely to result in an inspection of the radio installation by foreign governments or administrations? A. When a ship visits a port for the first time. B. When the ship's station license cannot be produced without delay. C. When operational irregularities are observed. D. When compulsory equipment is found to be inoperative. share/E7R/7R-1A30000664000175000017500000000103014621717561011470 0ustar jtnjtn7R-1A3 C What is the basic concept of GMDSS? A. Shoreside authorities will rely on reports from nearby vessels to become aware of Distress alerts. B. Shoreside authorities and vessels can assist in a coordinated SAR operation only after the correct chain of DSC relays takes place. C. SAR authorities ashore can be alerted to a Distress situation & shipping in the vicinity can be requested to participate in SAR operations. D. SAR authorities ashore wait to have EPIRB Distress alerts confirmed by satellite follow-on communications. share/E7R/7R-50G30000664000175000017500000000052114621717562011567 0ustar jtnjtn7R-50G3 B Which of the following statements on address book entries is not correct? A. Shore based telephone numbers may be entered for automatic telephone calls ashore. B. Address book entries can only be used to call shore stations. C. Public Correspondence Stations may be entered. D. A vessel's name and MMSI number may be entered. share/E7R/7R-34E40000664000175000017500000000022614621717562011572 0ustar jtnjtn7R-34E4 C On Scene communications are usually initiated using what equipment? A. EPIRB on 121.5 MHz B. SART on 9 GHz C. VHF on Ch-16 D. VHF on Ch-70 share/E7R/7R-10B60000664000175000017500000000037614621717561011570 0ustar jtnjtn7R-10B6 D What determines the spares and maintenance materials requirements for the VHF-DSC equipment under GMDSS? A. 47 CFR Part 80 B. IMO Circular "Equipment Spares". C. The GMDSS Maintainer's requirements. D. The recommendations of the manufacturer. share/E7R/7R-20D30000664000175000017500000000116114621717561011561 0ustar jtnjtn7R-20D3 D What is the proper procedure to be followed upon receipt of a Distress alert transmitted by use of Digital Selective Calling techniques? A. Set watch on the DSC alerting frequency in the band of frequencies the alert was received. B. Set a continuous watch on VHF-FM Channel 13, 16 and DSC on Channel 70. C. Ship stations equipped with narrow-band direct-printing equipment should respond to the Distress alert as soon as practicable by this means. D. Set watch on the radiotelephone Distress and Safety frequency associated with the Distress and Safety calling frequency on which the Distress alert was received. share/E7R/7R-15C10000664000175000017500000000034614621717561011566 0ustar jtnjtn7R-15C1 C A DSC call is received from a station with a MMSI number of 003669991. What type of station made the call? A. A vessel operating in Sea Area A3. B. A group ship station C. A U.S. coast station D. An Intercoastal vessel share/E7R/7R-7A50000664000175000017500000000017114621717561011505 0ustar jtnjtn7R-7A5 B What is the frequency range for Super High Frequency? A. 30-300 GHz B. 3-30 GHz C. 300-3,000 MHz D. 30-300 MHz share/E7R/7R-14C40000664000175000017500000000020214621717561011557 0ustar jtnjtn7R-14C4 C Which of the following numbers indicates a U.S. flag ship station? A. 036627934 B. 243537672 C. 338426791 D. 003382315 share/E7R/7R-47G20000664000175000017500000000052014621717562011573 0ustar jtnjtn7R-47G2 D A DSC Urgency priority call is usually set up in the following manner: A. Such calls are sent first to all coast stations and then later to all ship stations. B. Such calls are sent to an individual coast station. C. Such calls are sent to an individual ship station. D. Such calls are sent simultaneously to "all stations". share/E7R/7R-21D60000664000175000017500000000067114621717561011572 0ustar jtnjtn7R-21D6 B You are in voice communication on Ch-16 with a vessel in Distress that advises you they are unable to contact a Coast Station. What action would you take? A. Send a DSC Distress Relay transmission on Ch-16. B. Attempt to contact a Coast Station using voice on Ch-16 with a Mayday Relay. C. Make an all ships call with Urgency priority. D. Call the Coast Station on Ch-70 with Distress priority giving the other vessel's position. share/E7R/7R-46G30000664000175000017500000000056214621717562011601 0ustar jtnjtn7R-46G3 B Which of the following statements is true? A. You should always use the "INT" setting for calling a Public Correspondence station. B. Using the "USA" setting changes certain channels from duplex to simplex operation. C. You should use Ch-22 when calling the U. S. Coast Guard. D. Using the "INT" setting will prevent proper Ch-13 Bridge-to-Bridge operations. share/E7R/7R-50G50000664000175000017500000000047514621717562011601 0ustar jtnjtn7R-50G5 C What can the operator do to adjust the audible alarm? A. The operator can choose to disable the audible alarm. B. VHF DSC units only have visual alarms. C. The alarm cannot be disabled for Distress and Urgency messages. D. The audible alarm control has the same indication for all four message priorities. share/E7R/7R-39F40000664000175000017500000000125514621717562011603 0ustar jtnjtn7R-39F4 B What determines whether a NAVTEX receiver prints a particular type of message content from a programmed NAVTEX station? A. The serial number and type of message have already been received but additional printouts are generated to ensure receipt aboard the vessel. B. The serial number and type of message has not been previously received or the subject indicator has not been programmed for rejection. C. The subject indicator has been programmed for rejection by the operator but the message contains a priority override print command. D. The transmitting station ID covering your area has been programmed for rejection by the operator or has not been previously received. share/E7R/7R-35E50000664000175000017500000000033414621717562011574 0ustar jtnjtn7R-35E5 B What information is transmitted by a 406 MHz EPIRB alert? A. Vessel position and nature of Distress. B. A unique Hexadecimal I.D. number. C. Vessel name and identification. D. Vessel MMSI number and position. share/E7R/7R-16C60000664000175000017500000000055514621717561011576 0ustar jtnjtn7R-16C6 A A "Distress Hot Key" alert will always include what information? A. Distress priority, vessel's position if available and the vessel's MMSI number. B. The vessel's current position, course and speed from the GPS. C. The vessel's MMSI number and category of Distress. D. Distress priority, frequency for voice Distress communications and vessel position. share/E7R/7R-48G30000664000175000017500000000026114621717562011577 0ustar jtnjtn7R-48G3 D What would be the appropriate channel selection for follow-on voice communications for a Routine priority call to another vessel? A. Ch-70 B. Ch-16 C. Ch-22 D. Ch-08 share/E7R/7R-22D50000664000175000017500000000057314621717561011573 0ustar jtnjtn7R-22D5 C You have been monitoring your 3-cm radar screen and a series of 12 concentric circles suddenly appears centered on the screen. What is the most likely cause of this situation? A. There is a survival craft within 3 nm distance. B. There is a fault in the radar. C. Your own vessel's SART has been activated. D. Your own vessel's EPIRB homing beacon has been activated. share/E7R/7R-20D40000664000175000017500000000024414621717561011563 0ustar jtnjtn7R-20D4 A What is meant by the acronym "ECC" in a DSC message? A. Error Check Character B. Every Cipher Counted C. Error Cannot Confirm D. Even Characters Counted share/E7R/7R-31E40000664000175000017500000000063214621717562011570 0ustar jtnjtn7R-31E4 B Which of the following is normally part of 406 MHz satellite EPIRBs? A. A strobe light, automatic float-free bracket, 1-watt 406-MHz alert beacon. B. A 5-watt 406-MHz alert beacon, Automatic Hydrostatic Release (ARM), strobe light. C. Automatic float-free bracket, 5-watt 121.5 MHz homing beacon, strobe light. D. Automatic Hydrostatic Release (ARM), 1-watt 121.5 MHz alerting beacon, strobe light. share/E7R/7R-12B30000664000175000017500000000041514621717561011561 0ustar jtnjtn7R-12B3 D Which term describes the source of energy required to supply the GMDSS console with power if the ship's source of main or emergency energy fails? A. Emergency power B. Ship's emergency diesel generator C. Ship's standby generator D. Reserve Source of Energy share/E7R/7R-35E40000664000175000017500000000044514621717562011576 0ustar jtnjtn7R-35E4 B Which statement is NOT true regarding the COSPAS-SARSAT system? A. EPIRBs are satellite beacons used as alerting/locating devices. B. May be used to transmit public correspondence. C. Locates Distress beacons transmitting on 406 MHz. D. Doppler shift is used to locate the beacons. share/E7R/7R-25D30000664000175000017500000000050214621717562011565 0ustar jtnjtn7R-25D3 C Which of the following situations would normally use the Safety priority? A. Treatment of a crewmember with a broken leg that is not life-threatening. B. Treatment of a crewmember with a serious cardiac emergency. C. Loss of 5 containers with lashing gear over the side. D. A fire in the generator flat/spaces. share/E7R/7R-16C30000664000175000017500000000060514621717561011567 0ustar jtnjtn7R-16C3 D When sending a DSC call: A. Vessel's position will automatically be sent with DSC calls specifying an alternate frequency. B. Vessel's MMSI will indicate its ocean region and vessel position. C. Vessel's MMSI and position will automatically be sent for all types of DSC calls. D. Vessel's position will automatically be sent if the vessel is sending a "Distress Hot Key" alert. share/E7R/7R-44G40000664000175000017500000000036714621717562011603 0ustar jtnjtn7R-44G4 A Much longer than normal VHF transmissions are typically caused by: A. Atmospheric ducting or tropospheric propagation. B. Changing power from 1W to 25 W. C. Skywave reflections from the D layer. D. Ionospheric activity in layers F1/F2. share/E7R/7R-33E20000664000175000017500000000032414621717562011566 0ustar jtnjtn7R-33E2 B Equipment for radiotelephony use in survival craft stations under GMDSS must have what capability? A. Operation on 457.525 MHz. B. Operation on Ch-16. C. Operation on 121.5 MHz. D. Operation on Ch-70. share/E7R/7R-18C40000664000175000017500000000026114621717561011570 0ustar jtnjtn7R-18C4 C Repetition of a DSC Distress call is normally automatic if not acknowledged after a delay of: A. 2 - 5 minutes B. 10-15 minutes C. 3.5 - 4.5 minutes D. 1 - 2 minutes share/E7R/7R-14C60000664000175000017500000000017314621717561011570 0ustar jtnjtn7R-14C6 D Which of the following numbers indicates a ship station MMSI? A. 003372694 B. 030356328 C. 3384672 D. 623944326 share/E7R/7R-38F40000664000175000017500000000056414621717562011604 0ustar jtnjtn7R-38F4 C What means are used to prevent the reception of unwanted broadcasts by vessels utilizing the NAVTEX system? A. Operating the receiver only during daytime hours. B. Coordinating reception with published broadcast schedules. C. Programming the receiver to reject certain stations and message categories. D. Automatic receiver de-sensitization during night hours. share/E7R/7R-38F50000664000175000017500000000124614621717562011603 0ustar jtnjtn7R-38F5 C What statement is true regarding the control the operator can exercise over the NAVTEX receiver's operation? A. The operator can set the unit to automatically reject any and all categories of messages if the ship desires to not receive them. B. Upon entering a coastal area for the first time, the operator enters code KK to indicate "ready to receive NAVTEX". C. The operator can set most units to reject all messages except navigation, meteorological warnings, and search and rescue messages. If the unit will reject such messages it may be unsafe to do so. D. To reduce the number of messages, the operator can select code 00 to indicate "not in coastal passage". share/E7R/7R-2A20000664000175000017500000000015114621717561011473 0ustar jtnjtn7R-2A2 A What equipment utilizes satellite communications? A. Inmarsat-C B. VHF-MF-HF C. NAVTEX D. SART share/E7R/7R-45G30000664000175000017500000000017114621717562011574 0ustar jtnjtn7R-45G3 C What channel would you use for routine communications with the U.S.C.G.? A. Ch-16 B. Ch-80 C. Ch-22A D. Ch-13 share/E7R/7R-38F20000664000175000017500000000051014621717562011571 0ustar jtnjtn7R-38F2 A How can reception of certain NAVTEX broadcasts be prevented? A. The receiver can be programmed to reject certain stations and message categories. B. Stations are limited to daytime operation only. C. Coordinating reception with published broadcast schedules. D. Automatic receiver desensitization during night hours. share/E7R/7R-42F30000664000175000017500000000034714621717562011575 0ustar jtnjtn7R-42F3 B Which of the following provides a unique automated system capable of addressing messages to predetermined groups of ships or all vessels in both fixed and variable geographic areas? A. NAVTEX B. EGC C. AFRTS D. NAVAREAs share/E7R/7R-11B40000664000175000017500000000145014621717561011561 0ustar jtnjtn7R-11B4 B Which statement is false regarding the radio operator requirements for a GMDSS-equipped ship station? A. One of the qualified GMDSS radio operators must be designated to have primary responsibility for radiocommunications during Distress incidents. B. Maintaining a record of all incidents connected with the radio-communications service that appear to be of importance to Safety of life at sea is not required. C. A qualified GMDSS radio operator, and a qualified backup, must be designated to perform Distress, Urgency and Safety communications. D. While at sea, all adjustments or radio installations, servicing or maintenance of such installations that may affect the proper operation of the GMDSS station must be performed by, or under the supervision of, a qualified GMDSS radio maintainer. share/E7R/7R-25D10000664000175000017500000000052514621717562011570 0ustar jtnjtn7R-25D1 A When the GMDSS Radio Operator on watch hears "Securite" spoken three times, he can expect to receive the following information: A. A message concerning the Safety of navigation. B. The safety of vessel or person is in jeopardy. C. A vessel is in need of immediate assistance. D. A Coast Station sending an important traffic list. share/E7R/7R-3A50000664000175000017500000000103414621717561011500 0ustar jtnjtn7R-3A5 B A vessel is on a coastwise voyage that results in a distance off shore of 10 to 40 nm and therefore: A. The vessel must be able to communicate with a coast station on Ch-16 to be within Sea Area A-1. B. To be within Sea Area A-1 the vessel must continuously be within range of a coast station with VHF-DSC capability. C. The vessel will always be in Sea Area A-1because all coastal voyages have A-1 DSC coverage. D. To be within Sea Area A-1 the vessel must continuously be within range of a coast station with MF-DSC capability. share/E7R/7R-28E60000664000175000017500000000066114621717562011602 0ustar jtnjtn7R-28E6 A What is not an advantage of an AIS SART signal when compared to a radar-based SART signal? A. The AIS SART can be detected much farther away than radar SART models. B. Not every AIS transmission needs to be received to achieve an accurate presentation of the location. C. The AIS SART position has GPS accuracy and transmits on AIS VHF frequencies. D. AIS SART units may be easier to find in poor radar target conditions. share/E7R/7R-8B20000664000175000017500000000065314621717561011511 0ustar jtnjtn7R-8B2 C What periodic inspection is required in order to remain in compliance with the regulations regarding GMDSS ship radio station inspections? A. U.S. Coast Guard annual inspection. B. FCC inspection every five years. C. An inspection at least once every 12 months by the FCC or a holder of a GMDSS Maintainers license. D. Periodic inspections not required if on board maintainers perform routine preventive maintenance. share/E7R/7R-43G10000664000175000017500000000051614621717562011573 0ustar jtnjtn7R-43G1 C Adjusting the volume control has the following results: A. The higher the volume control is set the greater the sensitivity. B. The volume control sets the threshold for receiving signals. C. Adjusting the volume control has no effect on the sensitivity. D. The lower the volume control is set the greater the sensitivity. share/E7R/7R-27E20000664000175000017500000000102114621717562011564 0ustar jtnjtn7R-27E2 D Which of the following would most likely not prevent a SART's signal from being detected? A. The rescue personnel were monitoring the 3-CM radar and the SART was mounted improperly in the lifeboat. B. The SART was mounted improperly in the survival craft and rescue personnel were monitoring the 10-CM radar. C. The rescue personnel were monitoring the 10-CM radar and the SART was properly mounted in the lifeboat. D. The SART was properly mounted in the lifeboat and rescue personnel were monitoring the 3-CM radar. share/E7R/7R-23D60000664000175000017500000000110414621717561011564 0ustar jtnjtn7R-23D6 C How are normal working conditions restored after radio silence has been imposed? A. All of these answers are correct. B. The Land Earth Station (LES) that imposed the radio silence must transmit a voice message on the Distress frequency stating "SILENCE FINI". C. The Rescue Coordination Center (RCC) that imposed the radio silence must transmit a voice message on the Distress frequency stating "SEELONCE FEENEE". D. The Public Correspondence Station (PCS) that imposed the radio silence must transmit a voice message on the Distress frequency stating "SILENCE FINI". share/E7R/7R-13B60000664000175000017500000000055414621717561011571 0ustar jtnjtn7R-13B6 B Which statement concerning radio log archival by the station licensee is false? A. Retain for two years if there are no Distress entries. B. Retain for one year unless there are Distress or Urgency entries. C. Logs related to an investigation may not be destroyed without specific authorization. D. Retain for three years if there are Distress entries. share/E7R/7R-24D50000664000175000017500000000045214621717561011571 0ustar jtnjtn7R-24D5 D The Urgency Priority should be used for: A. Messages concerning the Safety of Life At Sea (SOLAS). B. Messages detailing important navigational warnings. C. Messages concerning On-scene communications. D. Messages containing information concerning the Safety of a mobile unit or person. share/E7R/7R-28E50000664000175000017500000000067114621717562011602 0ustar jtnjtn7R-28E5 D How can vessel personnel detect the operation of a SART in its vicinity? A. A unique two-tone "warbling" signal heard on VHF-FM Ch-70. B. It will activate an AIS new signal alarm on the AIS receiver. C. The SART signal appears as a target that comes and goes -- due to the effect of heavy swells on a SART. D. A unique 3-cm signal consisting of a 12-dot pattern radiating outward from a SART's position along its line of bearing. share/E7R/7R-12B20000664000175000017500000000104414621717561011557 0ustar jtnjtn7R-12B2 C What is the meaning of "Reserve Source of Energy"? A. High caloric value items for lifeboat, per SOLAS regulations. B. Diesel fuel stored for the purpose of operating the powered survival craft for a period equal to or exceeding the U.S.C.G. and SOLAS requirements. C. Power to operate the radio installation and conduct Distress and Safety communications in the event of failure of the ship's main and emergency sources of electrical power. D. The diesel fueled emergency generator that supplies AC to the vessel's Emergency power bus. share/E7R/7R-41F20000664000175000017500000000031314621717562011564 0ustar jtnjtn7R-41F2 B What kind(s) of broadcasts are not available through SafetyNETTM? A. MSI and messages to specific geographic areas. B. Vessel traffic lists C. Storm warnings D. Distress and Urgency bulletins share/E7R/7R-45G20000664000175000017500000000033314621717562011573 0ustar jtnjtn7R-45G2 B Which channel is utilized for the required Bridge-to-Bridge watch? A. DSC on Ch-70 B. VHF-FM on Ch-13 in most areas of the continental United States. C. VHF-FM on Ch-16 D. The vessel's VHF working frequency. share/E7R/7R-5A40000664000175000017500000000101514621717561011500 0ustar jtnjtn7R-5A4 D Within a single sea area, what is the primary reason GMDSS imposes carriage requirements for different radio subsystems? A. Redundancy in duplicating all operational functions in the event of a system failure. B. Different subsystems are required to meet the specific equipment carriage requirements of national authorities. C. GMDSS vessels must be equipped to communicate in all modes with coast radio stations. D. The combined capabilities of redundant subsystems mitigate the risk of a single point of failure. share/E7R/7R-2A50000664000175000017500000000021314621717561011475 0ustar jtnjtn7R-2A5 C What system provides accurate vessel position information to the GMDSS equipment? A. COSPAS-SARSAT B. EPIRB C. GPS D. Inmarsat-B share/E7R/7R-49G60000664000175000017500000000064014621717562011604 0ustar jtnjtn7R-49G6 B Which of the following is not true regarding vessel position information? A. The position is normally provided from GPS input. B. The time of the updated position should be UTC or the correct local zone time. C. If the position is not automatically updated it must be manually updated every 4 hours. D. The position information must be periodically checked to ensure that it remains current and accurate. share/E7R/7R-49G20000664000175000017500000000030414621717562011575 0ustar jtnjtn7R-49G2 B Why would you want to access your MMSI number? A. To call another vessel. B. To determine that the number is correct. C. To change it. D. There is no reason to access your MMSI number. share/E7R/7R-36E40000664000175000017500000000105214621717562011572 0ustar jtnjtn7R-36E4 A Which statement is NOT true regarding an Inmarsat Distress Alert? A. USCG coast stations will receive the alert and immediately notify the correct RCC. B. The operator selection of LES will determine which associated RCC will receive the alert. C. If the operator selects an invalid or inoperative LES code the NCS for that service will intercept the call and reroute the alert. D. If the LES choice is not updated properly the Distress Alert might be routed to a non-optimum RCC, introducing delays and confusion into the Distress situation. share/E7R/7R-25D40000664000175000017500000000051314621717562011570 0ustar jtnjtn7R-25D4 D Which of the following situations would normally use the Safety priority? A. A serious medical situation involving a crewmember. B. An unanticipated warning related to piracy or terrorism. C. Grounding in a way that could lead to imminent danger to the ship's crew. D. Important navigational or meteorological warnings. share/E7R/7R-32E20000664000175000017500000000036314621717562011570 0ustar jtnjtn7R-32E2 C Which piece of required GMDSS equipment is the primary source of transmitting locating signals? A. Radio Direction Finder (RDF). B. Survival Craft Transceiver. C. An EPIRB transmitting on 406 MHz. D. A SART transmitting on 406 MHz. share/E7R/7R-37F50000664000175000017500000000040314621717562011574 0ustar jtnjtn7R-37F5 A Which of the following is the primary frequency that is used exclusively for NAVTEX broadcasts internationally? A. 518 kHz B. 2187.5 kHz C. 4209.5 kHz D. VHF channel 16 when the vessel is sailing in Sea Area A1, and 2187.5 kHz when in Sea Area A2. share/E7R/7R-16C40000664000175000017500000000056314621717561011573 0ustar jtnjtn7R-16C4 A A "Distress Hot Key" VHF DSC Distress alert: A. Always goes out on the DSC frequency of Ch-70 to alert other stations. B. Must go out on Ch-16 and Ch-70 to indicate "MAYDAY" traffic will follow. C. Must go out on Ch-16 to alert the nearest vessels and coast stations of imminent "MAYDAY" traffic. D. May go out on Ch-70 or Ch-16 depending on the manufacturer. share/E7R/7R-46G50000664000175000017500000000064614621717562011606 0ustar jtnjtn7R-46G5 C The USA-INT control on VHF units: A. Was made necessary by a desire for more duplex channels in the U.S. B. Correctly set, will result in duplex operations in U.S. Coastal waters on the "alpha" channels. C. Correctly set, will result in simplex operations in U.S. Coastal waters on the "alpha" channels. D. Was made necessary by a desire to convert simplex international channels to duplex channels in the U.S. share/E7R/7R-20D60000664000175000017500000000071514621717561011570 0ustar jtnjtn7R-20D6 A What precautions should be taken when viewing an incoming DSC Distress alert message? A. Be careful not to activate a DSC acknowledgement or relay. B. If the message is not clear make a DSC call to all ships requesting clarification. C. No precautions are necessary -- the unit will auto-acknowledge an incoming DSC Distress alert. D. If there are errors in the call the unit didn't auto-acknowledge via DSC and the watch officer must do so instead. share/E7R/7R-28E30000664000175000017500000000074614621717562011603 0ustar jtnjtn7R-28E3 D How can rescue personnel detect that a SART is transmitting in the immediate vicinity? A. The DSC unit will react to the SART's signal and respond with the two-tone auto alarm. B. The SART can provide an approximate location to within a two nautical mile radius, per IMO standards. C. The SART signal appears as a target which comes and goes; the effect of heavy swells on a SART. D. The SART's dots on the PPI will become arcs and then eventually become concentric circles. share/E7R/7R-21D40000664000175000017500000000073514621717561011571 0ustar jtnjtn7R-21D4 D The relay of DSC Distress alerts: A. Was not originally an intended function of the GMDSS system but now is the preferred method to notify an RCC. B. Remains the preferred method for passing Distress message traffic to an RCC or Coast Station. C. Should always be done immediately to ensure a Coast Station receives the DSC Distress Alert. D. Can quickly overburden the GMDSS systems in the vicinity with improperly transmitted or inappropriately relayed DSC calls. share/E7R/7R-42F40000664000175000017500000000034514621717562011574 0ustar jtnjtn7R-42F4 C What system may be useful for messages, such as local storm warnings or a shore-to-ship Distress alert, for which it is inappropriate to alert all ships in the satellite coverage area? A. NAVTEX B. AMVER C. EGC D. DSC share/E7R/7R-41F60000664000175000017500000000066714621717562011604 0ustar jtnjtn7R-41F6 B In using SafetyNETTM for the receipt of MSI (Maritime Safety Information): A. Only unscheduled Urgency and Distress messages will be received if the Inmarsat-C SES is not logged in. B. All of these answers are correct. C. Both scheduled MSI and unscheduled Urgency and Distress messages will be received if the Inmarsat-C SES is logged in. D. The Inmarsat-C SES must have Enhanced Group Calling (EGC) capability to receive MSI. share/E7R/7R-5A60000664000175000017500000000123014621717561011501 0ustar jtnjtn7R-5A6 B What is the equipment carriage requirement for survival craft under GMDSS? A. At least three SCT units and two SARTs on every cargo ship between 300-500 gross tons and the same on all passenger ships regardless of tonnage. B. At least three SCT units and two SARTs on every passenger ship and cargo ships of 500 gross tons and upwards. C. At least two radar transponders must be carried on every cargo ship of 300-500 gross tons and two radar transponders (one for each side) of every passenger ship regardless of tonnage. D. All cargo vessels above 300 gross tons and every passenger ship regardless of tonnage must carry three SCT units and two SARTs. share/E7R/7R-6A50000664000175000017500000000050714621717561011507 0ustar jtnjtn7R-6A5 C A ship operating exclusively in sea area A-1 must have the following provisions for maintenance: A. Carry an on-board maintainer plus duplication of equipment. B. Shore maintenance may not be selected. C. Only one option for maintenance is required. D. Must always select duplication of equipment to maximize safety. share/E7R/7R-11B30000664000175000017500000000074614621717561011567 0ustar jtnjtn7R-11B3 A Which FCC license meets the requirements to perform or supervise the performance of at-sea adjustments, servicing, or maintenance which may affect the proper operation of the GMDSS station? A. GMDSS Operator's/Maintainer's license or GMDSS Maintainer's license. B. General Radiotelephone Operator's License with Shipboard RADAR endorsement. C. Marine Radio Operator's Permit or GMDSS Maintainer's license. D. GMDSS Radio Operator's license or Marine Radio Operator's Permit. share/E7R/7R-48G60000664000175000017500000000105714621717562011606 0ustar jtnjtn7R-48G6 A What actions will take place upon receipt of a Routine call from another vessel if both vessels are programmed for automatic response and the ECC is no good? A. Some portion of the call particulars will appear on the screen and the channel will not change. B. The ECC alarm will sound and the watch officer should call back to determine the working frequency. C. The ECC alarm will sound and the channel will change but the watch officer should ensure it is legal. D. The channel will not change because the working frequency requested is illegal. share/E7R/7R-26D60000664000175000017500000000057714621717562011605 0ustar jtnjtn7R-26D6 D What is the best method of determining whether a Distress situation is genuine? A. Check your 3-cm radar for a SART signal from the Distress vessel. B. Monitor the 406 MHz EPIRB signal to locate the vessel in Distress. C. Check the NAVTEX for U.S.C.G. confirmation of the Distress from the RCC. D. Monitor the follow on frequency for actual voice Distress communications. share/E7R/7R-17C10000664000175000017500000000067114621717561011571 0ustar jtnjtn7R-17C1 A A Ch-70 DSC Distress alert is received. What action should be taken? A. Silence the alarm, review the message and set up watch on Ch-16 to listen for Mayday communications. B. Silence the alarm and immediately call the master for further instructions. C. Review the incoming message information but take no action unless requested to do so by the RCC. D. Use DSC to immediately notify the vessel their Distress has been received. share/E7R/7R-30E30000664000175000017500000000067714621717562011577 0ustar jtnjtn7R-30E3 B Which of the following statements concerning COSPAS-SARSAT is false? A. 406 MHz EPIRBs are units that are used as alerting devices. B. Doppler frequency measurements provide more precise locations than GPIRB signals. C. The Doppler frequency measurement concept is used to determine the EPIRB's location. D. Satellites in a low-earth polar orbit detect EPIRB beacons on 406 MHz and relay the information to a Local User Terminal (LUT). share/E7R/7R-11B20000664000175000017500000000131314621717561011555 0ustar jtnjtn7R-11B2 D Which of the following statements concerning GMDSS Radio Operator requirements is false? A. Each compulsory vessel must carry at least two licensed GMDSS Radio Operators at all times while at sea. B. Each compulsory vessel must carry at least two licensed GMDSS Radio Operators at all times while at sea and may elect to carry a GMDSS Radio Maintainer as well. C. While at sea, adjustments to, and the maintaining of, GMDSS equipment may be performed by the GMDSS Radio Operator as long as the work is supervised by an on-board licensed GMDSS Radio Maintainer. D. All communications involving Safety of life at sea must be logged as long as the compulsory vessel was not involved in such communications. share/E7R/7R-27E40000664000175000017500000000063614621717562011601 0ustar jtnjtn7R-27E4 B Which statement is NOT true regarding the SART? A. Responds to interrogations by a vessel's X-Band radar and transmits a signal. B. This is a 6 GHz transponder capable of being received by a vessel's X-band navigational radar system. C. This is a 9 GHz transponder capable of being received by a vessel's X-band navigational radar system. D. Transmits a distinctive 12-blip signal for easy recognition. share/E7R/7R-15C50000664000175000017500000000046414621717561011573 0ustar jtnjtn7R-15C5 B Which of the following statements concerning MMSI is false? A. All Coast Station MMSI must begin with 2 zeros. B. All Coast Station MMSI must begin with the MID then 2 zeros. C. A group call must begin with a single zero followed by the MID. D. The first 3 digits of a ship MMSI comprise the MID. share/E7R/7R-36E50000664000175000017500000000062714621717562011602 0ustar jtnjtn7R-36E5 D What are the best resources for researching and planning equipment setups and updates prior to any potential Distress situation? A. NGA Pub. 117, Inmarsat handbook or manufacturer's equipment manuals. B. Inmarsat handbook, FCC Part 80 or ITU List of Coast stations. C. ITU List of Coast stations, IMO GMDSS handbook, FCC Part 80. D. Inmarsat handbook, NGA Pub. 117 or ITU List of Coast stations. share/E7R/7R-21D50000664000175000017500000000076714621717561011577 0ustar jtnjtn7R-21D5 A Transmission of a Distress alert by a station on behalf of another vessel actually in Distress should not occur: A. When communications between the Distress vessel and a Coast station are already in progress. B. When the mobile unit actually in Distress is not itself in a position to transmit the Distress alert. C. When the Master or responsible person on the mobile unit not in Distress so decides. D. When the responsible person at the Coast Station determines further help is necessary. share/E7R/7R-16C10000664000175000017500000000032514621717561011564 0ustar jtnjtn7R-16C1 B When making a routine DSC call to another vessel what information should be included? A. Time of transmission. B. Proposed working channel. C. Your own vessel's position. D. Subject matter of the call. share/E7R/7R-33E60000664000175000017500000000053514621717562011576 0ustar jtnjtn7R-33E6 B Which statement is NOT true regarding the requirements of survival craft portable two-way VHF radiotelephone equipment? A. Watertight to a depth of 1 meter for 5 minutes. B. Operates simplex on Ch-70 and at least one other channel. C. Effective radiated power should be a minimum of 0.25 Watts. D. The antenna is fixed and non-removable. share/E7R/7R-25D60000664000175000017500000000050014621717562011566 0ustar jtnjtn7R-25D6 B Which of the following situations would normally use the Safety priority? A. A serious medical situation involving a crewmember. B. A scenario concerning an important navigational or meteorological warning. C. A crewmember falling over the side. D. Important company communications involving weather routing. share/E7R/7R-36E30000664000175000017500000000071614621717562011577 0ustar jtnjtn7R-36E3 D Which GMDSS equipment is best suited to simultaneous long-range communications with an RCC/coast station and OSC vessels or SAR aircraft? A. MF-HF SITOR (NBDP) transmitters using telex follow on frequencies. B. Inmarsat Signals routed via the RCC to the SAR vessels & aircraft under their control. C. VHF transmitters to reach SAR aircraft and OSC vessels as well as the RCC/coast station. D. MF-HF SSB transmitters using voice follow-on frequencies. share/E7R/7R-30E10000664000175000017500000000107714621717562011570 0ustar jtnjtn7R-30E1 D Which is not a function of a satellite under COSPAS-SARSAT using satellite EPIRBs? A. Relayed satellite message includes the EPIRB ID number which provides a reference for retrieval of vessel information from the shore database. B. Doppler shift of EPIRB signal is measured and the EPIRB's position is calculated. C. Information received from EPIRBs is time-tagged and transmitted to any Local User Terminal in the satellite's view. D. After the EPIRB's position is calculated using the Doppler shift COSPAS-SARSAT satellites provide follow-on SAR communications. share/E7R/7R-5A30000664000175000017500000000026314621717561011503 0ustar jtnjtn7R-5A3 C All passenger vessels must have what additional equipment? A. Inmarsat-B terminal B. Inmarsat-C terminal C. Aircraft Transceiver with 121.5 MHz D. MF-HF SSB Transceiver share/E7R/7R-26D30000664000175000017500000000057714621717562011602 0ustar jtnjtn7R-26D3 B DSC is used primarily to: A. Receive weather warnings, navigational notices and other Maritime Safety Information. B. Transmit and receive Distress, Urgency and Safety alerts and routine calls to and from other ships and coast radio stations. C. Provide routine communications with the ship owner. D. Report ship's position to search-and-rescue authorities via satellite. share/E7R/7R-37F10000664000175000017500000000114414621717562011573 0ustar jtnjtn7R-37F1 A How is mutual interference on 518 kHz among NAVTEX stations avoided? A. Transmissions scheduled on a time-sharing basis, power limited and station assignment codes are geographically separated. B. All stations transmit at the same time but stations are limited to daytime operation only to reduce the radius of propagation. C. Transmitter power is limited, station assignment codes are not shared by other NAVAREAS and stations alternate between daytime and nighttime operations. D. Station codes are not shared by other NAVAREAS, transmissions scheduled on a time-sharing basis and power is limited. share/E7R/7R-4A60000664000175000017500000000076214621717561011511 0ustar jtnjtn7R-4A6 A Which of the following are required GMDSS functions for vessels? A. Transmit and receive locating signals, general communications and SAR communications. B. Transmit and receive general communications, transmit Distress Alerts by at least one means, MSI. C. Transmit and receive locating signals, send MSI to other ships via EGC, Bridge-to-Bridge communications. D. Transmit and receive SAR communications, transmit Distress Alerts by at least one means, Bridge-to-Bridge communications. share/E7R/7R-9B50000664000175000017500000000116214621717561011511 0ustar jtnjtn7R-9B5 A Which of the following documents or publications are required by Part 80 of the FCC rules for vessels on international voyages (other than the Great Lakes)? A. ITU List IV & List V, Appropriate Safety Convention Certificate & ITU manual for Maritime Mobile stations. B. Appropriate Safety Convention Certificate, ITU Master Plan of GMDSS Coast stations, and ITU manual for Maritime Mobile stations. C. ITU Master Plan of GMDSS Coast stations, ITU manual for Maritime Mobile stations, ITU List IV & List V. D. ITU List IV & List V, Appropriate Safety Convention Certificate & IMO manual for Maritime Mobile stations. share/E7R/7R-38F10000664000175000017500000000062514621717562011577 0ustar jtnjtn7R-38F1 D How is a NAVTEX receiver programmed to reject certain messages? A. The transmitting station's two-digit identification can be entered to de-select reception of its broadcasts. B. By entering the SELCAL of the NAVTEX transmitting station. C. By pressing "00" in the transmitter's ID block. D. By choosing a message category's single letter (A-Z) identifier and then deselecting or deactivating. share/E7R/7R-31E20000664000175000017500000000032614621717562011566 0ustar jtnjtn7R-31E2 D What feature is not a component of a 406 MHz satellite EPIRB? A. 121.5 MHz emergency homing transmitter. B. Emergency transmission on 406.025 MHz. C. Float-free release bracket. D. Aural locator signal. share/E7R/7R-40F30000664000175000017500000000040214621717562011563 0ustar jtnjtn7R-40F3 D What system can provide an automated service in coastal waters where it may not be feasible to establish the NAVTEX service or where shipping density is too low to warrant its implementation? A. AMVER B. VHF DSC C. ARQ SITOR (NBDP) D. SafetyNETTM share/E7R/7R-24D60000664000175000017500000000053214621717561011571 0ustar jtnjtn7R-24D6 A If the Watch Officer hears "PAN PAN" spoken 3 times it means: A. None of these answers is correct. B. A navigation or important meteorological warning should follow. C. The station is preparing to transmit a Safety message possibly concerning the safety of a mobile unit or person. D. A mobile unit is in need of immediate assistance. share/E7R/7R-34E50000664000175000017500000000022114621717562011566 0ustar jtnjtn7R-34E5 C On Scene communications should be conducted on which of the following channels? A. 406 MHz B. VHF Ch-22A C. VHF Ch-16/06 D. VHF Ch-70 share/E7R/7R-44G60000664000175000017500000000112114621717562011572 0ustar jtnjtn7R-44G6 A The effectiveness of VHF communications is maximized by: A. Appropriate setting of the transmitter power, selecting an appropriate channel & adjustment of squelch for maximum receiver sensitivity. B. The adjustment of squelch for maximum receiver sensitivity, setting transmitter power to 1W & selecting an appropriate channel. C. Selecting an appropriate channel, adjustment of squelch for minimum receiver sensitivity & setting transmitter power to 1W. D. Selecting an appropriate channel, adjustment of squelch for minimum receiver sensitivity, setting transmitter power to 25W. share/E7R/7R-19D60000664000175000017500000000046614621717561011603 0ustar jtnjtn7R-19D6 C What information is not vital in a Distress follow on voice transmission after a DSC Alert? A. Ship's position, nature of distress and assistance requested. B. Ship's Name, Call Sign and MMSI number. C. Company emergency contact information. D. Physical description of the vessel and number of POB. share/E7R/7R-32E30000664000175000017500000000040514621717562011566 0ustar jtnjtn7R-32E3 D What may be used as a homing signal by the search and rescue vessels in the immediate vicinity of the ship in Distress? A. Flare gun B. Strobe Light C. 406 MHz signal from a satellite EPIRB. D. A 121.5 MHz emergency transmitter in a satellite EPIRB. share/E7R/7R-35E60000664000175000017500000000071314621717562011576 0ustar jtnjtn7R-35E6 C Which statement is false regarding the COSPAS-SARSAT system and EPIRB operations? A. The EPIRB's position is calculated by the system and passed to the MCC. B. The EPIRB transmits a unique Hex I.D. and vessel position that may be passed to the RCC. C. The EPIRB's position and Hex I.D. is passed instantaneously to the RCC. D. The EPIRB transmits a unique Hex I.D. that is passed to the RCC if it cannot be determined to be inadvertent by the MCC. share/E7R/7R-37F30000664000175000017500000000063614621717562011602 0ustar jtnjtn7R-37F3 C What should a GMDSS Radio Operator do if a NAVTEX warning message is received but it contains too many errors to be usable? A. Contact the NAVAREA coordinator and request a repeat broadcast. B. Initiate a request for Category A, B, L and D messages. C. Do nothing. Vital NAVTEX messages will be repeated on the next scheduled broadcast. D. Listen to appropriate VHF weather channel for repeat warnings. share/E7R/7R-4A50000664000175000017500000000066114621717561011506 0ustar jtnjtn7R-4A5 D Which of the following are required GMDSS functions? A. Bridge-to-Bridge communications, reception of weather map facsimile broadcasts, SAR communications. B. Reception of weather map facsimile broadcasts, receiving company email, On-scene communications. C. Reception of VHF weather channels, On-scene communications, general communications. D. Bridge-to-Bridge communications, general communications, SAR communications. share/E7R/7R-8B40000664000175000017500000000106314621717561011507 0ustar jtnjtn7R-8B4 A Which statement is false regarding a GMDSS equipped ship? A. A conditional or partial exemption may not be granted, in exceptional circumstances, for a single voyage outside the sea area for which the ship is equipped. B. Ships must have the required equipment inspected at least once every 12 months. C. The regulations apply to all passenger ships regardless of size and cargo ships of 300 gross tons and upwards. D. Ships must carry at least two persons holding a GMDSS Radio Operator's license for Distress and Safety radio-communications purposes. share/E7R/7R-6A30000664000175000017500000000070614621717561011506 0ustar jtnjtn7R-6A3 B Which of the following is a GMDSS requirement for all vessels over 300 gross tons operating within range of a MF-DSC equipped shore station? A. Ship's Master or radio officer must be on watch at all times. B. Only one of the three maintenance options is required. C. MF communications must be handled by the holder of a General Radiotelephone Operator's License. D. Only FCC required spare parts and a maintenance kit for repairs are required. share/E7R/7R-29E10000664000175000017500000000100514621717562011567 0ustar jtnjtn7R-29E1 A Which of the following statements concerning testing and maintenance of SARTs is true? A. Testing a SART should be done in a consistent manner & location to ensure a baseline history of proper results. B. Testing of the SART should never be done in port to prevent interference to other vessel's radars. C. A SART's battery must be replaced within ninety (90) days after the expiration date imprinted on the unit. D. An at-sea GMDSS maintainer is not able to test a SART because it is hermetically sealed. share/E7R/7R-33E40000664000175000017500000000047014621717562011572 0ustar jtnjtn7R-33E4 D Which statement is NOT true regarding the requirements of survival craft portable two-way VHF radiotelephone equipment? A. Operation on Ch-16 B. Antenna must be permanently-affixed. C. Simplex (single frequency) voice communications only. D. Effective radiated power should be a minimum of 2.0 Watts. share/E7R/7R-23D40000664000175000017500000000051714621717561011571 0ustar jtnjtn7R-23D4 B How is "radio silence" imposed? A. By the Land Earth Station (LES) controlling the Distress communications on that frequency. B. By the On Scene Coordinator (OSC) or the RCC chosen by the SAR Mission Coordinator. C. By the nearest Public Correspondence Coast Station. D. By the vessel first responding to the Distress call. share/E7R/7R-9B60000664000175000017500000000054214621717561011513 0ustar jtnjtn7R-9B6 B Which of the following references should be consulted to identify the name of a vessel based on its Maritime Mobile Service Identity? A. ITU list of Coast Stations. B. ITU List of Ship Stations and Maritime Mobile Service Identity Assignments. C. ITU List of Radio-determination and Ship Stations. D. ITU Master Plan of Shore-Based Facilities. share/E7R/7R-18C50000664000175000017500000000061014621717561011567 0ustar jtnjtn7R-18C5 C A VHF-DSC Distress alert call: A. Using the "Distress Button" or "Distress Hot Key" ensures that all information pertinent to a Distress will be transmitted. B. Contains information on the vessel's course and speed. C. Can include the nature of the distress if time permits and operator selects it D. Will always contain accurate positions from GPS units and correct MMSI numbers. share/E7R/7R-3A10000664000175000017500000000051214621717561011474 0ustar jtnjtn7R-3A1 C The Sea Area you are in is determined by: A. The vessel's distance from shore. B. The types of maintenance available to your vessel. C. Whether the ship station is in range of a VHF-DSC, MF-DSC, HF-DSC Coast Station or Inmarsat coverage. D. Whether the ship only makes domestic/coastal voyages or it goes international. share/E7R/7R-30E50000664000175000017500000000074514621717562011575 0ustar jtnjtn7R-30E5 C Which of the following statements concerning the EPIRB system is true? A. GOES weather satellites will provide alerting with complete worldwide coverage. B. COSPAS-SARSAT satellites always provides an alert and position report within 10 minutes of reception. C. The Inmarsat system will not provide alerts and position report for 406 MHz EPIRBs equipped with GPS receivers. D. The GPS satellite system will relay an alert and position report within 20 minutes of reception. share/E7R/7R-41F40000664000175000017500000000020314621717562011564 0ustar jtnjtn7R-41F4 D What information is promulgated by the international SafetyNETTM? A. Traffic Lists B. Priority Messages C. MARAD D. MSI share/E7R/7R-5A50000664000175000017500000000055214621717561011506 0ustar jtnjtn7R-5A5 A If operating within Ocean Area A1, and outside of NAVTEX coverage, a GMDSS-equipped vessel must carry: A. Equipment capable of reception of Maritime Safety Information by the Inmarsat enhanced group call system, or HF SITOR (NBDP). B. A GPS receiver. C. Equipment capable of maintaining a continuous DSC watch on 2187.5 kHz. D. An Inmarsat-B terminal. share/E7R/7R-6A20000664000175000017500000000124014621717561011477 0ustar jtnjtn7R-6A2 A Which of the following statements concerning GMDSS maintenance requirements is true? A. The options are duplication of equipment, at-sea maintenance, and shore-based maintenance. B. Compulsory vessels between 300-500 gross tons are required only to provide one maintenance option, while compulsory vessels larger than 500 gross tons and all passenger vessels are required to provide any two of the three maintenance options. C. The "at-sea" maintenance may be waived if the compulsory vessel carries at least three licensed GMDSS Radio Operators. D. Compulsory vessels operating in Sea Area A4 are required to carry at least one licensed GMDSS Radio Maintainer. share/E7R/7R-28E40000664000175000017500000000075014621717562011577 0ustar jtnjtn7R-28E4 A What signal is detected as originating from an AIS SART and how is the signal displayed? A. An AIS SART signal is shown on any AIS receiver as a special MMSI-like coded symbol. B. The 3-cm radar reflections are converted to AIS signals and displayed on ECDIS/ARPA screens. C. An AIS SART transmits on AIS frequencies and the signals are converted to 3-cm radar targets for display on 3-cm radars. D. An AIS SART transmits on 9 GHz so that a 3-cm radar can display the signals. share/E7R/7R-20D20000664000175000017500000000022514621717561011560 0ustar jtnjtn7R-20D2 C What is meant by the acronym "EOS" in a DSC message? A. Error Of Sequence B. End Of Signals C. End Of Sequence D. Equal Operating Signals share/E7R/7R-39F50000664000175000017500000000062614621717562011605 0ustar jtnjtn7R-39F5 B Which information determines if a NAVTEX message is to be rejected? A. Transmitter identity (numerals from 1 to 26 identifying transmitting station within the NAVAREA). B. The second letter (from A to Z) in the header indicating the type of message. C. The Answerback of the receiving station has not been entered in the NAVTEX receiver. D. Only messages having a serial number 00 are rejected. share/E7R/7R-40F20000664000175000017500000000117714621717562011574 0ustar jtnjtn7R-40F2 C What action should a GMDSS Radio Operator take when SafetyNETTM Distress or Urgency messages are received by the vessel's EGC receiver? A. No immediate action is required, as an audible tone will be generated at the beginning and end of the transmission and a paper printout of the message will be generated. B. No immediate action is required by the operator, since the transmission will be automatically acknowledged by the receiving vessel. C. Aural and/or visual alarms are activated and require manual deactivation. D. A periodic alarm tone will be heard until the radio operator prints the message from the unit's memory. share/E7R/7R-31E50000664000175000017500000000052714621717562011574 0ustar jtnjtn7R-31E5 B Which of the following statements concerning EPIRBs is false? A. The COSPAS-SARSAT system may take a full hour or more to provide an alert. B. The Inmarsat system provides worldwide coverage for Distress alerts. C. The GOES weather satellites are in a geostationary orbit. D. 406 MHz EPIRB units may be equipped with GPS receivers. share/E7R/7R-36E60000664000175000017500000000110414621717562011572 0ustar jtnjtn7R-36E6 A Which statement is true regarding Inmarsat "hot-key" Distress Alerts? A. The LES programmed by the watch officers into the Distress Alert Update menu determines which RCC will receive your initial Distress Alert. B. The vessel's position is checked against the SAR jurisdictions and the proper LES updated as the vessel changes NAVAREAS. C. The GPS position updates the Distress Alert Update menu to the correct LES choice to ensure proper communications with an RCC. D. The Distress Alert defaults are set correctly by the manufacturer and then automatically updated. share/E7R/7R-2A60000664000175000017500000000013614621717561011502 0ustar jtnjtn7R-2A6 D Which of these can be used to receive MSI? A. SART B. EPIRB C. Inmarsat-B D. NAVTEX share/E7R/7R-48G20000664000175000017500000000017714621717562011604 0ustar jtnjtn7R-48G2 C What would be the appropriate menu choice when calling another ship station? A. Ch-28 B. Duplex C. Simplex D. Ch-22 share/E7R/7R-38F60000664000175000017500000000063414621717562011604 0ustar jtnjtn7R-38F6 D Which messages are mandatory to be received and should not typically be rejected or disabled by the operator of a NAVTEX receiver? A. Meteorological warnings, SAR information, Pilot Service Messages. B. Meteorological warnings, meteorological forecasts, navigational warnings. C. SAR information, navigational warnings, ice reports. D. Navigational warnings, meteorological warnings, SAR information. share/E7R/7R-36E20000664000175000017500000000065414621717562011577 0ustar jtnjtn7R-36E2 C What information should be contained in a detailed Distress message that was not transmitted by an initial Distress "hot-key" alert? A. Vessel position, course & speed and the nature of Distress. B. The distress vessel's IMN and position at the time of alert. C. Vessel name & call sign, POB and all potential means to communicate with the vessel. D. Vessel name & call sign, distress vessel's IMN & vessel position. share/E7R/7R-18C60000664000175000017500000000016414621717561011574 0ustar jtnjtn7R-18C6 D A VHF-DSC Distress alert will always be transmitted on what channel? A. Ch-16 B. Ch-22A C. Ch-6 D. Ch-70 share/E7R/7R-28E10000664000175000017500000000067114621717562011576 0ustar jtnjtn7R-28E1 B How does the searching vessel's radar interrogate a survival craft SART? A. Activate the IFF interrogation system. B. The SART responds automatically and transmits the 12-blip signal when it detects the search craft or other vessels' X-Band radar signal. C. Maintains watch on VHF-FM Ch-70 for the SART's unique identifier. D. The SART responds automatically when it detects the search craft or other vessel's 10-cm radar signal. share/E7R/7R-10B20000664000175000017500000000072714621717561011564 0ustar jtnjtn7R-10B2 A When may a compulsory vessel not be allowed to leave port? A. When the vessel has replaced a required piece of GMDSS-related equipment but its performance has not been verified or logged. B. When the vessel is in an over-carriage condition. C. When the vessel has arranged for both duplication of equipment and shore-based maintenance. D. When the vessel is carrying only two licensed GMDSS Radio Operators and is capable of performing all required functions. share/E7R/7R-29E40000664000175000017500000000113714621717562011600 0ustar jtnjtn7R-29E4 D Why should functional testing of a SART be minimized? A. Potential interference with safe navigation, notifying other vessels of an actual Distress and minimize power consumption. B. Minimize power consumption of the battery and only test at sea to reduce potential interference or confusion. C. Possibility of misinterpretation by other vessels as a Distress situation and only test in port to prevent potential interference with safe navigation or at-sea vessels. D. Potential interference with safe navigation, possible misinterpretation of an actual Distress, minimizes draining the battery. share/E7R/7R-1A50000664000175000017500000000064114621717561011501 0ustar jtnjtn7R-1A5 A What is the responsibility of compulsory GMDSS vessels? A. Every vessel must be able to perform communications functions essential for its own safety and the safety of other vessels. B. Vessels must transmit a DSC distress relay upon receipt of a DSC distress alert. C. Only the vessels closest to a Distress incident must render assistance. D. Vessels must immediately acknowledge all DSC distress alerts. share/E7R/7R-45G60000664000175000017500000000016714621717562011604 0ustar jtnjtn7R-45G6 B Which of the following channels may be used for duplex communications? A. Ch-70 B. Ch-26 C. Ch-5A D. Ch-22A share/E7R/7R-8B10000664000175000017500000000063114621717561011504 0ustar jtnjtn7R-8B1 B How often must a compulsory vessel's GMDSS radio station be inspected? A. Annually, by the U.S. Coast Guard. B. Annually, by the FCC or designated authority. C. Annually, by the FCC, and every six months if the vessel sails outside of Sea Areas A1 and A2. D. The FCC's annual inspection may be waived if and only if monthly inspections are performed by the vessel's on-board GMDSS Radio Maintainer. share/E7R/7R-40F10000664000175000017500000000032014621717562011560 0ustar jtnjtn7R-40F1 B Where NAVTEX cannot be feasibly established, what system can be implemented to provide an automated service in coastal waters to receive MSI? A. AMVER B. SafetyNETTM C. VHF DSC D. ARQ SITOR (NBDP) share/E7R/7R-46G60000664000175000017500000000104014621717562011574 0ustar jtnjtn7R-46G6 D What would happen if your VHF is set to "INT" and you called a VTS that operates on an "alpha" channel? A. The coast station should hear your call and respond and you will be able to receive VTS instructions. B. The coast station will not hear your call but you will hear their responses to other vessels in the VTS area. C. You will be able to hear the coast station calling you but will not be able to hear other vessels in the VTS area. D. The coast station should hear your call and respond but you will not hear their response. share/E7R/7R-3A20000664000175000017500000000065014621717561011500 0ustar jtnjtn7R-3A2 D If a vessel is on a voyage from Miami, Florida to Houston, Texas what Sea Areas may it transit through? A. Sea area A3 if it is beyond range of a MF-DSC equipped coast station. B. Sea area A2 or A3 if it is not within range of a VHF-DSC equipped coast station. C. Sea area A1 only if within range of a VHF-DSC equipped coast station. D. All of these answers may be correct depending on coast station DSC coverage. share/E7R/7R-7A60000664000175000017500000000017414621717561011511 0ustar jtnjtn7R-7A6 C What is the frequency range for Maritime VHF operations? A. 3-30 MHz B. 88-108 MHz C. 156-164 MHz D. 540-1640 kHz share/E7R/7R-35E20000664000175000017500000000072714621717562011577 0ustar jtnjtn7R-35E2 D Which of these would be vital to a GMDSS SAR situation in polar regions? A. GOES satellites to receive Distress Alerts and HF Voice for follow-on and SAR activity. B. GOES satellites to receive Distress Alerts and Inmarsat Voice for follow-on and SAR activity. C. Inmarsat satellites to receive Distress Alerts and HF Voice for follow-on and SAR activity. D. COSPAS/SARSAT satellites to receive Distress Alerts and VHF-HF Voice for follow-on and SAR activity. share/E7R/7R-41F50000664000175000017500000000103414621717562011570 0ustar jtnjtn7R-41F5 A To receive all mandatory MSI using the SafetyNETTM system the vessel must: A. Log-in and ensure the position is accurate to receive MSI for the NAVAREA the vessel is currently within. B. Notify the NAVAREA coordinator you are using SafetyNETTM for the receipt of MSI (Maritime Safety Information). C. Set the receiver to your destination Inmarsat Ocean Region. D. Notify the NAVAREA coordinator you are using SafetyNETTM for the receipt of MSI (Maritime Safety Information) and set the receiver to your destination Ocean Region. share/E7R/7R-11B50000664000175000017500000000126314621717561011564 0ustar jtnjtn7R-11B5 B Which of the following are personnel, functional, or equipment FCC requirements of the GMDSS? A. One FCC licensed GMDSS radio operator in sea areas A1 & A2, two FCC licensed GMDSS radio operators in sea areas A3 & A4 and equipment carriage based on intended sea area of operations. B. Equipment carriage based on intended sea area of operations, distress alerting and response and two FCC licensed GMDSS radio operators. C. Distress alerting and response, two USCG STCW GMDSS watchstanders, equipment carriage based on intended sea area of operations. D. Equipment carriage reduced for sea areas A3 & A4, Distress alerting and response and two FCC licensed GMDSS radio operators. share/E7R/7R-17C50000664000175000017500000000033714621717561011574 0ustar jtnjtn7R-17C5 A What is the quickest method of transmitting a DSC Distress alert? A. Press the "Distress Hot Key". B. Make a "MAYDAY" call on Ch-70. C. Make a "MAYDAY" call on Ch-16. D. Select "Distress" priority from the menu. share/E7R/7R-23D10000664000175000017500000000071514621717561011566 0ustar jtnjtn7R-23D1 C What is the fundamental purpose for imposing radio silence? A. To ensure that interference to proprietary communications is minimized. B. To ensure that only voice communications can be effected on the Distress frequency or channel. C. To mitigate the risk of interference on a frequency or channel being used for emergency communications. D. To ensure that a Distressed vessel will have a "window" twice each hour for transmitting routine messages. share/E7R/7R-30E60000664000175000017500000000101414621717562011564 0ustar jtnjtn7R-30E6 D Which of the following statements concerning satellite EPIRBs is true? A. The coded EPIRB signal identifies the nature of the Distress situation. B. The coded EPIRB signal only identifies the vessel's name and port of registry. C. If the GMDSS Radio Operator does not program the EPIRB, it will transmit default information such as the follow-on communications frequency and mode. D. Once activated, these EPIRBs transmit a signal for use in identifying the vessel and for determining the position of the beacon. share/E7R/7R-45G50000664000175000017500000000014414621717562011576 0ustar jtnjtn7R-45G5 A What channel is always being continuously monitored? A. Ch-70 B. Ch-28 C. Ch-80 D. Ch-16 share/E7R/7R-49G10000664000175000017500000000054714621717562011605 0ustar jtnjtn7R-49G1 A The DSC received call directory usually sorts and stores incoming calls in what manner? A. Received calls are typically divided into two directories distinguished by priority. B. All received calls are saved in a single category. C. Received calls are always divided into Distress and Urgency categories. D. Only received Distress calls are saved. share/E7R/7R-42F10000664000175000017500000000024714621717562011572 0ustar jtnjtn7R-42F1 D Over what system are Enhanced Group Calls transmitted? A. COSPAS satellite B. HF SITOR (NBDP) shore stations C. NAVTEX shore stations D. Inmarsat satellite share/E7R/7R-3A40000664000175000017500000000062414621717561011503 0ustar jtnjtn7R-3A4 B For a vessel to be in GMDSS Sea Area A-1: A. The vessel must be within VHF range of a Public Correspondence Station. B. The vessel must be within range of a coast station equipped with continuous VHF-DSC capability. C. The vessel must be within VHF range of a U. S. C. G. communication station. D. The vessel must be within VHF range of either a U. S. C. G. or a Public Correspondence Station. share/E7R/7R-34E20000664000175000017500000000030214621717562011563 0ustar jtnjtn7R-34E2 A Which of the following channels is designated as the VHF follow-on communications channel and is required in all portable survival craft equipment? A. Ch-16 B. Ch-6 C. Ch-13 D. Ch-70 share/E7R/7R-17C30000664000175000017500000000127514621717561011574 0ustar jtnjtn7R-17C3 C What does the DSC control unit do if the GMDSS Radio Operator fails to insert updated information when initiating a DSC Distress alert? A. It will abort the transmission and set off an audible alarm that must be manually reset. B. It will initiate the DSC Distress alert but, as no information will be transmitted, rescue personnel will not be able to identify the vessel, its position, or its situation. C. It will initiate the DSC Distress alert and default information will automatically be transmitted. D. It will initiate the DSC Distress alert, but any station receiving it will have to establish contact with the distressed vessel to determine its identity, position, and situation. share/E7R/7R-29E20000664000175000017500000000102214621717562011567 0ustar jtnjtn7R-29E2 B Why is it important to limit the duration of testing a SART? A. Excessive testing causes "burn in" on the vessel's radar display. B. Testing in port or even at sea may cause interference to other radars or a test signal may be misinterpreted as a genuine Distress situation. C. To prevent overheating, a SART requires sufficient ventilation that is significantly reduced when the SART is being tested. D. If another SART is testing at the same time, the two signals will cause damage to the unit that transmitted them. share/E7R/7R-18C30000664000175000017500000000077614621717561011602 0ustar jtnjtn7R-18C3 B If a GMDSS Radio Operator initiates a DSC Distress transmission but does not insert a message, what happens? A. The transmission is aborted and an alarm sounds to indicate this data must be provided by the operator. B. The transmission will be made with "default" information provided automatically. C. The transmission is not initiated and "ERROR" is indicated on the display readout. D. The receiving station will poll the DSC unit of the vessel in Distress to download the necessary information. share/E7R/7R-14C20000664000175000017500000000014114621717561011557 0ustar jtnjtn7R-14C2 A How many digits are in the MID (Maritime Identification Digits)? A. 3 B. 7 C. 9 D. 10 share/E7R/7R-19D40000664000175000017500000000105214621717561011571 0ustar jtnjtn7R-19D4 B What is the proper format for a Distress follow on voice transmission? (3x is three times), A. All Ships 3x, this is Ship's Name/Call Sign 3x, Ship's position, nature of distress and assistance requested. B. Mayday 3x, this is Ship's Name/Call Sign 3x, Ship's position, nature of distress and assistance requested. C. Mayday 3x, this is Ship's Name/Call Sign once, Ship's position, nature of distress and assistance requested. D. All Stations 3x, this is Ship's Name/Call Sign 3x, Ship's position, nature of distress and assistance requested. share/E7R/7R-47G30000664000175000017500000000024214621717562011575 0ustar jtnjtn7R-47G3 A A DSC Safety call might be used under the following conditions: A. Navigation Hazard B. Man overboard C. Distress situation D. Serious medical request share/E7R/7R-32E40000664000175000017500000000041114621717562011564 0ustar jtnjtn7R-32E4 A What part of a satellite EPIRB may function as a visual aid to rescue vessels? A. Strobe light B. A 121.5 MHz emergency transmitter in a satellite EPIRB. C. 406 MHz signal from a satellite EPIRB. D. Loud beeping tone emitted by the unit, once activated. share/E7R/7R-32E60000664000175000017500000000027614621717562011577 0ustar jtnjtn7R-32E6 A Which device provides the best method to locate a ship in Distress or survival craft in the GMDSS? A. Satellite EPIRBs B. Radio Direction Finder C. MF/HF DSC D. VHF homing device share/E7R/7R-47G50000664000175000017500000000052414621717562011602 0ustar jtnjtn7R-47G5 B DSC Urgency priority calls may be sent using the "Distress Hot Key" under the following circumstances: A. If no additional information is required to be transmitted. B. Under NO circumstances. C. Only if the position information is correct. D. The "Distress Hot Key" can be programmed for either Urgency or Distress as required. share/E7R/7R-34E30000664000175000017500000000047514621717562011577 0ustar jtnjtn7R-34E3 B The determination that the Distress traffic is over is usually made by whom? A. The vessel in Distress. B. The "On Scene Coordinator" and/or the RCC controlling the Distress traffic. C. The first Coast Station to receive the DSC Distress alert. D. Other vessels after nothing has been heard for some time. share/E7R/7R-39F10000664000175000017500000000052614621717562011600 0ustar jtnjtn7R-39F1 C The NAVTEX message header contains the following? A. A two-digit number (01-99) indicates the NAVTEX message category. B. Message numbers include a date/time group, along with the transmitting station's numerical ID. C. The first letter (from A to Z) indicates the NAVTEX transmitting station. D. None of these answers is correct. share/E7R/7R-4A20000664000175000017500000000123714621717561011503 0ustar jtnjtn7R-4A2 C Which GMDSS communication functions must all compulsory vessels be capable of performing to meet International Maritime Organization requirements? A. Distress alerting and receipt of Maritime Safety Information via Inmarsat for all vessels intending to operate in Sea Area A4. B. Distress alerting and receipt of MSI in Sea Areas A1, A2, A3, and A4 regardless of the vessel's intended area of operation. C. Distress alerting, general communications and receipt of Maritime Safety Information in the vessel's intended area of operation. D. General communications via Inmarsat and receipt of Maritime Safety Information via Enhanced Group Calling in Sea Area A4. share/E7R/7R-46G40000664000175000017500000000077714621717562011612 0ustar jtnjtn7R-46G4 C The USA-INT control on VHF units: A. Selects duplex operations for U.S. coastal waters and simplex operations in non-U.S. waters, on the "alpha" channels. B. Ensures that the "alpha" channels are correctly set to duplex for use in U.S. waters & on VTS channels. C. Changes selected international duplex channels to simplex channels for use in U.S. waters, on the "alpha" channels. D. Changes selected international simplex channels to duplex channels for use in U.S. waters, on the "alpha" channels. share/E7R/7R-22D20000664000175000017500000000060714621717561011566 0ustar jtnjtn7R-22D2 A A crewmember has accidentally transmitted a VHF-DSC Distress alert. What action should be taken? A. Stop the radio from repeating the alert then make an all stations call on Ch-16 canceling the inadvertent alert. B. Send a DSC call canceling the Distress alert. C. No specific action is necessary. D. Turn off the power and make a voice announcement to cancel the alert on Ch-70. share/E7R/7R-1A20000664000175000017500000000050114621717561011471 0ustar jtnjtn7R-1A2 B The primary purpose of the GMDSS is: A. Allow more effective control of SAR situations by vessels. B. Automate and improve emergency communications for the world's shipping industry. C. Provide additional shipboard systems for more effective company communications. D. Effective and inexpensive communications. share/E7R/7R-1A60000664000175000017500000000043014621717561011476 0ustar jtnjtn7R-1A6 B GMDSS is required for which of the following? A. All vessels capable of international voyages. B. SOLAS Convention ships of 300 gross tonnage or more. C. Vessels operating outside of the range of VHF coast radio stations. D. Coastal vessels of less than 300 gross tons. share/E7R/7R-1A10000664000175000017500000000104014621717561011467 0ustar jtnjtn7R-1A1 A What is the fundamental concept of the GMDSS? A. GMDSS utilizes automated systems and satellite technology to improve emergency communications for the world's shipping industry. B. It is intended to automate and improve existing digital selective calling procedures and techniques. C. It is intended to provide more effective but lower cost commercial communications. D. It is intended to provide compulsory vessels with a collision avoidance system when they are operating in waters that are also occupied by non-compulsory vessels. share/E7R/7R-48G50000664000175000017500000000074314621717562011606 0ustar jtnjtn7R-48G5 D What conditions must exist for a completely automatic DSC acknowledgement of a Routine call and change to suggested working channel? A. Both stations must be monitoring Ch-16 or the sending station must be set up for automatic DSC response. B. The receiving station must be monitoring the suggested working frequency. C. All routine priority DSC calls must be manually acknowledged by the watch officer. D. The receiving station must be set up for automatic DSC response. share/E7R/7R-39F20000664000175000017500000000102014621717562011567 0ustar jtnjtn7R-39F2 D If the Inmarsat-C terminal is inoperative but the vessel remains within NAVTEX coverage -- which of the following message categories should not be disabled by the GMDSS Radio Operator? A. Navigational warnings, meteorological warnings and metrological forecasts. B. Search and Rescue information, navigational warnings and other electronic navaid messages. C. Search and Rescue information, Meteorological warnings and ice reports. D. Meteorological warnings, Search and Rescue information and Navigational warnings. share/E7R/7R-10B50000664000175000017500000000077314621717561011570 0ustar jtnjtn7R-10B5 C What are the conditions, under GMDSS, whereby a ship is NOT allowed to depart from any port? A. The vessel is carrying more than the required number of qualified GMDSS radio operators. B. The vessel has a temporary waiver of its radio license and Safety Certificate. C. The vessel is not capable of performing all required Distress and Safety functions. D. The vessel is not carrying a GMDSS radio maintainer, but has provided for shoreside maintenance plus duplication of equipment if required. share/E7R/7R-44G30000664000175000017500000000034614621717562011577 0ustar jtnjtn7R-44G3 D Which of the following factors does not normally affect the range of VHF transmissions? A. Salt water ingress into the antenna coaxial cable. B. Power level setting. C. Vessel antenna height. D. Ionospheric refraction. share/E7R/7R-29E30000664000175000017500000000160414621717562011576 0ustar jtnjtn7R-29E3 C What statement is true regarding tests and maintenance that could be provided for the SART? A. Full verification within manufacturer's specifications by the on-board maintainer would be a requirement for all vessels in the A3 & A4 sea areas using measuring equipment to generate 9 GHz signals. B. Battery should be replaced within the 90 day grace period following the manufacturer's expiration date shown on the SART and the SART should only be tested at-sea to reduce interference to other vessels. C. Extreme care should be exercised because testing of the SART may be received by other vessels, may be interpreted as a Distress condition, or it may interfere with other vessels' safe navigation. D. Battery should be replaced with a new one before the manufacturer's expiration date shown on the SART and the SART should only be tested in port to reduce interference to other vessels. share/E7R/7R-18C10000664000175000017500000000062214621717561011566 0ustar jtnjtn7R-18C1 D A VHF-DSC "Distress Hot Key" alert always transmits what information if connected to GPS? A. Distress designation and follow on communications channel. B. A "Nature of Distress" category and Distress priority specifier code. C. Position, UTC time of position update and Ch-70 for voice follow-on. D. Position, time of position update, MMSI number programmed and Distress priority specifier. share/E7R/7R-12B10000664000175000017500000000033614621717561011561 0ustar jtnjtn7R-12B1 B Under GMDSS, a compulsory VHF-DSC radiotelephone installation must be tested at what minimum intervals at sea? A. Annually, by a representative of the FCC. B. Daily C. At the annual SOLAS inspection. D. Monthly share/E7R/7R-8B50000664000175000017500000000124414621717561011511 0ustar jtnjtn7R-8B5 D During an annual GMDSS station inspection: A. Licensed GMDSS operators may not be required to demonstrate equipment competencies but all required equipment must be fully operational. B. All required equipment must be fully operational and any required publications that are not current must be on order. C. GMDSS operators may be required to demonstrate equipment competencies and any of required equipment that is not fully operational can be repaired at the next port of call as long as there is functional duplication. D. All required documents and publications might have to be produced and GMDSS operators may be required to demonstrate equipment competencies. share/E7R/7R-31E30000664000175000017500000000054714621717562011574 0ustar jtnjtn7R-31E3 A What statement is true regarding 406 MHz EPIRB transmissions? A. Transmits a unique hexadecimal identification number. B. Allows immediate voice communications with the RCC. C. Coding permits the SAR authorities to know if manually or automatically activated. D. GMDSS Radio Operator programs an I.D. into the SART immediately prior to activation. share/E7R/7R-12B50000664000175000017500000000022414621717561011561 0ustar jtnjtn7R-12B5 D While underway, how frequently is the DSC controller required to be tested? A. Once a month B. Twice a week C. Once a week D. Once a day share/E7R/7R-33E50000664000175000017500000000044614621717562011576 0ustar jtnjtn7R-33E5 A Which statement is NOT true regarding the requirements of VHF Survival Craft Transceivers? A. Operation on Ch-13 is mandatory. B. Effective radiated power should be a minimum of 0.25 Watts. C. Simplex (single frequency) voice communications only. D. Operation on Ch-16 is mandatory. share/E7R/7R-20D50000664000175000017500000000065714621717561011574 0ustar jtnjtn7R-20D5 D What action should be taken on receipt of a VHF Distress alert? A. Read the display screen and/or printout and call the Master to verify if the Distress is genuine. B. Silence the alarm, examine the display screen and acknowledge the DSC alert via DSC. C. Silence the alarm and listen for any follow on voice transmission on Ch-70. D. Silence the alarm and set up watch on Ch-16 to determine if the Distress is genuine. share/E7R/7R-10B30000664000175000017500000000137414623217205011554 0ustar jtnjtn7R-10B3 B Which statement is false regarding the maintenance of GMDSS equipment at sea? A. Ships must carry at least one person who qualifies as a GMDSS maintainer for the maintenance and repair of equipment if the at-sea maintenance option is selected. B. The GMDSS maintainer may not be the person designated to have primary responsibility for radiocommunications during Distress incidents even if licensed as an operator. C. All at-sea maintenance and repairs must be performed by, or under the supervision of a person holding a GMDSS Maintainer license. D. The GMDSS maintainer may be the person responsible for ensuring that the watches are properly maintained and that the proper guard channels and the vessel's position are entered into the DSC equipment. share/E7R/7R-49G40000664000175000017500000000044014621717562011600 0ustar jtnjtn7R-49G4 D How many times is it possible to change your own MMSI number in a VHF unit? A. It is not possible. B. It may be changed by the operator up to 4 times. C. MMSI numbers can only be changed by the manufacturer. D. On some units it can be changed at will if the password is known. share/E7R/7R-40F60000664000175000017500000000021614621717562011571 0ustar jtnjtn7R-40F6 A Maritime Safety Information is promulgated via satellite through which system? A. SafetyNETTM B. AMVER C. NAVTEX D. Inmarsat-M SES share/E7R/7R-39F30000664000175000017500000000053714621717562011604 0ustar jtnjtn7R-39F3 A How are NAVTEX broadcasts transmitted? A. Using FEC techniques. B. NAVTEX is transmitted by commercial coast radio stations following their traffic lists. C. NAVTEX is transmitted only when an Urgency or Distress broadcast is warranted. D. No more often than every two hours and should immediately follow the radiotelephone silent periods. share/E7R/7R-17C40000664000175000017500000000033114621717561011565 0ustar jtnjtn7R-17C4 D A DSC Distress alert is received. What action should be taken? A. Transmit a DSC acknowledgement. B. Call the nearest Coast Guard Station. C. No action is necessary. D. Advise the Master and monitor Ch-16. share/E7R/7R-11B60000664000175000017500000000041114621717561011557 0ustar jtnjtn7R-11B6 C How many GMDSS radio maintainers must be carried aboard a compulsory vessel if the At-Sea maintenance method is used? A. Two in Sea Areas A3 and A4. B. Two in Sea Area A1. C. One regardless of sea area of operation. D. None of these answers are correct. share/E7R/7R-15C40000664000175000017500000000050414621717561011565 0ustar jtnjtn7R-15C4 B Which of the following statements concerning MMSI is true? A. Coast station MMSI numbers have 9 digits starting with 4. B. All MMSI numbers are 9 digits and contain an MID. C. Ship station MMSI numbers can be 7 digits or 9 digits depending on the Inmarsat terminal. D. Group MMSI numbers must begin with 2 zeros. share/E7R/7R-9B20000664000175000017500000000040214621717561011502 0ustar jtnjtn7R-9B2 B Where can GMDSS regulations pertaining specifically to U.S.-flag vessels be found? A. These are located in CCIR #476. B. These are located in 47 CFR Part 80. C. These are located in FCC Part 83. D. These are published only by the U.S. Coast Guard. share/E7R/7R-14C10000664000175000017500000000023214621717561011557 0ustar jtnjtn7R-14C1 D What is the MID? A. Mobile Identification Number B. Marine Indemnity Directory C. Mobile Interference Digits D. Maritime Identification Digits share/E7R/7R-21D10000664000175000017500000000064014621717561011561 0ustar jtnjtn7R-21D1 A A DSC Distress Relay should always be made under the following circumstances: A. When a DSC response to a Distress alert from a Coast/Ship Station hasn't been received and the Master approves. B. When the MMSI of the vessel in Distress cannot be determined. C. After there is an acknowledgement from a coast station. D. DSC Distress Relays do not need to be made if your vessel is too far away to assist. share/E7R/7R-42F50000664000175000017500000000043714621717562011577 0ustar jtnjtn7R-42F5 C What services are available through Enhanced Group Calls? A. Maritime Safety Information and vessel traffic lists. B. Hourly NOAA weather broadcasts from the NWS. C. Maritime Safety Information and messages to pre-defined groups of subscribers. D. Coastal weather broadcasts. share/E7R/7R-42F20000664000175000017500000000055414621717562011574 0ustar jtnjtn7R-42F2 A What is the purpose of the dedicated EGC receiver for A-1 area GMDSS Vessels? A. To ensure receipt of MSI in areas without NAVTEX coverage. B. To allow monitoring of the vessels location for AMVER tracking. C. Simultaneous receipt and transmission of vessel SafetyNETTM messages. D. To track which NAVAREA the vessel is currently in for receipt of MSI. share/E7R/7R-7A10000664000175000017500000000017414621717561011504 0ustar jtnjtn7R-7A1 C What is the frequency range for Medium Frequency? A. 10-30 MHz B. 1,000-10,000 kHz C. 300-3,000 kHz D. 30-300 kHz share/E7R/7R-45G10000664000175000017500000000020014621717562011563 0ustar jtnjtn7R-45G1 A Which channel would most likely be used for routine ship-to-ship voice traffic? A. Ch-08 B. Ch-16 C. Ch-70 D. Ch-22A share/E7R/7R-15C20000664000175000017500000000020514621717561011561 0ustar jtnjtn7R-15C2 D A valid MMSI number for a DSC call to a specific group of vessels is: A. 003664523 B. 338462941 C. 003036483 D. 030327931 share/E7R/7R-43G50000664000175000017500000000034014621717562011572 0ustar jtnjtn7R-43G5 B Setting the squelch control to the end of its range without any noise being heard results in: A. Less background noise B. Minimum sensitivity C. Maximum sensitivity D. Does not have any effect on the sensitivity. share/E7R/7R-13B20000664000175000017500000000114514621717561011562 0ustar jtnjtn7R-13B2 B Proper watchkeeping includes the following: A. Understanding normal operational indicators, setting the DSC scanner frequencies to minimize alarms, maintaining a proper log. B. Maintaining a proper GMDSS radio station log, understanding normal operational indicators, responding to and comprehending alarms. C. Responding to and comprehending alarms, logging out of Inmarsat-C terminals while at sea, maintaining a proper GMDSS radio station log. D. Maintaining a proper GMDSS radio station log, setting the DSC scanner frequencies to minimize alarms, logging out of Inmarsat-C terminals while at sea. share/E7R/7R-42F60000664000175000017500000000036114621717562011574 0ustar jtnjtn7R-42F6 D What messages originate from registered information providers anywhere in the world and are broadcast to the appropriate ocean region via a LES? A. AMVER broadcasts B. Urgency messages C. NAVTEX broadcasts D. SafetyNETTM messages share/E7R/7R-3A60000664000175000017500000000046414621717561011507 0ustar jtnjtn7R-3A6 C What is defined as the area within the radiotelephone coverage area of at least one VHF coast station in which continuous DSC alerting is available as defined by the IMO regulation for GMDSS? A. Ocean Area Regions AOR-E, AOR-W, POR or IOR B. Sea Area A2 C. Sea Area A1 D. Coastal and Inland Waters share/E7R/7R-16C20000664000175000017500000000051614621717561011567 0ustar jtnjtn7R-16C2 C A VHF "Distress Hot Key" alert will always include what information? A. The nature of Distress and vessel position. B. The vessel's current position, course and speed from the GPS. C. The vessel's programmed MMSI number and code for Distress priority. D. The follow-on frequency required for Distress voice communications. share/E7R/7R-13B40000664000175000017500000000106114621717561011561 0ustar jtnjtn7R-13B4 D Which of the following statements meets requirements for 47 CFR 80 Subpart-W? A. GMDSS Radio Logs may not be retained aboard compulsory vessels in an electronic file (e.g., word processing) format. B. GMDSS Radio Logs must be retained aboard compulsory vessels for a period of at least 90 days in their original form. C. Entries in the GMDSS Radio Log are only required for communications within the vessel's intended Sea Area of operation. D. GMDSS Radio Logs must contain entries of all Distress and Urgency communications affecting your own ship. share/E7R/7R-13B10000664000175000017500000000136214621717561011562 0ustar jtnjtn7R-13B1 A Proper watchkeeping includes the following: A. After silencing an alarm all displays and/or printouts are read, monitoring all required frequencies in the proper mode, notifying the Master of any Distress alerts. B. Monitoring all required frequencies in the proper mode, setting the DSC scanner to 2 MHz, 4 MHZ and 8 MHz for ships in the vicinity, notifying the Master of any Distress alerts. C. Notifying the Master of any Distress alerts, setting the DSC scanner to 2 MHz, 4 MHZ and 8 MHz for ships in the vicinity, monitoring all required frequencies in the proper mode. D. Setting the DSC scanner only to the mandatory 2 MHz & 8 MHz, maintain continuous watch on 2182.0 kHz or 4125.0 kHz, notify the Master of any Distress traffic heard. share/E7R/7R-23D50000664000175000017500000000047114621717561011571 0ustar jtnjtn7R-23D5 B What is the reason for imposing radio silence? A. To keep a clear channel open for Safety broadcasts. B. To prevent interference to Distress communications. C. To allow individual vessels to carry out direct communications. D. To listen periodically for other vessels sending Distress alerts on Ch-70. share/E7R/7R-12B40000664000175000017500000000077514621717561011573 0ustar jtnjtn7R-12B4 A What is the requirement for emergency and reserve power in GMDSS radio installations? A. Compulsory ships must have emergency and reserve power sources for radio communications. B. An emergency power source for radio communications is not required if a vessel has proper reserve power (batteries). C. A reserve power source is not required for radio communications. D. Only one of the above is required if a vessel is equipped with a second 406 EPIRB as a backup means of sending a Distress alert. share/E7R/7R-50G20000664000175000017500000000072714621717562011576 0ustar jtnjtn7R-50G2 A Which of the following statements is not true concerning the DSC call data directory? A. All DSC units typically store all of the Transmitted and Received DSC calls in a single directory. B. Some DSC units have both a Transmit and Receive message directory or database. C. Some DSC units have different directories for received calls and sort them by priority. D. Calls in the directory should not be deleted - they are necessary for inspections & logkeeping. share/E7R/7R-33E10000664000175000017500000000054014621717562011565 0ustar jtnjtn7R-33E1 A With what other stations may portable survival craft transceivers not communicate? A. Communication between the ship and survival craft transceivers ashore. B. Communication between the ship and its survival craft. C. Communication between rescue units and survival craft. D. Communication between multiple survival craft and with aircraft. share/ask.awk0000664000175000017500000000140614627744355011636 0ustar jtnjtn# display question, possible answers, then process reply # Copyright (C) 2011-2024 John Nogatch # collect info (NR==1){answer = $0; key = $2; gsub( /[^A-D]/, "", key); next} # display question and possible answers {print $0; next} # read response from stdin, if wrong, print correct answer info and wait for ack END { # read user's response if (getline < "/dev/stdin" != 1) exit 2 # convert to upper case response = toupper( $1) # check for "quit" if (response == "Q") exit 2 # check for incorrect response if (response != key) { print "*******" answer "\nto continue, hit Enter" if (getline < "/dev/stdin" != 1) exit 2 exit 1 } # response was correct print ".......correct\n" exit 0 } share/E6.txt0000664000175000017500000044174314623226673011375 0ustar jtnjtn6A1 A SITOR-ARQ is a common mode of data communications in the maritime service. It is a system based on transmission bursts and acknowledgements. What is the baud, and interval between the burst transmissions: A.100 baud, 240 ms interval B.50 baud, 1000 microsecond interval C.200 baud, 10 ms interval D.None of the above 6A2 D Weather information is commonly sent by radio in map form by one-way facsimile transmission. Two common parameters which must be set by the receiving station are: A.Lines-per-inch (LPI), and primary scan direction (PSD) B.Frequency shift (FS), and phase response pattern (PRP) C.Black-mode signal (BMS), and frequency jitter tolerance (FJT) D.Index of cooperation (IOC), and revolutions per minute (RPM) 6A3 A 2182 kHz is the international radiotelephone distress frequency. It is also used for a calling channel. The authorized mode of emission is H3E (single-sideband full carrier). A3E (double-sideband full carrier) is only authorized for equipment: A.Solely intended for distress and safety communications B.Built and sold after the GMDSS implementation date C.Built and sold before the GMDSS implementation date D.Solely intended for ship-to-shore public correspondence 6A4 D Ship's power is generated as 3-phase and is ungrounded. On a delta-wound transformer with 120 VAC line-to-line secondary, what is the voltmeter reading from line to ground: A.Approx 67 volts for a normal balanced system with no faults B.0 VAC for a system with that phase faulted to ground C.120 VAC when another phase is faulted to ground D.Any of the above 6A5 D When passing through areas of static charge, high voltages can accumulate on antennas which are insulated from ground. What protects a connected receiver from damage? A.Lightning arresters and suppressors B.Protection diodes on receiver input C.Capacitive coupling and static dissipative circuits D.Any combination of the above 6A6 B Vertical shipboard antennas for use in the MF band (410-525 kHz) are often fitted with top-hat loading sections. What is the purpose of these structures? A.Provides aerodynamic compensation for stress during high winds B.Permits a physically short antenna to appear electrically longer C.Improves the near-field radiated pattern at the expense of the far-field pattern D.Prevents salt build-up on antennas from shunting RF energy to ground 6A7 B Modern reserve transmitters are solid-state designs and transmit using only A2 modulation. When measuring transmitter center frequency, what precaution must be taken: A.Antenna must be grounded to suppress spurious side-lobes B.Modulation must be reduced to zero to eliminate sidebands C.Voltage to the PA must be kept at half-value D.Antenna current must be reduced to about 2.5 uA 6A8 D Voltage may be expressed by what other expression? A.Difference of potential B.IF drop C.Electromotive force D.All of the above 6A9 D Amperage may also be known by: A.Electron flow B.Electron drift C.Electric current flow D.All of the above 6A10 D Factors which determine the amplitude of the voltage induced in a conductor which is cutting magnetic lines of force: A.Flux density B.Velocity that the conductor cuts the magnetic lines of force C.The angle at which the conductor cuts through the magnetic lines of force D.All of the above 6A11 D An electrical potential may be generated by: A.Varying a magnetic field through a circuit B.Chemical action C.Photo-electric action D.All of the above 6A12 D Ohm's law is stated as: A.E = IR B.I = E / R C.R = E / I D.All of the above 6A13 C The unit of electrical power is: A.Watt B.Joule per second C.Both A & B D.None of the above 6A14 B The unit of conductance is: A.Ohm B.Mho C.Henry D.Ampere 6A15 A The unit of inductance is: A.Henry B.Joule C.Coulomb D.Ohm 6A16 B The ratio of current through a conductor to the voltage which produces it is: A.Inductance B.Conductance C.Resistance D.None of the above 6A17 A The product of the number of turns and the current in amperes used to describe relative magnitude is: A.Ampere turns B.Joules per second C.Push-pull convergence D.Dissipation collection 6A18 B The property of a conductor or coil which causes a voltage to be developed across its terminals when the number of magnetic lines of force in the circuit or coil is changed is: A.Capacitance B.Inductance C.Conductance D.None of the above 6A19 A The charge of electricity which passes a given point in one second when a current of one ampere is flowing is: A.Coulomb B.Joule C.Watt D.None of the above 6A20 A C = capacity in farads. Q = the measure of the quantity of charge of electricity in Coulombs. E = the applied voltage. So Q = CE: A.Determines the quantity of charge in a capacitor B.Determines the Q of a circuit C.Both A & B D.None of the above 6A21 D Resistance is: A.The quantity which determines power loss or dissipation B.The factor of proportionality between voltage and current C.Measured in ohms D.All of the above 6A22 A The unit of AC impedance in a circuit is: A.Ohm B.Mho C.Joule D.None of the above 6A23 D The unit of capacitance is: A.Farad B.Microfarad C.Coulomb D.A & B 6A24 C Decibel is: A.The unit used to express the ratio between two sound power levels B.The unit used to express the ratio between two electrical power levels C.Both A & B D.None of the above 6A25 C What factors determine the charge stored in a capacitor? A.Capacitance of the capacitor B.The applied voltage C.Both A & B D.None of the above 6A26 D Ohm's law for AC circuits when I = amperes, E = volts, Z = impedance in volts is: A.I = E/Z B.E = IZ C.Z= Z/I D.All of the above 6A27 A The formula for determining the power in a DC circuit when the voltage and resistance are known is: A.P = ( E squared) R B.P = EI C.P = ( I squared) R D.PF = W/IE 6A28 B The formula for finding power in a DC circuit when current and resistance are known: A.P = IE B.P = ( I Squared) R C.PF = W/IE D.None of the above 6A29 A The formula for finding power in a DC circuit when current and voltage are known: A.P = EI B.P = ( I squared ) R C.PF = W/IE D.None of the above 6A30 A The prefix " kilo " means: A.To multiply by 1000 whatever quantity follows B.To divide by 1000 whatever quantity follows C.To add 1000 to whatever quantity follows D.None of the above 6A31 A The prefix " micro " means: A.Divide by 1,000,000 whatever quantity follows B.Multiply by 1,000,000 whatever quantity follows C.Add 1,000,000 to whatever quantity follows D.Divide by 1,000 whatever quantity follows 6A32 A The factor by which the product of volts and amperes must be multiplied to obtain true power is: A.Power factor B.Apparent power C.Phase angle D.None of the above 6A33 A The prefix " meg " means: A.Multiply by 1,000,000 whatever quantity follows B.Multiply by 100,000 whatever quantity follows C.Multiply by 1,000 whatever quantity follows D.Divide by 1,000,000 whatever quantity follows 6A34 D Factors which influence the resistance of a conductor: A.Cross-sectional area B.Length C.Temperature D.All of the above 6A35 A Halving the cross-sectional area of a conductor will: A.Double the resistance B.Half the resistance C.Not affect the resistance D.None of the above 6A36 B Name four conducting materials in order of their conductivity. A.Gold, silver, copper, platinum B.Silver, gold, zinc, platinum C.Silver, copper, zinc, aluminum D.Aluminum, zinc, copper, platinum 6A37 D Good insulators at radio frequencies are: A.Pyrex, mica B.Isolantite, steatite, polyethylene C.Rubber, porcelain D.A & B 6A38 A A resistance across which a constant voltage is applied is doubled. What power dissipation will result? A.One half B.One fourth C.Doubled D.None of the above 6A39 D The needle of a magnetic compass when placed within a coil carrying an electric current: A.Will tend to become parallel with the axis of the coil B.Will point to the north pole end of the coil C.Will point to the south pole end of the coil D.A & B 6A40 A Electrical resistance is measured with: A.An ohmmeter B.A wattmeter C.An Ammeter D.A voltmeter 6A41 A The sum of all voltage drops around a simple DC circuit, including the source, is: A.Zero B.Insignificant C.Infinite D.None of the above 6A42 A If a resistance to which a constant voltage is applied is halved, what power dissipation will result? A.Doubled B.Halved C.Tripled D.Same 6A43 D The diameter of a conductor six inches long is doubled, what will be the effect on the resistance? A.One-fourth the original value B.One-half the original value C.The resistance varies inversely with the cross-sectional area of the conductor D.A & C 6A44 A A minute subdivision of matter having the smallest known unit of negative electrical charge is: A.Electron B.Ion C.Gilbert D.Joule 6A45 D Conductors differ from nonconductors, i.e.: A.There are a large number of free electrons in a good conductor B.There is a small number of free electrons in a non-conductor C.There is an equal amount of free electrons in a good conductor and in a non-conductor D.A & B 6A46 D Direction of flow of DC electricity in a conductor can be determined by: A.A magnetic compass and the left hand rule B.A magnetic compass and the right hand rule C.Connecting an ammeter with marked polarities in series with the circuit D.A & C 6A47 C The difference between electrical power and electrical energy is: A.Electrical power is the rate of doing work by electricity B.Electrical energy is the ability to accomplish work by electricity C.A & B D.None of the above 6A48 C A positive temperature coefficient means: A.Resistance increases as the temperature increases B.Resistance decreases as the temperature decreases C.Both A & B D.None of the above 6A49 A A liquid which is capable of conducting electricity, but undergoes decomposition while doing so is: A.An electrolyte B.A ferromagnetic material under the influence of a magnetizing force C.Equal to the ohmic resistance of the circuit D.None of the above 6A50 A The effective value of an RF current and the heating value of the current are: A.The same B.Effective value divided by two equals the heating value C.Effective value multiplied by two equals the heating value D.None of the above 6A51 D One horsepower is: A.746 Watts B.Roughly 3/4 kilowatt C.Corresponds to lifting 550 pounds at the rate of one foot per second D.All of the above 6A52 C What factors determine the heat generated in a conductor? A.It is directly proportional to the resistance B.It is directly proportional to the square of the current C.Both A & B D.None of the above 6A53 D What is the ratio of peak to average value of a sine wave? A.1.57 to 1 B.1 to 0.636 C.1 to 1 D.A & B 6A54 A When the current sine wave in a circuit reaches its peak value before the voltage wave: A.It is said to have a leading power factor B.It is said to have a lagging power factor C.It is said to be in phase D.None of the above 6A55 A An "harmonic" is: A.A whole multiple of an original frequency B.The heating value of an RF current C.The internal impedance of a power source D.A multiple of the power factor 6A56 A Assuming a power source to have a fixed value of internal impedance, maximum power will be transferred to the load when: A.The load impedance equals the internal impedance of the source B.The load impedance is higher than the source impedance C.The load impedance is lower than the source impedance D.None of the above 6A57 D When two sine waves of the same frequency do not reach their maximum or minimum values simultaneously: A.A phase difference exists B.A phase difference does not exist C.The sign waves are out of phase D.A & C 6A58 C Which method may be used to obtain more than one value of voltage from a fixed DC source? A.Use a resistance type voltage divider B.Connect voltage regulator tubes of suitable values and tap off the desired output voltage C.Both A & B D.None of the above 6A59 A The conductance (G) of a circuit if 6 A flows when 12 VDC is applied is: A.0.5 mho B.1.0 mho C.0.25 mho D.None of the above 6A60 A Two 10 W, 500 ohm resistors in parallel will dissipate how many watts? A.20 watts B.10 watts C.30 watts D.40 watts 6A61 D A 20 ohm resistor with a current of 0.25 A passing through it will dissipate how many watts? A.10 watts B.20 watts C.0.025 watts D.1.25 watts 6A62 B If the voltage to a circuit is doubled and the resistance is increased to three times the original value, what will be the final current? A.1/3 the original current B.2/3 the original current C.3 times the original current D.None of the above 6A63 A If a vacuum tube with a filament rating of 0.25 A and 5 V is operated from a 6 volt battery, what value of resistor is necessary? A.4 ohms B.5 ohms C.10 ohms D.2 ohms 6A64 A The minimum power dissipation rating of a resistor of 20,000 ohms across a potential of 500 V should be: A.25 watts B.12.5 watts C.15 watts D.None of the above 6A65 A The total power dissipation capability of two 10 watt, 500 ohm resistors connected in series is: A.20 watts B.10 watts C.5 watts D.None of the above 6A66 A What is the total power dissipation capability of two 10 watt 500 ohm resistors connected in parallel? A.20 watts B.40 watts C.5 watts D.None of the above 6A67 A What is the maximum current carrying capacity of a resistor of 5000 ohms, 200 watts? A.0.2 A B.1 A C.1.2 A D.None of the above 6A68 D What is the total resistance of a parallel circuit consisting of a 10 ohm branch and a 25 ohm branch? A.@ ohms B.10.3 ohms C.7.0 ohms D.7.14 ohms 6A69 A The current through two resistors in series is 3 A. Resistance #1 is 50 ohms, resistance #2 drops 50 V across its terminals. What is the total voltage? A.200 V B.220 V C.110 V D.180 V 6A70 A An 18 ohm and a 15 ohm resistor are connected in parallel; a 36 ohm resistor is connected in series with this combination; a 22 ohm resistor is connected in parallel with this total combination. The total current is 5 A. What current is flowing in the 15 ohm resistor? A.0.908 A B.1.000 A C.1.908 A D.0.809 A 6A71 A A circuit passes 3 A. The internal resistance of the source is 2 ohms. The total resistance is 50 ohms. What is the terminal voltage of the source? A.150 V B.100 V C.110 V D.240 V 6A72 A A relay coil has 500 ohms resistance, and operates on 125 mA. What value of resistance should be connected in series with it to operate from 110 VDC? A.380 ohms B.400 ohms C.200 ohms D.None of the above 6A73 C Given: Input power to a receiver is 75 watts. How much power does the receiver consume in 24 hours of continuous operation? A.1800 watthours B.1.80 kilowatthours C.A & B D.None of the above 6A74 B The total reactance when two capacitances of equal value are connected in series is: A.The product of the two individual reactances in ohms B.The sum of the two individual reactances in ohms C.The difference of the two individual reactances in ohms D.None of the above 6A75 C A capacitor's charge is stored: A.Upon the inner surface of the capacitor plates B.As an electrostatic field which exists in the space between the plates C.A & B D.None of the above 6A76 D The voltage drop across an individual capacitor of a group of capacitors connected in series across an AC source is: A.Inversely proportional to the ratio of the capacitance of the capacitor being considered B.Inversely proportional to the total capacitance of the combination C.Directly proportional to the applied voltage across the series combination D.All of the above 6A77 B What is the total capacitance of the capacitors of 3, 5, and 7 microfarad connected in series? A.14.79 microfarad B.1.479 microfarad C.15 microfarad D.None of the above 6A78 A If capacitors of 3, 5, and 7 microfarad are connected in parallel, what is the total capacitance? A.9 microfarad B.15 microfarad C.10 microfarad D.3 microfarad 6A79 B How many capacitors of 400 volts and 2 microfarad each would be necessary to obtain a combination rated at 1600 volts and 1.5 microfarad? A.10 B.12 C.14 D.16 6A80 D If a turn in an inductor is shorted: A.There will be an decrease of induction B.There will be a decrease of Q C.There will be overheating with possible burnout D.All of the above 6A81 A The relationship between the number of turns and the inductance of a coil may be expressed by: A.The inductance varies approximately as the square of the number of turns B.The inductance varies approximately as the square root of the number of turns C.Both A & B D.None of the above 6A82 C The formula for determining the resonant frequency of a circuit when the inductance and capacitance are known is: A.f = 1/(2 pi times the square root of LC) B.f = 0.159/(the square root of LC) C.Both A & B D.None of the above 6A83 D The formula for determining the wavelength when the frequency is known is: A.Wavelength = 300,000/ f kHz B.Wavelength = 300,000,000/ f Hz C.Wavelength = 300/ f MHz D.All of the above 6A84 A The wavelength of the period of one complete cycle of a radio wave of 0.000,001 second is: A.300 M B.3000 M C.30 M D.70 cm 6A85 B The efficiency of a radio device is: A.The ratio of the power input to the power output B.The ratio of the useful power output to the power input C.The ratio of the minimum power output to the maximum power output D.None of the above 6A86 D What is the total impedance of a parallel capacitor and inductor with equal values of reactance? A.Infinite total reactance B.Zero total reactance C.Parallel impedance is resistive and infinite D.B & C 6A87 A The total inductance of two coils in parallel without any mutual coupling is: A.Equal to the product of the two inductances divided by their sum B.The sum of the individual inductances C.Zero D.None of the above 6A88 D What is the total reactance of a series AC circuit, with no resistance and equal inductance and capacitive reactances? A.The two reactances cancel being equal and opposite B.Net impedance is purely resistive and contains no reactive component C.The total reactance is zero at the resonant frequency D.All of the above 6A89 A The total inductance of two coils in series without any mutual coupling is: A.The sum of the individual inductances B.The product of the individual inductances divided by their sum C.Infinite D.None of the above 6A90 C One wave-length is: A.The distance a wave will travel in the time for one cycle B.Centimeter wavelength = 30,000 / frequency MHz C.A and B D.Neither A or B 6A91 A In an AC circuit, a series inductance acting alone: A.Causes the current to lag the applied voltage by 90 degrees B.Causes the current to lead the applied voltage by 90 degrees C.Causes the current to lag the applied voltage by 45 degrees D.Causes the current to lead the applied voltage by 45 degrees 6A92 D Shock excitation into an L-C circuit is the result of: A.A voltage being momentarily introduced B.The capacitor may be charged C.The inductor may have a voltage induced D.All of the above 6A93 A The term cathode ray usually applies to: A.A fairly high velocity electron beam B.Background noise C.The logarithm gain of an electron beam D.None of the above 6A94 D Shielding an RF inductance: A.Increases the losses of the inductance B.Lowers the inductance value and the Q C.Increases the coil capacity to the shield D.All of the above 6A95 B The tendency of a tank circuit to keep oscillating for a time after the excitation energy has been removed is: A.Push-pull effect B.Flywheel effect C.Polarizing effect D.Parasitic oscillation 6A96 C Power factor is defined as: A.The ratio between the resistance and the impedance in a circuit B.The ratio between the true power and the apparent power of a circuit C.Both A&B D.None of the above 6A97 B High or low frequency oscillations occurring in circuits other than the original tank desired output frequencies are: A.Harmonics B.Parasitic oscillations C.Hysteresis D.Eddy currents 6A98 D What are effects of parasitic oscillations? A.Change of bias B.Reduced efficiency of the amplifier tube C.Distortion of the modulated wave D.All of the above 6A99 D The velocity of propagation of radio frequency waves in free space is: A.300,000 meters / second B.186,284 miles / second C.The same as the velocity of light in free space D.All of the above 6A100 B To double the resonant frequency of a resonant circuit: A.Make C one third of its original value B.Make L and C both half their original values C.Decreasing the value of both L and C in any proportion so that their product will be one-half of the original values D.None of the above 6A101 C How may the Q of a parallel resonant circuit be increased? A.Increasing coupling to the resonant circuit B.Using coil and capacitor supports of special low - loss materials C.Both A and B D.Decreasing coupling to the resonant circuit 6A102 C If L and C in a parallel resonant circuit resonants at 1000 kHz are so varied that their product remains constant, what will be the resulting resonant frequency? A.10,000 kHz B.100 kHz C.1 MHz D.None of the above 6A103 A What is the resonant frequency of a tuned circuit consisting of a 500 picofarad capacitor, a 150 microfarad tuning coil, and 10 ohms resistance? A.581 kHz B.753 kHz C.498 kHz D.None of the above 6A104 A What is voltage regulation as applied to power supplies? A.The ratio of change in voltage between no load and full load to the full-load voltage output B.The ratio of output to input voltage C.Voltage output of the power supply under full load D.The ratio of input to output voltage 6A105 D An EMF may be generated by sound waves by what principle? A.Electrostatic B.Piezo-electric C.Resistance change D.All of the above 6A106 D How can you correct power factor in an electrical circuit? A.Inductance is used to correct a leading angle B.Capacitance is used to correct a lagging angle C.Neither A or B D.Both A and B 6A107 B Permeability is: A.The magnetic field created by a conductor wound on a laminated core and carrying any electric current B.The ratio of magnetic flux density in a substance to the magnetizing force which produces it C.Polarized molecular alignment in a ferromagnetic material while under the influence of a magnetizing force D.Both A and C 6A108 C The time in seconds for a capacitor to attain 63.2 % of the applied voltage across its terminals is: A.Twice the natural period of oscillation of the circuit B.Varactance C.Time constant D.Equal to the ohmic resistance of the circuit 6A109 B What is the reactance of a 2-henry choke at 3000 Hz? A.5300 ohms B.37,680 ohms C.376,800 ohms D.53,000 ohms 6A110 B If there is no resistance in either leg of a circuit with an inductance of 5 henrys in parallel with a capacitance of 1 microfarad, what is the equivalent impedance of the parallel network circuit? A.Zero B.Infinite C.Median D.None of the above 6A111 C What is the total impedance of a series AC circuit having a resistance of 6 ohms, an inductive reactance of 17 ohms, and zero capacitive reactance? A.15 ohms B.27 ohms C.18 ohms D.5 ohms 6A112 B The total impedance of a series AC circuit with an inductive reactance of 24 ohms, a resistance of 16 ohms, and a capacitive reactance of 16 ohms is: A.20 ohms B.16 ohms C.10 ohms D.None of the above 6A113 D Essentials for making a good solder connection are: A.Bright, clean parts B.Plenty of heat with the minimum amount of solder used C.Discontinue operating on high power D.None of the above 6A114 A For protection of personnel handling a transmitter: A.Ground all exposed metal parts B.Transmitter is equipped to shunt grounded faults C.Discontinue operating on high power D.None of the above 6A115 C The ratio of peak-to-effective voltage values of a sign wave are: A.1.414 to 1 B.1 to 0.707 C.Both A and B D.Neither A or B 6A116 A The opposition to the creation of magnetic lines of force in a magnetic circuit is known as: A.Reluctance B.Hysteresis C.Permeability D.Eddy currents 6A117 B The ratio of magnetic flux density to the field strength is known as: A.Residual magnetism B.Permeability C.Reluctance D.None of the above 6A118 B The magnetic force which remains in a substance after the original magnetizing force has been removed is known as: A.Reluctance B.Residual magnetism C.Permeability D.Hysteresis 6A119 A The direction of electron flow through a coil and the manner of winding the turns: A.Influence the direction of magnetic line of force generated by an electromagnet B.Are determined by the left-hand status rule C.Are determined by the diameter of the wire and length D.Both A and C 6A120 A Adding an iron core to an air-core inductance: A.Increases the inductance B.Decreases the inductance C.Does not affect the inductance D.Causes parasitic oscillations in the inductor 6A121 D Electromagnets are used in: A.loudspeakers B.meters C.motors D.All of the above 6A122 C What will be the effect of a small increase in the number of turns upon the field strength of a single layer solenoid? A.Decrease in field strength if the coil length is increased B.Unchanged if the spacing is reduced to keep the length constant C.Both A and B D.None of the above 6A123 C Can a transformer be used with direct current? A.In general, no B.If the DC current is periodically interrupted it would be possible to use an original DC voltage source C.Both A and B D.None of the above 6A124 A A tube containing either a filament or cathode structure, grid, and a plate is a: A.Triode B.Tetrode C.Pentode D.Diode 6A125 B A tube similar to a triode with the addition of a spirally wound screen grid between the plate and control grid is a: A.Diode B.Tetrode C.Pentode D.Triode 6A126 A Theoretical gain of a tube. The ratio of a small change in plate voltage to give a certain small change in plate current to a change in grid which would cause the same current: A.Amplification factor B.Power factor C.Maximum inverse plate voltage D.None of the above 6A127 D Effectiveness of the grid in causing changes of plate current: A.Transconductance B.Mutual conductance C.Plate resistance D.A & B 6A128 A The maximum negative anode voltage with respect to the cathode. It equals the DC voltage at the input to the plus the peak AC voltage applied during the nonconducting portion of the cycle of operation of the tube: A.Maximum inverse plate voltage B.Mutual conductance C.Both A & B D.None of the above 6A129 A What is the primary purpose of the control grid of the triode? A.To provide a means of obtaining amplification B.To neutralize RF amplifiers C.Blocks passage of electrons D.None of the above 6A130 C What is the primary purpose of the screen grid of the tetrode? A.Reduces the grid to plate capacitance, making it unnecessary to neutralize RF amplifiers except at very high frequencies B.Makes the plate current substantially independent of plate voltage, permitting much higher values of amplification C.Both A & B D.None of the above 6A131 A What is the primary purpose of the suppressor grid of a pentode? A.Is highly negative with respect to the plate and returns secondary emission to the plate, increasing the permissible gain and the tube efficiency B.Reduces interelectrode capacitance between control grid and plate making plate efficiency about 10% greater than a triode C.Both A & B D.Neither of the above 6A132 A Thoriated tungsten is usually used to make: A.Filaments B.Heaters C.Cathodes D.None of the above 6A133 C In what types of circuits do beam power vacuum tubes find application? A.As audio amplifier in the output and power stages of circuits having low to moderately high output ratings B.As an RF power amplifier C.Both A & B D.None of the above 6A134 B When free electrons in a conductor acquire sufficient energy to leave the conductor and pass into the surrounding space, it is expressed as: A.Secondary emission B.Electron emission C.Primary electron release D.None of the above 6A135 B The emission of electrons from a material due to the impact of high-velocity electrons on its surface is: A.Primary electron emission B.Secondary emission C.Mimetic emission D.None of the above 6A136 A Characteristics of a vacuum tube operating as a class A amplifier: A.Low plate circuit efficiency, about 25%; practically no grid driving power; plate current flowing for 360 degrees of each cycle; practically no distortion of the output waveshape B.Plate circuit efficiency, about 50-60%; plate current flows slightly more than 180 degrees of each cycle, medium power output C.High efficiency, up to 80%; plate current drawn in bursts; great distortion of output waveshape D.None of the above 6A137 B Characteristics of a vacuum tube operating as a class B amplifier: A.Low plate circuit efficiency, about 25%; practically no grid driving power; plate current flowing for 360 degrees of each cycle; practically no distortion of the output waveshape B.Plate circuit efficiency, about 50-60%; plate current flows slightly more than 180 degrees of each cycle, medium power output C.High efficiency, up to 80%; plate current drawn in bursts; great distortion of output waveshape D.None of the above 6A138 D Factors which determine bios voltage of a vacuum tube: A.Class of operation, plate supply voltage, permissible distortion B.Grid signal magnitude, permissible plate dissipation, desired amplification factor C.The no-signal plate current desired, the desirability of drawing grid current D.All of the above 6A139 A In the usual Class A amplifier: A.There is no grid current B.Plate current flows slightly more than 180 degrees of each cycle C.Biased to twice D.None of the above 6A140 A The DC bias in a Class A amplifier: A.Usually is negative as measured at the grid with respect to cathode B.Usually is positive as measured at the grid with respect to cathode C.Cannot be determined D.None of the above 6A141 C What is the effect of incorrect grid bias in a Class A amplifier? A.Distortion of the output waveshape B.Possible excessive plate dissipation if the bias is too low C.Both A & B D.None of the above 6A142 A The approximate efficiency of a Class A vacuum tube amplifier: A.20%-30% B.60% C.85% D.100% 6A143 B The approximate efficiency of a Class B vacuum tube amplifier: A.20%-30% B.60% C.85% D.100% 6A144 C The approximate efficiency of a Class C vacuum tube amplifier: A.20%-30% B.60% C.85% D.100% 6A145 B A charge due to the accumulation of negative electrons because the plate potential cannot attract all of the electrons leaving the emitter: A.Getter B.Space charge C.Plate saturation D.None of the above 6A146 B A material flashed by the application of heat after the tube is evacuated that absorbs any gases remaining inside the tube: A.Space charge B.Getter C.Collector D.Emitter 6A147 B What types of vacuum tube filaments are reactivated: A.Barium berylliate B.Thoriated tungsten C.Nickel D.Thorium oxide 6A148 A A tungsten filament is operated at ____ temperature than a thoriated tungsten filament: A.A higher B.A lower C.The same D.Unknown 6A149 A The presence of gas within a tube is indicated: A.By a blue glow B.By a red glow C.By a yellow glow D.None of the above 6A150 C The cathode of an indirectly heated type of vacuum tube should be maintained at nearly the same potential as the heater circuit: A.To reduce hum pickup into the cathode B.To prevent breakdown of the insulation between the heater and cathode C.A & B D.None of the above 6A151 D Transmitting tube filaments should be maintained at recommended voltages: A.To realize the greatest life-expectancy B.If the filament voltage is too low, the emission will be reduced and operation of the circuit may be adversely affected C.If the voltage is too high, the filament may burn out D.All of the above 6A152 A Use of an AC filament supply is desirable: A.Mostly for practical reasons. It is easily obtainable B.Hum may be introduced into the amplifier C.A & B D.None of the above 6A153 A If a DC filament supply is used, it is advisable to periodically reverse the polarity of the filament potential: A.To lengthen the life of the filament B.To lengthen the life of the power source C.Both A & B D.None of the above 6A154 D Bias voltage on the grid of an AF amplifier tube: A.Determines the operating conditions of the tube B.The correct value is essential for undistorted Class A output C.In power amplifiers the plate current must be limited to safe value not to exceed the rated plate dissipation of the tube D.All of the above 6A155 C The screen grid in a vacuum tube: A.Makes it unnecessary to neutralize RF amplifiers except at very high frequencies, B.Makes it possible to obtain much higher values of amplification than with triodes C.A & B D.None of the above 6A156 D The suppressor grid in a multielement vacuum tube: A.Is highly negative with respect to the plate B.Returns secondary electrons to the plate C.Increases the permissible gain and the efficiency of the tube D.All of the above 6A157 D The gain of a triode audio amplifier is a function of: A.Tube transconduction B.Plate load impedance C.Transformer step-up (if used) D.All of the above 6A158 C "Load" on a vacuum tube commonly refers to: A.The impedance through which plate current flows to produce a useful output B.Increases as the load impedance approaches the internal plate impedance in value C.A & B D.None of the above 6A159 A A case in which the grid is held at an excessively negative value for a period of time thereby cutting off plate current: A.Blocked grid B.Blocked plate C.Motorboating D.Tuned grid 6A160 A The maximum power that can be safely and continuously dissipated in heat on the plate: A.Maximum plate dissipation B.Maximum power dissipation C.Continuous plate dissipation D.Plate heat dissipation 6A161 A Occurs when plate current equals electron emission for any given filament or cathode temperature: A.Plate saturation B.Electron saturation C.Filament saturation D.None of the above 6A162 B The most desirable factor in the choice of a vacuum tube for a voltage amplifier: A.A low value of transconductance B.A high value of transconductance C.High output tube capacitance D.None of the above 6A163 A Lack of requirement for neutralizing, except at ultra high frequencies, is an advantage of a tetrode over ____: A.A Triode B.A Pentode C.A & B D.None of the above 6A164 C Characteristics of a vacuum tube operating as a Class C amplifier: A.Low plate circuit efficiency, about 25%; practically no grid driving power; plate current flowing for 360 degrees of each cycle; practically no distortion of the output waveshape B.Plate circuit efficiency, about 50-60%; plate current flows slightly more than 180 degrees of each cycle; medium power output C.High plate circuit efficiency, up to 80%; plate current drawn in bursts; great distortion of output waveshape D.None of the above 6A165 C Plate current flows for less than 180 degrees (about 120 degrees when the grid bias is about twice cutoff value) in what class amplifier? A.A B.B C.C D.AB 6A166 A Tubes operated as Class C amplifiers are not suited for audio-frequency amplifiers: A.Because of excessive distortion B.Because of current requirement C.Because of reduced life expectancy of the filament D.None of the above 6A167 D Low plate current may be caused by: A.Low filament emission and voltage B.Excessive bias value, shorted screen by-pass capacitor C.Open grid circuit, low screen grid supply voltage D.All of the above 6A168 A A tuned circuit made up of inductance and capacitance is: A.An oscillator B.A neutralizer C.Voltage divider D.None of the above 6A169 B Some radio-frequency amplifiers must be neutralized: A.To maintain linear operation B.To prevent sustained oscillations from occurring in the amplifier C.Sustain feedback D.None of the above 6A170 D Cavity resonators are: A.A form of resonant tank circuit B.Consist of a hollow metal cylinder bead on all sides C.Have a very high Q and selectivity D.All of the above 6A171 D The diode detector: A.Is square law on weak signals B.Is practically linear on strong signals C.Is square law on strong signals D.A & B 6A172 D The functioning of a grid-leak detector: A.Depends on the ability of the grid leak and capacitor to follow the average grid current variations which are directly proportioned to the modulation envelope B.Depends on second harmonic distortion C.Very sensitive to weak signals D.A & C 6A173 D Characteristic of a square law type of vacuum tube detector: A.High sensitivity is provided due to the audio output signal amplitude being proportioned to the square of the radio frequency voltage B.High percentage of second harmonic distortion C.Works on weak signals only D.All of the above 6A174 A A diode detector ordinarily produces ____ overall distortion of the audio output wave than does a triode detector: A.Lower B.Higher C.Practically the same D.Either A or B 6A175 D Operating conditions for determining that a tube is being used as a power detector: A.Bias at about cutoff B.High input grid resistance C.Plate circuit rectification D.All of the above 6A176 A Why is a center top usually provided for vacuum tube plate and grid return circuits when and AC filament supply is used? A.To prevent hum voltage from modulating the normal signals B.To allow more filament current C.A & B D.None of the above 6A177 D How would you determine the cathode-bias resistance necessary to provide correct grid bias for an amplifier? A.Bias equals the IR drop across the cathode B.Bias is found by dividing the desired DC bias voltage by the total no-signal cathode current C.For a tetrode or pentode, the screen current must be added to the plate current D.All of the above 6A178 A Given the following vacuum tube constants: Gp = 1000 V, Ip = 150 mA, Ig = 10 mA, Grid leaks = 5000 ohms. What would be the grid bias voltage? A.50 V B.100 V C.25 V D.None of the above 6A179 C What currents will be indicated by a milliammeter connected between the center top of the filament transformer of a tetrode and negative high voltage? A.Plate current B.Screen grid current C.Combined plate and screen grid currents D.None of the above 6A180 A A dynatron oscillator is a ____ which depends upon the negative resistance characteristic of a tetrode tube for its operation: A.Tuned circuit operation B.Diode detector C.Magnetron oscillator D.Meystron oscillator 6A181 D Materials which can be used as crystal detectors: A.Silicon, galena B.Carborundum, iron pyrites C.Silicon, iron pyrites D.All of the above 6A182 C A power detector may be operated: A.As a square law detector B.As a linear detector C.As either a square law detector or a linear detector D.None of the above 6A183 A Used to multiply the fundamental frequency by two: A.Frequency doubler B.Harmonic generator with a suitable resonant circuit C.A & B D.None of the above 6A184 D When used as an RF amplifier, a pentode vacuum tube: A.Usually does not require neutralization B.Usually requires neutralization C.May require neutralization at ultra-high frequencies D.A & C 6A185 C A quartz crystal in a radio transmitter: A.Is used to provide a high degree of master-oscillator frequency stability B.May be the sole tuned circuit in the oscillator C.A & B D.None of the above 6A186 D Advantage of crystal control over tuned circuit oscillators: A.Very high Q B.Compact size C.Excellent frequency stability D.All of the above 6A187 B If the crystal will undergo very small changes in its operating frequency with relatively large temperature variations: A.A high-temperature coefficient crystal B.A low-temperature coefficient crystal C.A constant-temperature coefficient crystal D.None of the above 6A188 A A separate source of power is sometimes desirable for crystal-oscillator units in a transmitter: A.To prevent dynamic instability of the crystal oscillator B.To prevent thermocoupling of the crystal oscillator C.To prevent overtuning of the crystal oscillator D.To cause dynamic instability of the crystal oscillator 6A189 D "The temperature coefficient of an x-cut crystal is negative": A.The operating frequency of the crystal will decrease as the temperature decreases B.The operating frequency of the crystal will decrease as the temperature increases C.The operating frequency of the crystal will increase as the temperature decreases D.B & C 6A190 C If you apply DC voltage to the opposite plane surfaces of a quartz crystal: A.The crystal plate will always undergo a physical distortion B.The crystal might crack under the strain of displacement caused by too much voltage C.A & B D.None of the above 6A191 D "The temperature coefficient of a y-cut crystal is positive" means: A.The operating frequency of the crystal will decrease as the temperature decreases B.The operating frequency of the crystal will increase as the temperature increases C.The operating frequency of the crystal will decrease as the temperature increases D.A & B 6A192 B Two dissimilar metals joined together and producing a current between them when the junction is heated is: A.A point contact type transistor B.A thermocouple C.A junction contact type transistor D.A solenoid 6A193 D Waveguides: A.A type of transmission line B.Hollow rectangular or circular pipe C.Fine application as transmission lines D.All of the above 6A194 D Transistors may be compared to a conventional triode vacuum tube functionally: A.Emitter corresponds to the cathode B.Collector corresponds to the plate C.Base corresponds to the grid D.All of the above 6A195 C Types of transistors: A.Point-contact B.Junction C.Both A & B D.NPP 6A196 D When using and storing crystal microphones: A.They should be protected from shock and vibration B.They should be protected from humidity C.They should be protected from high temperatures D.All of the above 6A197 A What effect does a change in the dielectric constant of a capacitor dielectric material have upon the capacitance of a capacitor: A.Capacity varies directly with the dielectric constant B.Capacity may fluctuate wildly C.There is no effect upon the capacitance D.None of the above 6A198 A Increasing the number of plates of a capacitor: A.Will increase the capacitance B.Will decrease the capacitance C.Will have no effect on the capacitance D.Will make the capacitance fluctuate 6A199 A If the dielectric constants of a capacitor dielectric material between the capacitor plates were changed from 1 to 1: A.The capacitance would be twice its original value B.The capacitance would be half its original value C.The capacitance would decay rapidly D.None of the above 6A200 D Contacts which slide together on opening and closing: A.Are butt joined B.Are known as self-wiping C.Keep the contacts clean by their action D.B & C 6A201 D Permanent magnets used in head telephones: A.Place the diaphragms under tension so that the sensitivity of the telephones will be increased B.Improve the frequency response C.Prevents production of second harmonics in the telephones D.All of the above 6A202 A Emergency repairs to an inductance coil having burned or charred insulation: A.Are generally impractical, short of rewinding the coil with good wire B.Are always practical if repaired by coating the bad turns with insulating varnish C.A & B D.None of the above 6A203 D Indications of a defective vacuum tube in a transmitter: A.Gas blow within the tube, excessive plate color due to overheating B.No light from the filament, insufficient plate current, reduced output C.Excessive plate current, possible internal arcing, fluctuating plate or grid current D.All of the above 6A204 C The breakdown voltage rating of a capacitor are determined by: A.The type of dielectric material used B.The thickness of the dielectric material C.A & B D.None of the above 6A205 D Crystal surfaces should be free of dirt of grease to operate properly: A.Do not touch the faces of the crystal with the fingers B.Clean the faces with soap and water C.Clean the faces with carbon tetrachloride D.All of the above 6A206 D A purplish glow from within a tube indicates: A.A soft tube B.A hard tube C.Air or undesired gases within the tube D.A & C 6A207 A Given a solenoid with a resistance of 5 ohms and 0.34 through the winding when 1108 at 60 Hz is applied. What is the impedance? A.367 ohms B.350 ohms C.360 ohms D.None of the above 6A208 D Use of a low pass filter network: A.Ripple filter in power supplies, harmonic suppression filters in antenna systems B.Line noise filters, tone control systems C.Crossover networks, output filters of detector circuits D.All of the above 6A209 B A special type of power supply filter choke whose inductance is inversely proportioned to values of DC within specified limits is: A.Smoothing choke B.Swinging choke C.Radio frequency choke D.Audio frequency choke 6A210 A The best suited material for use as an antenna strain insulator exposed to the elements: A.Glazed porcelain B.Glass C.Graphite composite D.Rubber 6A211 D Materials frequently used for relay contacts: A.Tungsten B.Silver C.Gold D.All of the above 6A212 D Why is rosin used as a soldering flux? A.It is noncorrosive B.It allows a perfect soldering bond to be made C.It possesses good insulation qualities D.All of the above 6A213 A What substance is the most widely used in crystal oscillators? A.Quartz B.Galena C.Silicon D.Tourmaline 6A214 B Why is an oscillator crystal operated at a constant temperature? A.Just because, stupid! B.To maintain a constant frequency output from the oscillator C.Constant temperature allows easier frequency change D.None of the above 6A215 D The advantage of a single-button carbon microphone: A.High output voltage B.Sensitivity C.Low cost D.All of the above 6A216 D A carbon microphone should not be: A.Jarred while in operation B.Tapped while in operation C.Subjected to violent sound intensities D.All of the above 6A217 A In connecting head telephones directly in the plate circuit of a vacuum tube one should observe the proper polarity: A.To maintain maximum sensitivity in the headphones B.So its current flows opposed to the field strength of the permanent magnet C.A & B D.None of the above 6A218 A What should the plate current do in the operation of a Class B audio amplifier? A.Fluctuate B.Remain Steady C.Increase D.None of the above 6A219 A What turns ratio does a transformer need to match a source impedance of 500 ohms to a load of 10 ohms? A.7.1 to 1 B.7 to 1 C.14 to 1 D.None of the above 6A220 C What microphones have a high impedance output? A.Crystal B.Dynamic C.Any D.None of the above 6A221 C How may low impedance (75 ohm) head telephones be connected to the output of a vacuum tube? A.By using an impedance matching transformer in the output stage B.Connect them as a cathode bias resistor in the output stage C.Either A or B D.None of the above 6A222 C Why do headphones usually have high-impedance windings? A.They can usually be operated without an impedance matching transformer B.They represent a closer match to the plate load impedance for the tube delivering necessary driving power than low impedance planes C.A & B D.None of the above 6A223 D A "choke" coil: A.Offers a relatively high impedance to AC currents B.Has a high "Q" (low RF losses) C.Offers a low resistance to DC currents D.All of the above 6A224 D Why is correct grid bias necessary for audio frequency amplifier? A.To minimize distortion B.To set the operating conditions for determining the class of amplifications C.So as not to exceed the rated plate dissipation of the tube D.All of the above 6A225 A When a tube is used as a Class B amplifier what portion of the excitation voltage cycle does plate current flow? A.Slightly more than 180 degrees B.Slightly less than 180 degrees C.360 degrees D.None of the above 6A226 A A properly operated Class A audio amplifier: A.Produces no serious modification of the input waveform B.Serious distortion is present C.A & B D.All of the above 6A227 D What is the main advantage obtained by using two triodes in push-pull in a Class a audio frequency amplifier? A.Increased power output B.Cancellation of even harmonic distortion in the output C.Elimination of DC saturation, elimination of cathode by-pass capacitor D.All of the above 6A228 A What is the maximum permissible RMS value of audio voltage which can be applied to the grid of a Class A audio amplifier which has a grid bias of 10 V? A.7.07 V B.8 V C.10 V D.14.14 V 6A229 D Distortion in a Class A amplifier can be caused by: A.Insufficient plate and screen potentials, incorrect grid bias defective rube B.Leaky or shorted input coupling capacitor C.Excessive anokutyde if grid signal, incorrect value of load impedance D.All of the above 6A230 D Vacuum tubes operating as Class A amplifiers may be used as: A.Audio power amplifiers, audio voltage amplifiers, microphones amplifiers, line amplifiers B.Oscilloscope amplifiers, modulators C.Phonograph amplifiers D.All of the above 6A231 A Why is a push-pull audio frequency amplifier preferable to a single-tube stage? A.When compared with a single-tube stage, power output is doubled B.When compared with a single-tube stage, power output is the same C.When compared with a single-tube stage, power output is cut in half D.None of the above 6A232 A What is the DC plate voltage of a resistance-coupled amplifier state with a plate-supply voltage of 260 V, a plate current of 1 mA, and a plate load resistance of 100,000 ohms? A.160 V B.100 V C.200 V D.60 V 6A233 A Why is it necessary to use two tubes in a Class B audio amplifier? A.To prevent the excessive distortion which would result from the use of only one tube in Class B B.To eliminate hum C.A & B D.None of the above 6A234 D If the coupling capacitor leaked in a resistance-coupled audio frequency amplifier: A.Excessive plate current would result B.A large value of grid current would result C.There would be extreme distortion, and very low gain D.All of the above 6A235 C A vacuum tube operated Class C audio amplifier is not feasible, either in single or push-pull: A.Since the plate current only flows 120 degrees, even in push-pull, only 2/3 of the cycle is reproduced and the resultant distortion would be unacceptable for audio B.Tank circuits, which replace the missing portions of the cycle, can't be used in an audio amplifier because they only operate on one frequency C.A & B D.None of the above 6A236 C Even harmonics may be reduced in the output of an audio frequency amplifier: A.By operating the state push-pull B.In a single tube amplifier, by operating the stage only on the linear part of the tube's characteristic curve C.A & B D.None of the above 6A237 A The main advantage of a tuned audio frequency amplifier in a receiver used for the reception of CW: A.A reduction in interference from unwanted signals B.The desired audio beat frequency is attenuates C.A & B D.None of the above 6A238 A Decoupling networks in the plate circuit of a multistage audio amplifier: A.Prevents oscillations from occurring in the amplifier B.Result in oscillations in the amplifier C.Allow variable oscillations in the amplifier D.None of the above 6A239 A An audio-transformer is seldom used as the output device in the plate circuit of a tetrode audio-amplifier stage: A.Because an ordinary transformer cannot supply enough impedance to the plate circuit B.Because an ordinary transformer supplies too much impedance to the plate circuit C.Because an ordinary transformer would be too costly D.None of the above 6A240 B The chief advantage of Class A audio operation is compared to the other classes of audio-frequency amplifiers: A.Hum currents are in phase B.Low distortion of the output signal C.Tendency for regeneration is increased D.Elimination of cathode bypass capacitors 6A241 D Which is not the principle advantage of transformer coupling compared to resistance coupling in audiofrequency amplifiers? A.Greater gain per stage B.Can provide necessary impedance matching C.A & B D.A transformer is expensive, heavy, and bulky 6A242 D Efficiency of a power transformer is determined by: A.Eddy current losses B.Hysteresis losses C.Copper losses D.All of the above 6A243 D The ratios of primary and secondary currents in a power transformer: A.Are approximately in inverse ratio to the turns ratio B.Is to some extent affected by the diameter of the primary and secondary wire C.The current ratio is in inverse proportion to the voltage ratio D.All of the above 6A244 A A transformer has a primary voltage of 100, primary turns = 200, and secondary turns = 40. What is the secondary voltage? A.20 V B.240 V C.140 V D.340 V 6A245 B What factors determine the no-load voltage ratio of a power transformer? A.Power ratio B.Turns ratio C.Voltage ratio D.Power factor 6A246 A The turns ratio of a transformer varies: A.As the square root of the impedance ratio B.As the square of the impedance ratio C.As one-half the impedance ratio D.As twice the impedance ratio 6A247 D Primary cells: A.Can be recharged B.Cannot be recharged C.An attempt to recharge it would not restore the eroded electrode D.B & D 6A248 D Secondary cells: A.Can be recharged B.Cannot be recharged C.The products of the chemical change are not soluble in the electrolyte D.A & C 6A249 B The formation of hydrogen gas around the positive electrode of a primary cell is: A.Depolarization B.Polarization C.Manganese dioxide D.None of the above 6A250 D A dry cell may be tested: A.Must be tested under normal load condition B.May be tested under no load condition C.May be taken by any conventional voltmeter D.A & C 6A251 D In the usual type dry cell: A.The negative electrode is made of zinc B.The positive electrode is made of carbon C.The negative electrode is made of zinc D.A & B 6A252 D "A", "B", and "C" batteries are alike, but specifically constructed for a particular function. Explain: A."B" battery is for plate and screen power B."C" battery for grid bias voltage C."A" battery for filament power D.All of the above 6A253 D The condition of a dry "B" battery may be determined: A.By measuring the voltage under normal load B.By measuring the voltage under no load C.A loss of 20 % of the voltage under normal load indicates that the battery should be replaced D.A & C 6A254 A Spare "B" batteries should be stored: A.In a dry place B.In a hot place C.Anywhere D.A & C 6A255 A A means of comparing the weight of a volume of liquid with the same volume of distilled water: A.Specific gravity B.Specific mass C.Specific volume D.None of the above 6A256 D Edison type batteries: A.Have plates up nickel B.Have plates of iron C.Have plates of compounds of nickel and iron D.All of the above 6A257 D The electrolyte of a lead-acid storage cell: A.Concentrated sulfuric acid B.Dilute sulfuric acid C.Has a specific gravity about 1.3 fully charged D.B & C 6A258 A The negative plate of a lead-acid storage cell: A.Is composed of pure spongy lead B.Is composed of lead peroxide C.Is composed of a compound of pure spongy lead and lead peroxide D.None of the above 6A259 B The positive plate of a lead-acid storage cell: A.Is composed of pure spongy lead B.Is composed of lead peroxide C.Is composed of a compound of pure spongy lead and lead peroxide D.None of the above 6A260 D The chemical composition of the electrolyte in an Edison-type storage cell: A.Is contained in a nickel-plated sheet steel tank B.Has a specific gravity of about 1.200 C.Is a 21% solution of potassium and lithium hydroxides in distilled water D.All of the above 6A261 A The negative plate of an Edison-type storage cell is: A.Finely powdered pure iron B.Green oxide of nickel C.Potassium oxide D.None of the above 6A262 B The positive plate of an Edison-type storage cell is: A.Finely powdered pure iron B.Green oxide of nickel C.Lithium oxide D.None of the above 6A263 A The average fully-charged voltage of an Edison storage cell is: A.1.2 V B.1.5 V C.2 V D.1 V 6A264 D Decrease in capacity of an Edison-type storage cell can be caused by: A.Frequent overheating, and operating conditions over 115 degrees fahrenheit B.Charging at less than the normal rate C.Adding impure water to the electrolyte, or a weak or aged electrolyte D.All of the above 6A265 C The average fully charged voltage of a lead-acid cell is: A.1.0 V B.1.56 V C.2.06 V D.2.5 V 6A266 A To increase the power output of a storage cell: A.Low internal resistance is desirable B.High internal resistance is desirable C.Low terminal voltage under load is desirable D.None of the above 6A267 C The condition of charge of an Edison cell can be determined: A.By reading the terminal voltage under load B.By checking the voltage against a standard discharge curve C.Both A & B D.Checking the specific gravity 6A268 C The charge of a lead-acid storage cell: A.May be determined by hydrometer readings B.By measuring voltage under a heavy load C.A or B D.None of the above 6A269 D Sulfation: A.Reduces terminal voltage B.Increases internal resistance C.Reduces power output D.All of the above 6A270 D If the polarity is reversed when charging a storage cell: A.No damage in a lead-acid cell unless excessive B.Damage in an Edison-cell C.No damage in an Edison-cell if temperatures below 115 degrees Fahrenheit D.A & C 6A271 A You may measure the voltage of a battery under heavy load: A.To determine its condition of charge B.To determine its polarity C.To determine its age D.None of the above 6A272 A If the voltage of some cells in a battery are found to be reversed, what is indicated? A.Polarity was reversed while charging B.Polarity was doubled while charging C.Polarity has no influence of charging D.Polarity was correct while charging 6A273 D Distilled water should be added to a lead-acid storage cell: A.To keep the electrolyte 1/4 inch above the to of the plates B.To keep the useful plate area sufficient to maintain the full capacity of the cell C.None of the above D.A & B 6A274 D Local action in a lead-acid storage cell: A.Causes a slow discharge in the cell B.Forms a very hard sulfate on the plates C.May be reduced by trickle charging when the battery is not in actual use D.All of the above 6A275 D To maintain a group of storage cells in good operating condition: A.Observe correct charge and discharge rates B.Overcharge about once a month to remove sulfation C.Keep all terminal corrections clean and tight D.All of the above 6A276 D What may cause the plates of a lead-acid call to buckle? A.Excessive sulfation B.Overheating C.Overdischarging of the battery D.All of the above 6A277 D What may cause sulfation of a lead-acid cell? A.It is a normal process B.Overdischarging C.Local action with improper charging D.All of the above 6A278 D What may be used to neutralize an acid electrolyte? A.Ammonium hydroxide B.Baking soda C.Washing soda D.All of the above 6A279 A To prevent corrosion of battery terminals: A.Occasionally clean and coat them with Vaseline or other suitable lubricants B.Use only brass terminals C.Use only stainless steel terminals D.Keep battery on trickles charge 6A280 D Why should there be ventilation to the room housing a large group of storage cells? A.To prevent gas accumulation B.To prevent overheating C.To prevent the terminals from shorting D.A & B 6A281 D Radio equipment on which electrolyte may be used: A.Electrolyte capacitor B.Electrolyte rectifier C.Electrolyte detector D.All of the above 6A282 C What is the effect of low temperature on the operation of a lead-acid storage battery? A.Electrolyte may freeze and split the battery if sg too low B.The capacity is decreased C.A & B D.None of the above 6A283 A What form of energy is stored in a lead-acid storage battery? A.Chemical B.Mechanical C.Heat D.Light 6A284 C How may polarity of a storage battery be determined? A.Voltmeter B.Salt water method C.A & B D.None of the above 6A285 A A battery with a terminal voltage of 12.5 V is to be trickle-charged at a 0.5 A rate. What resistance should be connected in series with the battery to charge from a 110 V line? A.195 ohms B.300 ohms C.95 ohms D.None of the above 6A286 A A discharged storage battery of 3 cells has an open circuit voltage of 1.8 V per cell and an internal resistance of 0.1 ohm per cell. What voltage is needed to give an initial charging rate of 10 A? A.8.4 V B.10 V C.15 V D.12.5 V 6A287 C What capacity in amperes of storage battery is required to operate a 50 W emergency transmitter for 6 hr.? Assume a continuous transmitter load of 70% of the key-locked demand of 40 A, and an emergency light load of 1.5 A. A.A battery rated greater than 177 amperhours B.A battery rated at least 177 amperhours C.A & B D.None of the above 6A288 A If a receiver storage A battery could not be kept charged, and maintain the required watch period, what should you do? A.Increase the charging rate B.Get a new battery C.Discontinue the required watch period D.B & C 6A289 D Abnormally low input power terminal voltage of a lifeboat radiotelegraph transmitter while in operation could be caused by: A.Reversed polarity B.Excessive overload C.A partially discharged battery D.B & C 6A290 A If a battery has 12.4 V on open circuit and 12.2 V when its charging circuit is closed: A.Could have polarity reversed B.Could be overloaded C.A & B D.None of the above 6A291 D The tops of lead-acid batteries should be kept dry: A.To prevent slow discharge of the battery B.To prevent terminal overload C.To reduce the formation of terminal corrosion D.A & C 6A292 C When lead-acid cells are subject to low temperatures they should: A.To prevent freezing B.To provide the maximum capacity C.A & B D.None of the above 6A293 A If an electrolyte in a lead-acid storage cell becomes low due to evaporation: A.The level should be brought to about 1/4 inch above the tops of the plates with pure water B.The level should be brought to about 1/4 inch above the tops of the plates with tap water C.The level should be brought to about 1/4 inch above the tops of the plates with salt water D.None of the above 6A294 C An Edison storage battery should not be charged at less than the manufacturer's specified rate: A.In order that the capacity of the battery shall be maximum after charge B.The chemical reactions of the Edison-type cell C.A & B D.None of the above 6A295 D Your emergency battery has a specific gravity reading of 1.120. What should be done? A.Place the battery on charge at once B.Bring the electrolyte level to about 1/4 inch above the top of the plates C.The battery will be fully charged when the specific gravity reads 1.280 to 1.300 D.All of the above 6A296 A What care should be taken with selecting water to add to a storage cell? A.It should be chemically pure or distilled B.It should be only sea water C.Tap water is as good as any D.None of the above 6A297 D If the circuit breakers refuse to stay closed when you place the emergency batteries on charge, what is the trouble? A.Internally shorted cells B.Reversed charging polarity C.Grounded circuit connections D.Any of the above 6A298 C Heat developed within a storage cell under charge or discharge conditions is caused by: A.I2R losses B.Energy transfer due to chemical reactions C.A & B D.None of the above 6A299 A How would you connect a group of similar cells in a storage battery to obtain the maximum zero resistance current? A.In parallel B.In series C.In series/parallel D.None of the above 6A300 B How would you connect a group of similar cells in a storage battery to obtain the maximum no-bond output voltage? A.In parallel B.In series C.In series/parallel D.None of the above 6A301 A What current will flow in a 6 V storage battery with an internal resistance of 0.01 ohms, when a 3 W, 6 V lamp is connected? A.0.4995 A B.0.4885 A C.0.5566 A D.0.5795 A 6A302 C The charging rate of a storage cell charged from a fixed voltage source decreases as the charging progresses opposition to the charging voltage? A.Because as cell voltages increase, offering more opposition to the charging voltage B.When the effective charging potential is reduced, the charging current is decreased C.Both A & B D.None of the above 6A303 C The principal function of the filter in a power supply: A.To remove the variations in amplitude of the rectifier output B.To provide a relatively unvarying DC voltage for use in the various circuits C.Either A or B D.None of the above 6A304 C Advantages of capacitor input and choke-input filters when used with rectifiers: A.Capacitor-input filter provides higher output voltage under reasonably light load conditions B.Choke-input filter offers better voltage regulations C.A & B D.None of the above 6A305 A A high-resistance fixed resistor is shunted across each unit of a high voltage series capacitor bank in the power-supply filter circuit to: A.Insure that the correct voltage appears across each unit B.Discharge the capacitors C.Does not insure the correct voltage across each unit D.None of the above 6A306 A Part of the secondary winding of a transmitters power transformer is accidentally shorted. What should be the immediate effect? A.The current would rise to an excessive value and trip the circuit breaker B.The short would burn the transformer C.The current in the secondary winding would decrease D.None of the above 6A307 C Bleeder resistors are used in power supplies: A.To improve the output voltage regulation B.They also discharge the filter capacitor when the power is turned off C.Either A or B D.None of the above 6A308 B The ratio of the frequencies of the output and input circuits of a single-phase full-wave rectifier: A.1 to 1 B.2 to 1 C.1 to 2 D.None of the above 6A309 A A capacitor is sometimes placed in series with the primary of a power transformer: A.To improve the power factor B.To improve output voltage regulation C.To rectify the primary windings D.None of the above 6A310 A What is the maximum allowable secondary voltage of a transformer used as a center-tapped full-wave rectifier with tubes having a peak inverse voltage rating of 10,000 V? A.7070 V B.14140 V C.10000 V D.5000 V 6A311 D If a 60 Hz transformer is connected to a 120 Hz source of the same voltage: A.The impedance of the transformers would be greater B.The current would be reduced C.There would be a decrease in power delivered to the load D.All the above 6A312 D If a 500 Hz transformer is connected to a 60 Hz source of the same voltage: A.The primary would draw excessive current B.The transformer would overheat C.The primary might burn out D.All of the above 6A313 D A 500 Hz AC plate supply, rectified by a full-wave, unfiltered rectifier circuit. What would the emission be? A.A modulated continuous wave of 500 Hz B.A modulated continuous wave of 1000 Hz C.A-2 D.All of the above 6A314 A The purpose of an air gap in a filter choke coil core. Which is the incorrect answer? A.To decrease the effective inductance for the AC component of current by increasing the DC saturation B.To increase the effective inductance for the AC component of current by decreasing the DC saturation C.The inductance of the coil in general's decreased D.All of the above 6A315 C Loose laminations in a filter choke: A.Make it impossible to firmly connect the choke in a circuit B.A & C C.Cause a buzzing or chattering sound D.None of the above 6A316 D Poor regulation in a power supply may be caused by: A.No bleeder resistance B.High resistance filter chokes C.Insufficient filter capacity D.All of the above 6A317 C Why should the case of a high-voltage transformer be grounded? A.To protect personnel handling the equipment from shock B.To prevent high static voltages building up between the case and grounds C.A & B D.None of the above 6A318 A When connecting electrolytic capacitors in series: A.Observe the polarity marked on the component B.There is no polarity to observe C.Connect anode to anode D.Connect cathode to cathode 6A319 C Full wave rectification has ____ than half-wave: A.Better output voltage regulation B.Smaller filter components for a given ripple percentage C.A and B D.None of the above 6A320 A Voltage regulation is ____ with a high resistance choke: A.Made worse B.Made better C.The same D.None of the above 6A321 D Electrolyte capacitors are desirable over other types because: A.A large capacitance may be obtained with small physical dimensions B.They have a cathode C.The wet-type electrolytic capacitor is "self-healing" D.A & C 6A322 A The most common values of chokes range from: A.5 H to 30 H B.30 H-100 H C.1 H to 100 H D.100 H to 1000 H 6A323 D The power transformer and rectifier of a radio receiver are designed to supply a plate voltage of 250 V when operating from a 110 V 60 Hz supply, if the transformer is connected to 110 VDC what will happen? A.The secondary would burn out B.The primary would overheat and burn out C.The circuit breaker would open to protect the circuit D.Either A or B 6A324 A A shunt-wound DC motor: A.Has a practically constant speed under widely varying load conditions B.Has poor speed regulation under varying load conditions C.High starting torque D.None of the above 6A325 D A series DC motor has: A.Maximum torque at low speed B.Quick starting C.Poor speed regulation under varying loads D.All of the above 6A326 B This partially counteracts the line voltage and so limits the armature current in a DC motor: A.EMF B.Counter EMF C.Opposition EMF D.None of the above 6A327 D A compound-wound DC motor: A.Has constant speed under changing load conditions B.Low starting torque C.High starting torque D.A & B 6A328 C Laminated iron is used in armature and field construction to: A.Reduce eddy current losses B.Offer a number of high-resistance paths to Eddy currents C.A or B D.None of the above 6A329 B The ____ of a DC motor periodically change the armature coils to maintain one direction of rotation: A.Field coils B.Connector C.Brushes D.Auxiliary speed control 6A330 A The speed of a series DC motor may increase and destroy the motor by centrifugal action: A.When operated without a load B.When operated on AC C.When operated under varying load D.None of the above 6A331 A When the field of a shunt-wound DC motor opens while the machine is operating under no load: A.The motor would race, and if unchoked, might destroy itself B.The motor would quit running without damage C.The motor would burn out the field coils D.None of the above 6A332 C ____ are used in a DC motor to reduce brush sparking without moving the brushes: A.Interpoles B.Commutating poles C.Either A or B D.None of the above 6A333 C A short in the armature coils of a DC motor causes: A.No excessive sparking at the commutator brushes B.No overheating of the motor C.Reduction of speed under load, and excessive armature current D.All of the above 6A334 B The motor-field rheostat should be ____ when starting a DC motor generator set: A.Minimum resistance in the armature circuit B.Minimum resistance in the field circuit C.Maximum resistance in the field circuit D.None of the above 6A335 D If a motor generator fails to start when the start button is depressed, the trouble may be: A.Blown fuse or tripped circuit breaker B.Open armature or motor-field rheostat C.Broken connections, defective brushes D.All of the above 6A336 A When increased output is desired from a motor-generator, what is the usual procedure? A.Decrease the resistance after rheostat in series with the generator field B.Increase the resistance of the rheostat in series with the generator field C.Output cannot be easily increased D.Shut down the motor-generator and restart under full load 6A337 D A dynamotor is: A.A combination motor-generator which utilizes a common field winding B.Usually run by battery power C.A higher efficiency than a motor-generator D.All of the above 6A338 C Output voltage of a dynamotor may be regulated: A.Only by changing the speed of the motor B.A series resistance in the output line could be used to reduce the available output voltage C.Either A or B D.None of the above 6A339 D What disadvantage is there to a dynamotor? A.Compactness B.Operating efficiency C.It can be operated from batteries D.Its output voltage is dependent on the source voltage stability 6A340 D Causes of excessive sparking at the brushes of a DC motor or generator include: A.Brushes not properly set at neutral point, dirt on commutator, motor overloaded B.Weak spring tension on brushes, brushes worn, commutator worn eccentric C.High mica-insulation between bars, commutator bars of uneven height D.All of the above 6A341 D By-pass capacitors are often connected across the brushes of a high-voltage DC generator: A.To regulate the voltage B.To protect the generator winding from high voltage surges C.To reduce RF interference D.B & C 6A342 D Causes of motor-generator bearing overheating include: A.Incorrect kind of lubrication, lack of ventilation B.Constant overload, dirt in bearings C.Misalignment D.All of the above 6A343 D RF interference may be minimized: A.By the use of brush by-pass capacitors B.Low frequency filters C.Shielding of long connecting leads D.All of the above 6A344 A Emery cloth should never be used to clean the commutator of a motor or generator: A.Because it contains particles which may lodge between commutator segments and cause short circuits B.Because it may polish the commutator too smooth for good brush contact C.Because it may decrease the insulating quality of its mica between the interpoles D.None of the above 6A345 A A 3 HP 100 V DC motor is 85% efficient when developing its rated output. What is the current? A.23.93 A B.25 A C.20 A D.8.5 A 6A346 D The speed of a synchronous motor is determined: A.By the number of pairs of poles B.By the line frequency C.By the load D.A & B 6A347 D The speed of an induction motor is determined: A.By the number of pairs of poles B.By the line frequency C.By the load D.All of the above 6A348 A The speed of a DC series motor is determined: A.By the load B.By the number of pairs of poles C.By the commutator D.None of the above 6A349 B What is the line current of a 7 HP motor operating on 120 V at full load, a power factor of 0.8, and 95% efficiency? A.56 A B.57.2 A C.58 A D.None of the above 6A350 A Alternators are usually rated in: A.Volt-amperes output B.Watts C.Amperes D.*** 6A351 C What conditions must be met before two AC generators can be operated in parallel? A.Output voltages must be equal, frequencies must match B.Phase rotation, and relative phase positions must match C.A & B D.None of the above 6A352 A The voltage of an alternator will: A.Decrease under load B.Increase under load C.Load has no effect on voltage D.None of the above 6A353 C What effect will high coupling between the plate and grid circuits of a quartz-crystal oscillator have? A.The grid to plate capacitance will be destroyed B.The oscillation will be higher because of higher Q C.Overheating of the crystal and possible breakage D.Overmodulation 6A354 B The operation of a dynatron oscillator depends on what? A.The positive emission from the anode B.The secondary emission from the anode C.Cathode being in saturation D.Positive resistance characteristic of the tetrode tube 6A355 A To provide additional feedback voltage in a crystal oscillator what is sometimes needed? A.An additional plate grid feedback capacitor B.Adding a coupling circuit in series with the plate resistors C.An astable multivibrator D.A monostable multivibrator 6A356 C What is the primary reason for the use of a crystal controlled oscillator for use as a transmitter? A.No cross-modulation B.Increase in gain C.Frequency stability D.Impedance gain and wider bandpass 6A357 B What is are the advantages of self excited oscillator and master-oscillator power-amplifier transmitters? A.The master-oscillator has fewer parts than the self-excited and is simpler to construct B.The self-excited oscillator transmitter is simpler to construct and has fewer parts than the masteroscillator C.Either A or B D.Neither 6A358 D The primary function of the power-amplifier stage of a marine radiotelegraph transmitter is: A.To transmit messages concerning the safety and health of the ship personnel B.To transmit messages concerning the weather and safety of upcoming storms C.Both A and B D.To improve the frequency stability of the oscillator 6A359 C The buffer amplifier stage of a transmitter: A.To hold any discriminator signals until verified by the varactor diode circuits B.Buffers any signals that may have been imposed upon the carrier signal C.To improve the frequency stability of the oscillator D.Both A and C 6A360 C Which class of amplifier is used in the final amplifier stage for maximum plate efficiency? A.Class A B.Class B C.Class C D.Filtered Class D 6A361 B What class of amplifier is used as linear in order not to distort the modulation components? A.Class A B.Class B C.Class C D.None of the above 6A362 C If a class B linear final R-F amplifier were in saturation and no modulation what would happen when modulated? A.The carrier frequency would override the grid-plate current and the result would be positive shift resulting in amplification B.The Class B linear amplifier only modulates below cut-off C.A condition of negative carrier shift would be the result D.Both A and B 6A363 D A class C amplifier: A.Has an output for the entire input signal cycle B.Output is present for less than 180 degrees of the input cycle C.Bias is set well beyond cutoff D.Both B and C 6A364 A What effect would insufficient radio-frequency excitation have on Class C modulated amplifier output? A.A negative carrier shift B.A positive carrier shift C.Both A and B D.None of the above 6A365 B The second harmonic of a 380 kHz frequency is: A.1520 kHz B.760 kHz C.190 kHz D.2 6A366 D Two effects of over-excitation of a Class B amplifier grid circuit are: A.Increased plate efficiency, decreased power output B.Decreased plate efficiency, excessive grid current C.Excessive plate current, excessive distortion D.Both B and C 6A367 D Three main factors to consider about grid-leak in a vacuum tube transmitter: A.The value of grid leak current and grid leak anode to grid B.The value of grid leak resistance and duration of time the grid current is flowing C.Internal resistance of the tube between the grid and cathode D.Both B and C 6A368 A How can an R-F amplifier stage be neutralized? A.Vary the tuning of the plate tank circuit while observing the amp. meter B.Vary the tuning of the plate tank circuit while observing the SWR meter C.Neutralization is done by circuit design either by increasing the input impedance or lowering the inductance value D.Both A and C are correct 6A369 B What is the purpose of a speech amplifier in connection with the modulator of a transmitter? A.Used to raise the gain of signal after filtering B.To raise the signal-to-noise ratio and the output voltage of microphones C.To feed the mixer where signal-to-noise ratio is raised D.To pre-amp the weaker of the two signals received 6A370 C When the first speech-amplifier of a transmitter were overexcited, but the modulation capabilities were not exceeded what would be the effect on the output? A.The waveform would be sawtooth causing undermodulation B.The waveform would be square wave creating cross-modulation C.The output would be distorted D.Both A and C 6A371 D The bias of a grid-modulated R-F stage is adjusted: A.Below cut-off frequency B.At grid saturation C.At bias D.1 and half to 3 times plate current cutoff value 6A372 B Given the following: (1) audio power for 100% modulation equals 50% of DC input power to RF modulated amplifier, (2) load presented to the modulated tube consists of the DC plate impedance of the modulated amplifier, (3) constant grid excitation voltage, very low distortion, what type of modulation? A.Grid B.Plate C.Cathode D.Anode 6A373 B Modulation occurring in an RF stage other than the final power amplifier: A.High level B.Low level C.Pre-emphasis D.Plate 6A374 C The efficiency of a grid-bias modulated stage should be: A.Maximum at complete modulation B.Minimum at zero modulation C.Either A or B D.None of the above 6A375 C Does grid current flow in a grid-bias modulated stage under modulated conditions? A.Grid current may exist during the positive porions of the AF cycle B.Grid current may cause distortion C.A and B D.None of the above 6A376 D What might be the cause of a positive shift in carrier amplitude during modulation? A.Parasitic oscillations, excessive audio drive B.Incorrect tuning of final amplifier C.Insufficient RF excitation, incorrect neutralization D.All of the above 6A377 B For 100% modulation, DC power input to the modulated RF amplifier should: A.Be the same as the AC power from the modulation B.Be 1/2 the AC power from the modulation C.Be 1/4 the AC power from the modulation D.None of the above 6A378 A When a radiotelephone transmitter is 100% modulated by sinusoidal waveform , how much antenna current will be observed? A.22.5 % increase B.22.5 % decrease C.12.25% increase D.No change in antenna current 6A379 A What can be done in a Heising modulation system to obtain 100% modulation? A.Use a series resistor between the amplifier and modulator in the DC plate supply B.Nothing needs to be done C.Use a series capacitor between amplifier and modulator in the DC grid supply D.Both A and C 6A380 C A plate choke in a Heising modulator: A.Builds up audio modulating voltages B.Feeds audio modulating voltages to the plate of the RF modulated amplifier to produce plate modulation C.A and B D.None of the above 6A381 A What value of sinusoidal audio power is required to insure 100% modulation when the DC plate input to a modulated Class C amplifier has an efficiency of 60 % , and is 200 W? A.100 W B.50 W C.25 W D.12 W 6A382 C What would be the antenna current when a transmitter has an antenna current of 8 amp, under A -1, even if it is 100% modulated by sinusoidal modulation? A.9.8 amp B.The antenna current will increase by 22.5% C.Either A or B D.None of the above 6A383 D If a transmitter is adjusted for maximum power for telegraph, what must be done to be amplitude modulated? A.The plate voltage must be reduced B.The plate voltage must be increased C.Tubes would have to dissipate 1.5 times as much power if the plate voltage were not reduced D.Both A and C 6A384 D A series-fed plate circuit of a vacuum tube amplifier has a short circuit of the plate bypass capacitor. What happened? A.It would short out the power supply B.It would remove the plate voltage C.It would possibly damage the power supply D.All of the above 6A385 D A shunt-fed plate circuit of a vacuum tube amplifier has a short circuit of the plate RF choke. What happens? A.The plate tank circuit would be effectively shorted B.The DC plate current would increase, possibly to excess C.No RF output could be expected D.All of the above 6A386 A The total bandwidth of a transmitter using A-2 emission with a modulating frequency of 800 Hz and a carrier frequency of 500 kHz is: A.1600 Hz B.1.6 kHz C.800 kHz D.1000 kHz 6A387 A Given a vacuum tube of the following characteristics: plate voltage 1000 V, plate current 127 ma, filament current 5.4 amp, mutual conductance 8000 microvolts, and amplification factor of 25. What is the correct volume of negative grid bias for Class B amplifier? A.40 V B.50 V C.30 V D.60 V 6A388 A When the relative amplitudes of the positive and negative modulation peaks are unsymmetrical: A.Carrier shift B.Frequency shift C.Amplifier shift D.None of the above 6A389 D What may be used as indicating devices in neutralizing an RF amplifier stage? A.Neon bulb, sensitive wavemeter B.A flashlight bulb connected to a small loop of wire, a sensitive thermocoupler either attached to a small loop of wire C.Amplifier grid current meter, a thermocouple meter connected in series with the plate tank D.All of the above 6A390 D Important factors in the operation of the vacuum tube as a frequency doubler are: A.Plate tank should be tuned to twice the grid circuit frequency B.The grid bias should be very large, the grid driving voltage must be very large, the plate voltage should be comparatively high C.The plate tank circuit should have a low C to L ratio D.All of the above 6A391 A If a 1500 kHz radio wave is modulated by a 2000 Hz sine wave tone, what frequencies does the modulated wave contain? A.1500 kHz , 1502 kHz , 1498 kHz B.1500 MHz , 1502 MHz , 1498 MHz C.1500 Hz , 1502 Hz , 1498 Hz D.None of the above 6A392 A To avoid damage to components what precautions should be observed in tuning a transmitter? A.It should be adjusted at reduced power B.It should be adjusted under normal power C.Plate tank circuits are tuned for maximum DC current D.None of the above 6A393 A A transmitter has a master-oscillator, intermediate amplifier, and final amplifier. In what order should the circuit be adjusted in putting the transmitter in operation? A.Master-oscillator, intermediate amplifier, final amplifier, antenna circuit B.Antenna circuit, master-oscillator, intermediate amplifier, final amplifier C.Final amplifier, antenna circuit, master-oscillator, intermediate amplifier D.Master-oscillator, intermediate amplifier, antenna circuit, final amplifier 6A394 D Excessive plate current of an RF amplifier may be caused by: A.Plate-tank circuit off resonance, defective tube B.Excessive loading of plate tank, insufficient bias, parasitic oscillations C.Excessive plate and screen voltage, excessive excitation voltage, improper neutralization D.All of the above 6A395 A The disadvantage of using a self-excited oscillator type of transmitter for shipboard service: A.Frequency instability B.Parasitic oscillations C.Violent sound intensities D.Large capacity 6A396 A The degree of coupling is varied in a pi-network used to transfer energy from a vacuum tube plate circuit to an antenna: A.By adjusting the series capacitors B.By adjusting the tank capacitors C.By changing the plate voltage D.None of the above 6A397 A In order of selectivity, the best receivers are: A.Superheterodyne, tuned radio frequency, superregenerative B.Tuned radio-frequency, superheterodyne, superregenerative C.Superregenerative, tuned radio-frequency, superheterodyne D.Tuned radio frequency, superregenerative, superheterodyne 6A398 A An RF filter in the plate circuit of a tube detector is sometimes necessary to: A.Prevent RF variations from affecting the following audio stages B.Alter the impedance of the detector load circuit C.Insert RF variations from affecting the audio stages D.To prevent RF variations from affecting the following RF stages 6A399 A In an RF amplifier with fixed bias, as the plate circuit is varied from below resonance to above resonance, what will the grid current do? A.The grid current will rise slightly at resonance B.The grid current will dip slightly at resonance C.The grid current will not vary D.None of the above 6A400 A In a self-biased RF amplifier stage: plate voltage is 1250 V, plate current 150 ma, grid current 15 ma, grid-leak resistance of 4000 ohms, what is the operating grid bias? A.60 V B.30 V C.90 V D.50 V 6A401 A How would you determine the cathode bias resistance necessary to provide correct grid bias for an amplifier? A.Bias is equal to IR drop across the cathode resistance B.Measure with a regular multimeter C.Both A & B D.None of the above 6A402 A What is a method of link coupling between two R-F amplifier stages? A.The coupling together of two circuits which may be separated by a relatively large distance with lowimpedance B.The coupling together of two circuits which may be separated by a relatively short distance C.Isolating one R-F amplifier stage by using a closed loop coupler D.Either B or C 6A403 B Which type of amplifier circuit is used in a link coupling R-F? A.Push-push B.Push-pull C.Phase splitter D.FM discriminator 6A404 C An advantage of link coupling between RF amplifier stages is: A.The flexibility of mechanical construction possible B.Reduction of tube capacitance effects on the L/C ratio of the tank circuits C.Both A and B D.Neither A or B 6A405 C What effect does excessive coupling between the output circuit of an oscillator and an antenna have? A.The effect of cross-modulation of nearby frequencies B.Instability of the oscillator and feedback op-amp C.The oscillator will be very unstable D.Frequency discrimination will be unstable 6A406 C How is power output of a transmitter adjusted? A.It should radiate the minimum power necessary to insure reliable communications B.It may be controlled by varying the plate supply C.Both A and B D.None of the above 6A407 A When is a transmitter tuned to reduced power? A.The receiver is initially reduced because the receiver is very sensitive B.The receiver is non adjustable in almost all applications C.The receiver has a pre-stage amplifier that self-adjusts D.In the doubler stages 6A408 D What is meant by split tuning? A.An effect resulting from excessive coupling between two tuned circuits which are at the same frequency B.Also known as double hump C.Also known as critical coupling D.Both A and B 6A409 C What is a self rectified circuit? A.Provides a tone frequency for F3F emissions B.An op-amp circuit that provides a feed-back to the input C.Provides a tone frequency for A-2 emissions D.A self oscillating frequency discriminator circuit 6A410 A What would be the dB change in field intensity at a given distance if the power is doubled? A.3 dB B.6 dB C.2 dB D.10 dB 6A411 C Keying can be accomplished at various points in a radiotelegraph transmitter. Some are: A.At the primary of power transformer, at filament centertap, at screen grid circuit B.At the control grid circuit, at the DC supply C.A or B D.None of the above 6A412 C What is the term used when the receiving operator may interrupt the transmitting operator at any point during transmission? A.Modulation compandering B.Interruption shift keying C.Break-in operation D.Transmission shift keying 6A413 C Which of the following best explains frequency-shift keying? A.The shifting of frequencies by modulating the carrier antenna B.Changing the frequency of the input when the key is depressed C.Changing the frequency of the output when the key is depressed D.None of the above 6A414 C What is one of the advantages frequency-shift keying has over "on-off" keying? A.Increase of transmitter bandwidth B.Decrease of signal-to-noise ratio C.Increase of signal-to-noise ratio D.Both A and C 6A415 A Code speed or number of words per minute transmitted have what effect if any on the bandwidth of emission of a radiotelegraph transmitter? A.It does have an effect. Bandwidth increases as the code speed is increased B.No effect. Bandwidth decreases as the code speed is increased C.Signal strength increases as the speed increases D.Both A & C 6A416 A Keying a simple-oscillator type of emergency transmitter may be accomplished by: A.Inserting the key in series with the primary of the high voltage plate transformer B.Inserting the key in parallel with the primary of the high voltage plate transformer C.Inserting the key in series with the final output to the antenna D.None of the above 6A417 D The plate current of the final RF amplifier in a transmitter increases and radiation decreases, if the antenna circuit is in good order, what could be the cause? A.Neutralization may have been upset B.The plate circuit may have been detuned, bias may have been lost C.Grid excitation may have decreased, there may be a faulty tube, or there may be parasitic oscillations D.All of the above 6A418 C When hoisting a shipboard antenna, to avoid damage to the wire and insulators: A.Avoid bending the wire B.Avoid smashing the insulators against metal objects C.A and B D.None of the above 6A419 A If a field strength is 100 microvolts per meter at 100 miles, what is the field strength at 200 miles? A.50 microvolts B.10 microvolts C.200 microvolts D.150 microvolts 6A420 A Field intensity is: A.Directly proportional to the antenna current B.Inversely proportional to the antenna current C.Directly proportional to the square of the antenna current D.Directly proportional to the square root of the antenna current 6A421 A What point on a shipboard antenna system displays the maximum potential? A.The end of the antenna furthest from the transmission line connections B.The end of the antenna closest to the transmission line connections C.Near the center of the antenna D.None of the above 6A422 D A defective vacuum tube in a transmitter may be indicated by: A.Gas glow within the tube B.No light from the filament C.Reduced output D.All of the above 6A423 C A master-oscillator power-amplifier transmitter has been operating normally. The antenna ammeter suddenly reads zero. All filaments are burning and plate and grid meters read normal currents and voltages. What happened? A.A shorted antenna ammeter B.An open connection in the remote reading meter C.Both a and b D.None of the above 6A424 D Effects of dirty or salt-encrusted insulation are: A.Erratic readings of antenna current B.Increased corona discharge C.Decreased radiation power D.All of the above 6A425 A To reduce the sparking at the contacts of a key used in a radiotelegraph transmitter: A.Connect a suitable key-click filter across the key B.Connect a suitable key-click filter in series with the key C.Connect a suitable high-pass filter across the key D.Increase the contact space of the key 6A426 A In a self excited oscillator, a swinging antenna: A.Will cause serious frequency instability B.Will cause no noticeable frequency instability C.May cause minor frequency instability D.None of the above 6A427 A What may be observed as the antenna circuit is brought into resonance about the plate current of the final amplifier? A.It will increase B.It will decrease C.It will remain constant D.None of the above 6A428 D Instruments used to indicate various DC currents and voltages in a transmitter may be protected against damage to stray RF by: A.Insufficient grid blocking bias is applied to the grid when the key is open B.Shorted bias resistor C.Shorted key-click filter D.All of the above 6A429 D In a radiotelegraph transmitter with a DC generator plate voltage source, an AC generator filament supply, and grid-bias keying, what could be wrong when the emission continues with the key contacts open? A.Insufficient grid blocking bias is applied to the grid when the key is open B.Shorted bias resistor C.Shorted key-click filter D.All of the above 6A430 A A station has an assigned frequency of 8000 kHz and a frequency tolerance of plus or minus 0.04%. The oscillator operates at 1/8th of the input. What is the maximum permitted deviation of the oscillation frequency in Hz, which will not exceed the tolerance? A.Plus or minus 400 Hz B.Plus or minus 320 Hz C.Plus or minus 800 Hz D.Plus or minus 640 Hz 6A431 A A transmitter operating on 5000 kHz uses a 1000 kHz crystal with a tempered coefficient of - 4 Hz/MHz/0 degrees centigrade. What is the change in the output frequency of the transmitter if the temperature increases 6 degrees centigrade? A.499.88 kHz B.5000.12 kHz C.4120.0 kHz D.5120.0 kHz 6A432 C The correct formula for determining the surge impedance of a quarter wavelength matching line is: A.Impedance total equal 0.25 over 1 squared B.Impedance total equal impedance of the antenna times impedance of the line squared over 1 times C.14 C.Impedance zero equal impedance of antenna times impedance of the line squared D.None of the above 6A433 A What are the three factors to consider when figuring the surge impedance of a non-resonant transmission line? A.Diameter of the conductor, space between conductors, dielectric constant of insulating material B.Voltage on RF line, diameter of conductors, space between dielectric C.Diameter of shielding, space between dielectric constant, insulating shield around the conductor D.None of the above 6A434 C If the output frequency after passing through three doubler stages is 16,800 kHz, give the crystal frequency of a transmitter: A.2160 kHz B.2 GHz C.2110 kHz D.2 kHz 6A435 A Adding an inductor in series with an antenna will have what effect on the resonant frequency? A.Decrease B.Increase C.Neutralization D.Equalization 6A436 B Adding a capacitor in series with an antenna will have what effect on resonant frequency? A.Decrease B.Increase C.Neutralization D.Equalization 6A437 D The radiated wavelength of a Hertzian antenna is: A.1/2 the physical length of the modulated coaxial B.1/4 the physical length of the modulated RF line C.1/2 the physical length of the antenna D.Approximately twice the physical length of the antenna 6A438 B To operate on a lower resonant frequency on an available Marconi antenna which would be the correct procedure? A.Add a capacitor in series with the antenna B.Add an inductor in series with the antenna C.Add a screen grid bypass capacitor parallel to the antenna trap D.Add an RF choke across the feed line to ground 6A439 D By reducing the physical length of a Hertzian antenna what are the results? A.The resonant frequency will be reduced B.The signal on a nearby frequency will be saturated upon modulation C.The antenna trap is reduced causing cross modulation D.The resonant frequency will increase 6A440 D Which antenna system has the ability to discriminate between various directions of receiving or transmitting? A.1/4 stub bi-directional B.Multi-band Marconi 1/2 wave C.1/2 wavelength Yagi perpendicular polarized antenna D.Single element vertical antenna 6A441 B Given the current and resistance of the base of a Marconi antenna, what would be the formula for determining the power? A.P = watts x amps B.P = amps. squared x resistance C.P = current x resistance D.None of the above 6A442 D A vertical loop antenna has a: A.Omni-directional pattern which is maximum in the directions of the plane of the loop, and minimum in the directions broadside to the loop B.Non-directional with regard to compass points C.Has minimum radiation or reception in the direction of the ends of the antenna D.Has a bi-directional pattern which is maximum in the direction of the plane of the loop, and minimum in the directions broadside to the loop 6A443 C What modulation is contained in static and lightning radio waves? A.All odd harmonic frequencies B.All even harmonic frequencies C.Amplitude modulation D.Frequency modulation 6A444 A The difference between a Hertz and Marconi antenna is: A.The physical length B.The positioning of the capacitor feed traps C.The grounding of RF shielding D.None of the above 6A445 C What is meant by the term polarization of a radio wave? A.Electromagnetic waves penetrate conductors because of eddy currents B.Electromagnetically charged waves cross the zero axis in perpendicular patterns causing polarization to appear C.The polarization of a radio wave is determined by the direction of the electromagnetic wave plane D.The polarization of a radio wave is determined by the direction of the magnetic wave plane 6A446 C What are the lowest frequencies used in radio communication today? A.SSB voice B.Double-sideband FM voice C.15 kHz D.1 kHz to 5 kHz 6A447 A Radio frequencies that are useful for long distance communications requiring continuous operation: A.Low frequency B.High frequency C.Very high frequency D.Ultra high frequency 6A448 C Communication at frequencies in the order of 15 kHz are usually accomplished by ground waves, and require generation of ____ power outputs for reliable and continuous operation: A.High power B.Low power C.Extremely high power D.Extremely low power 6A449 C Frequencies with substantially line propagations: A.VHF, UHF, microwave B.About 50-30,000 MHz C.A & B D.None of the above 6A450 A On an average yearly basis the received Trans-Atlantic signals increased in strength in proportion to the degree of ____. Made on the basis of the 11 year cycle: A.Sun spot activity B.Aurora borealis C.Extratropical Advection D.Perigean tide 6A451 D Harmonic radiation is: A.Radiation occurring on frequencies that are whole multiples of the original frequency B.Is always higher than the fundamental frequency C.Reduced by proper tuning of the transmitter D.All of the above 6A452 C Harmonic radiation from a transmitter may cause interference: A.Where the fundamental signal cannot be heard because of "skip" B.In other shipboard equipment C.A & B D.None of the above 6A453 C Why suppress RF harmonics in the output of a transmitter? A.To prevent interference from occurring with other radio services B.To restrict the bandwidth of the particular station to the legal limits C.Both A & B D.None of the above 6A454 A A wavetrap in a receiver: A.Prevents the effects of any undesired output of the receiver B.Generates desired frequencies in the output of the receiver C.A & B D.None of the above 6A455 D The follow devices that could be used to indicate oscillation in a crystal oscillator are: A.Plate DC milliammeter, grid DC ammeter, neon bulb B.Thermogalvanometer, wavemeter C.Flashlight bulb on a loop of wire, heterodyne type frequency meter D.All of the above 6A456 D An artificial antenna sometimes used in testing a transmitter: A.Dummy antenna B.Dummy load C.Prevents undesired radiation D.All of the above 6A457 D The system producing A-2 emission by a "chopper" may be thought of: A.As a double-keying system B.The automatic "chopper" turns the transmitter on and off at a rapid rate C.The other key is a normal hand operated key D.All of the above 6A458 A Advantages of high-frequency radio communication: A.The upper frequencies are substantially free of atmospheric interference, small antennas permit efficient mobile operation B.Man-made noises are no problem, reflections may easily occur from buildings and other objects C.A & B D.None of the above 6A459 D Transmitters that employ variometers rather than variable capacitors as tuning elements do so because of: A.The size of required variable capacitors in the medium frequency band B.There is no such thing as a variometer! C.Variometers can be relatively compact D.A & C 6A460 B The relationship between the antenna current and radiated power of an antenna: A.P= I x I x R B.P= I x I x radiation resistance C.No relationship exists D.P=E x I 6A461 D Iron compound cylinders found in inductances: A.Increase Q B.Increase selectivity C.Increase gain D.All of the above 6A462 A Modulation of an RF carrier produces in the plate circuit of the last radio stage of the system: A.High-level modulation B.Low-level modulation C.Medium-level modulation D.None of the above 6A463 D Basically, am FM receiver is a conventional superheterodyne but differs in: A.The method of detection B.The reduction of sensitivity to amplitude modulation C.De-emphasis D.All of the above 6A464 A A form of regenerative receiver in which the detector breaks into and out of oscillation at a rate above audibility: A.Superregenerative receiver B.Superheterodyne receiver C.Discriminator receiver D.Detuned radio frequency receiver 6A465 D A tuned RF amplifier stage ahead of the mixer stage in a superheterodyne receiver: A.Improves receiver sensitivity, improves image rejection B.Improves selectivity, improves stability C.Improves signal-to-noise ratio, reduced interference D.All of the above 6A466 A What is the "mixer" tube in the superheterodyne receiver? A.The first detector B.The second detector C.The beat frequency oscillator D.None of the above 6A467 A An incoming signal causing image interference is ____ the IF above or below the frequency to which the receiver is tuned: A.Twice B.Three times C.Half of D.Three quarters of 6A468 A A superheterodyne receiver is adjusted to 2738 kHz. The IF is 475 kHz. What is the grid circuit of the second detector tuned to? A.475 kHz B.950 kHz C.2263 kHz D.3213 kHz 6A469 A A superheterodyne receiver may not successfully be used for reception of frequencies very near the IF frequency: A.Because those near frequencies would pass directly through the IF amplifier and not be greatly affected by the tuning of the RF or oscillator stages B.Because those near frequencies would not pass directly through the IF amplifier C.Because those near frequencies would be greatly affected by the tuning of the RF or oscillator stages D.None of the above 6A470 A Some superheterodyne receives employ a crystal-controlled oscillator: A.To insure maximum stability of operation B.To reduce noise generated by a conventional oscillator C.Because it require no shielding D.To control feedback 6A471 D To obtain maximum response to weak CW signals with a superheterodyne receiver: A.RF gain control should be fully advanced B.BFO control varied to obtain the clearest tone C.AVC advanced to the best volume D.All of the above 6A472 A Most receiver hiss is due to: A.Noise generated in the first detector B.Noise generated in the first AF amplifier C.Faulty regeneration control D.None of the above 6A473 A High IF frequencies in a superheterodyne receiver: A.Reduce image frequency response B.Increases image frequency response C.Places the image frequency as close as possible to the normal received frequency D.None of the above 6A474 A What is the IF of a superheterodyne receiver receiving on 1000 kHz and the mixing oscillator is tuned to 1500 kHz? A.500 kHz B.2500 kHz C.2000 kHz D.None of the above 6A475 D Image response may be minimized in a superheterodyne receiver: A.By using one or more tuned RF stages ahead of the mixer B.By choosing a suitable IF (such that the image frequency will fall within the receiver's operating range) C.By choosing a suitable IF (such that the image frequency will fall outside of the receiver's operating range) D.A & C 6A476 D In a tuned RF receiver the heterodyne method, over the autodyne reception, has: A.Great sensitivity B.More stable operation of the circuit C.Wider control of the beat-frequency D.All of the above 6A477 D A regenerative receiver's operation is: A.An incoming RF carrier is coupled into the tuned-grid circuit and applied to the grid B.It is then amplified in the usual manner. A controllable portion of the plate signal is coupled back into the grid circuit C.The coupled back signal is in phase with the original signal thus amplifying it and providing a greater output signal in the plate circuit D.All of the above 6A478 D Advantages of a stage of RF amplification are: A.Improved sensitivity, improved signal-to-noise ratio B.Improved selectivity, improved signal-to-noise ratio C.Improved signal-to-noise ratio, more efficient and more stable operation of the detector D.All of the above 6A479 D Disadvantages of a stage of RF amplification are: A.A power audio amplifier would be needed to operate a loudspeaker B.An RF amplifier requires additional tuned circuits and tuning elements C.Shielding will probably be necessary D.All of the above 6A480 A The sensitivity of a 3 circuit receiver is controlled by: A.The setting of the regeneration control B.The setting of the audio frequency control C.The setting of the radio frequency control D.The setting of the beat frequency oscillator 6A481 A A regenerative, oscillating-detector receives directly coupled to an antenna: A.May radiate energy that can beat with other carrier frequencies and cause heterodyning interference in a number of receivers B.Cannot radiate energy C.Radiates extremely high energy D.None of the above 6A482 D Low sensitivity of a 3 circuit regenerative receiver might be caused by: A.Faulty tube B.Out of phase feedback C.Insufficient feedback D.All of the above 6A483 D Some components of a three-circuit regenerative circuit tested in troubleshooting: A.All tubes, power supply voltage, continuity of coils B.Proper contacting of each position of tapped switches, pigtail connections, shorted variable capacitor C.Grid leak for open circuit, grid capacitor for short, audio transformer for continuity, jacks & cords, antenna and ground connections D.All of the above 6A484 D Noisy operation of a regenerative, 3-circuit receiver with two stages of AF amplification may be caused by: A.Defective tubes, poor connections B.Defective audio transformers C.Defective grid resistance of grid-capacitor, or defective elements in the power supply D.All of the above 6A485 C How could you test a regenerative receiver to determine if the detector is oscillating? A.Touch a finger on grounded wire to the grid circuit. You will hear a "plop" if the circuit was oscillating B.Vary the regeneration control to its maximum limits. You will hear a "plop" as the circuit goes in and out of oscillation C.Either A or B D.None of the above 6A486 A How would you adjust a regenerative receiver without RF amplifier stages to receive radiotelegraph signals through interference? A.Provide the maximum selectivity and gain at the incoming signal frequency B.Increase the degree of coupling between the antenna and grid coils C.Provide the minimum possible regeneration D.None of the above 6A487 B How would you reduce or eliminate broadcast signal interference of reception on 500 kHz? A.Use a regenerative receiver without RF amplifier stages B.Use a suitable wavetrap resonated to reject the undesired signals C.Use a crystal detector receiver tuned to the exact frequency D.None of the above 6A488 C To adjust a regenerative receiver for maximum sensitivity: A.The station is tuned in with the receiver in the oscillating condition B.Slowly back the regeneration control off until the receiver just breaks out of oscillation and is also below the fringe howl point C.First A then B D.First B then A 6A489 D What type of radio receiver do not respond to static interference? A.AM receivers are less responsive B.FM receivers have better sensitivity to such interference C.Both AM & FM D.B & C 6A490 D Audio howl may be caused by: A.A "fringe" setting of the regeneration control B.A defective tube C.An open grid resistor D.All of the above 6A491 D If signals are heard with headphones in the detector plate circuit of a receiver, but none are heard with headphones in the first AF stage plate circuit, what might be the cause? A.Open winding of the coupling transformer B.Defective coupling capacitor, improper operating potentials C.Defective tube D.All of the above 6A492 C In the case of an open secondary winding in a coupling transformer causing no signal in the first AF stage, satisfactory repair could be made by: A.Replacing the transformer B.Disconnecting the secondary winding and changing the coupling system to impedance coupling with a grid resistor and coupling capacitor C.A & B D.None of the above 6A493 A An oscillator in a receiver operating on a frequency near the IF of the receiver: A.Beats with the IF in the second detector to produce an audible note B.May cause audio howl in the receiver C.Increases sensitivity D.May cause noisy operation of the receiver 6A494 A Generally used to prevent any undesired frequencies from appearing in the output of a receiver: A.Wave trap B.Wave guide C.Ripple filter D.Tarody screen 6A495 C By-pass capacitors across the cathode-bias resistors of an RF amplifier: A.Prevent variations of bias during excitation of the amplifier B.Results in better gain of the amplifier stage C.A & B D.None of the above 6A496 D In general, shielding between RF amplifier stages: A.Prevents electromagnetic coupling B.Prevents electrostatic coupling C.Improves the overall stability of a receiver D.All of the above 6A497 D Minimizes transfer of harmonic frequencies between two inductively coupled circuits: A.*** B.Induces magnetic shielding between two coils C.Transfers energy between two coils D.None of the above 6A498 B An auxiliary receiving antenna on a ship with a radio direction finder: A.Is mainly a spare antenna B.Enables the radio operator to maintain watch on 500 kHz whether or not the direction finder is in use C.Enables the radio operator to use the direction finder whether or not the communications receiver is in use D.None of the above 6A499 B Feeding back into the control grids of the IF and RF amplifiers a negative DC bias which is proportioned to the average magnitude of the received carrier wave accomplished: A.Rhymed effect B.Automatic volume control C.Neutralization D.Refraction 6A500 C The center-tap connection in a filament supply transformer: A.Prevents hum voltages from modulating the normal signal B.The voltage change on one side of the filament will be effectively cancelled out by an equal and opposite voltage change at the other side of the filament, yielding no hum C.A & B D.None of the above 6A501 D A shorted grid capacitor in a three-circuit regenerative receiver would: A.Render the receiver mostly or completely inoperative B.Have no noticeable effect C.Some forms of plate detection might occur but with considerably reduced sensitivity and volume D.A & C 6A502 C The first detector in a superheterodyne receiver: A.Acts as a mixer, providing the action which produces the desired intermediate frequency B.The first detector must be operated on the non linear portion of its characteristic to provide the proper action C.A & B D.None of the above 6A503 D The advantage of using iron cores of special construction in RF transformers and inductance? A.Increase of Q and gain of circuits using such cores B.Increase of selectivity and gain of circuits using such cores C.Increase of Q and selectivity D.All of the above 6A504 A The auto alarm receiver is tuned to ____ but is able to respond to signals from ____ to ____ (+/- 12.5 kHz) A.500 kHz, 487.5 kHz, 512.5 kHz B.500 kHz, 485.0 kHz, 515 kHz C.500 kHz, 490.00 kHz, 510 kHz D.500 kHz, 470.00 kHz, 530 kHz 6A505 A The auto-alarm signal is: A.Four consecutive dashes from C.5 to D.5 seconds, separated by spaces ranging from 0.1 to 0.5 seconds. The combination may not exceed 5 seconds B.Three consecutive dashes from D.5 to 5.5 seconds, separated by spaces ranging from 0.5 to A.0 seconds C.Five consecutive dashes from B.5-3.5 seconds, separated by spaces ranging from 0.01 to 0.25 seconds. The combination may not exceed 5 seconds D.None of the above 6A506 D The determining factor of the setting of the sensitivity control of an auto-alarm receiver: A.Prevailing static at a given time B.Radio interference at a given time C.Signal strength D.A & B 6A507 D With an auto alarm that uses a square-law detector and a mechanical selector what causes the bell to ring? A.Receipt of the true auto-alarm signal, low battery voltage B.Filament circuit open, the 24 V circuit to receiver open C.Battery charger fuse blown, motor stopped or running D.All of the above 6A508 D Intermittent ringing of the bells of an auto alarm with a linear detector and an electronic selector could be caused by: A.An intermittent vacuum tube filament B.Fluctuating line voltage C.Faulty contacts or relay adjustment of warning relay receiver D.All of the above 6A509 D An open filament on an auto-alarm with a linear detector and an electronic selector will: A.De-energize the restore relay K-105 B.K105 applies voltage to K-100, time delay relay C.K106 causes the bell to ring after about 2 minutes D.All of the above 6A510 C The auto-alarm bell rings and the release button stops it: A.There could be reception of a true alarm signal B.There could be reception of a false alarm signal C.A or B D.Neither A or B 6A511 D If the auto-alarm bell rings and the release button doesn't stop it: A.Bell relay K-107 could be stuck, or there could be an open filament B.The alarm bell relay circuit ground could be bad C.There could be failure or low line voltage D.All of the above 6A512 A If the vacuum tube heater in an approved auto-alarm system burns out: A.A pair of contacts close and energize the bell relay B.A pair on contacts open and energize the ball relay C.A pair of contacts close and de-energize the bell relay D.A pair of contacts open and deenergize the bell relay 6A513 A Unused portions of inductances in receivers are ____ to reduce any losses that might occur in these unused windings: A.Shorted B.Removed from the circuit C.Insulated D.Straightened out 6A514 D Harmonic radiation by a transmitter may be prevented: A.By using a suitable crystal filter B.By using a Faraday shield between the final amplifier and antenna circuit C.By using suitable tuned filters in the transmission line system D.B & C 6A515 A The keying circuit of the ships transmitter is disconnected: A.When the auto-alarm antenna switch is placed in the auto-alarm operating position B.When the auto-alarm antenna switch is placed in the auto-alarm off position C.Manually as desired D.None of the above 6A516 A Normal undistorted modulation is indicated by: A.An increase in antenna current without carrier shift B.A decrease in antenna current without carrier shift C.An increase in antenna current with carrier shift D.A decrease in antenna current with carrier shift 6A517 C If a vacuum tube in the only RF stages of your receiver burned out, make a temporary repair by: A.Remove its tube and connect a small (about 0.001 microfarad) capacitor between the control grid and plate connections B.Connect the antenna to the control grid of the stage following the one which was burned out C.Either A or B D.A & B 6A518 A A ____ provides a very high degree of selectivity in a receiver: A.Crystal filter B.Low pass filter C.Bleeder resistor D.By-pass capacitor 6A519 C The D'Arsonval type meter consists of: A.A permanent magnet, a movable coil with pointer attached rotating in jewel bearing B.A movable coil with pointer attached rotating in jewel bearings, and two spiral springs (one on each side of the removable coil) C.A & B D.None of the above 6A520 B What is the purpose of multiplier resistance used with a voltmeter? A.Multiplier resistance is not used with a voltmeter B.To increase the voltage indicating range of the voltmeter C.To decrease the voltage indicating range of the voltmeter D.None of the above 6A521 B What is the purpose of a shunt as used with an ammeter? A.To permit a decrease in the indicating range of the meter B.To permit an increase in the indicating range of the meter which is almost inversely proportional to the resistance of the shunt C.A shunt should not be used with a ammeter D.None of the above 6A522 D What is indicated if a voltmeter connected between the negative side of a ship's DC line and ground reads the full line voltage? A.It indicates that the voltmeter leads are reversed B.This indicates that the positive side of the line, rather then the negative side is grounded C.The generator terminals should be reversed D.Both B & C are correct 6A523 C Why are copper oxide rectifiers, associated with DC voltmeters to measure AC, unsuitable for the measurement of voltages at radio frequencies? A.Because of the relatively low shunt capacitance of the copper oxide rectifier B.The AC & DC voltages will read low C.Because of the relatively large shunt capacitance of the copper oxide rectifier D.All of the above 6A524 C How may the power in a AC circuit be determined? A.The power in an AC circuit may be determined by a wattmeter B.By multiplying the product of the circuit voltage and current by the power factor C.Both answers A & B D.None of the above 6A525 B The product of the readings of an AC voltmeter and ammeter in an AC circuit is called what? A.Reverse power B.Apparent power C.Current power D.None of the above 6A526 B Does an AC ammeter indicate peak, average, or effective values of current? A.The conventional AC ammeter is calibrated to indicate effective (TRM) values of current B.The conventional AC ammeter is calibrated to indicate effective (RMS) values of current C.An AC ammeter indicates peak values of current D.An AC ammeter indicates average values of current 6A527 C What types of meters may be used to measure RF currents? A.The hot wire ammeter B.The thermocouple ammeter C.Both A & B D.None of the above 6A528 C How may the range of a thermocouple ammeter be increased? A.By using a current transformer B.By using a capacitor shunt C.Both A & B D.By using a resistor shunt 6A529 A By what factor must the voltage of an ac circuit, as indicated on the scale of an AC voltmeter, be multiplied to obtain the average voltage value? A.By the factor of 0.9 B.By the factor of 9.0 C.By the factor of A.0 D.By the factor of B.0 6A530 B By what factor must the voltage of an AC circuit, as indicated on the scale of an AC voltmeter, be multiplied to obtain the peak value? A.The multiplying factor is .414 B.The multiplying factor is A.414 C.The multiplying factor is A.114 D.The multiplying factor is A.141 6A531 A What is the meaning of "zero beat" as used in connection with frequency measuring equipment? A.Zero beat occurs when two frequencies are being mixed together and have no difference frequency between them B.To achieve this the frequencies must be suppressed C.The transmitter must be nulled D.None of the above 6A532 D What is the directional reception pattern of a loop antenna? A.A vertical loop antenna has a bidirectional pattern which is maximum in the directions in the plane of the loop, and minimum in the directions broadside to the loop B.A horizontal loop antenna is nondirectional along the plane of the loop. It has minimum radiation or reception vertically C.A horizontal loop antenna is directional along the plane of the loop antenna D.Both A & B 6A533 A What is the reception pattern of a vertical antenna? A.It has minimum radiation or reception vertically B.A vertical Jackson antenna has a pattern which is nondirectional with regard to all compass points C.It has maximum radiation or reception vertically D.None of the above 6A534 A What is the principal function of a vertical sense antenna associated with a unilateral radio direction finder? A.To determine from which direction the signal is coming B.A vertical sense antenna is not associated with a radio direction finder C.Unilateral radio direction finders are associated with loop antennas D.None of the above 6A535 D What figure represents the reception pattern of a properly adjusted unilateral radio direction finder? A.A cardioid B.A figure eight C.A heart shaped figure D.Both A & C 6A536 C From how many simultaneous directions is a direction finder capable of receiving signals if adjusted to take unilateral bearings through 360 degrees? A.From 360 degrees B.From 180 degrees C.From all but one direction D.None of the above 6A537 D How is the unilateral effect obtained in a direction finder? A.With a balancing capacitor B.With a compensator C.With insulating material D.None of the above 6A538 C What is the function of the balancing capacitor in a direction finder? A.To maximize "antenna effect" and so obtain a sharper null point indication of direction B.To reduce the noise factor in the first IF C.To minimize "antenna effect" and so obtain a sharper null point indication of direction D.None of the above 6A539 B What is indicated by the bearing obtained from the use of a bilateral radio direction finder? A.A line of direction which passes through two stations B.A line of direction which passes through the originating station C.A line of direction can read in either direction D.None of the above 6A540 C On shipboard what factors may effect the accuracy of a direction finder after it has been properly installed, calibrated? A.A received wave which has been bent by night effect B.By any changing of the position of nearby metallic objects C.Both A & B D.None of the above 6A541 B What is indicated by the bearing obtained from the use of a unilateral radio direction finder? A.The direction of another station B.The sense of direction of the originating station C.All bearings are from D.None of the above 6A542 C Within what frequency band limits do all United States marine radio beacon stations operate? A.From 280 to 385 kHz B.From 162 to 385 kHz C.From 285 to 315 kHz D.From 300 to 465 kHz 6A543 C In what part of the RF spectrum do marine radar systems operate? A.In the order of 10,000 MHz or 3000 MHz B.Wavelength of 3 cm or 10 cm C.Both A & B D.None of the above 6A544 B Approximately at what speed does the antenna of a navigational radar rotate? A.At speeds ranging from about 6 to 19 RPM B.At speeds ranging from about 6 to 15 RPM C.At speeds ranging from about 15 to 30 RPM D.At speeds ranging from about 20 to 40 RPM 6A545 C How should a radar set be adjusted by the operator to reduce "sea return"? A.Rotate the antenna for a deep null B.Reduce the gain control C.The operator should manually adjust the "suppressor" control or sensitivity time control, STC D.None of the above 6A546 D In determining a "fix" position by a marine LORAN system, what is the minimum number of land transmitters involved? A.A master & a slave station B.1 slave station C.2 slave stations & 1 master station D.Four, or two pairs of "master and "slave" stations 6A547 A What is the relationship between a master and a slave station in reference to LORAN navigation systems? A.A master station originates the RF pulse which then travels in all directions and is intercepted by the slave station B.The slave station originates the RF pulse C.There must be at least two slave stations D.All of the above 6A548 D How can the operator of a LORAN receiver on shipboard identify the transmitting stations that are being received? A.By their pulse recurrence rate B.By reference to their frequency of transmission C.None of the above D.Both A & B 6A549 A During daytime hours, approximately what is the maximum distance in nautical miles from LORAN transmitting stations from which LORAN lines of position can be determined? A.About 700 miles B.During nighttime hours, the maximum distance is increased to about 1800 miles by the use of sky waves C.About 1000 miles D.About 1500 miles 6A550 A What is the purpose of blinking in a loran navigational system? A.To warn the receiving operator that difficulty exists at the transmitting stations? B.To warn the operator that the system is in use C.The loran system needs to be aligned D.None of the above 6A551 D What precautions should an operator or serviceman observe when working with cathode-ray tubes? A.The tube must not strike against any hard surface B.The tube might implode C.Safety goggles and gloves should be worn when handling cathode-ray tubes D.All of the above 6A552 A If the velocity of a radio wave is 186,000 statute miles per second, how many nautical miles does a radar pulse travel in one microsecond? A.0.1614 nautical miles B.11614 nautical miles C.0.2014 nautical miles D.2200 nautical miles 6A553 C In all cases other than those in which the transmitter output must be maintained at a fixed value, what amount of power should be employed for routine communications? A.The maximum amount of power to maintain communications B.The transmitter must be maintained at a fixed value C.The minimum amount of power necessary to ensure reliable communications D.None of the above 6A554 D What is the definition of a "station open to public service"? A.A station which handles public correspondence B.Paid or toll messages C.Radiotelephone facilities for the general public at prescribed rates D.All of the above 6A555 C In the transmission of the international Morse code, what are the relative time lengths of dashes, dots? A.Dashes are about four times as long as dots B.Dots are about half the length of dashes C.Dashes are about three times as long as dots D.None of the above 6A556 C Why is the clock on a compulsorily equipped ship radiotelegraph station required to have a sweep second hand? A.To be able to accurately time the spaces and dashes of the auto-alarm system B.To accurately time the silent periods C.Both A & B D.None of the above 6A557 C Between what points on a ship, compulsorily equipped with a radiotelegraph installation, is a reliable intercommunication system required? A.Between the forward bridge and the radio room B.Between the radio room and engineering C.Between the radio room and the navigation bridge D.None of the above 6A558 B Are there any age requirements that a person must meet before he can be issued a radiotelegraph operator license? A.At least 18 years of age for a second class license B.At least 21 years of age for a first class license C.Persons under 21 now holding a radiotelegraph first class license may renew same without regard to age requirement D.All of the above 6A559 D Upon compulsorily equipped vessels which are required to have an accurate clock in the radio room, how frequently must this clock be adjusted and be compared with standard time? A.Every three hours B.Ever four hours C.Every six hours D.At least once every 24 hours 6A560 D How frequently must an entry be made in a ship radiotelegraph log while a radio watch is being maintained? A.At least every 15 minutes B.This is in addition to the entries referring to silent periods C.At least every 30 minutes D.Both A & B 6A561 C At what time(s) are routine transmissions forbidden in the bands of 480 to 515 kHz? A.Routine transmissions are forbidden in 480 to 515 kHz B.480 to 515 kHz are out of the marine radio band C.Routine transmissions are forbidden during the international silent period D.None of the above 6A562 B What time system shell be used in making log entries with respect to the observance of the international silent period? A.Zulu time according to the twelve hour system B.Greenwich Mean Time according to the 24 hour system C.Zulu time according to the 12 hour time D.None of the above 6A563 C What is the international radiotelegraph distress frequency for stations in the mobile service? A.300 kHz B.400 kHz C.500 kHz D.600 kHz 6A564 C Describe how a distress call should be made: A.The distress call should be made three times B.SOS should be called twice C.The distress call shall include the distress signal transmitted three times, the word DE, and the call signal of the mobile station in distress transmitted three times D.None of the above 6A565 A What transmission should precede the transmission of the distress call? A.The distress call, when sent in radiotelegraph on 500 kHz shall as a general rule, be immediately preceded by the auto-alarm signal B.SOS should be sent three times C.The words "MAY DAY" should be sent three times D.None of the above 6A566 D What stations shall be in control of distress traffic? A.Control of the distress traffic shall be with the station first hearing the call B.The control of the distress traffic rests with the mobile station in distress C.With the mobile station which sends the distress call in the event that the station in distress is not able to transmit it D.Both B & C 6A567 A During what periods must a distress message be repeated following the initial transmission? A.Until an answer is received, especially during the silent periods B.Must repeated every 15 minutes C.Must be repeated every 5 minutes D.Must be repeated every 3 minutes 6A568 A For how long must mobile stations listen after hearing an urgency signal? A.For at least 5 minutes B.For at least 30 minutes C.For at least 3 minutes D.None of the above 6A569 C When the auto-alarm bell rings, what should the operator do? A.Proceed immediately to the radio room and press the reset button B.If the bell stops, the operator should listen for further signals C.Both A & B D.None of the above 6A570 A What space of time should elapse between the transmission of the international auto-alarm signal and the distress call? A.2 minutes B.4 minutes C.5 minutes D.10 minutes 6A571 C While a vessel is at sea, how frequently must the auto-alarm be tested? A.At least once ever 6 hours B.At least once ever 12 hours C.At least once ever 24 hours D.None of the above 6A572 B Upon hearing an SOS, what should an operator do? A.Should repeat the SOS to all traffic B.Immediately cease all transmissions capable of interfering with the distress traffic C.Contact the vessel in distress D.None of the above 6A573 C What is the purpose of an auto-alarm signal keying device on a compulsorily equipped ship? A.To automatically produce Morse code B.To automatically send an SOS signal C.To automatically produce the correct auto-alarm signal D.None of the above 6A574 C On a United States vessel equipped with an approved auto-alarm, where is the control button which silences the warning bells located? A.On the navigation bridge B.In main engineering control C.In the main radiotelegraph operating room D.None of the above 6A575 C With what type(s) of emission and upon what frequency should a transmitter be adjusted to transmit a distress call? A.The distress wave of 600 kHz and type C emission B.The distress wave of 400 kHz and type C emission C.The international distress wave of 500 kHz / type A-2 OR B emission D.None of the above 6A576 D If you receive a distress call signed by a call signal composed of five letters, could you determine the type of craft which transmitted the signal? A.Five letter call signals are assigned to aircraft stations B.Three letter call signals are assigned to land stations C.Four letter call signals are assigned to ship stations D.All of the above 6A577 B While the vessel is in the open sea, how frequently must the specific gravity of the emergency battery be taken? A.Every 12 hours B.Once daily C.Every 48 hours D.Once every week 6A578 D How frequently must the quantity of fuel in the supply tank for use with an oil or gas driven emergency generator be checked while the vessel is in the open sea? A.Once a week B.Every 12 hours C.Every 48 hours D.Once daily 6A579 D While a vessel is in port, how frequently should the emergency equipment be tested? A.Once a day B.Once a week C.Once a month D.Only when the vessel is ready to leave port 6A580 D You intercept "CQ CQ WSV TFC"; what does this mean? A.General call to all stations B.Call letter of a coastal station C.Traffic D.All of the above 6A581 C Explain the use and meaning of the following indicator or prefix "RP" on radiotelegrams: A.Please reply B.Repeat following parts of message C."Reply paid" D.None of the above 6A582 C Upon what band, in addition to the 350 to 515 kHz band must a main receiver on a United States ship be capable of operation? A.600 TO 700 kHz B.1000 TO 1200 kHz C.100 TO 200 kHz D.516 TO 615 kHz 6A583 B After a distress call has been transmitted, every distress-traffic radiotelegram shall contain what symbol in the preamble? A.SOS followed by the call signal B.The distress signal preceding the call and repeated at the beginning of the preamble C.All of the above D.None of the above 6A584 A For how long a period of continuous operation should the emergency power supply of a compulsorily equipped ship station be capable of energizing the emergency radiotelegraph installation? A.At least 6 consecutive hours B.At least 12 hours C.At least 24 consecutive hours D.At least 48 consecutive hours 6A585 B What is the principal port of the United States, on the Pacific coast, at which navigation lines terminate? A.Los Angeles B.San Francisco C.San Diego D.None of the above 6A586 B In what city is the major telecommunication center of the United States located? A.Houston B.New York City C.Washington D.Chicago 6A587 C Under what condition may an eligible person hold a radiotelegraph operator's license and a Marine Radio Operator permit? A.When the planned telegraphy operation will occur aboard ship in international waters and another vessel is licensed for operation on the inland waterways B.When the commercial radio operator is legally eligible for both foreign and domestic employment C.No person may hold any class of radiotelegraph operator's certificate and a Marine Radio Operator Permit D.Commercial radiotelegraphers are required to also hold a Marine Radio Operator Permit when the operation occurs on vessels of less than 1600 gross tons 6A588 C How does a First Class Radiotelegraph Operator renew an unexpired license? A.Renewal document indicating license serial number must be forwarded to the FCC during the last 90 days of the license term B.Application is made to the nearest Commercial Operator Licensing Examination Manager (COLEM) during the final six months of the license term C.By submitting Form 756, current license copy, and appropriate fee to the FCC during the last year of the five year license term D.A current Radio telegraphy Proficiency Testimonial (RPT) obtained from the ship's master must be attached to the renewal application Form 739 6A589 A How does an eligible Second Class Radiotelegraph Operator upgrade his license to First Class? A.By submitting the necessary Proof-of-Passing Certificates (PPC) from a COLEM along with the required fee and Form 756 to the FCC B.By fulfilling the Six Months Service Endorsement requirement C.By presenting a one year radiotelegraph experience certification to a commercial radio operator examination manager D.By complying with the ITU Provision "D" concerning telegraphy operation in the Maritime Service 6A590 D What is the license term of the First Class Radiotelegraph Operator License? A.The license is valid for the lifetime of the holder B.A license is valid for a period of ten years form the DOI (date of issuance) C.The five year term license is renewable by retaking updated exam Elements 1 and 3 during the last 90 days before expiration D.The license term is five years and may be renewed indefinitely without retesting 6A591 B What is a requirement of every commercial operator on duty and in charge of a transmitting system? A.A copy of the Proof-of-Passing Certificate (PPC) must be on display at the transmitter location B.The original license or a photocopy must be posted or in the operator's personal possession and available for inspection C.The FCC Form 756 certifying the operator's qualifications must be readily available at the transmitting system site D.A copy of the operator's license must be supplied to the radio station's supervisor as evidence of technical qualification 6A592 C What is the experience requirement of a First Class Radiotelegrapher? A.The applicant must have been employed as a radio operator on board a United States ship for at least six months B.The operator must have held a Second Class Radiotelegraph Operator's Certificate for at least six months C.The applicant must have a background of sending or receiving radiotelegraph messages for one year D.Both A & B 6A593 C What examination requirements are necessary to obtain a Second Class Radiotelegraph Operator's Certificate? A.Written Element 1 (radio law), Element 3 (electronic fundamentals), Element 5 (radiotelegraph operations) and sending/receiving 16/20 words per minute B.Telegraphy Element 1 (sending/receiving 16 code groups per minute) and Telegraphy Element 2 (16 code groups and 20 words per minute text.) C.Successful completion of written test Elements 1, 5 and 6 on basic radio law and operating practices plus telegraphy Elements 1 and 2 D.Successful completion of written test Elements 1, 3, 5 and 6 on basic radio law and operating practices plus telegraphy Elements 1 and B 6A594 A How does an applicant qualify for a Third Class Radiotelegraph Operator's Certificate? A.By passing the appropriate written examinations and receiving by ear code groups and plain text for a period of one minute without error at the appropriate speed B.Applicant must send and receive radiotelegraphy at the prescribed speed and be at least 21 years old C.By the successful completion of radiotelegraphy Elements 1 and 2 plus written examinations on radio law, telegraphy practices and transmitter maintenance D.By passing a written examination on radio law, electronic fundamentals and radiotelegraph practices plus a telegraphy receiving examination 6A595 C What examination credit is accorded Amateur Extra Class operators? A.20 code groups and 25 text words per minute B.Amateur radio operators are not eligible for commercial radio operator examination credit C.Commercial radio operator telegraphy Elements 1 and 2 D.Written Element 1, basic radio law and operating practices 6A596 D What must every examination for the code portion of a radiotelegraph license contain? A.Applicants for Commercial Radiotelegraph licenses must be examined using a message format that they are likely to receive aboard ship B.Both a telegraphy sending and a receiving distress signals C.The proper transmission of radiotelegraph distress signals D.All alphabet letters, all numerals, period, comma, question mark, slant mark and prosigns AR, BT, and SK 6A597 C What answer format is accepted on commercial radiotelegraph license contain? A.The examiner may use any answer format which ascertains that the examinee can comprehend the message transmitted B.Any of the following: one minute solid copy, answering seven out of ten question, fill-in-the-blank, or multiple choice questions C.Examinees are required to receive international Morse code messages by ear for a period of one minute without error D.Examinees must obtain a passing mark of 75% or higher on questions concerning the transmitted telegraphy message 6A598 C What is a requirement of all transmitting apparatus used aboard United States vessels? A.Equipment must be approved by the U.S. Coast Guard for maritime mobile use B.Certification is required by the International Maritime Organization (IMO) C.Only equipment that has been type accepted by the FCC for Part 80 operations is authorized D.Programming of all maritime channels must be performed by a licensed Marine Radio Operator 6A599 C What happens to a lower grade of Commercial Radiotelegraph License when a licensee qualifies for a higher grade? A.The lower grade is allowed to expire and may not be renewed B.The Second or Third Class Radiotelegraph license is modified to a higher class C.The lower grade is canceled. Only one unexpired radiotelegraph operator's certificate may be held at the same time D.Licensees are permitted to hold any number of radiotelegraph operator certificates at the same time 6A600 A What is an operating control requirement of a ship station using telegraphy? A.The ship station must be capable of automatically changing from telegraphy transmission to telegraph reception B.A ship station control operator must stand watch on emergency channels at all times C.Only a licensed First Class Radiotelegraph Operator may operate a ship station D.The ship station must be capable of changing from one radio channel to another within five seconds 6A601 B How does a radiotelegraph operator transmit a routine call to another station? A.The letters "CQ" are followed by the call sign of the station called and the call sign of the originating station B.The station is called not more than twice, followed by the word "DE" and the call sign of the calling station not more than twice C.The originating station must obtain permission from the nearest public coast station D.Routine calls are initiated by using the appropriate service abbreviation 6A602 B What is the proper procedure to conduct a radiotelegraph equipment test? A.By transmitting "EI" on the test frequency as a warning that a test transmission is about to be made B.Sending a series of "VVV" followed by the call sign of the testing station at about 10 words-perminute C.The test transmission may not proceed until all stations on frequency have signalled their consent D.The nearest public or private coast station must be notified of an impending test 6A603 A How often must a radiotelegraph station transmit its call sign when a transmission is maintained for more than 20 minutes in the band 405-525 kHz? A.At 20 minute intervals B.At least every 10 minutes C.At 15 minute intervals unless public correspondence is in progress D.At the beginning and end of each communication with any other station 6A604 C When may a public coast station authorized to use high frequency narrow-band direct-printing (NB-DP) establish contact with a ship station using telegraphy? A.Never. Contact may only be established using NB-DP circuits B.When the ship is in excess of 300 gross tons C.When the radio station license reflects authority for this type of operation and harmful interference is avoided D.When it is known that the vessel does not have a selective ringing or calling device 6A605 C Which operator is authorized to make equipment adjustments at maritime radio stations which may affect transmitter operation? A.The holder of a marine radio operator permit or higher class license B.The holder of a restricted radiotelephone operator permit when the radiated power is less than 100 watts C.Only the holders of a first or second class radiotelegraph of the general radiotelephone operator's license D.The holder of a GMDSS radio operator or higher class radiotelephone license 6A606 A Who may install, maintain or adjust radiotelephone transmitters which radiate less than 50 watts carrier power? A.Anyone under the immediate supervision and responsibility of a person holding a first of second class radiotelegraph or general radiotelephone operator license B.Only a properly licensed radiotelephone operator C.Any holder of a marine radio operator permit or higher D.Only persons holding an operator certificate containing a ship radar endorsement 6A607 D Who may program authorized frequency channels into a transmitter or transceiver used in the maritime service? A.Any person who has the authorization of the station licensee or ship's master B.A licensed marine radio operator or higher C.A person holding a restricted radiotelephone operator permit or higher D.Only persons holding a first or second class radiotelegraph operator's certificate or a general radiotelephone operator's license 6A608 A What is the maximum authorized bandwidth of a high frequency radiotelegraphy signal, emission A1A, in the maritime service? A.0.4 kHz B.0.2 kHz C.Minimum necessary to complete necessary communications D.1 kHz 6A609 C What is the maximum transmitter power that a ship station may radiate using radiotelegraphy emissions on frequencies below 27500 kHz? A.400 W B.2 kW, unless a passenger ship 5000 gross tons and over C.3 kW D.1 kW 6A610 C Where must ship station logs be kept during a voyage? A.They must be secured in the vessel's strongbox for safekeeping B.In the personal custody of the licensed commercial radio operator C.At the principal radiotelephone operating position or radiotelegraph operating room D.All logs are turned over to the ship's master when the radio operator goes off duty 6A611 D How often must compulsory radiotelegraph installations on passenger vessels be inspected? A.When the vessel is placed in service and every 2 years thereafter B.At least every 3 years when the ship is within 75 miles of an FCC field office C.The ship's master is responsible for completion of the Annual Equipment Verification Report D.Equipment inspections are required at least once every 12 months 6A612 B What is the antenna requirement aboard a survival craft equipped with a non-portable radiotelegraph installation? A.The minimum lifeboat antenna requirement is an HF half-wave dipole capable of efficiently tuning distress frequencies B.The antenna must be single wire inverted L type of maximum practicable length and height above the waterline C.The antenna must be tested at least once during each voyage and a minimum of once a week on longer voyages D.The antenna must be located a minimum of 8 meters above the waterline to insure the safety of passengers 6A613 C What document is issued after a radio station inspection aboard a large ship that is not a passenger vessel? A.Great Lakes Radio Agreement surety authorization B.International Maritime Organization safety permit C.Cargo ship safety radiotelegraphy or radiotelephony certificate D.Safety Convention radio certification 6A614 B What is the minimum radio operator license requirement of a chief radio officer on U.S. passenger ships? A.First or Second Class Radiotelegraph Operator Certificate with six month endorsement B.First Class Radiotelegraph Operator Certificate C.General Radiotelephone Operator License D.Marine Radio Operator Permit 6A615 C What is the order of priority of radiotelegraph communications in the maritime services? A.Alarm, radio-direction finding, and health and welfare communications B.Navigation hazards, meteorological warnings, priority traffic C.Distress calls, and signals, followed by communications preceded by urgency and safety signals D.Government precedence, messages concerning safety of life and protection of property and traffic concerning grave imminent danger 6A616 B What should a station operator do before making a transmission? A.Check transmitting equipment to be certain it is properly calibrated B.Except for the transmission of distress calls, determine that the frequency is not in use by monitoring the frequency before transmitting C.Ask if the frequency is in use D.Transmit a general notification that the operator wishes to utilize the channel share/E8.html0000664000175000017500000102320312527377207011511 0ustar jtnjtn

share/E7.txt0000664000175000017500000066611014621747027011372 0ustar jtnjtn1A1 What is the fundamental concept of the GMDSS? A. GMDSS utilizes automated systems and satellite technology to improve emergency communications for the world’s shipping industry. B. It is intended to automate and improve existing digital selective calling procedures and techniques. C. It is intended to provide more effective but lower cost commercial communications. D. It is intended to provide compulsory vessels with a collision avoidance system when they are operating in waters that are also occupied by non-compulsory vessels. 1A2 The primary purpose of the GMDSS is: A. Allow more effective control of SAR situations by vessels. B. Automate and improve emergency communications for the world's shipping industry. C. Provide additional shipboard systems for more effective company communications. D. Effective and inexpensive communications. 1A3 What is the basic concept of GMDSS? A. Shoreside authorities will rely on reports from nearby vessels to become aware of Distress alerts. B. Shoreside authorities and vessels can assist in a coordinated SAR operation only after the correct chain of DSC relays takes place. C. SAR authorities ashore can be alerted to a Distress situation & shipping in the vicinity can be requested to participate in SAR operations. D. SAR authorities ashore wait to have EPIRB Distress alerts confirmed by satellite follow-on communications. 1A4 GMDSS is primarily a system based on: A. Ship-to-ship Distress communications using MF or HF radiotelephony. B. VHF digital selective calling from ship to shore. C. Distress, Urgency and Safety communications carried out by the use of narrow-band direct printing telegraphy. D. The linking of search and rescue authorities ashore with shipping in the immediate vicinity of a ship in Distress or in need of assistance. 1A5 What is the responsibility of compulsory GMDSS vessels? A. Every vessel must be able to perform communications functions essential for its own safety and the safety of other vessels. B. Vessels must transmit a DSC distress relay upon receipt of a DSC distress alert. C. Only the vessels closest to a Distress incident must render assistance. D. Vessels must immediately acknowledge all DSC distress alerts. 1A6 GMDSS is required for which of the following? A. All vessels capable of international voyages. B. SOLAS Convention ships of 300 gross tonnage or more. C. Vessels operating outside of the range of VHF coast radio stations. D. Coastal vessels of less than 300 gross tons. Answers: 1A1 - A 1A2 - B 1A3 - C 1A4 - D 1A5 - A 1A6 - B 2A1 Which GMDSS system utilizes terrestrial radio techniques? A. Inmarsat-FBB B. Inmarsat-C C. GPS D. VHF-MF-HF-DSC 2A2 What equipment utilizes satellite communications? A. Inmarsat-C B. VHF-MF-HF C. NAVTEX D. SART 2A3 What equipment is used in or near the survival craft? A. NAVTEX B. EPIRB C. Fathometer D. COSPAS-SARSAT 2A4 What equipment is programmed to initiate transmission of Distress alerts and calls to individual stations? A. NAVTEX B. GPS C. DSC Controller D. DSC Scanning Watch Receiver 2A5 What system provides accurate vessel position information to the GMDSS equipment? A. COSPAS-SARSAT B. EPIRB C. GPS D. Inmarsat-F77 2A6 Which of these can be used to receive MSI? A. SART B. EPIRB C. Inmarsat-F77 D. NAVTEX Answers: 2A1 - D 2A2 - A 2A3 - B 2A4 - C 2A5 - C 2A6 - D 3A1 Which of the following regions lie outside Sea Areas A1, A2, and A3? A. Sea Areas only apply to Inmarsat footprint areas. B. Sea Area A3-I Inmarsat coverage and Sea Area A3-S HF SITOR (NBDP) coverage. C. Sea Area A4 D. There are no additional Sea Areas. 3A2 What sea area is defined as being within range of a shore-based MF station that provides for continuous DSC alerting? A. Coastal waters B. Sea area A3 C. Sea area A1 D. Sea area A2 3A3 If a vessel is engaged in local trade and at no point in its voyage travels outside the range of a VHF shore station with continuous DSC alerting then the vessel is operating in what area? A. Sea area A1 B. Coastal and international zones C. Inland and coastal waters D. Sea areas A1 and A2 3A4 What is defined as an area, excluding sea areas A1 and A2, within the coverage of an Inmarsat geostationary satellite in which continuous alerting is available? A. Ocean Area Regions AOR-E, AOR-W, POR or IOR B. Sea Area A3 C. Sea Area A4 D. Coastal and Inland Waters 3A5 SITOR (NBDP) equipment is a partial or alternate carriage requirement under GMDSS for vessels operating in which sea area(s)? A. A1 B. A3 and A4 C. A1 and A2 D. A1, A2, A3 and A4 3A6 What is defined as the area within the radiotelephone coverage area of at least one VHF coast station in which continuous DSC alerting is available as defined by the IMO regulation for GMDSS? A. Ocean Area Regions AOR-E, AOR-W, POR or IOR B. Sea Area A2 C. Sea Area A1 D. Coastal and Inland Waters Answers: 3A1 - C 3A2 - D 3A3 - A 3A4 - B 3A5 - B 3A6 - C 4A1 Which of the following is a functional or carriage requirement for compulsory vessels? A. A compulsory vessel must carry at least two (2) FCC licensed GMDSS Radio Operators in all sea areas as well as a GMDSS Maintainer in sea areas A3 & A4. B. A compulsory vessel must satisfy certain equipment carriage requirements based on the intended sea area of operation. C. A compulsory vessel must be able to transmit and respond to Distress alerts and carry only one (1) FCC licensed GMDSS Radio Operator in sea areas A1 & A2. D. None of these answers are correct. 4A2 Which GMDSS communication functions must all compulsory vessels be capable of performing to meet International Maritime Organization requirements? A. Distress alerting and receipt of Maritime Safety Information via Inmarsat for all vessels intending to operate in Sea Area A4. B. Distress alerting and receipt of MSI in Sea Areas A1, A2, A3, and A4 regardless of the vessel's intended area of operation. C. Distress alerting, general communications and receipt of Maritime Safety Information in the vessel's intended area of operation. D. General communications via Inmarsat and receipt of Maritime Safety Information via Enhanced Group Calling in Sea Area A4. 4A3 GMDSS-equipped ships will be required to perform which of the following communications functions? A. Distress alerting, MSI, SAR and On-scene communications & receipt of satellite alerts from other vessels. B. SAR and On-scene communications, Bridge-to-Bridge and general radio communications, MSI and relay of satellite alerts from other vessels. C. Bridge-to-Bridge and general radio communications, RDF of EPIRB homing signals, Distress alerting and MSI. D. Transmit distress alerts, SAR and On-scene communications, MSI, Bridge-to-Bridge and general radio communications. 4A4 What equipment can be used to receive Maritime Safety Information? A. NAVTEX, EGC receiver or HF SITOR (NBDP). B. EGC receiver, Inmarsat-F77 or VHF WX channels. C. HF SITOR (NBDP), Inmarsat-F77 or NAVTEX. D. All of these answers are correct. 4A5 Which of the following are required GMDSS functions? A. Bridge-to-Bridge communications, reception of weather map facsimile broadcasts, SAR communications. B. Reception of weather map facsimile broadcasts, receiving company email, On-scene communications. C. Reception of VHF weather channels, On-scene communications, general communications. D. Bridge-to-Bridge communications, general communications, SAR communications. 4A6 Which of the following are required GMDSS functions for vessels? A. Transmit and receive locating signals, general communications and SAR communications. B. Transmit and receive general communications, transmit Distress Alerts by at least one means, MSI. C. Transmit and receive locating signals, send MSI to other ships via EGC, Bridge-to-Bridge communications. D. Transmit and receive SAR communications, transmit Distress Alerts by at least one means, Bridge-to-Bridge communications. Answers: 4A1 - B 4A2 - C 4A3 - D 4A4 - A 4A5 - D 4A6 - A 5A1 Which statement is true regarding a vessel equipped with GMDSS equipment that will remain in Sea Area A1 at all times? A. The vessel must be provided with a radio installation capable of initiating the transmission of ship-to-shore Distress alerting from the position from which the ship is normally navigated. B. VHF DSC alerting may be the sole means of Distress alerting. C. HF or MF DSC may satisfy the equipment requirement. D. HF SSB with 2182 kHz automatic alarm generator may satisfy the equipment requirement. 5A2 What statement is true regarding the additional equipment carriage requirement imposed for the survival craft of vessels over 500 gross tons? A. Additional carriage of two radio equipped lifeboats aft. B. A second radar transponder is required. C. Four additional portable VHF radios are required. D. The ability to communicate in all modes with any shore station. 5A3 Vessels operating in which sea area(s) are required to carry either Inmarsat or HF equipment or a combination thereof under GMDSS? A. All sea areas B. A4 C. A3 D. A1 5A4 Within a single sea area, what is the primary reason GMDSS imposes carriage requirements for different radio subsystems? A. Redundancy in duplicating all operational functions in the event of a system failure. B. Different subsystems are required to meet the specific equipment carriage requirements of national authorities. C. GMDSS vessels must be equipped to communicate in all modes with coast radio stations. D. The combined capabilities of redundant subsystems mitigate the risk of a single point of failure. 5A5 If operating within Ocean Area A1, and outside of NAVTEX coverage, a GMDSS-equipped vessel must carry: A. Equipment capable of reception of Maritime Safety Information by the Inmarsat enhanced group call system, or HF SITOR (NBDP). B. A GPS receiver. C. Equipment capable of maintaining a continuous DSC watch on 2187.5 kHz. D. An Inmarsat-F77 terminal. 5A6 What is the equipment carriage requirement for survival craft under GMDSS? A. At least three SCT units and two SARTs on every cargo ship between 300-500 gross tons and the same on all passenger ships regardless of tonnage. B. At least three SCT units and two SARTs on every passenger ship and cargo ships of 500 gross tons and upwards. C. At least two radar transponders must be carried on every cargo ship of 300-500 gross tons and two radar transponders (one for each side) of every passenger ship regardless of tonnage. D. All cargo vessels above 300 gross tons and every passenger ship regardless of tonnage must carry three SCT units and two SARTs. Answers: 5A1 - A 5A2 - B 5A3 - C 5A4 - D 5A5 - A 5A6 - B 6A1 Which of the following statements concerning maintenance requirements is FALSE? A. Compulsory vessels sailing in Sea Areas A1 and A2 must provide any one of the three maintenance options which are: duplication of equipment, shore-based, or at-sea maintenance capability. B. Compulsory vessels sailing in Sea Areas A3 and A4 must provide any two of the three maintenance options which: are duplication of equipment, shore-based, or at-sea maintenance capability. C. Equipment warranties do not satisfy GMDSS maintenance requirements. D. If shore-based maintenance is used, maintenance services do not have to be completed or performance verified unless the vessel will be sailing to a non-US port. 6A2 Which of the following statements concerning GMDSS maintenance requirements is true? A. The options are duplication of equipment, at-sea maintenance, and shore-based maintenance. B. Compulsory vessels between 300-500 gross tons are required only to provide one maintenance option, while compulsory vessels larger than 500 gross tons and all passenger vessels are required to provide any two of the three maintenance options. C. The "at-sea" maintenance may be waived if the compulsory vessel carries at least three licensed GMDSS Radio Operators. D. Compulsory vessels operating in Sea Area A4 are required to carry at least one licensed GMDSS Radio Maintainer. 6A3 Which of the following is a GMDSS requirement for all vessels over 300 gross tons operating within range of a MF-DSC equipped shore station? A. Ship's Master or radio officer must be on watch at all times. B. Only one of the three maintenance options is required. C. MF communications must be handled by the holder of a General Radiotelephone Operator’s License. D. Only FCC required spare parts and a maintenance kit for repairs are required. 6A4 What statement is correct regarding the maintenance requirements for A3 ships under GMDSS? A. If the vessel selects at-sea maintenance no additional parts and spares are required. B. On-board maintenance provided by a person holding a GMDSS Maintainer's license will fully meet the requirements. C. Redundancy of functions of certain equipment and on-board maintenance provided by a person holding a GMDSS Maintainer's license will partially meet this requirement. D. Shoreside maintenance and scheduled tests and inspections will not partially meet this requirement. 6A5 A ship operating in sea area A-3 must have the following provisions for maintenance: A. Duplication of Equipment. B. Shore Maintenance. C. Any two of these are required. D. At Sea Maintenance. 6A6 A ship operating in sea area A-1 must have the following provisions for maintenance: A. Shore maintenance. B. Duplication of equipment. C. At Sea Maintenance. D. Any one of these is sufficient. Answers: 6A1 - D 6A2 - A 6A3 - B 6A4 - C 6A5 - C 6A6 - D 7B1 What is the frequency range for Medium Frequency? A. 10-30 MHz B. 1,000-10,000 kHz C. 300-3,000 kHz D. 30-300 kHz 7B2 What is the frequency range for High Frequency? A. 300-3,000 kHz B. 30-300 MHz C. 10-30 MHz D. 3-30 MHz 7B3 What is the frequency range for Very High Frequency? A. 30-300 MHz B. 3-30 MHz C. 300-3,000 kHz D. 10-30 MHz 7B4 What is the frequency range for Ultra High Frequency? A. 3-30 MHz B. 300-3,000 MHz C. 30-300 MHz D. 10-30 MHz 7B5 What is the frequency range for Super High Frequency? A. 30-300 GHz B. 3-30 GHz C. 300-3,000 MHz D. 30-300 MHz 7B6 What is the primary frequency range for terrestrial communications using skywave propagation? A. 300-3,000 kHz B. 30-300 MHz C. 3-30 MHz D. 10-30 MHz Answers: 7B1 - C 7B2 - D 7B3 - A 7B4 - B 7B5 - B 7B6 - C 8B1 Which of the following systems is most susceptible to fading or static interference? A. Inmarsat B. HF SITOR (NBDP) C. DSC on channel 70 D. VHF ARQ 8B2 Which system is most likely to be affected by atmospheric disturbances? A. VHF DSC B. Inmarsat C. MF/HF radiotelephony D. SafetyNETTM 8B3 Which of the following systems is least susceptible to fading or static interference? A. HF SITOR (NBDP) B. MF-HF DSC Controller C. VHF ARQ D. Inmarsat 8B4 Which of the following systems is least susceptible to atmospheric disturbances? A. Inmarsat B. NAVTEX C. MF SITOR (NBDP) D. HF SITOR (NBDP) 8B5 Which of the following frequency bands would most likely provide reliable communications between two stations that are 100 miles (160 km) apart? A. The Low Frequency (LF) band. B. The High Frequency (HF) band. C. The Very High Frequency (VHF) band. D. The Medium Frequency (MF) band. 8B6 Which system has the least effective radius of operation? A. VHF DSC B. HF SITOR (NBDP) C. MF SITOR (NBDP) D. NAVTEX Answers: 8B1 - B 8B2 - C 8B3 - D 8B4 - A 8B5 - D 8B6 - A 9B1 What statement best describes modulation? A. Imposing intelligence onto a radio carrier signal. B. Changing mark-space to 1 and 0. C. Adjusting the frequency to the optimum band for long distance communications. D. Converting the carrier from a low frequency to a higher frequency. 9B2 What statement best describes demodulation? A. Detuning the receiver to remove interfering signals. B. Extracting intelligence from the radio carrier signal. C. Removing atmospheric noise from the signal. D. Separating the TELEX signals from the voice signals. 9B3 Which statement best describes amplitude modulation? A. The character data from the terminal is changed to audio tones. B. The frequency is varied in synchronization with the modulating signal. C. The amplitudes in the sideband(s) changes but the radio carrier frequency remains constant. D. The amplitude of the carrier is changed but there is still only a single frequency being transmitted. 9B4 What is the emission designation for MF-HF voice signals? A. F1B B. J2B C. F3E D. J3E 9B5 Which statement best describes frequency modulation? A. The information signal changes the radio carrier frequency but the amplitude remains constant. B. Both the amplitude and frequency are changed by the modulating signal. C. Frequency modulation is subject to interference by atmospheric noise. D. High level mixing of the final amplifier signal and the information signal. 9B6 What is the emission designation for VHF-FM? A. F3C B. F3E C. J2B D. H3E Answers: 9B1 - A 9B2 - B 9B3 - C 9B4 - D 9B5 - A 9B6 - B 10B1 Which of the following statements describes the carrier? A. The carrier consists of at least 3 separate but closely spaced frequencies. B. The carrier is used to modulate the information signal. C. There are always sidebands on either side of the carrier. D. The carrier is a Radio Frequency (RF) signal that is modulated to carry intelligence. 10B2 On what frequencies would the J3E emission be used for GMDSS Distress communications? A. 2182.0 kHz, 16420.0 kHz or 8291.0 kHz. B. 2182.0, 2187.5 kHz or 8414.5 kHz. C. 8414.5 kHz, 8291.0 kHz or 8376.5 kHz. D. 4125.0 kHz, 16420.0 kHz or 4177.5 kHz. 10B3 How many sidebands are present in the J3E mode? A. Two sidebands and a carrier. B. One upper sideband. C. One lower sideband. D. Two carriers and one sideband. 10B4 What is the signal transmitted in H3E mode? A. Two sidebands, upper and lower. B. A reduced carrier and the lower sideband. C. A full carrier and the upper sideband. D. A full carrier and both upper and lower sidebands. 10B5 What is the signal transmitted in J2B mode? A. A full carrier and one sideband. B. A full carrier and two sidebands. C. An upper sideband of 2 alternating tones. D. An upper sideband of a single tone switched on and off. 10B6 Which of the following statements is true? A. An RF carrier is always required to carry the information. B. There is only a single tone used in J2B mode. C. There are a carrier and two sidebands in H3E mode. D. There are two tones used in J2B mode. Answers: 10B1 – D 10B2 - A 10B3 - B 10B4 – C 10B5 – C 10B6 - D 11B1 What is the channel spacing for MF-HF voice frequencies? A. 500 Hz B. 2.8 kHz C. 3.0 kHz D. 3.5 kHz 11B2 What is the channel spacing for authorized F1B/J2B frequencies? A. 170 Hz B. 300 Hz C. 3.0 kHz D. 500 Hz 11B3 You look up a frequency table and all the listings end in either .0 or .5 kHz. What kind of emission is used with these frequencies? A. F1B/J2B SITOR (NBDP) B. J3E SSB Voice C. F3E FM Voice D. G3E FM Voice 11B4 How many SITOR (NBDP) signals can occupy the space of one voice signal? A. 10 B. 6 C. 4 D. 2 11B5 Which emission mode occupies the most bandwidth? A. J2B B. F3E C. J3E D. F1B 11B6 Which mode occupies the least bandwidth? A. H3E B. A3E C. J2B D. F3E Answers: 11B1 - C 11B2 - D 11B3 - A 11B4 - B 11B5 - B 11B6 - C 12B1 A vertical (whip) antenna has a radiation pattern best described by? A. A figure eight B. A circle C. A cardioid D. An ellipse 12B2 Why is an antenna coupler/tuner required for MF-HF transmissions? A. The antenna coupler/tuner calculates the proper spectrum band for the operator to use. B. To ensure transmissions are restricted to legal marine frequencies. C. The length of the physically-fixed antenna must be electrically matched to the intended frequency of operation. D. The antenna coupler/tuner indicates whether the ionosphere is ready to reflect a transmission properly. 12B3 A vertical quarter wave antenna with a good ground connection will: A. Radiate directionally due to being grounded. B. Not function due to being grounded. C. Only be used in Satellite communications. D. Radiate omni-directionally. 12B4 What is the most common type of antenna for GMDSS MF-HF? A. Vertically polarized whip antenna B. Horizontally polarized long wire antenna. C. Horizontally polarized vertical whip antenna. D. Satellite radome with vertical polarization. 12B5 What is the purpose or function of the antenna coupler/tuner? A. Electrically matching the antenna system to the transmit frequency. B. Changing the overall wavelength of the antenna system (in addition to the fixed length whip.) C. Enabling maximum transmitted signal on the band chosen by the operator. D. All of these answers are functions of the antenna coupler/tuner. 12B6 What advantage does a vertical whip have over a long wire? A. It radiates equally well in all directions. B. It radiates directionally for better propagation. C. It radiates a strong signal vertically. D. It radiates more signal fore and aft. Answers: 12B1 - B 12B2 - C 12B3 - D 12B4 - A 12B5 - D 12B6 - A 13C1 How often must a compulsory vessel's GMDSS radio station be inspected? A. Annually, by the FCC or designated authority. B. Annually, by the U.S. Coast Guard. C. Annually, by the FCC, and every six months if the vessel sails outside of Sea Areas A1 and A2. D. The FCC's annual inspection may be waived if and only if monthly inspections are performed by the vessel's on-board GMDSS Radio Maintainer. 13C2 What periodic inspection is required in order to remain in compliance with the regulations regarding GMDSS ship radio station inspections? A. U.S. Coast Guard annual inspection. B. An inspection at least once every 12 months by the FCC or a holder of a GMDSS Maintainers license. C. FCC inspection every five years. D. Periodic inspections not required if on board maintainers perform routine preventive maintenance. 13C3 Which statement is FALSE regarding a GMDSS-equipped ship? A. A conditional or partial exemption may be granted, in exceptional circumstances, for a single voyage outside the sea area for which the vessel is equipped. B. The regulations apply to all passenger ships regardless of size and cargo ships of 300 gross tons and upwards. C. Ships must have the required equipment inspected at least once every five years. D. Ships must carry at least two persons holding a GMDSS Radio Operator's license for Distress and Safety radio-communications purposes. 13C4 Which statement is FALSE regarding a GMDSS equipped ship? A. Ships must have the required equipment inspected at least once every 12 months. B. The regulations apply to all passenger ships regardless of size and cargo ships of 300 gross tons and upwards. C. Ships must carry at least two persons holding a GMDSS Radio Operator's license for Distress and Safety radio-communications purposes. D. A conditional or partial exemption may not be granted, in exceptional circumstances, for a single voyage outside the sea area for which the ship is equipped. 13C5 During an annual GMDSS station inspection: A. All required documents and publications might have to be produced and GMDSS operators may be required to demonstrate equipment competencies. B. Licensed GMDSS operators may not be required to demonstrate equipment competencies but all required equipment must be fully operational. C. All required equipment must be fully operational and any required publications that are not current must be on order. D. GMDSS operators may be required to demonstrate equipment competencies and any of required equipment that is not fully operational can be repaired at the next port of call as long as there is functional duplication. 13C6 Which situation is least likely to result in an inspection of the radio installation by foreign governments or administrations? A. When the ship's station license cannot be produced without delay. B. When a ship visits a port for the first time. C. When operational irregularities are observed. D. When compulsory equipment is found to be inoperative. Answers: 13C1 - A 13C2 - B 13C3 - C 13C4 - D 13C5 - A 13C6 - B 14C1 Which of the following references should be consulted for information on the proper setup and use of GMDSS equipment? A. ITU List of Equipment Operations. B. 47 CFR Part 80 Subpart W. C. Instructions are available through the Maritime Safety Information (MSI) system. D. The manufacturer's operating manuals. 14C2 Where can GMDSS regulations pertaining specifically to U.S.-flag vessels be found? A. These are located in 47 CFR Part 80. B. These are located in CCIR #476. C. These are located in FCC Part 83. D. These are published only by the U.S. Coast Guard. 14C3 What publications should the GMDSS Radio Operator consult to review the proper procedures to be followed in Distress situations under GMDSS? A. The manufacturer’s technical manuals. B. 47 CFR Part 80 Subpart W. C. The manufacturer's operator manuals. D. 47 CFR Part 90 Subpart V. 14C4 Which of the following documents or publications are required by the FCC for GMDSS vessels on international voyages (other than the Great Lakes)? A. IMO master plan of shore-based facilities (or substitute), station logs, appropriate operator licenses, Inmarsat handbook for GMDSS. B. NGA Pub. 117 (or substitute), station logs, appropriate operator licenses, IAMSAR manual volume III. C. Part 80 FCC rules, station logs, station licenses, ITU publications, ITU manual for Maritime Mobile stations. D. Part 80 FCC rules, station logs, station licenses, ITU publications, IMO manual for Maritime Mobile stations. 14C5 Which of the following documents or publications are required by Part 80 of the FCC rules for vessels on international voyages (other than the Great Lakes)? A. Appropriate Safety Convention Certificate, ITU Master Plan of GMDSS Coast stations, and ITU manual for Maritime Mobile stations. B. ITU Master Plan of GMDSS Coast stations, ITU manual for Maritime Mobile stations, ITU List IV & List V. C. ITU List IV & List V, Appropriate Safety Convention Certificate & ITU manual for Maritime Mobile stations. D. ITU List IV & List V, Appropriate Safety Convention Certificate & IMO manual for Maritime Mobile stations. 14C6 Which of the following references should be consulted to identify the name of a vessel based on its Maritime Mobile Service Identity? A. ITU list of Coast Stations. B. ITU List of Radio-determination and Ship Stations. C. ITU Master Plan of Shore-Based Facilities. D. ITU List of Ship Stations and Maritime Mobile Service Identity Assignments. Answers: 14C1 - D 14C2 - A 14C3 - B 14C4 - C 14C5 - C 14C6 - D 15C1 Which of the following maintenance functions is NOT the responsibility of the GMDSS Radio Operator? A. Visual inspection of equipment, including the antenna and associated components. B. Perform on-the-air verification checks. C. Aligning the power output stage for maximum power. D. Perform scheduled testing of the battery's charged condition. 15C2 When may a compulsory vessel NOT be allowed to leave port? A. When the vessel is in an over-carriage condition. B. When the vessel has arranged for both duplication of equipment and shore-based maintenance. C. When the vessel is carrying only two licensed GMDSS Radio Operators and is capable of performing all required functions. D. When the vessel has replaced a required piece of GMDSS-related equipment, but its performance has not been verified or logged. 15C3 Which statement is true regarding the maintenance of GMDSS equipment at sea? A. The GMDSS maintainer may also be the person designated to have primary responsibility for radiocommunications during Distress incidents if licensed as an operator. B. Ships must carry at least two persons who qualify as a GMDSS maintainer for the maintenance and repair of equipment if the at-sea maintenance option is selected. C. All at-sea maintenance and repairs must be performed by, or under the supervision of a person holding a GMDSS Maintainer license or GMDSS Operator license. D. The GMDSS maintainer may not be the person responsible for ensuring that the watches are properly maintained and that the proper guard channels and the vessel's position are entered into the DSC equipment. 15C4 Which of the following service or maintenance functions may NOT be performed by the holder of a GMDSS Radio Operator License? A. Reset tripped circuit breakers or replace defective fuses. B. Any adjustments or maintenance that may affect the proper operation of the station. C. Routine battery maintenance if used as part of the GMDSS station. D. Replacement of consumable items such as paper, ribbons, etc. 15C5 What are the conditions, under GMDSS, whereby a ship is NOT allowed to depart from any port? A. The vessel is carrying more than the required number of qualified GMDSS radio operators. B. The vessel is not capable of performing all required Distress and Safety functions. C. The vessel has a temporary waiver of its radio license and Safety Certificate. D. The vessel is not carrying a GMDSS radio maintainer, but has provided for shoreside maintenance plus duplication of equipment if required. 15C6 What determines the spares and maintenance materials requirements for GMDSS equipment? A. 47 CFR Part 80 Subpart W. B. IMO Circular "Equipment Spares". C. The recommendations of the manufacturer. D. The GMDSS Maintainer's requirements. Answers: 15C1 - C 15C2 - D 15C3 - A 15C4 - B 15C5 - B 15C6 - C 16C1 Which FCC license meets the requirement to serve as a GMDSS operator? A. General Radiotelephone Operator’s License. B. GMDSS Radio Operator’s License. C. Marine Radio Operator’s Permit. D. GMDSS Radio Maintainer’s License. 16C2 Which of the following statements concerning GMDSS Radio Operator requirements is FALSE? A. Each compulsory vessel must carry at least two licensed GMDSS Radio Operators at all times while at sea. B. Each compulsory vessel must carry at least two licensed GMDSS Radio Operators at all times while at sea and may elect to carry a GMDSS Radio Maintainer as well. C. All communications involving Safety of life at sea must be logged as long as the compulsory vessel was not involved in such communications. D. While at sea, adjustments to, and the maintaining of, GMDSS equipment may be performed by the GMDSS Radio Operator as long as the work is supervised by an on-board licensed GMDSS Radio Maintainer. 16C3 Which FCC license meets the requirements to perform or supervise the performance of at-sea adjustments, servicing, or maintenance which may affect the proper operation of the GMDSS station? A. General Radiotelephone Operator’s License with Shipboard RADAR endorsement. B. Marine Radio Operator’s Permit or GMDSS Maintainer’s license. C. GMDSS Radio Operator’s license or Marine Radio Operator’s Permit. D. GMDSS Operator’s/Maintainer’s license or GMDSS Maintainer’s license. 16C4 Which statement is FALSE regarding the radio operator requirements for a GMDSS-equipped ship station? A. Maintaining a record of all incidents connected with the radio-communications service that appear to be of importance to Safety of life at sea is not required. B. One of the qualified GMDSS radio operators must be designated to have primary responsibility for radiocommunications during Distress incidents. C. A qualified GMDSS radio operator, and a qualified backup, must be designated to perform Distress, Urgency and Safety communications. D. While at sea, all adjustments or radio installations, servicing or maintenance of such installations that may affect the proper operation of the GMDSS station must be performed by, or under the supervision of, a qualified GMDSS radio maintainer. 16C5 Which of the following are personnel, functional, or equipment FCC requirements of the GMDSS? A. One FCC licensed GMDSS radio operator in sea areas A1 & A2, two FCC licensed GMDSS radio operators in sea areas A3 & A4 and equipment carriage based on intended sea area of operations. B. Distress alerting and response, two USCG STCW GMDSS watchstanders, equipment carriage based on intended sea area of operations. C. Equipment carriage reduced for sea areas A3 & A4, Distress alerting and response and two FCC licensed GMDSS radio operators. D. Equipment carriage based on intended sea area of operations, distress alerting and response and two FCC licensed GMDSS radio operators. 16C6 How many GMDSS radio maintainers must be carried aboard a compulsory vessel if the At-Sea maintenance method is used? A. One regardless of sea area of operation. B. Two in Sea Areas A3 and A4. C. Two in Sea Area A1. D. None of these answers are correct. Answers: 16C1 - B 16C2 - C 16C3 - D 16C4 - A 16C5 - D 16C6 - A 17C1 Which statement is FALSE regarding the GMDSS requirement for ship sources of energy? A. The reserve sources of energy need to supply independent MF and HF radio installations at the same time. B. At all times while the vessel is at sea, a sufficient supply of electrical energy to operate the radio installations and charge any batteries which may be part of the reserve source of energy is required. C. An uninterruptible power supply or other means of ensuring a continuous supply of electrical power to all GMDSS equipment that could be affected by normal variations and interruptions of ship's power is required. D. If a vessel’s position is constantly required for the proper performance of a GMDSS station, provisions must be made to ensure position information is uninterrupted if the ship’s source of main or emergency energy fails. 17C2 How often should the charge condition of RSE GMDSS batteries be checked? A. Every day with the battery charger on trickle charge. B. At least every 30 days with the battery charger turned off. C. At least every 30 days with the battery charger on full manual charge. D. Weekly with the battery charger on full manual charge. 17C3 Which term describes the source of energy required to supply the GMDSS console with power if the ship’s source of main or emergency energy fails? A. Emergency power B. Ship's emergency diesel generator C. Reserve Source of Energy D. Ship's standby generator 17C4 What characteristics describe the GMDSS Reserve Source of Energy (RSE)? A. Supplies independent HF and MF installations at the same time. B. Cannot be independent of the propelling power of the ship. C. Must be incorporated into the ship's electrical system. D. Must be independent of the ship's electrical system when the RSE is needed to supply power to the GMDSS equipment. 17C5 What is the requirement for emergency and reserve power in GMDSS radio installations? A. Compulsory ships must have emergency and reserve power sources for radio communications. B. An emergency power source for radio communications is not required if a vessel has proper reserve power (batteries). C. A reserve power source is not required for radio communications. D. Only one of the above is required if a vessel is equipped with a second 406 EPIRB as a backup means of sending a Distress alert. 17C6 Which of the following terms is defined as a back-up power source that provides power to radio installations for the purpose of conducting Distress and Safety communications when the vessel's main and emergency generators cannot? A. Emergency Diesel Generator (EDG) B. Reserve Source of Energy (RSE) C. Reserve Source of Diesel Power (RSDP) D. Emergency Back-up Generator (EBG) Answers: 17C1 - A 17C2 - B 17C3 - C 17C4 - D 17C5 - A 17C6 - B 18C1 Under GMDSS, a compulsory VHF-DSC radiotelephone installation must be tested at what minimum intervals at sea? A. Annually, by a representative of the FCC. B. At the annual SOLAS inspection. C. Monthly D. Daily 18C2 Which statement concerning the testing of a compulsory radiotelephone station is FALSE? A. Calling the USCG on VHF CH-16 or 2182.0 kHz is the most effective method. B. Tests may be accomplished by using the equipment for normal business. C. A daily test is necessary unless the equipment was used for routine traffic. D. The test may not interfere with communications in progress and must wait or be suspended if a request to do so is made. 18C3 While underway, how frequently is the DSC controller required to be tested? A. Once a week B. Once a day C. Twice a week D. Once a month 18C4 At sea, all required equipment (other than Survival Craft Equipment) must be proven operational by: A. Testing at least every 48 hours. B. Weekly testing of all S.C.E. and other compulsory equipment. C. Daily testing or daily successful use of the equipment. D. Daily testing of the S.C.E. and weekly tests of the other equipment. 18C5 The best way to test the MF-HF SITOR (NBDP) system is: A. Make a radiotelephone call to a coast station. B. Initiate an ARQ call to demonstrate that the transmitter and antenna are working. C. Initiate an ARQ call to a Coast Station and wait for the automatic exchange of answerbacks. D. Initiate an FEC call to demonstrate that the transmitter and antenna are working. 18C6 The best way to test the Inmarsat-C terminal is: A. Send a message to a shore terminal and wait for confirmation. B. Send a message to another ship terminal. C. If the “Send” light flashes, proper operation has been confirmed. D. Compose and send a brief message to your own Inmarsat-C terminal. Answers: 18C1 - D 18C2 - A 18C3 - B 18C4 - C 18C5 - C 18C6 - D 19C1 A vessel certified for service in Sea Area A3 is required to maintain a watch on: A. VHF Channel 70, MF Frequency 2182.0 kHz, HF on 8414.5 kHz and one other HF DSC frequency. B. MF Frequency 2187.5 kHz, HF on 8414.5 kHz and one other HF DSC frequency, HF on 4125.0 kHz. C. VHF Channel 70, MF Frequency 2187.5 kHz, HF on 8414.5 kHz and one other HF DSC frequency. D. VHF Channel 16, VHF Channel 70, MF Frequency 2187.5 kHz, HF on 8414.5 MHz and HF 4177.5 MHz. 19C2 A vessel certified for service in Sea Area A-2 is required to maintain watch on: A. 2174.5 kHz B. 2182.0 kHz C. 2738.0 kHz D. 2187.5 kHz 19C3 What are the mandatory DSC watchkeeping bands/channels? A. 8 MHz HF DSC, 1 other HF DSC, 2 MHz MF DSC and VHF Ch-70. B. 2 MHz MF DSC, 8 MHz DSC, VHF Ch-16 and 1 other HF DSC. C. VHF Ch-70, 2 MHz MF DSC, 6 MHz DSC and 1 other HF DSC. D. VHF Ch-70, 2 MHZ MF DSC, 4 MHZ DSC and 8 MHz DSC. 19C4 Proper watchkeeping includes the following: A. Monitoring all required frequencies in the proper mode, setting the DSC scanner to 2 MHz, 4 MHZ and 8 MHz for ships in the vicinity, notifying the Master of any Distress alerts. B. After silencing an alarm all displays and/or printouts are read, monitoring all required frequencies in the proper mode, notifying the Master of any Distress alerts. C. Notifying the Master of any Distress alerts, setting the DSC scanner to 2 MHz, 4 MHZ and 8 MHz for ships in the vicinity, monitoring all required frequencies in the proper mode. D. Setting the DSC scanner only to the mandatory 2 MHz & 8 MHz, maintain continuous watch on 2182.0 kHz or 4125.0 kHz, notify the Master of any Distress traffic heard. 19C5 Proper watchkeeping includes the following: A. Understanding normal operational indicators, setting the DSC scanner frequencies to minimize alarms, maintaining a proper log. B. Maintaining a proper GMDSS radio station log, understanding normal operational indicators, responding to and comprehending alarms. C. Responding to and comprehending alarms, logging out of Inmarsat-C terminals while at sea, maintaining a proper GMDSS radio station log. D. Maintaining a proper GMDSS radio station log, setting the DSC scanner frequencies to minimize alarms, logging out of Inmarsat-C terminals while at sea. 19C6 Which is true concerning a required watch on VHF Ch-16? A. When a vessel is in an A1 sea area and subject to the Bridge-to-Bridge act and in a VTS system, a watch is required on Ch-16 in addition to both Ch-13 and the VTS channel. B. It is not compulsory at all times while at sea until further notice, unless the vessel is in a VTS system. C. When a vessel is in an A1 sea area and subject to the Bridge-to-Bridge act and in a VTS system, a watch is not required on Ch-16 provided the vessel monitors both Ch-13 and the VTS channel. D. It is not always compulsory in sea areas A2, A3 and A4. Answers: 19C1 - C 19C2 - D 19C3 - A 19C4 - B 19C5 - B 19C6 - C 20C1 Which of the following statements meets requirements for 47 CFR 80 Subpart-W? A. GMDSS Radio Logs may not be retained aboard compulsory vessels in an electronic file (e.g., word processing) format. B. GMDSS Radio Logs must contain entries of all Distress and Urgency communications affecting your own ship. C. GMDSS Radio Logs must be retained aboard compulsory vessels for a period of at least 90 days in their original form. D. Entries in the GMDSS Radio Log are only required for communications within the vessel's intended Sea Area of operation. 20C2 Which of the following statements is FALSE? A. Key letters or abbreviations may be used in GMDSS Radio Logbooks if their meaning is explained. B. Urgency communications may need to be entered in the GMDSS radio log. C. Distress communications heard do not require entries if the vessel did not participate in SAR activity. D. Log entries of VHF Safety broadcasts are not required. 20C3 Where should the GMDSS radio log be kept on board ship? A. Captain's office B. Sea cabin C. Anywhere on board the vessel. D. At the GMDSS operating position. 20C4 How long must the radio log be retained on board before sending it to the shoreside licensee? A. At least 30 days after the last entry. B. At least one year after the last entry. C. At least two years after the last entry. D. At least 90 days after the last entry. 20C5 Which statement concerning radio log archival by the station licensee is FALSE? A. Retain for two years if there are no Distress entries. B. Logs related to an investigation may not be destroyed without specific authorization. C. Retain for three years if there are Distress entries. D. Retain for one year unless there are Distress or Urgency entries. 20C6 Which of the following logkeeping statements is FALSE? A. Entries of all company communications using GMDSS satellite equipment are required. B. Entries relating to pre-voyage, pre-departure and daily tests are required. C. A summary of all Distress communications heard and Urgency communications affecting the station’s own ship. Also, all Safety communications (other than VHF) affecting the station’s own ship must be logged. D. Entries related to failures of compulsory equipment are required. Answers: 20C1 - B 20C2 - C 20C3 - D 20C4 - A 20C5 - D 20C6 - A 21D1 A typical call sign for a large container ship under U. S. flag would be: A. KBZY B. WBX1469 C. NADN D. KPH 21D2 What would the number 1090 indicate? A. A ship DSC MMSI number. B. A coast station SITOR (NBDP) SELCAL number. C. A coast station DSC MMSI number. D. A ship station SITOR (NBDP) SELCAL number. 21D3 Which one of the following is a ship station SELCAL? A. 1104 B. 1502352 C. 11243 D. 0230364973 21D4 Which of the following is the call sign for a U.S.C.G. coast station? A. NERK B. KPH C. WCC D. NMN 21D5 What type of station would be assigned the call sign WAB2174? A. Tugboat B. Container ship C. Large Passenger ship D. Bulk Tanker 21D6 What number will a ship station use to identify itself using SITOR (NBDP)? A. Four-digit SELCAL. B. Five-digit SELCAL or 9-digit SELCAL number identical to MMSI. C. 9-digit Inmarsat-F77 I. D. number. D. 9-digit Inmarsat-FBB I.D. number. Answers: 21D1 - A 21D2 - B 21D3 - C 21D4 - D 21D5 - A 21D6 - B 22D1 What is the MID? A. Mobile Identification Number B. Marine Indemnity Directory C. Mobile Interference Digits D. Maritime Identification Digits 22D2 How many digits are in the MID (Maritime Identification Digits)? A. 3 B. 7 C. 9 D. 10 22D3 What does the MID (Maritime Identification Digits) signify? A. Port of registry B. Nationality C. Gross tonnage D. Passenger vessel 22D4 Which of the following numbers indicates a U.S. flag ship station? A. 036627934 B. 243537672 C. 338426791 D. 003382315 22D5 Which of the following MMSI numbers indicates a U.S. flag ship station? A. 430326190 B. 033609991 C. 303236424 D. 257326819 22D6 Which of the following numbers indicates a ship station MMSI? A. 003372694 B. 030356328 C. 3384672 D. 623944326 Answers: 22D1 - D 22D2 - A 22D3 - B 22D4 - C 22D5 - C 22D6 - D 23D1 A DSC call is received from a station with a MMSI number of 003669991. What type of station made the call? A. A vessel operating in Sea Area A3. B. A group ship station C. A U.S. coast station D. An Intercoastal vessel 23D2 A valid MMSI number for a DSC call to a specific group of vessels is: A. 003664523 B. 338462941 C. 003036483 D. 030327931 23D3 A MMSI 030346239 indicates what? A. Group MMSI B. Inmarsat-C I.D. number C. Coast station D. Ship station 23D4 Which of the following statements concerning MMSI is true? A. Coast station MMSI numbers have 9 digits starting with 4. B. All MMSI numbers are 9 digits and contain an MID. C. Ship station MMSI numbers can be 7 digits or 9 digits depending on the Inmarsat terminal. D. Group MMSI numbers must begin with 2 zeros. 23D5 Which of the following statements concerning MMSI is FALSE? A. All Coast Station MMSI must begin with 2 zeros. B. All Coast Station MMSI must begin with the MID then 2 zeros. C. A group call must begin with a single zero followed by the MID. D. The first 3 digits of a ship MMSI comprise the MID. 23D6 Which of the following statements concerning MMSI is true? A. All ship station MMSI must begin with a single zero and include the MID. B. All group station MMSI must begin with the MID. C. None of these answers are correct. D. All Coast Station MMSI must be 9 digits and begin with the MID and then two zeros. Answers: 23D1 - C 23D2 - D 23D3 - A 23D4 - B 23D5 - B 23D6 - C 24D1 Which of the following would indicate a standard AIS SART? A. A 9-digit number beginning with 3. B. A 9-digit number always starting with 970. C. A 9 digit number beginning with 974. D. A 9-digit number always starting with 4. 24D2 Which of the following would indicate a MOB AIS SART? A. 003662517 B. 436982011 C. 972350058 D. 970125648 24D3 Which of the following would indicate an F77 terminal? A. 303261598 B. 430364290 C. 338472564 D. 764832922 24D4 Which of the following would indicate an F77 terminal? A. 765044177 B. 0036648202 C. 436682433 D. 367224126 24D5 Which of the following would indicate an EPIRB AIS SART? A. 970240099 B. 430363275 C. 369632824 D. 974350188 24D6 Which of the following would indicate an F77 terminal? A. A 9-digit number always starting with 76. B. A 12-digit number starting with the MID. C. A 9-digit number ending with the MID. D. A 9-digit number always starting with 4. Answers: 24D1 - B 24D2 - C 24D3 - D 24D4 - A 24D5 - D 24D6 - A 25D1 You receive a TELEX with the sender’s I.D. of 433863491. What type of terminal sent this message to your vessel? A. Inmarsat-C B. Land TELEX terminal C. Inmarsat-F77 D. Inmarsat-FBB 25D2 You receive a TELEX with the sender’s I.D. of 436640927. What type of terminal sent this message to your vessel? A. F77 Fleet B. Inmarsat-C C. Land TELEX terminal D. Inmarsat-FBB 25D3 Which of the following would indicate an Inmarsat-C terminal? A. 003698202 B. 325467263 C. 436782433 D. 764835982 25D4 Which of the following would indicate an Inmarsat-C terminal? A. 600935021 B. 366294824 C. 764881432 D. 430346275 25D5 Which of the following would indicate an Inmarsat-C terminal? A. 436782011 B. 003662517 C. 325463325 D. 764848791 25D6 Which of the following would indicate an Inmarsat-C terminal? A. A 9-digit number beginning with the MID. B. A 9-digit number always starting with 4. C. A 9 digit number always starting with 970. D. A 9-digit number always starting with 3. Answers: 25D1 - A 25D2 - B 25D3 - C 25D4 - D 25D5 - A 25D6 - B 26D1 What sequence best describes an MF-HF DSC Distress Alert transmission? A. Vessel name, Distress priority code, vessel position & time, nature of Distress, B. A string of dots to stop the DSC scanner, vessel MMSI, vessel position & time, nature of Distress, frequency for follow-on communications. C. Vessel MMSI, frequency & emission for follow-on communications, vessel position & time, Distress priority code. D. A string of dots to stop the DSC scanner, Distress priority code, vessel MMSI, vessel position & time, emission for follow-on communications, DSC frequency. 26D2 MF-HF DSC alerts are transmitted using what emission type? A. J2B to ensure compatibility with DSC receivers. B. J3E to ensure correct voice follow-on frequencies are used. C. F1B to ensure correct SITOR (NBDP) follow-on frequencies are used. D. A3E to achieve the best transmission range. 26D3 When sending a DSC call: A. Vessel’s position will automatically be sent with DSC calls specifying an alternate frequency. B. Vessel's position will automatically be sent if the vessel is sending a “Distress Hot Key” alert. C. Vessel's MMSI will indicate its ocean region and vessel position. D. Vessel’s MMSI and position will automatically be sent for all types of DSC calls. 26D4 DSC transmissions are encoded: A. Using J3E mode for proper follow-on communications. B. Using F1B mode to ensure proper reception. C. Using a ten-bit error detecting code. D. Using J2B mode for correct transmission. 26D5 DSC transmissions are received: A. Using voice or TELEX modes as appropriate. B. Using J3E or H3E modes as appropriate. C. Using digital decoding by the DSC controller. D. Using F1B and/or J2B decoding by the transceiver. 26D6 Properly formatted MF-HF DSC transmissions can request which of the following emissions for follow on communications? A. J3E/H3E telex emissions B. F1B/J2B voice emissions C. J3E/F3E voice emissions D. J3E/H3E voice emissions Answers: 26D1 - D 26D2 - A 26D3 - B 26D4 - C 26D5 - C 26D6 - D 27D1 Which of the following statements concerning DSC equipment is true? A. The GMDSS Radio Operator is not responsible for properly selecting HF DSC guard channels because they are done automatically by the watch receiver. B. All equipment must be type accepted by Inmarsat. C. The vessel's navigational position must be updated, either automatically or manually, no less often than every four (4) hours. D. The GMDSS Radio Operator is responsible for properly selecting VHF & MF DSC guard channels but the HF frequencies are done automatically by the watch receiver. 27D2 What is the action that a GMDSS Radio Operator should take when a DSC Distress alert is received requesting J3E? A. No action is necessary, as the DSC control unit will automatically switch to the SITOR (NBDP) follow-on communications frequency. B. The Operator should immediately set continuous watch on VHF channel 70. C. The Operator should immediately set continuous watch on the SITOR (NBDP) frequency that is associated with frequency band on which the Distress alert was received. D. The Operator should immediately set continuous watch on the radiotelephone frequency that is associated with frequency band on which the Distress alert was received. 27D3 What does the DSC control unit do if the GMDSS Radio Operator fails to insert updated information when initiating a DSC Distress alert? A. It will initiate the DSC Distress alert and default information will automatically be transmitted. B. It will abort the transmission and set off an audible alarm that must be manually reset. C. It will initiate the DSC Distress alert but, as no information will be transmitted, rescue personnel will not be able to identify the vessel, its position, or its situation. D. It will initiate the DSC Distress alert, but any station receiving it will have to establish contact with the distressed vessel to determine its identity, position, and situation. 27D4 A DSC Distress alert: A. Must always be sent on VHF Ch-70. B. Will always be sent on one or more of the DSC Distress frequencies. C. Must always be sent on MF 2 MHz plus one other HF DSC frequency. D. Must always be sent on VHF Ch-70, then 2 MHz MF then 8 MHz HF. 27D5 In all cases, the transmit frequency of a MF/HF console DSC Distress alert: A. Will always go out first on 2187.5 kHz to reach nearby vessels. B. Depends upon operator DSC Call set up entries or manufacturer’s defaults. C. Will go out on 8 MHz and 2 MHz and one other DSC Distress frequency. D. Will always go out first on 8414.5 kHz to ensure receipt by a coast station. 27D6 DSC relays of Distress alerts to a coast station: A. Should be done for all Distress alerts received aboard the ship. B. Should be transmitted to all ships involved in Distress traffic. C. Should be avoided; unless a DSC acknowledgement has not been heard. D. Are the best means to provide for a retransmission of Distress communications. Answers: 27D1 - C 27D2 - D 27D3 - A 27D4 - B 27D5 - B 27D6 - C 28D1 Which of the following is NOT a DSC watch frequency? A. 2187.5 kHz B. 2182.0 kHz C. 6312.0 kHz D. 12577.0 kHz 28D2 Which of the following channels and modes should be used when initiating a Distress alert transmission? A. Ch-6 DSC B. Ch-6 Radiotelephony C. Ch-70 DSC D. Ch-13 Radiotelephony and Ch-16 DSC 28D3 How many total frequencies are available for DSC Distress alerting? A. One B. Two C. Five D. Seven 28D4 Which of the following watches must a compulsory Sea Area A1 vessel maintain? A. A continuous DSC watch on Ch-70. B. A continuous DSC watch on 8414.5 kHz plus one other HF DSC frequency. C. A continuous DSC watch on 2187.5 kHz. D. A continuous DSC watch on Ch-16. 28D5 Which of the following are the MF/HF DSC Distress watch frequencies A. 2177.5, 4210.0, 6314.0, 8416.5 12579.0, 16806.5 B. 2182.0, 4125.0, 6215.0, 8291.0, 12290.0, 16420.0 C. 2174.5, 4177.5, 6268.0, 8376.5, 12520.0, 16695.0 D. 2187.5, 4207.5, 6312.0, 8414.5, 12577.0, 16804.5 28D6 How many HF DSC Distress watch channels must be guarded by a compulsory vessel underway. A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 6 Answers: 28D1 - B 28D2 - C 28D3 - D 28D4 - A 28D5 - D 28D6 - A 29E1 What is usually the first step for a GMDSS Radio Operator to take when initiating a Distress priority message via Inmarsat? A. By pressing a "Distress Button" or "Distress Hot Key(s)" on the equipment. B. By dialing the correct code on the telephone remote unit. C. By contacting the LES operator and announcing a Distress condition is in existence. D. By contacting the LES operator using the radiotelephone Distress procedure "Mayday"... etc. 29E2 Which of the following statements is true regarding Distress alerting under GMDSS? A. Ship to shore Distress alerts are used to alert other ships in port of navigational hazards. B. The Distress alert should identify the station in Distress and its position & time of position update. Also, the alert may include the nature of the Distress, the type of assistance required, or the course and speed of the mobile unit. C. Ship-to-ship Distress alerts are used to alert other ships in the vicinity of navigational hazards and bad weather. D. The vessel nearest to the emergency must notify the Coast Guard before leaving the vicinity. 29E3 If a GMDSS Radio Operator initiates a DSC Distress transmission but does not insert a message, what happens? A. The transmission is aborted and an alarm sounds to indicate this data must be provided by the operator. B. The transmission is not initiated and "ERROR" is indicated on the display readout. C. The transmission will be made with "default" information provided automatically. D. The receiving station will poll the DSC unit of the vessel in Distress to download the necessary information. 29E4 Repetition of a DSC Distress alert is normally automatic if not acknowledged after a delay of: A. 2 - 5 minutes B. 10-15 minutes C. 1 - 2 minutes D. 3.5 - 4.5 minutes 29E5 For a MF/HF DSC Distress alert which statement is FALSE? A. It always requests J3E Voice follow-on communications so other vessels can hear the Mayday. B. It will send the minimal necessary information using the "Distress Button" or "Distress Hot Key." C. It will send a more detailed Distress format if time permits and operator data entries are correctly performed. D. It does not contain all the information normally of interest in On-scene Distress communications. 29E6 Which statement regarding an MF/HF DSC Distress alert is true: A. Follow on communications should be presumed to take place on the SITOR (NBDP) frequency associated with the specific DSC frequency used. B. Follow on communications should be presumed to take place on the voice frequency associated with the specific DSC frequency used. C. An alternate emission and frequency may be specified for follow-up communications by the vessel in the original Distress alert. D. Both the nature of Distress and the alternate emission and frequency must be specified for follow-up communications in the original Distress alert. Answers: 29E1 - A 29E2 - B 29E3 - C 29E4 - D 29E5 - A 29E6 - B 30E1 If a VHF-DSC Distress alert is transmitted what channel is used for follow-on voice transmission? A. Ch-12 B. Ch-70 C. Ch-13 D. Ch-16 30E2 If a MF-DSC Distress alert is transmitted what frequency is used for follow-on voice transmission? A. 2182.0 kHz B. 2760.0 kHz C. 2187.5 kHz D. 2174.5 kHz 30E3 If a HF-DSC Distress alert is transmitted what frequency is used for follow-on voice transmission? A. 8376.5 kHz B. 8291.0 kHz C. 8401.5 kHz D. 8201.0 kHz 30E4 What is the proper format for a Distress follow on voice transmission? (3x is three times), A. All Ships 3x, this is Ship's Name/Call Sign 3x, MMSI, Ship's position, nature of distress and assistance requested. B. Mayday 3x, this is Ship's Name/Call Sign once, MMSI, Ship's position, nature of distress and assistance requested. C. Mayday 3x, this is Ship's Name/Call Sign 3x, MMSI, Ship's position, nature of distress and assistance requested. D. All Stations 3x, this is Ship's Name/Call Sign 3x, MMSI, Ship's position, nature of distress and assistance requested. 30E5 What information should be included in a Distress follow on voice transmission after a DSC Alert? A. Ship's Name and Call Sign, MMSI number, DSC frequency used and any other information that might facilitate rescue. B. Ship's position, Ship’s IMN, the nature of distress and assistance requested. C. Ship's Name and Call Sign, MMSI number & position, the nature of distress and assistance requested. D. Ship’s Name and Call sign, repeat IMN, provide any other information that might facilitate rescue. 30E6 What information is NOT vital in a Distress follow on voice transmission after a DSC Alert? A. Ship's position, nature of distress and assistance requested. B. Ship's Name, Call Sign and MMSI number. C. Physical description of the vessel and number of POB. D. Company emergency contact information. Answers: 30E1 - D 30E2 - A 30E3 - B 30E4 - C 30E5 - C 30E6 - D 31E1 Which statement is true regarding the receipt and acknowledgement of actual Distress follow-on communications by GMDSS ship stations? A. Ship stations in receipt of Distress alert should not defer acknowledgement for a short interval, so that receipt may be acknowledged by the coast station. B. A Coast station has the sole obligation to respond. A ship station should wait for the Coast station MMSI DSC Acknowledgment before taking action. If a Coast station has no response in 15 minutes the ship should DSC acknowledge and inform the RCC. C. A ship station that receives a Distress call from another vessel must, as soon as possible, inform the Master or person responsible for the ship of the contents of the Distress communications received. D. Alerts concerning navigational hazards are second only to Safety traffic. 31E2 What is meant by the acronym “EOS" in a DSC message? A. Error Of Sequence B. End Of Signals C. Equal Operating Signals D. End Of Sequence 31E3 What is the proper procedure to be followed upon receipt of a Distress alert transmitted by use of Digital Selective Calling techniques? A. Set watch on the radiotelephone Distress and Safety frequency associated with the Distress and Safety calling frequency on which the Distress alert was received. B. Set watch on the DSC alerting frequency in the band of frequencies the alert was received. C. Set a continuous watch on VHF-FM Channel 13, 16 and DSC on Channel 70. D. Ship stations equipped with narrow-band direct-printing equipment should respond to the Distress alert as soon as practicable by this means. 31E4 What is meant by the acronym “ECC" in a DSC message? A. Every Cipher Counted B. Error Check Character C. Error Cannot Confirm D. Even Characters Counted 31E5 What action should be taken on receipt of a DSC Distress alert? A. Read the display screen and/or printout, silence the alarm, always call the Master to confirm the alert is real. B. Silence the alarm, read the display screen and/or printout and listen for any follow-on transmissions. C. Listen for any follow-on voice/TELEX transmission on the appropriate DSC frequency. D. Silence the alarm, read the display screen and/or printout, only call the Master if the alert is within 500 NM. 31E6 What action should be taken if a Distress alert is received on the 12 MHz DSC frequency? A. Use DSC to acknowledge/relay the alert using the 12 MHz DSC frequency. B. Do nothing. Ship is too far away to render assistance. C. Set the transceiver to 12290.0 kHz simplex J3E emission. D. Set the transceiver to 12520.0 kHz simplex F1B/J2B emission. Answers: 31E1 - C 31E2 - D 31E3 - A 31E4 - B 31E5 - B 31E6 - C 32E1 Your ship received a Distress relay from a coast station on DSC frequency 2187.5 kHz. What action should the watch officer take? A. Retransmit the DSC call on 2187.5 kHz to other vessels in the vicinity to assist in SAR operations. B. Monitor 2182.0 kHz to determine if there are any genuine Distress communications. C. Transmit a voice “Mayday Relay” call on 2187.5 kHz to other vessels in the vicinity. D. Transmit a voice “Mayday Relay” call on 2182.0 kHz to other vessels in the vicinity. 32E2 Your ship received a Distress relay from a coast station on DSC VHF channel 70. What action should the watch officer take? A. Retransmit the DSC call on Ch-70 to other vessels in the vicinity. B. Monitor Ch-06 to determine if there are any genuine Distress communications. C. Monitor Ch-16 to determine if there are any genuine Distress communications. D. Transmit a voice “Mayday Relay” call on Ch-13. 32E3 Under what condition would you not relay a DSC Distress alert? A. If the mobile unit in Distress is incapable of further Distress alert communications. B. If no Coast Station/Mobile Unit acknowledgement of the alert is observed. C. No distress traffic has been heard and the DSC alert is unacknowledged via DSC. D. A coast station DSC acknowledgment of the original Distress alert was received by your vessel. 32E4 The relay of DSC Distress alerts: A. Can quickly overburden the GMDSS systems in the vicinity with improperly transmitted or inappropriately relayed DSC calls. B. Was not originally an intended function of the GMDSS system but now is the preferred method to notify an RCC. C. Remains the preferred method for passing Distress message traffic to an RCC or Coast Station. D. Should always be done immediately to ensure a Coast Station receives the DSC Distress Alert. 32E5 Transmission of a DSC Distress alert by a station on behalf of another vessel actually in Distress should NOT occur: A. When the mobile unit actually in Distress is not itself in a position to transmit the Distress alert. B. When the Master or responsible person on the mobile unit not in Distress so decides. C. When the responsible person at the Coast Station determines further help is necessary. D. When communications between the Distress vessel and a Coast station are already in progress. 32E6 DSC Relays of DSC Distress alerts received from other ships should be done? A. Only when the original DSC call is not acknowledged, and no follow-on Distress traffic has been heard. B. Only by Inmarsat-C TELEX with Distress priority conveying the follow-on Distress traffic that has been heard. C. Only by Inmarsat-FBB voice or TELEX with Distress priority if no follow-on Distress traffic has been heard. D. Preferably by MF/HF voice or TELEX directly to the RCC conveying the follow-on Distress traffic that has been heard. Answers: 32E1 - B 32E2 - C 32E3 - D 32E4 - A 32E5 - D 32E6 - A 33E1 What action should you take after sending a false or mistaken Distress alert on VHF? A. Make a voice announcement to cancel the alert on Ch-16. B. Send a DSC cancellation message on Ch-70. C. Make a voice announcement to cancel the alert on Ch-13. D. Make a voice announcement to cancel the alert on Ch-22A. 33E2 What action should you take after sending a false or mistaken Distress alert on MF? A. Make a voice announcement to cancel the alert on 2187.5 kHz. B. Make a voice announcement to cancel the alert on 2182.0 kHz. C. Make a voice announcement to cancel the alert on 2174.5 kHz. D. Send another DSC alert and follow on with voice on 2182.0 kHz. 33E3 What action should you take after sending a false or mistaken Distress alert on MF? A. Send another DSC alert on 2187.5 kHz. and follow on with voice on 2187.5 kHz. B. No action is necessary. C. Make a voice announcement to cancel the alert on 2182.0 kHz. D. Send a DSC alert on all 7 DSC frequencies and follow on voice on 2174.5 kHz. 33E4 What action should you take after sending a false or mistaken Distress alert on 8 MHz? A. Make an "ALL STATIONS” call on all 5 H.F. TELEX channels canceling the alert. B. Make a "MAYDAY" call on 8414.5 kHz canceling the alert. C. Make an "Urgency" call on 8614.0 kHz canceling the alert. D. Make an "ALL STATIONS" call on 8291.0 kHz canceling the alert. 33E5 What action should you take after sending a false or mistaken Distress alert on 12577.0 kHz? A. Make an "ALL STATIONS” call on the associated 12 MHz J3E frequency canceling the alert. B. No action is necessary. C. Make an "ALL STATIONS” call on all 5 H.F. TELEX frequencies canceling the alert. D. Send a message to the nearest RCC via Inmarsat canceling the alert. 33E6 What action should you take after sending a false or mistaken Distress alert on Inmarsat-C? A. Press the "Distress Hot Keys” then press the "cancel" key. B. Select "Transmit" or “SEND/REC” menu and send a cancellation message via the LES used for the Distress alert. C. Do nothing until the RCC contacts your vessel to determine if the Distress alert was genuine. D. Select the cancel false Distress alert option in the Distress Setup Menu and re-transmit the call. Answers: 33E1 - A 33E2 - B 33E3 - C 33E4 - D 33E5 - A 33E6 - B 34E1 What is the fundamental purpose for imposing radio silence? A. To ensure that interference to proprietary communications is minimized. B. To ensure that only voice communications can be effected on the Distress frequency or channel. C. To ensure that a Distressed vessel will have a "window" twice each hour for transmitting routine messages. D. To mitigate the risk of interference on a frequency or channel being used for emergency communications. 34E2 When can routine communications be resumed after radio silence has been imposed? A. Routine communications can resume after the Rescue Coordination Center transmits a message on the frequency or channel being used for emergency communications stating that such traffic has concluded. B. After determining that the frequency or channel appears to be no longer in use. C. After determining that geographic distance from the Distress situation will prohibit any other signal from interfering with emergency communications. D. If, in the master's opinion, communications on that frequency will interfere with emergency communications. 34E3 What is meant by the term "Seelonce Mayday”? A. Stations remaining off the air to safeguard proprietary information. B. Stations not directly involved with the on-going Distress communications may not transmit on the Distress frequency or channel. C. Two three-minute silent periods, at 15 and 45 minutes after the hour that provide a transmitting "window" for distressed vessels to transmit Distress alerts using J3E. D. Communications on a Distress frequency or channel is banned for 24 hours following the cessation of the Distress traffic. 34E4 How is "radio silence" imposed? A. By the Land Earth Station (LES) controlling the Distress communications on that frequency. B. By the nearest Public Correspondence Coast Station. C. By the On-scene Coordinator (OSC) or the RCC chosen by the SAR Mission Coordinator. D. By the vessel first responding to the Distress call. 34E5 How are normal working conditions restored on a SITOR (NBDP) frequency on which radio silence had been imposed? A. The LES that imposed the radio silence must transmit a SITOR (NBDP) message stating "SILENCE FINI". B. The Public Correspondence Station (PCS) that imposed the radio silence must transmit a narrow band direct printing message on the Distress frequency stating "SILENCE FINI". C. The RCC or Coast station that imposed the radio silence must transmit a SITOR (NBDP) message stating "SILENCE FINI". D. The High Seas Service (HSS) that imposed the radio silence must transmit a narrow band direct printing message on the Distress frequency stating "SILENCE FINI". 34E6 How are normal working conditions restored after radio silence has been imposed? A. All of these answers are correct. B. The Land Earth Station (LES) that imposed the radio silence must transmit a voice message on the Distress frequency stating "SILENCE FINI". C. The Public Correspondence Station (PCS) that imposed the radio silence must transmit a voice message on the Distress frequency stating "SILENCE FINI". D. The Rescue Coordination Center (RCC) that imposed the radio silence must transmit a voice message on the Distress frequency stating "SEELONCE FEENEE". Answers: 34E1 - D 34E2 - A 34E3 - B 34E4 - C 34E5 - C 34E6 - D 35E1 The Radiotelephone Urgency signal is: A. Mayday B. Securite C. Pan Pan D. Seelonce Feenee 35E2 Which of the following situations would normally use the Urgency priority? A. A crewmember falling over the side. B. A serious medical situation involving a crewmember with potential loss of life. C. An important meteorological warning concerning hazardous weather. D. A cargo shift or weather situation considered to be of greater hazard than would justify a Safety priority designation. 35E3 Which of the following situations would NOT properly use the Urgency priority? A. Abandoning the vessel just before sinking. B. Treatment of a crewmember breaking a leg in a cargo hold. C. Leaking oil from a minor tank fracture requiring a mandatory pollution report. D. An unexpected deviation in the forecast track line of a typhoon. 35E4 Which of the following situations would normally use the Urgency priority? A. A collision with the ship taking on water. B. A serious medical situation involving a crewmember. C. Important company communications related to an itinerary change. D. Scenarios concerning the Safety of navigation or important meteorological warnings. 35E5 The Urgency Priority should be used for: A. Messages concerning the Safety of Life At Sea (SOLAS). B. Messages containing information concerning the Safety of a mobile unit or person. C. Messages detailing important navigational warnings. D. Messages concerning On-scene communications. 35E6 If the Watch Officer hears "PAN PAN" spoken 3 times it means: A. A navigation or important meteorological warning should follow. B. The station is preparing to transmit a Safety message possibly concerning the safety of a mobile unit or person. C. None of these answers is correct. D. A mobile unit is in need of immediate assistance. Answers: 35E1 - C 35E2 - D 35E3 - A 35E4 - B 35E5 - B 35E6 - C 36E1 When the GMDSS Radio Operator on watch hears "Securite" spoken three times, he can expect to receive the following information: A. The safety of vessel or person is in jeopardy. B. A message concerning the Safety of navigation. C. A vessel is in need of immediate assistance. D. A Coast Station sending an important traffic list. 36E2 Which of the following situations would normally use the Voice designation "Securite"? A. Messages concerning the Safety of Life At Sea (SOLAS). B. Messages containing information concerning the Safety of a mobile unit or person. C. Messages detailing important navigational warnings. D. Messages concerning On-scene communications. 36E3 Which of the following situations would normally use the Safety priority? A. Treatment of a crewmember with a broken leg that is not life-threatening. B. Treatment of a crewmember with a serious cardiac emergency. C. A fire in the generator flat/spaces. D. Loss of 5 containers with lashing gear over the side. 36E4 Which of the following situations would normally use the Safety priority? A. Important navigational or meteorological warnings. B. A serious medical situation involving a crewmember. C. An unanticipated warning related to piracy or terrorism. D. Grounding in a way that could lead to imminent danger to the ship’s crew. 36E5 The Radiotelephone Safety signal is: A. "Safety Safety Safety" B. "Pan Pan" repeated 3 times C. "Securite Securite" repeated 3 times D. "Securite" repeated 3 times 36E6 Which of the following situations would normally use the Safety priority? A. A scenario concerning an important navigational or meteorological warning. B. A serious medical situation involving a crewmember. C. A crewmember falling over the side. D. Important company communications involving weather routing. Answers: 36E1 - B 36E2 - C 36E3 - D 36E4 - A 36E5 - D 36E6 - A 37E1 Which of the following frequencies and modes is allocated for Distress alerting in GMDSS? A. 406 MHz via EPIRB, 1626.5-1645.5 MHz via Inmarsat and Channel 70 DSC plus six (6) MF/HF DSC frequencies. B. 1626.5-1645.5 MHz via Inmarsat, VHF CH-16 plus six (6) MF/HF DSC frequencies, 406 MHz via EPIRB. C. Channel 70 DSC plus six (6) MF/HF DSC frequencies, 7 voice follow-on and 6 telex follow-on frequencies. D. Mayday on VHF Channel 70 and the other six voice follow-on frequencies. 37E2 Which of the following frequencies is designated for On-scene Distress and Safety communications? A. 4209.5 kHz B. 2174.5 kHz C. 518.0 kHz D. 490.0 kHz 37E3 Which channel is designated for GMDSS Digital Selective Calling? A. Ch-06 B. Ch-16 C. Ch-70 D. Ch-83 37E4 How many MF frequencies are available for DSC Distress related calls? A. Five B. Four C. Two D. One 37E5 How many HF frequencies are available for DSC Distress related calls? A. Five B. Four C. Two D. One 37E6 How many frequencies are available under GMDSS for DSC Distress-related calls? A. Six B. Seven C. Four D. Five Answers: 37E1 - A 37E2 - B 37E3 - C 37E4 - D 37E5 - A 37E6 - B 38E1 Which of the following steps should be taken, if possible, when the vessel must be abandoned because of a Distress situation? A. Alert the U.S. Coast Guard by using the survival craft's portable Inmarsat unit. B. Program the SART and EPIRB to transmit the vessel's location and situation. C. No additional steps are needed as the SART and EPIRB will both automatically float free and operate properly. D. Secure the EPIRB to the survival craft and mount the SART in a position to maximize its elevation. 38E2 Which action is the most appropriate action for a GMDSS radio Operator to take in a Distress situation where immediate help is needed, but the vessel is not sinking nor needs to be abandoned? A. Transmit Distress calls by HF/MF/VHF DSC or Inmarsat. B. Switch off EPIRB and SART manually. C. Notify the RCC (Rescue Coordination Center) through VHF FM on channel 13. D. Transmit Distress calls by activating the radiotelegraph automatic alarm signal. 38E3 DSC is used primarily to: A. Receive weather warnings, navigational notices and other Maritime Safety Information. B. Transmit and receive Distress, Urgency and Safety alerts and routine calls to and from other ships and coast radio stations. C. Provide routine communications with the ship owner. D. Report ship's position to search-and-rescue authorities via satellite. 38E4 GMDSS vessels equipped for Sea Areas A2, A3 or A4 must maintain a continuous DSC watch on 2187.5 kHz. A. Only in areas beyond Inmarsat coverage. B. Only outside of areas covered by VHF-DSC. C. At all times when underway. D. When directed to do so by a cognizant rescue authority. 38E5 Which statement is true regarding Distress communications under GMDSS? A. Distress communications by (SITOR) NBDP should be in the BFEC mode when in two-way communications with the Coast Guard or other coast radio stations. B. The Rescue Coordination Center may not appoint another station to coordinate Distress traffic relating to the incident. C. The Rescue Coordination Center (RCC) is responsible for controlling a search and rescue operation, will coordinate the Distress traffic relating to the incident and may appoint another station to manage the Distress traffic. D. Initial Distress communications by (SITOR) NBDP should be in the ARQ mode to broadcast them to the Coast Guard, other coast radio stations and other ship stations. 38E6 When operating in coastal waters (sea area A1), a GMDSS-equipped vessel must: A. Maintain a continuous DSC watch on 8514.5 kHz. B. Maintain a continuous aural watch on 2182.0 kHz. C. Maintain a continuous DSC watch on VHF channel 16. D. Maintain a continuous DSC watch on VHF channel 70. Answers: 38E1 - D 38E2 - A 38E3 - B 38E4 - C 38E5 - C 38E6 - D 39F1 What indication is given to the personnel in a survival craft of the approach of SAR craft? A. The Satellite EPIRB will change its strobe light pattern to indicate radar interrogation. B. The SART informs survivors when the SART switches to the "standby" mode. C. The SART may provide a visual or audible indication of interrogation by a 3-CM radar. D. The AIS SART will alarm to indicate that SAR craft with radars are getting close. 39F2 Which of the following would aid the detection of a SART's signal? A. The rescue personnel were monitoring the 3-CM radar and the SART was mounted improperly in the lifeboat. B. The SART was mounted improperly in the survival craft and rescue personnel were monitoring the 10-CM radar. C. The rescue personnel were monitoring the 10-CM radar and the SART was properly mounted in the lifeboat. D. The SART was properly mounted in the lifeboat and rescue personnel were monitoring the 3-CM radar. 39F3 How can a SART's detection and effective range be maximized? A. The SART should be held or mounted as high as possible and in a vertical position. B. The SART should be placed in water immediately so it will begin transmitting. C. Switch the SART into the "high" power position. D. If possible, the SART should be mounted horizontally so that its signal matches that of the searching radar signal. 39F4 Which statement is NOT true regarding the SART? A. Responds to interrogations by a vessel's X-Band radar and transmits a signal. B. This is a 6 GHz transponder capable of being received by a vessel's X-band navigational radar system. C. This is a 9 GHz transponder capable of being received by a vessel's X-band navigational radar system. D. Transmits a distinctive 12-blip signal for easy recognition. 39F5 At what point does a SART begin transmitting? A. It immediately begins radiating when placed in the "on" position. B. If it has been placed in the "on" position, it will respond when it has been interrogated by a 9-GHz radar signal. C. It must be manually activated or water activated before radiating. D. If it has been placed in the "on" position, it will begin transmitting immediately upon detecting that it is in water. 39F6 A SART's signal cannot be detected: A. In poor visibility, or at night. B. In heavy seas. C. By a search vessel's 10-CM Radar. D. By a search vessel's 3-CM Radar. Answers: 39F1 - C 39F2 - D 39F3 - A 39F4 - B 39F5 - B 39F6 - C 40F1 How does the searching vessel's radar interrogate a survival craft SART? A. Activate the IFF interrogation system. B. The SART responds automatically and transmits the 12-blip signal when it detects the search craft or other vessels' X-Band radar signal. C. Maintains watch on VHF-FM Ch-70 for the SART's unique identifier. D. The SART responds automatically when it detects the search craft or other vessel's 10-CM radar signal. 40F2 What radar display changes indicate the correct approach to a SART and what care should be taken in a SAR situation? A. The line of dots indicate the SART's position, the dots become increasing arcs as the distance to the SART lessens, rescuing vessels should increase speed to reach Distress more quickly. B. A line of dots on a radar screen rotates to indicate the SART's position along its line of bearing; rescuing vessels should steer for the center of the line of dots. C. The line of dots indicate the SART's position, the dots become increasing arcs as the distance to the SART lessens, rescuing vessels should reduce speed as the arcs get greater in degree. D. The line of dots indicate the SART's position, the dots become decreasing arcs as the distance to the SART lessens, rescuing vessels should reduce speed as the arcs lessen in degree. 40F3 How can rescue personnel detect that a SART is transmitting in the immediate vicinity? A. The DSC unit will react to the SART's signal and respond with the two-tone auto alarm. B. The SART can provide an approximate location to within a two nautical mile radius, per IMO standards. C. The SART signal appears as a target which comes and goes; the effect of heavy swells on a SART. D. The SART's dots on the PPI will become arcs and then eventually become concentric circles. 40F4 What signal is detected as originating from an AIS SART and how is the signal displayed? A. An AIS SART signal is shown on any AIS receiver as a special 970 MMSI coded symbol. B. The 3-CM radar reflections are converted to AIS signals and displayed on ECDIS/ARPA screens. C. An AIS SART transmits on AIS frequencies and the signals are converted to 3-CM radar targets for display on 3-CM radars. D. An AIS SART transmits on 9 GHz so that a 3-CM radar can display the signals. 40F5 How can vessel personnel detect the operation of a SART in its vicinity? A. A unique two-tone "warbling" signal heard on VHF-FM Ch-70. B. It will activate an AIS new signal alarm on the AIS receiver. C. The SART signal appears as a target that comes and goes--due to the effect of heavy swells on a SART. D. A unique 3-CM signal consisting of a 12-dot pattern radiating outward from a SART's position along its line of bearing. 40F6 What is not an advantage of an AIS SART signal when compared to a radar-based SART signal? A. The AIS SART can be detected much farther away than radar SART models. B. Not every AIS transmission needs to be received to achieve an accurate presentation of the location. C. The AIS SART position has GPS accuracy and transmits on AIS VHF frequencies. D. AIS SART units may be easier to find in poor radar target conditions. Answers: 40F1 - B 40F2 - C 40F3 - D 40F4 - A 40F5 - D 40F6 - A 41F1 Which of the following statements concerning testing and maintenance of SARTs is true? A. Testing a SART should be done in a consistent manner & location to ensure a baseline history of proper results. B. Testing of the SART should never be done in port to prevent interference to other vessel’s radars. C. A SART's battery must be replaced within ninety (90) days after the expiration date imprinted on the unit. D. An at-sea GMDSS maintainer is not able to test a SART because it is hermetically sealed. 41F2 Why is it important to limit the duration of testing a SART? A. Excessive testing causes "burn in" on the vessel's radar display. B. Testing in port or even at sea may cause interference to other radars or a test signal may be misinterpreted as a genuine Distress situation. C. To prevent overheating, a SART requires sufficient ventilation that is significantly reduced when the SART is being tested. D. If another SART is testing at the same time, the two signals will cause damage to the unit that transmitted them. 41F3 What statement is true regarding tests and maintenance that could be provided for the SART? A. Full verification within manufacturer's specifications by the on-board maintainer would be a requirement for all vessels in the A3 & A4 sea areas using measuring equipment to generate 9 GHz signals. B. Battery should be replaced within the 90 day grace period following the manufacturer's expiration date shown on the SART and the SART should only be tested at-sea to reduce interference to other vessels. C. Extreme care should be exercised because testing of the SART may be received by other vessels, may be interpreted as a Distress condition, or it may interfere with other vessels' safe navigation. D. Battery should be replaced with a new one before the manufacturer's expiration date shown on the SART and the SART should only be tested in port to reduce interference to other vessels. 41F4 Why should functional testing of a SART be minimized? A. Potential interference with safe navigation, notifying other vessels of an actual Distress and minimize power consumption. B. Minimize power consumption of the battery and only test at sea to reduce potential interference or confusion. C. Possibility of misinterpretation by other vessels as a Distress situation and only test in port to prevent potential interference with safe navigation or at-sea vessels. D. Potential interference with safe navigation, possible misinterpretation of an actual Distress, minimizes draining the battery. 41F5 Which is NOT a valid maintenance and testing function for a SART? A. Operational test with several vessels to determine effective transmitting range. B. Inspection of container for apparent damage. C. Inspect battery expiration date and the lanyard condition. D. Brief operational test utilizing own ship's radar. 41F6 The SART is required to have sufficient battery capacity to operate in the stand-by mode for what period of time? A. Three days B. Four days C. Eight hours D. Forty-eight hours Answers: 41F1 - A 41F2 - B 41F3 - C 41F4 - D 41F5 - A 41F6 - B 42F1 Which is not a function of a satellite under COSPAS-SARSAT using satellite EPIRBs? A. Relayed satellite message includes the EPIRB ID number which provides a reference for retrieval of vessel information from the shore database. B. Doppler shift of EPIRB signal is measured and the EPIRB’s position is calculated. C. Information received from EPIRBs is time-tagged and transmitted to any Local User Terminal in the satellite's view. D. After the EPIRB’s position is calculated using the Doppler shift COSPAS-SARSAT satellites provide follow-on SAR communications. 42F2 Which of the following satellite systems is of particular & dedicated importance to search and rescue missions under GMDSS? A. COSPAS/SARSAT B. Inmarsat C. GPS D. Iridium 42F3 Which of the following statements concerning COSPAS-SARSAT is FALSE? A. 406 MHz EPIRBs are units that are used as alerting devices. B. Doppler frequency measurements provide more precise locations than GPIRB signals. C. The Doppler frequency measurement concept is used to determine the EPIRB's location. D. Satellites in a low-earth polar orbit detect EPIRB beacons on 406 MHz and relay the information to a Local User Terminal (LUT). 42F4 Which of the following statements concerning COSPAS-SARSAT is FALSE? A. EPIRBs, ELTs, and PLBs use the system primarily for Distress alerting. B. These satellites monitor 406 MHz for EPIRB signals. C. After initiating a call request and selecting the LES, these satellites may be used for commercial messages. D. These satellites use Doppler shift measurement to determine the location of the beacons. 42F5 Which of the following statements concerning the EPIRB system is true? A. GOES weather satellites will provide alerting with complete worldwide coverage. B. COSPAS-SARSAT satellites always provides a distress alert and position report within 10 minutes of reception. C. 406 MHz EPIRBs equipped with GPS receivers will transmit a distress alert and position. D. The GPS satellite system will relay an alert and position report within 20 minutes of reception. 42F6 Which of the following statements concerning satellite EPIRBs is true? A. The coded EPIRB signal identifies the nature of the Distress situation. B. The coded EPIRB signal only identifies the vessel's name and port of registry. C. If the GMDSS Radio Operator does not program the EPIRB, it will transmit default information such as the follow-on communications frequency and mode. D. Once activated, these EPIRBs transmit a signal for use in identifying the vessel and for determining the position of the beacon. Answers: 42F1 - D 42F2 - A 42F3 - B 42F4 - C 42F5 - C 42F6 - D 43F1 What features may be found on GMDSS satellite EPIRB units? A. Strobe light, Distress homing transmission on 406 MHz, float-free release bracket. B. Emergency transmission on 406 MHz, hydrostatic release, AIS homing frequency. C. Float-free release bracket, strobe light & Distress alert transmission on 406 MHz. D. Hydrostatic release, Distress alert transmission on 121.5 MHz, strobe light. 43F2 What feature is not a component of a 406 MHz satellite EPIRB? A. 121.5 MHz emergency homing transmitter. B. Emergency transmission on 406.025 MHz. C. Float-free release bracket. D. Aural locator signal. 43F3 What statement is true regarding 406 MHz EPIRB transmissions? A. Transmits a unique hexadecimal identification number. B. Allows immediate voice communications with the RCC. C. Coding permits the SAR authorities to know if manually or automatically activated. D. GMDSS Radio Operator programs an I.D. into the SART immediately prior to activation. 43F4 Which of the following is normally part of 406 MHz satellite EPIRBs? A. A strobe light, automatic float-free bracket, 1-watt 406-MHz alert beacon. B. A 5-watt 406-MHz alert beacon, Automatic Hydrostatic Release (ARM), strobe light. C. Automatic float-free bracket, 5-watt 121.5 MHz homing beacon, strobe light. D. Automatic Hydrostatic Release (ARM), 1-watt 121.5 MHz alerting beacon, strobe light. 43F5 Which of the following statements concerning EPIRBs is FALSE? A. The COSPAS-SARSAT system may take a full hour or more to provide an alert. B. The Inmarsat system provides worldwide coverage for Distress alerts. C. The GOES weather satellites are in a geostationary orbit. D. 406 MHz EPIRB units may be equipped with GPS receivers. 43F6 Which of the following EPIRBs is most likely to be used to transmit a Distress alert signal? A. S-Band EPIRBs B. X-Band EPIRBs C. 406 MHz EPIRBs D. 121.5/243 MHz EPIRBs Answers: 43F1 - C 43F2 - D 43F3 - A 43F4 - B 43F5 - B 43F6 - C 44F1 Which of the following would best be used for visual detection of a distressed vessel? A. A 9-GHz SART's beacon. B. An EPIRB's strobe light. C. A 121.5-MHz EPIRB beacon. D. A 406-MHz EPIRB beacon. 44F2 Which piece of required GMDSS equipment is the primary source of transmitting locating signals? A. Radio Direction Finder (RDF). B. Survival Craft Transceiver. C. An EPIRB transmitting on 406 MHz. D. A SART transmitting on 406 MHz. 44F3 What may be used as a homing signal by the search and rescue vessels in the immediate vicinity of the ship in Distress? A. Flare gun B. Strobe Light C. 406 MHz signal from a satellite EPIRB. D. A 121.5 MHz signal in a satellite EPIRB. 44F4 What part of a satellite EPIRB may function as a visual aid to rescue vessels? A. Strobe light B. A 121.5 MHz emergency transmitter in a satellite EPIRB. C. 406 MHz signal from a satellite EPIRB. D. Loud beeping tone emitted by the unit, once activated. 44F5 What is an example of a locating signal? A. SSB phone traffic B. Ship to shore transmissions C. The 406 kHz EPIRB transmission D. An AIS EPIRB transmission 44F6 Which device provides the best method to locate a ship in Distress or survival craft in the GMDSS? A. Satellite EPIRBs B. Radio Direction Finder C. MF/HF DSC D. VHF homing device Answers: 44F1 - B 44F2 - C 44F3 - D 44F4 - A 44F5 - D 44F6 - A 45F1 With what other stations may portable survival craft transceivers NOT communicate? A. Communication between survival craft transceivers ashore and public coast stations. B. Communication between the ship and its survival craft. C. Communication between rescue units and survival craft. D. Communication between multiple survival craft and with aircraft. 45F2 Equipment for radiotelephony use in survival craft stations under GMDSS must have what capability? A. Operation on 457.525 MHz. B. Operation on Ch-16. C. Operation on 121.5 MHz. D. Operation on Ch-70. 45F3 Equipment for radiotelephony use in survival craft stations under GMDSS must have what characteristics? A. Permanently-affixed antenna, watertight, power 1W or 25W. B. Watertight, power a minimum of 1W, operation on CH-16, Ch-13 & Ch-70. C. Operation on Ch-16, watertight, permanently-affixed antenna. D. Operation on Ch-16, Ch-13 & Ch-70, power 1W, permanently-affixed antenna. 45F4 Which statement is NOT true regarding the requirements of survival craft portable two-way VHF radiotelephone equipment? A. Operation on Ch-16 B. Antenna must be permanently-affixed. C. Simplex (single frequency) voice communications only. D. Effective radiated power should be a minimum of 2.0 Watts. 45F5 Which statement is NOT true regarding the requirements of VHF Survival Craft Transceivers? A. Operation on Ch-13 is mandatory. B. Effective radiated power should be a minimum of 0.25 Watts. C. Simplex (single frequency) voice communications only. D. Operation on Ch-16 is mandatory. 45F6 Which statement is NOT true regarding the requirements of survival craft portable two-way VHF radiotelephone equipment? A. Watertight to a depth of 1 meter for 5 minutes. B. Operates simplex on Ch-70 and at least one other channel. C. Effective radiated power should be a minimum of 0.25 Watts. D. The antenna is fixed and non-removable. Answers: 45F1 - A 45F2 - B 45F3 - C 45F4 - D 45F5 - A 45F6 - B 46F1 Which of the following has been designated for “On-scene” communications in GMDSS? A. Ch-24 B. Ch-2182 C. Ch-70 D. Ch-16 46F2 Which of the following channels is designated as the VHF follow-on communications channel and is required in all portable survival craft equipment? A. Ch-16 B. Ch-6 C. Ch-13 D. Ch-70 46F3 Which of the following frequencies have been designated for “On-scene” communications in the Global Maritime Distress and Safety System? A. VHF Ch-22 B. VHF Ch-16 and SITOR (NBDP) on 2174.5 kHz. C. HF radiotelephone on 21.820 MHz. D. SITOR (NBDP) on 2177.0 kHz and VHF Ch-16. 46F4 Which of the following frequencies has NOT been designated for GMDSS “On-scene” or SAR communications? A. VHF Ch-16 B. MF radiotelephony on 2182.0 kHz C. SITOR (NBDP) on 2182.0 kHz D. HF radiotelephony on 4125.0 kHz 46F5 “On-scene" communications would best be represented by? A. Using Inmarsat-C "hot-key" function B. Sending DSC alert on VHF Ch-70 C. SITOR (NBDP) on 2174.5 kHz D. SITOR (NBDP) on 4125.0 kHz 46F6 For “On-scene” communications, vessels in Distress and SAR Aircraft should use? A. VHF Ch-70, 4125 kHz J3E, 5680 kHz J3E B. VHF Ch-70, 4125 kHz J2B, 5680 kHz J3E C. VHF Ch-16, 4125 kHz F1B, 3023 kHz J3E D. VHF Ch-16, 4125 kHz J3E, 3023 kHz J3E Answers: 46F1 - D 46F2 - A 46F3 - B 46F4 - C 46F5 - C 46F6 - D 47F1 Which action should the GMDSS radio operator take in a Distress situation when embarking in survival craft? A. EPIRB and SART switched on manually prior to embarking; remain aboard vessel in Distress. B. Notify RCC (Rescue Coordination Center) through VHF DSC in portable equipment. C. Switch on EPIRB and SART immediately and leave on. D. Communicate via Inmarsat-C from the survival craft. 47F2 Which of these would be vital to a GMDSS SAR situation in polar regions? A. GOES satellites to receive Distress Alerts and HF Voice for follow-on and SAR activity. B. GOES satellites to receive Distress Alerts and Inmarsat Voice for follow-on and SAR activity. C. Inmarsat satellites to receive Distress Alerts and HF Voice for follow-on and SAR activity. D. COSPAS/SARSAT satellites to receive Distress Alerts and HF Voice for follow-on and SAR activity. 47F3 Which statement is FALSE regarding the COSPAS-SARSAT system? A. The position of the EPRIB is always transmitted in the outgoing transmission (unless the unit is a GPIRB). B. Signals received by low altitude, near-polar orbiting satellites are relayed to a ground receiving station (LUT). C. Doppler shift is used to locate the position of the EPIRB. D. EPIRBs are satellite beacons used as alerting & homing devices. 47F4 Which statement is FALSE regarding the COSPAS-SARSAT system? A. EPIRBs are satellite beacons used as alerting/locating devices. B. May be used to transmit public correspondence. C. Locates Distress beacons transmitting on 406 MHz. D. Doppler shift is used to locate the beacons. 47F5 What information is transmitted by a 406 MHz EPIRB alert? A. Vessel position and nature of Distress. B. A unique Hexadecimal I.D. number. C. Vessel name and identification. D. Vessel MMSI number and position. 47F6 Which statement is FALSE regarding the COSPAS-SARSAT system and EPIRB operations? A. The EPIRB’s position is calculated by the satellite or LUT and later passed to the MCC. B. The EPIRB transmits a unique Hex I.D. and vessel position that may be passed to the RCC. C. The EPIRB’s position and Hex I.D. is passed instantaneously to the RCC. D. The EPIRB transmits a unique Hex I.D. that is passed to the RCC if it cannot be determined by the MCC to be inadvertent. Answers: 47F1 - C 47F2 - D 47F3 - A 47F4 - B 47F5 - B 47F6 - C 48F1 What actions should the GMDSS radio operator take prior to any potential Distress situation? A. Create a table or chart of all the DSC coast stations that might be used during the vessel’s itinerary. B. All of these answers are good operational practice and should be consistently done. C. Prepare a detailed Distress message file on both satellite & MF-HF SITOR (NBDP) equipment containing all information needed in a Distress so it will be available for last-minute editing. D. Ensure all LES choices are correct and then updated properly as the vessel transits different SAR jurisdictions. 48F2 What information should be contained in a detailed Distress message that was not transmitted by an initial Distress “hot-key” alert? A. Vessel position, course & speed and the nature of Distress. B. The distress vessel’s IMN and position at the time of alert. C. Vessel name & call sign, POB and all potential means to communicate with the vessel. D. Vessel name & call sign, distress vessel’s IMN & vessel position. 48F3 Which GMDSS equipment is best suited to simultaneous long-range communications with an RCC/coast station and OSC vessels or SAR aircraft? A. MF-HF SITOR (NBDP) transmitters using telex follow on frequencies. B. Inmarsat Signals routed via the RCC to the SAR vessels & aircraft under their control. C. VHF transmitters to reach SAR aircraft and OSC vessels as well as the RCC/coast station. D. MF-HF SSB transmitters using voice follow-on frequencies. 48F4 Which statement is NOT true regarding an Inmarsat Distress Alert? A. USCG coast stations will receive the alert and immediately notify the correct RCC. B. The operator selection of LES will determine which associated RCC will receive the alert. C. If the operator selects an invalid or inoperative LES code the NCS for that service will intercept the call and reroute the alert. D. If the LES choice is not updated properly the Distress Alert might be routed to a non-optimum RCC, introducing delays and confusion into the Distress situation. 48F5 What are the best resources for researching and planning equipment setups and updates prior to any potential Distress situation? A. NGA Pub. 117, ALRS Volume 5 or manufacturer’s equipment manuals. B. ALRS Volume 5, FCC Part 80 or ITU List of Coast stations. C. ITU List of Coast stations, IMO GMDSS handbook, FCC Part 80. D. ALRS Volume 5, NGA Pub, 117 or ITU List of Coast stations. 48F6 Which statement is true regarding Inmarsat “hot-key” Distress Alerts? A. The LES programmed by the watch officers into the Distress Alert Update menu determines which RCC will receive your initial Distress Alert. B. The vessel’s position is checked against the SAR jurisdictions and the proper LES updated as the vessel changes NAVAREAS. C. The GPS position updates the Distress Alert Update menu to the correct LES choice to ensure proper communications with an RCC. D. The Distress Alert defaults are set correctly by the manufacturer and then automatically updated. Answers: 48F1 - B 48F2 - C 48F3 - D 48F4 - A 48F5 - D 48F6 - A 49G1 Which of the following control selections may result in limited receiving range? A. Setting the squelch control to its maximum level. B. Setting the squelch control to its minimum level. C. The power switch is set to the "high" output position, resulting in receiver overloading. D. Setting the channel selection switch midway between channels 6 and 16. 49G2 At mid-day, what would be the best choice in attempting to communicate with a shore station 15 miles distant? A. 16 MHz band B. 156-164 MHz band C. 12 MHz band D. 22 MHz band 49G3 Which of the following factors does not normally affect the range of VHF transmissions? A. Salt water ingress into the antenna coaxial cable. B. Power level setting. C. Ionospheric refraction. D. Vessel antenna height. 49G4 Much longer than normal VHF communications distances are typically caused by: A. Changing power from 1W to 25 W. B. Skywave reflections from the D layer. C. Ionospheric activity in layers F1/F2. D. Atmospheric ducting or tropospheric propagation. 49G5 Describing VHF transmissions as "line of sight" does NOT mean: A. VHF communications are effective only with nearby stations within visual range of the bridge. B. Vessel antenna height will not affect the radius of propagation. C. The normal transmission range to a coast station is approximately is 10 NM. D. Coast station antenna height has no effect on the radius of transmission. 49G6 The effectiveness of VHF communications is maximized by: A. The adjustment of squelch for maximum receiver sensitivity, setting transmitter power to 1W & selecting an appropriate channel. B. Appropriate setting of the transmitter power, selecting an appropriate channel & adjustment of squelch for maximum receiver sensitivity. C. Selecting an appropriate channel, adjustment of squelch for minimum receiver sensitivity & setting transmitter power to 1W. D. Selecting an appropriate channel, adjustment of squelch for minimum receiver sensitivity, setting transmitter power to 25W. Answers: 49G1 - A 49G2 - B 49G3 - C 49G4 - D 49G5 - A 49G6 - B 50G1 A VHF frequency channel pair of TX 157.200 MHz and RX 161.800 MHz would most likely be: A. A VTS frequency for VTS – Ship communications. B. A simplex Public Correspondence Coast Radio Station frequency. C. A simplex Private Coast Radio Station frequency. D. A duplex Public Correspondence Coast Radio Station frequency. 50G2 Which channel is utilized for the required Bridge-to-Bridge watch? A. VHF-FM on Ch-13 in most areas of the continental United States. B. DSC on Ch-70 C. VHF-FM on Ch-16 D. The vessel's VHF working frequency. 50G3 While conducting routine communications using the wheelhouse VHF with a station 1 mile distant, your recommended power setting would be: A. 25 watts after dark. B. 1 watt, day or night. C. 25 watts during a clear sunny day. D. 1 watt using DSC at night. 50G4 The USA-INT control on VHF units: A. Selects duplex operations for U.S. coastal waters and simplex operations in non-U.S. waters, on the "alpha" channels. B. Ensures that the “alpha” channels are correctly set to duplex for use in U.S. waters & on VTS channels. C. Changes selected international duplex channels to simplex channels for use in U.S. waters, on the "alpha" channels. D. Changes selected international simplex channels to duplex channels for use in U.S. waters, on the "alpha" channels. 50G5 The USA-INT control on VHF units: A. Was made necessary by a desire for more duplex channels in the U.S. B. Correctly set, will result in duplex operations in U.S. Coastal waters on the "alpha" channels. C. Correctly set, will result in simplex operations in U.S. Coastal waters on the "alpha" channels. D. Was made necessary by a desire to convert simplex international channels to duplex channels in the U.S. 50G6 Proper and legal VHF operations require all of these EXCEPT? A. The channel must be designated as valid for the nature or type of communications desired. B. Simplex, duplex and alpha channel modes must be correctly selected. C. The power level must be appropriately chosen by the operator. D. The correct bandwidth must be selected by the operator. Answers: 50G1 - D 50G2 - A 50G3 - B 50G4 - C 50G5 - C 50G6 – D 51H1 How is mutual interference on 518 kHz among NAVTEX stations avoided? A. All stations transmit at the same time but stations are limited to daytime operation only to reduce the radius of propagation. B. Transmitter power is limited, station assignment codes are not shared by other NAVAREAS and stations alternate between daytime and nighttime operations. C. Transmissions scheduled on a time-sharing basis, power is limited and station assignment codes are geographically separated. D. Station codes are not shared by other NAVAREAS, transmissions scheduled on a time-sharing basis and power is limited. 51H2 When do NAVTEX broadcasts typically achieve maximum transmitting range? A. Local noontime B. Afternoon C. Sunset D. Middle of the night 51H3 What should a GMDSS Radio Operator do if a NAVTEX warning message is received but it contains too many errors to be usable? A. Do nothing. Vital NAVTEX messages will be repeated on the next scheduled broadcast. B. Contact the NAVAREA coordinator and request a repeat broadcast. C. Initiate a request for Category A, B, L and D messages. D. Listen to appropriate VHF weather channel for repeat warnings. 51H4 Which of these cannot happen when a paper model NAVTEX receiver runs out of paper? A. The unit is unable to print messages and all subsequent MSI broadcasts may be missed until the paper is replaced. B. The system will automatically change from receiving MSI by NAVTEX to receiving it by SafetyNETTM so that no messages will be lost. C. It may give off either an audible and/or visual alarm. D. MSI messages may be missed because the unit cannot print them out. 51H5 Which of the following is the primary frequency that is used exclusively for NAVTEX broadcasts internationally? A. 2187.5 kHz B. 518 kHz C. 4209.5 kHz D. VHF channel 16 when the vessel is sailing in Sea Area A1, and 2187.5 kHz when in Sea Area A2. 51H6 What is the transmitting range of most NAVTEX stations? A. Typically 50-100 nautical miles (90-180 km) from shore. B. Typically upwards of 1000 nautical miles (1800 km) during the daytime. C. Typically 200-400 nautical miles (360-720 km). D. It is limited to line-of-sight or about 30 nautical miles (54 km). Answers: 51H1 - C 51H2 - D 51H3 - A 51H4 - B 51H5 - B 51H6 - C 52H1 How is a NAVTEX receiver programmed to reject certain messages? A. The transmitting station's two-digit identification can be entered to de-select reception of its broadcasts. B. By choosing a message category's single letter (A-Z) identifier and then deselecting or deactivating. C. By entering the SELCAL of the NAVTEX transmitting station. D. By pressing "00" in the transmitter's ID block. 52H2 How can reception of certain NAVTEX broadcasts be prevented? A. Stations are limited to daytime operation only. B. Coordinating reception with published broadcast schedules. C. The receiver can be programmed to reject certain stations and message categories. D. Automatic receiver desensitization during night hours. 52H3 Which of the following statements is true? A. No NAVTEX receiver can be programmed to reject category A, B, D and L messages since they are mandatory to be received via NAVTEX. B. Upon entering a new NAVTEX station's broadcast range, the GMDSS Radio Operator enters the station's SELCAL number. C. The GMDSS Radio Operator can select the "None" option in the message category menu. D. A GMDSS Radio Operator may choose to program certain NAVTEX receivers to reject category A, B, D and L messages if they are being received by another MSI system. 52H4 What means are used to prevent the reception of unwanted broadcasts by vessels utilizing the NAVTEX system? A. Programming the receiver to reject certain stations and message categories. B. Operating the receiver only during daytime hours. C. Coordinating reception with published broadcast schedules. D. Automatic receiver de-sensitization during night hours. 52H5 What statement is true regarding the control the operator can exercise over the NAVTEX receiver's operation? A. The operator can set the unit to automatically reject any and all categories of messages if the ship desires to not receive them. B. Upon entering a coastal area for the first time, the operator enters code KK to indicate "ready to receive NAVTEX". C. To reduce the number of messages, the operator can select code 00 to indicate "not in coastal passage". D. The operator can set most units to reject all messages except navigation, meteorological warnings, and search and rescue messages. If the unit will reject such messages it may be unsafe to do so. 52H6 Which messages are mandatory to be received and should not typically be rejected or disabled by the operator of a NAVTEX receiver? A. Navigational warnings, meteorological warnings, SAR information. B. Meteorological warnings, SAR information, Pilot Service Messages. C. Meteorological warnings, meteorological forecasts, navigational warnings. D. SAR information, navigational warnings, ice reports. Answers: 52H1 - B 52H2 - C 52H3 - D 52H4 - A 52H5 - D 52H6 - A 53H1 The NAVTEX message header contains the following? A. The first letter (from A to Z) indicates the NAVTEX transmitting station. B. A two-digit number (01-99) indicates the NAVTEX message category. C. Message numbers include a date/time group, along with the transmitting station's numerical ID. D. None of these answers is correct. 53H2 If the Inmarsat-C terminal is inoperative but the vessel remains within NAVTEX coverage -- which of the following message categories should not be disabled by the GMDSS Radio Operator? A. Navigational warnings, meteorological warnings and metrological forecasts. B. Meteorological warnings, Search and Rescue information and Navigational warnings. C. Search and Rescue information, navigational warnings and other electronic navaid messages. D. Search and Rescue information, Meteorological warnings and ice reports. 53H3 How are NAVTEX broadcasts transmitted? A. NAVTEX is transmitted by commercial coast radio stations following their traffic lists. B. NAVTEX is transmitted only when an Urgency or Distress broadcast is warranted. C. Using FEC techniques. D. No more often than every two hours and should immediately follow the radiotelephone silent periods. 53H4 What determines whether a NAVTEX receiver prints a particular type of message content from a programmed NAVTEX station? A. The serial number and type of message have already been received but additional printouts are generated to ensure receipt aboard the vessel. B. The subject indicator has been programmed for rejection by the operator but the message contains a priority override print command. C. The transmitting station ID covering your area has been programmed for rejection by the operator or has not been previously received. D. The serial number and type of message has not been previously received or the subject indicator has not been programmed for rejection. 53H5 Which information determines if a NAVTEX message is to be rejected? A. The second letter (from A to Z) in the header indicating the type of message. B. Transmitter identity (numerals from 1 to 26 identifying transmitting station within the NAVAREA). C. The Answerback of the receiving station has not been entered in the NAVTEX receiver. D. Only messages having a serial number 00 are rejected. 53H6 NAVTEX broadcasts are sent: A. Immediately following traffic lists. B. In categories of messages indicated by a single letter or identifier. C. On request of maritime mobile stations. D. Regularly, after the radiotelephone silent periods. Answers: 53H1 - A 53H2 - B 53H3 - C 53H4 - D 53H5 - A 53H6 - B 54H1 Where NAVTEX cannot be feasibly established, what system can be implemented to provide an automated service in coastal waters to receive MSI? A. AMVER B. VHF DSC C. ARQ SITOR (NBDP) D. SafetyNETTM 54H2 What action should a GMDSS Radio Operator take when SafetyNETTM Distress or Urgency messages are received by the vessel's EGC receiver? A. Aural and/or visual alarms are activated and require manual deactivation. B. No immediate action is required, as an audible tone will be generated at the beginning and end of the transmission and a paper printout of the message will be generated. C. No immediate action is required by the operator, since the transmission will be automatically acknowledged by the receiving vessel. D. A periodic alarm tone will be heard until the radio operator prints the message from the unit's memory. 54H3 What system can provide an automated service in coastal waters where it may not be feasible to establish the NAVTEX service or where shipping density is too low to warrant its implementation? A. AMVER B. SafetyNETTM C. VHF DSC D. ARQ SITOR (NBDP) 54H4 Aboard ship, SafetyNETTM messages can be received by which equipment/methods? A. VHF DSC on the weather channels. B. NAVTEX Receiver on 518 kHz or the Tropical Navtex frequency. C. EGC receiver of the vessel's Inmarsat-C SES. D. HF SITOR (NBDP) MSI frequencies. 54H5 SafetyNETTM messages can be received by which of the following shipboard equipment? A. NAVTEX B. MF and HF SITOR (NBDP) C. Inmarsat-C EGC receiver D. Inmarsat F77 EGC receiver 54H6 Maritime Safety Information is promulgated via satellite through which system? A. AMVER B. NAVTEX C. Inmarsat-M SES D. SafetyNETTM Answers: 54H1 - D 54H2 - A 54H3 - B 54H4 - C 54H5 - C 54H6 - D 55H1 SafetyNETTM promulgates what type of information? A. Traffic Lists B. News advisories C. MSI D. MARAD 55H2 What kind(s) of broadcasts are not available through SafetyNETTM? A. MSI and messages to specific geographic areas. B. Storm warnings C. Distress and Urgency bulletins D. Vessel traffic lists 55H3 Which satellite system promulgates Maritime Safety Information? A. Inmarsat-C SafetyNETTM B. AMVER C. NAVTEX D. Inmarsat-M SES 55H4 What information is promulgated by the international SafetyNETTM? A. Traffic Lists B. MSI C. Priority Messages D. MARAD 55H5 To receive all mandatory MSI using the SafetyNETTM system the vessel must: A. Notify the NAVAREA coordinator you are using SafetyNETTM for the receipt of MSI (Maritime Safety Information). B. Log-in and ensure the position is accurate to receive MSI for the NAVAREA the vessel is currently within. C. Set the receiver to your destination Inmarsat Ocean Region. D. Notify the NAVAREA coordinator you are using SafetyNETTM for the receipt of MSI (Maritime Safety Information) and set the receiver to your destination Ocean Region. 55H6 In using SafetyNETTM for the receipt of MSI (Maritime Safety Information): A. Only unscheduled Urgency and Distress messages will be received if the Inmarsat-C SES is not logged in. B. Both scheduled MSI and unscheduled Urgency and Distress messages will be received if the Inmarsat-C SES is logged in. C. All of these answers are correct. D. The Inmarsat-C SES must have Enhanced Group Calling (EGC) capability to receive MSI. Answers: 55H1 - C 55H2 - D 55H3 - A 55H4 - B 55H5 - B 55H6 - C 56H1 Over what system are Enhanced Group Calls transmitted? A. COSPAS satellite B. Inmarsat satellite C. HF SITOR (NBDP) shore stations D. NAVTEX shore stations 56H2 How is a MSI (Maritime Safety Information) broadcast received by an Inmarsat-C SES that is engaged in communications? A. The broadcast message is missed and the Radio Operator must request a retransmission. B. The broadcast message is stored in the EGC memory and will automatically be printed at the conclusion of the ongoing traffic. C. There is no loss of information since broadcasts of "vital" messages will be repeated. D. The radio operator can request retransmission of messages missing from numeric serial number succession. 56H3 Which of the following provides a unique automated system capable of addressing messages to predetermined groups of ships or all vessels in both fixed and variable geographic areas? A. NAVTEX B. AFRTS C. NAVAREAs D. EGC 56H4 What system may be useful for messages, such as local storm warnings or a shore-to-ship Distress alert, for which it is inappropriate to alert all ships in the satellite coverage area? A. EGC B. NAVTEX C. AMVER D. DSC 56H5 What services are available through Enhanced Group Calls? A. Maritime Safety Information and vessel traffic lists. B. Hourly NOAA weather broadcasts from the NWS. C. Coastal weather broadcasts. D. Maritime Safety Information and messages to pre-defined groups of subscribers. 56H6 What messages originate from registered information providers anywhere in the world and are broadcast to the appropriate ocean region via a LES? A. SafetyNETTM messages B. AMVER broadcasts C. Urgency messages D. NAVTEX broadcasts Answers: 56H1 - B 56H2 - C 56H3 - D 56H4 - A 56H5 - D 56H6 - A 57H1 Which HF SITOR (NBDP) mode would be selected to receive MSI broadcasts from high seas shore stations? A. FEC B. AM C. RTTY D. ARQ 57H2 The U.S. Coast Guard communications station providing HF MSI broadcast coverage for NAVAREA IV is: A. NOJ (Kodiak) B. NMF (Boston) C. NMC (San Francisco) D. NMO (Honolulu) 57H3 The U.S. Coast Guard communications station providing HF MSI (Maritime Safety Information) broadcast coverage for NAVAREA XII is: A. NMA (Miami) B. NMF (Boston) C. NMO (Honolulu) D. NMR (San Juan) 57H4 Frequencies for receiving HF MSI (Maritime Safety Information) are: A. The same as used for NAVTEX B. The same as used for contact a Coast Radio Station using FEC C. Specified HF voice frequencies D. Specified HF SITOR (NBDP) frequencies 57H5 Which frequency/mode is authorized for use internationally for Maritime Safety Information transmissions? A. 4209.5 kHz using FEC mode B. 4209.5 kHz using ARQ mode C. 4125.0 kHz using simplex mode D. 4125.0 kHz using FEC mode 57H6 How many frequencies are assigned specifically for HF MSI broadcasts? A. 6 B. 8 C. 5 D. 7 Answers: 57H1 - A 57H2 - B 57H3 - C 57H4 - D 57H5 - A 57H6 - B 58H1 Which NAVAREA is associated with the western North Atlantic and the Caribbean Sea? A. NAVAREA X B. NAVAREA XI C. NAVAREA XII D. NAVAREA IV 58H2 Which sequence is associated with the 5 new Arctic Ocean NAVAREAs? A. NAVAREA XVIII, NAVAREA XX, NAVAREA XXI B. NAVAREA III, NAVAREA VII, NAVAREA XV C. NAVAREA IV, NAVAREA XII, NAVAREA X D. NAVAREA XII, NAVAREA X, NAVAREA XI 58H3 NAVAREAs referred to in NAVTEX are the same as used in: A. GMDSS sea areas B. Inmarsat SafetyNETTM C. International Vessel Traffic Service D. Inmarsat ocean regions 58H4 A vessel operating in the Western Atlantic or along the East coast of North America and Central America from Canada to Venezuela, including the Caribbean and Panama, would be located in which NAVAREA? A. X B. XI C. IV D. XIII 58H5 A vessel operating in the Eastern Pacific or along the West coast of North and Central America from Alaska to Ecuador, including Panama and Hawaii, would be operating in which NAVAREA? A. X B. XI C. XII D. IV 58H6 A vessel on a voyage between Miami and Los Angeles via the Panama Canal would be operating in which NAVAREAS? A. II and III B. IV and V C. V and VI D. IV and XII Answers: 58H1 - D 58H2 - A 58H3 - B 58H4 - C 58H5 - C 58H6 - D 59I1 Which of the following actions should be taken once the vessel is berthed and will not leave port again for several weeks? A. The GMDSS Radio Operator must notify the NCS that the vessel will be off-line, and wait for the NCS to acknowledge with a confirmation number that must be logged. B. The Inmarsat-C system can be powered down without taking additional steps once the GMDSS Radio Operator has ensured that all incoming SafetyNETTM messages have been received and stored. C. The GMDSS Radio Operator may log out of the Inmarsat-C system and turn the power off (unless the vessel decides to leave the unit on during the port stay.) D. The GMDSS Radio Operator must transmit an all-ships alert, to notify vessels within the satellite's footprint that the vessel will be off-line. 59I2 What action should always be taken before powering down an Inmarsat-C terminal or leaving one satellite footprint for another? A. An Inmarsat-C system must never be powered down or mandatory MSI messages will be lost. B. Send a message to the NCS advising arrival in port or request the NCS log your terminal in with the new satellite. C. No action is required –- the terminal will automatically log in with the new satellite when the NCS common channel is detected or after power up. D. Log out with the current NCS to inform them you are off the air or to enable a proper log in procedure with the new satellite. 59I3 With most Inmarsat-C systems what should the indicator lamps do when powering up? A. All lamps should illuminate in a particular sequence, as per the operator’s manual. B. The power on lamp should illuminate. Other lights remain off until a message is received. C. All lamps should light and stay illuminated. D. All lamps should light except the RED light. 59I4 What is the importance of a successful log in indication, after power-up, on an Inmarsat-C terminal? A. The antenna Azimuth and Elevation controls are correctly adjusted. B. The terminal is enabled for routine incoming and outbound traffic. C. The receiver gain is properly adjusted for maximum signal. D. Unscheduled EGC MSI messages can no longer be received. 59I5 On an Inmarsat-C system, what is the importance of a successful “SYNC” indication after power up? A. The system is not yet locked on to the NCS signal until a log-in command is performed. B. Sufficient signal strength on the NCS common channel is being received. C. There is company telex traffic being received on the NCS common channel. D. The NCS has confirmed log-in status is on so routine traffic can be sent and received. 59I6 On an Inmarsat-C system an incoming EGC alarm sounds: A. When first powered on and when receiving Distress traffic. B. When receiving Distress traffic and all of the BALD MSI messages. C. To draw the operator’s attention to an unscheduled Distress or Urgency message. D. To indicate the loss of NCS CC sync -- preventing the reception of unscheduled EGC messages. Answers: 59I1 - C 59I2 - D 59I3 - A 59I4 - B 59I5 - B 59I6 - C 60I1 Which satellite(s) would most likely be selected for use when the vessel is operating off the eastern shore of the United States? A. IOR B. AOR-W C. POR D. Either AOR-W or IOR will work. 60I2 Which satellite should be chosen when the vessel is operating between Japan and the Bering Sea? A. AOR-W B. IOR C. POR D. AOR-E 60I3 Which longitude corresponds to the AOR-W satellite for Inmarsat-C communications? A. 25.0 E B. 143.5 E C. 54.0 W D. 98.0 W 60I4 Which longitude corresponds to the AOR-E satellite for Inmarsat-C communications? A. 54.0 W B. 25.0 E C. 143.5 E D. 98.0 W 60I5 Which longitude corresponds to the POR's satellite location for Inmarsat-C communications? A. 25.0 E B. 54.0 W C. 98.0 W D. 143.5 E 60I6 Which longitude corresponds to the IOR's satellite location for Inmarsat-C communications? A. 25.0 E B. 143.5 E C. 54.0 W D. 98.0 W Answers: 60I1 - B 60I2 - C 60I3 - D 60I4 - A 60I5 - D 60I6 - A 61I1 Which action must be taken to ensure that incoming message traffic of all priority levels will be received through Inmarsat-C? A. The GMDSS Radio Operator must log-in to the desired satellite (if the unit did not automatically do so.) B. No additional action is necessary after turning on the receiver and aiming the antenna at the desired satellite. C. The system needs only to be commissioned and turned on. D. The GMDSS Radio Operator must log-in to the desired satellite and receive the message reference number (MRN) from the LES. 61I2 When logging into the Inmarsat system using Inmarsat-C, it is necessary to: A. Enter your IMN when requested by the NCS. B. Select the Ocean Region or select the NCS. C. Enter the LES answer back when requested by the LES. D. Call the LES and inform them that you are now operating in the appropriate ocean region. 61I3 What action should be taken on changing from one Inmarsat-C ocean region to another? A. Power the system down and turn the power back on again. B. Manually realign the antenna. C. Log out of the current satellite and log in to the correct satellite. D. No action is required -- the unit will scan for another satellite and log in. 61I4 What is the primary danger of an Inmarsat-C terminal if it is not properly logged out? A. The vessel will be barred in the future from sending traffic through an LES. B. The NCS ensures that improper log-out procedures do not occur. C. Scheduled MSI may not be available through the Inmarsat-C terminal. D. Your company or another ship may accrue significant charges when their traffic is repetitively sent to your unavailable terminal. 61I5 Which of these can take place on an Inmarsat-C terminal that has synch with the NCS CC but has not yet performed a successful login? A. Reception of unscheduled MSI Urgency and Distress messages. B. Transmission of synoptic weather reports and company traffic. C. Reception of the mandatory scheduled BALD MSI messages. D. Reception of company traffic related to ship’s business. 61I6 Which of the following is NOT an example of a failure to log-out properly? A. Turning off the power prior to logging out with the NCS. B. A message on the screen or printer from the NCS. C. Sailing the vessel into a shadowing or local RF interference situation before logging out. D. Sailing out of the footprint of a satellite before logging out. Answers: 61I1 - A 61I2 - B 61I3 - C 61I4 - D 61I5 - A 61I6 - B 62I1 What is the primary function of an NCS? A. To provide direct communications between the Inmarsat station placing a call and the station receiving the call. B. To provide multi-mode communications between the Inmarsat station placing a call and the coast radio station that will deliver it. C. To determine which satellite is best suited to provide communications between the Inmarsat station placing a call and the station receiving the call. D. To monitor and control communications through the Inmarsat satellite for which it is responsible. 62I2 What is the primary function of a LES? A. To provide direct communications between the Inmarsat station placing a call and the station receiving the call. B. To monitor and control communications through the Inmarsat satellite for which it is responsible. C. To provide multi-mode communications between the Inmarsat station placing a call and the coast radio station that will deliver it. D. To determine which satellite is best suited to provide communications between the Inmarsat station placing a call and the station receiving the call. 62I3 Messages are transmitted by an Inmarsat LES according to what criteria? A. First In, First Out B. Priority C. Last In, First Out D. Serial Number 62I4 How is maximum communications coverage provided by satellites in the Inmarsat maritime satellite service? A. Four satellites in polar orbit to provide worldwide coverage. B. Four satellites in geo-stationary orbit for each Inmarsat Service (C and FBB). C. Four satellites in geo-stationary orbit approximately 22,184 miles above the equator. D. Through coordinated use of COSPAS-SARSAT satellites. 62I5 What factors bear on the choice of NCS on an Inmarsat terminal? A. NAVAREA weather patterns, shore-ship routine communications, signal strength. B. Best email provider, preventing interference in port, Distress SAR choices. C. Signal strength, Distress SAR choices, choice of MSI NAVAREAS. D. Minimize overlapping footprint coverage, reduce ship-ship message costs, receive BALD warnings. 62I6 What is the purpose of a CODEC? A. Noise and echo-canceling used in TELEX operation. B. To enable Distress communications. C. To enable data communications. D. To convert analog voice signals to digital transmissions. Answers: 62I1 - D 62I2 - A 62I3 - B 62I4 - C 62I5 - C 62I6 - D 63I1 Iridium satellites are in what sort of orbits? A. 4 satellites in near polar orbit to provide true global coverage. B. 66 satellites in geo-stationary orbit to provide true global coverage. C. 66 satellites in near polar orbit to provide true global coverage. D. 6 geo-stationary satellites providing coverage between 70N & 70S degrees latitude. 63I2 How are Iridium antennas tracking the satellites? A. They are flat-panel arrays that must be oriented to the satellites in their near-polar orbit. B. They are directional dish antennas that must track the satellites as they pass overhead. C. They are omni-directional dish antennas that locate the satellites as they pass overhead. D. They are omni-directional antennas that receive signal as various satellites pass overhead. 63I3 The Iridium terminal typically displays what status indicators? A. Power, GPS, signal strength, data and handset port conditions. B. Power, GPS, signal strength and satellite tracking azimuth and elevation. C. GPS satellites overhead, conditions of data and handset ports and data throughput. D. Geo-stationary satellite status, signal strength and data and handset port conditions. 63I4 How are Iridium calls routed through the satellite system? A. The satellites store the calls and forwards them to ground stations when they are in view. B. The satellites are in view of one another and traffic can swiftly be passed to a ground station. C. The satellites are geo-stationary and route the traffic immediately to the ground stations. D. The satellites in polar orbits pass traffic to geo-stationary satellites and then to ground stations. 63I5 Which of the following statements concerning Iridium satellites is true? A. They are in a geo-stationary orbit, in order to provide true global coverage. B. They provide coverage to vessels in all of the world's navigable waters including polar regions. C. They are in an equatorial orbit, in order to provide true global coverage. D. Vessels sailing in equatorial waters are able to use only one satellite, whereas other vessels are able to choose between at least two satellites. 63I6 What is the primary purpose of an Iridium LES? A. The LES is required for ship-ship Inmarsat communications, ship-shore communications are handled by terrestrial Coast Radio Stations. B. The LES monitors all operations of the satellite and assigns channels and frequencies to the vessel. C. The LES makes the satellite connection between the vessel and the requested shore destination. D. The LES is dedicated only to processing all vessel Distress priority calls. Answers: 63I1 - C 63I2 - D 63I3 - A 63I4 - B 63I5 - B 63I6 - C 64I1 How is a signal radiated from an Inmarsat-FBB system's antenna? A. It is usually radiated in an omni-directional pattern, but an optional feature allows it to be directional for use when the vessel is on the fringe of the satellite's footprint. B. It is a highly focused directional signal that must be beamed at the desired satellite. C. It is radiated in an omni-directional pattern. D. It is radiated in an omni-directional pattern that can be reversed by the Operator to attain directional beaming to an alternate satellite. 64I2 Inmarsat FBB coverage is provided by? A. 66 satellites in near-polar orbits. B. The same four satellites that provide Inmarsat-C coverage. C. There are four footprints not all of which are identical to Inmarsat-C coverage. D. 6 geo-stationary satellites to provide coverage in all navigable waters. 64I3 How does an FBB terminal notify shore authorities of a Distress situation with priority pre-emption? A. Dial 505 on the keypad to request an “SOS” voice call. B. Dial 505 on the keypad to make a pre-emptive priority Distress call. C. Press the dedicated Distress Alert button on the FBB handset. D. Press the dedicated Distress Alert button on the connected Maritime Safety Terminal. 64I4 What features in a Maritime Safety Terminal (MST) are required for FBB units to meet GMDSS requirements? A. Distress Alert button, keyboard and either printer or dedicated display/memory.. B. Printer, keyboard and 505 Distress menus on the keypad. C. Printer, Distress Alert button and dedicated EGC receiver. D. FBB units do not require Maritime Safety terminals to be compliant. 64I5 How does an FBB terminal fully meet compulsory GMDSS requirements? A. All FBB terminals are automatically certified under GMDSS by the IMO. B. FBB terminals are not certified for use by GMDSS compulsory vessels. C. The FBB terminal is replaced by a Maritime Safety Terminal, Distress Alert button, keyboard and printer. D. The addition of a Maritime Safety Terminal, Distress Alert button, keyboard and printer or dedicated display. 64I6 When engaging in voice communications via an Inmarsat-FBB terminal, what procedures are used? A. CODECs may be used to digitize the voice signal. B. Noise-blanking must be selected by the operator. C. The voice signal must be compressed to fit into the allowed bandwidth. D. The voice signal will be expanded at the receiving terminal. Answers: 64I1 - B 64I2 - C 64I3 - D 64I4 - A 64I5 - D 64I6 - A 65I1 Which mode of communications is NOT possible through an Inmarsat-C SES? A. Shore-to-ship Facsimile B. Data C. TELEX D. Emergency Activation 65I2 What is the average length of time required for a TELEX sent by Inmarsat-C to be delivered to the addressee? A. All Inmarsat-C communications are made with real-time connectivity so there is no delay in message delivery. B. The average delivery time for a message sent by Inmarsat-C is about 10 minutes. C. Date/time notification of delivery is possible only through Inmarsat-FBB. D. The average delivery time for a TELEX sent by Inmarsat-C is about 10 minutes, but fax and data messages sent by Inmarsat-C require about 30 minutes for delivery. 65I3 How is a signal radiated from an Inmarsat-C system's antenna? A. It is a highly focused directional signal that must be beamed at the desired satellite. B. It is usually radiated in an omni-directional pattern, but an optional feature allows it to be directional for use when the vessel is on the fringe of the satellite's footprint. C. It is radiated in an omni-directional pattern. D. It is radiated in an omni-directional pattern that can be reversed by the Operator to attain directional beaming to an alternate satellite. 65I4 What statement is true regarding Inmarsat-C? A. There is a propagation delay, but a direct connection is made between the ship and shore users. B. There are delays in establishing communications. Then a direct real-time connection is maintained with the other party. C. The TELEX message is stored until the mailbox is accessed by the station desiring to retrieve their message. D. This is a store and forward network, with an intermediate step that means there is no direct connection between ship and shore users. 65I5 With an Inmarsat-C LES, how are messages routed to receiving stations? A. All messages are forwarded via a store and forward network. B. Direct connections are made to the receiving stations via gateways. C. Intermediary stations are used to connect the sending station with the receiving station in a real-time mode. D. Messages are stored until the network is polled by the receiving station. 65I6 What are the directional characteristics of the Inmarsat-C SES antenna? A. Highly directional parabolic antenna requiring stabilization. B. Omni-directional. C. Wide beam width in a cardioid pattern off the front of the antenna. D. Very narrow beam width straight-up from the top of the antenna. Answers: 65I1 - A 65I2 - B 65I3 - C 65I4 - D 65I5 - A 65I6 - B 66I1 Which of the following best describes Inmarsat-C operation? A. Is an analog-based system. B. Requires a stabilized directional antenna. C. Provides for voice, TELEX, high and low-speed data and compressed video communications. D. Is a digital store-and-forward system that also provides Enhanced Group Call, data reporting, polling and Distress alerting capabilities. 66I2 Which of the following best describes a shipboard Inmarsat-C system? A. A small, lightweight terminal capable of providing satellite store-and-forward message communications. B. A satellite communications system that provides real-time connectivity. C. A small, lightweight terminal used to transmit messages over high frequency (HF) bands to communicate through a satellite. D. A satellite communications system that also provides continuous Digital Selective Calling coverage for all ocean regions. 66I3 How are Inmarsat-C LESs selected by the operator? A. The operator can program the terminal for their preferred default LES codes for Distress and routine communications. B. The NCS for each ocean region downloads the current LES codes into the terminal. C. The NCS selects the optimum LES code for both Routine and Distress communication. D. The LES codes can be selected for routine communications but the NCS chooses the best LES for Distress Alerts. 66I4 Which statement about Inmarsat-C LESs is true? A. LESs are only available in the Ocean Regions that overlap one another. B. LESs are only available in the Ocean Region controlled by their NCS. C. Some LESs are available in all four footprints due to the cloud-based NGC mode. D. All LESs are available in all four footprints due to the cloud-based NGC mode. 66I5 It is possible to transmit all of the following via Inmarsat-C from a vessel EXCEPT? A. TELEX B. Text for delivery by fax. C. Voice D. x.400 data services 66I6 Which of the following best describes the full range of services provided by the Inmarsat-C Satellite system? A. Polling, enhanced group call, and one-way position and data reporting via satellite. B. FM voice communications via satellite. C. Two-way messaging and data communications on a store-and-forward basis. D. Polling, enhanced group call, one-way position and data reporting via satellite, two-way messaging and data communications on a store-and-forward basis. Answers: 66I1 - D 66I2 - A 66I3 - B 66I4 - C 66I5 - C 66I6 - D 67I1 Which statement concerning Inmarsat-FBB and Inmarsat-C terminals is correct? A. Both Inmarsat-FBB and Inmarsat-C units are capable of fax and voice communications. B. Inmarsat-FBB units are not capable of data communications, but Inmarsat-C units are capable of data communications. C. Both Inmarsat-FBB and Inmarsat-C units can send data as well as send messages to fax machines. D. None of these answers is correct. 67I2 When Inmarsat-FBB and Inmarsat-C terminals are compared: A. Inmarsat-FBB antennas are larger, but omni-directional, while Inmarsat-C antennas are smaller and parabolic, for aiming at the satellite. B. Inmarsat-FBB antennas are parabolic and smaller for higher gain, while Inmarsat-C antennas are larger but omni-directional. C. Inmarsat-C antennas are smaller, but omni-directional, while Inmarsat-FBB antennas are parabolic for lower gain. D. Inmarsat-FBB antennas are larger, but directional for higher gain, while Inmarsat-C antennas are smaller and non-parabolic, and do not require aiming at the satellite. 67I3 Which statement concerning Inmarsat-FBB and Inmarsat-C terminals is correct? A. Inmarsat-FBB terminals require GPS input, in order to enable the initial acquisition for satellite tracking. B. Inmarsat-FBB terminals require gyro and GPS input, in order to enable automatic satellite tracking. C. Inmarsat-C terminals require only GPS input, in order to enable automatic satellite tracking. D. Inmarsat-C terminals require continuous GPS input, in order to enable automatic satellite tracking. 67I4 When Inmarsat-FBB and Inmarsat-C terminals are compared: A. Inmarsat-C antennas are smaller, with active parabolic antennas but no rewind capability. B. Inmarsat-C antennas are smaller, with passive non-parabolic antennas but no rewind capability. C. Inmarsat-FBB antennas are larger, with passive non-parabolic antennas that require rewind capability. D. Inmarsat-FBB antennas are larger, with stationary parabolic antennas but no rewind capability. 67I5 Which statement concerning Inmarsat-FBB and Inmarsat-C terminals is correct? A. Both Inmarsat-FBB and Inmarsat-C units are subject to shadowing effects due to their omni-directional antennas. B. Both Inmarsat-FBB and Inmarsat-C units are subject to shadowing effects, but Inmarsat-FBB units have directional antennas. C. Both Inmarsat-FBB and Inmarsat-C units are subject to shadowing effects, but Inmarsat-C units have directional antennas. D. Both Inmarsat-FBB and Inmarsat-C units are subject to shadowing effects, due to their directional antennas. 67I6 When Inmarsat-FBB and Inmarsat-C terminals are compared: A. Inmarsat-FBB units provide greater communications capabilities, with the benefits of greater size, weight, installation expense and initial cost. B. Inmarsat-C provides lesser communications capabilities, with the trade-offs of greater size, weight, installation expense and initial cost. C. Inmarsat-FBB units provide greater communications capabilities, with the trade-offs of greater size, weight, installation expense and initial cost. D. Inmarsat-C units are of smaller size, weight, installation expense and initial cost and provide greater communications capabilities due to modern technology. Answers: 67I1 - C 67I2 - D 67I3 - A 67I4 - B 67I5 - B 67I6 - C 68I1 Which Inmarsat Earth stations would be available for Inmarsat-C traffic if the vessel is off the Pacific Coast of the United States but logged-in to the AOR-W satellite? A. EIK (Norway), Beijing (P.R.C.), Burum (Netherlands) B. Southbury (USA), Burum (Netherlands), or EIK (Norway). C. Santa Paula (USA), Hai Phong (Vietnam), Yamaguchi (Japan). D. Beijing (PRC), Fucino (Italy), Nudol (Russia). 68I2 Which Inmarsat Earth stations would be available for Inmarsat-C traffic if the vessel is off the Atlantic Coast of the United States and tracking the AOR-E satellite? A. Fucino (Italy), Nakhoda (Russia) or Haiphong (Vietnam). B. Santa Paula (USA), Beijing (P.R.C.), Sentosa (Singapore). C. Southbury (USA), Burum (Netherlands), or EIK (Norway). D. Haiphong (Vietnam), Burum (Netherlands), or EIK (Norway). 68I3 Which LES should a GMDSS Radio Operator select to update an Inmarsat-C Distress alert message if the vessel is in the southern Pacific Ocean near the Dateline and logged-in to the POR satellite? A. Santa Paula (USA) or Beijing (PRC) would be the best choice depending on SAR jurisdiction. B. EIK (Norway) or Nudol (Russia) would be the best choice depending on SAR jurisdiction. C. Yamaguchi (Japan) or Nakhoda (Russia) would be the best choice depending on SAR jurisdiction. D. Burum (Australia) or Santa Paula (USA) would be the best choice depending on SAR jurisdiction. 68I4 Which Inmarsat Earth stations could a GMDSS Radio Operator select to update an Inmarsat- C Distress alert message if the vessel is in the Mediterranean Sea and logged into the AOR-E satellite? A. Fucino (Italy), Assaguel (France) or Burum (Netherlands). B. Pune (India), EIK (Norway), Sentosa or Beijing (P.R.C.). C. Yamaguchi (Japan), Southbury (USA), Fucino (Italy). D. Beijing (P.R.C.), Southbury (USA) or EIK (Norway). 68I5 Which Inmarsat Earth Stations could a vessel utilize for Inmarsat-C traffic if operating off the Atlantic Coast of the United States and tracking the AOR-E satellite? A. Beijing (P.R.C.), Yamaguchi (Japan) or Hai Phong (Vietnam). B. Southbury (USA), Burum (Netherlands) or Hai Phong (Vietnam) C. Pune (India), Burum (Netherlands) or Nudol (Russia). D. Southbury (USA), Burum (Netherlands) or Assaguel (France). 68I6 Which Inmarsat Earth Stations could a vessel utilize for Inmarsat-C traffic if operating on a voyage from Diego Garcia to the Persian Gulf and synched to the IOR satellite? A. Southbury (USA), Burum (Netherlands), Eik (Norway). B. Santa Paula (USA), Fucino (Italy) or Eik (Norway). C. Southbury (USA), Santa Paula (USA) or Fucino (Italy). D. Southbury, (USA), Fucino (Italy) or Beijing (P.R.C.). Answers: 68I1 - B 68I2 - C 68I3 - D 68I4 - A 68I5 - D 68I6 - A 69I1 A vessel is tracking the AOR-W satellite. To initiate an F77 automatic ship-to-shore telephone contact to a shoreside party in the U.S. phone # 123-456-7890, via Southbury Earth Station, a valid Inmarsat operations/dialing sequence is? A. Select LES 001# then dial 0011234567890# B. Select LES #002 then dial 11234567890# C. Select LES 104# then dial 11234567890+ D. Select LES 001+ then dial 123 4567890# 69I2 A vessel is tracking the AOR-E satellite. To initiate an operator assisted F77 ship-to-shore telephone contact to a shoreside party in the U.S.A., # 202-456-7890, through a European Earth Station, a valid Inmarsat operations/dialing sequence would be? A. Select LES: 001# then dial 1112024567890 B. Select LES: 012# then dial 1112024567890# C. Select LES: 001# then dial 0012024567890# D. Select LES: 001+ then dial 202 4567890 69I3 To request medical assistance from Inmarsat via voice what would be the correct procedure? A. Enter 36# and then the phone number for the Inmarsat medical advisory system. B. Enter 32# and then the phone number for the Inmarsat medical advisory system. C. Enter 32# to request the Inmarsat medical advisory system. D. Enter 32+ to request the Inmarsat medical advisory system. 69I4 Which of the following would be a valid sequence to request an F77 automatically dialed ship-ship voice call to an F77 terminal on a vessel tracking the IOR satellite? A. 00583430662888# B. 00870430662888# C. 00583763240864# D. 00870763240864# 69I5 If you are tracking the AOR-W satellite and wish to communicate by F77 voice using LES Southbury with another ship tracking the AOR-E satellite what is the proper procedure? A. Select LES: 001# then dial 00870763972310# B. Select LES: 004# then dial 11582430315036# C. Select LES: 001# then dial 00851636824323# D. Select LES: 003# then dial 00581430326430# 69I6 Which of the following is a correct dialing sequence for a F77 vessel tracking the AOR-W satellite to make a voice call to an Iridium terminal via Yamaguchi (Japan)? A. 001# 00881623456789# B. 003# 00881623456789# C. 003# 11870767588992# D. 001# 00870987654321# Answers: 69I1 - A 69I2 - B 69I3 - C 69I4 - D 69I5 - A 69I6 - B 70I1 How is a voice call to a shoreside destination typically dialed from an Iridium terminal handset? A. Dial * to gain access to the Iridium system then dial the country code, subscriber I.D. and then the # sign. B. Dial 00 for automatic dialing, then dial the country code and IMN, then the +sign C. Dial 00 for automatic dialing, dial the country code subscriber I.D and IMN and then the #sign D. Dial 00 for automatic dialing, then the country code and subscriber I.D. 70I2 What is an advantage of an Iridium terminal for making voice calls? A. It can use compatible terrestrial cellular phone networks if available. B. Dual use technology permits Inmarsat satellites as well as Iridium satellites to be used. C. Dual use technology permits terrestrial cellular phone calls and Inmarsat calls. D. It can make calls only through the Iridium satellite system. 70I3 How would a shoreside party dial an Iridium terminal on a ship? A. Dial the Inmarsat satellite gateway and then 881612345678. B. Dial the national exit code and then 881612345678 C. Dial the national exit code and then 870766891244# D. Dial the Iridium national access code and then 881612345678# 70I4 What entry would you make on an Iridium terminal to make a telephone call to an Inmarsat terminal on another ship that is 300 miles west of San Francisco? A. 00582430353680# B. 00881612376935 C. 00870765890074 D. 00582336850450+ 70I5 What entry would you make on an Iridium terminal to make a telephone call to another Iridium terminal? A. 00870765439082 B. 00230882419# C. 00881648769345 D. 8821675902419 70I6 What is an advantage of the Iridium system for placing ship-ship calls? A. Iridium terminals are compatible with the Inmarsat system for maximum flexibility. B. All ship-ship calls are passed through Iridium ground stations and then forwarded to the other ship. C. Ships-ship calls are routed through the satellites and passed through ground stations. D. Iridium satellites can pass the calls directly to the other ship using gateway signaling. Answers: 70I1 - D 70I2 - A 70I3 - B 70I4 - C 70I5 - C 70I6 - D 71I1 From an Inmarsat-C terminal, which of the following are correctly formatted address for sending TELEX messages to two Inmarsat-C terminals on vessels in the AOR-W? A. 870766719020 first and 870436671929 second. B. 584436671929 first and 584766719020 second. C. 584466719020 first and 584436671929 second. D. 58176671920 first and 58146671929 second. 71I2 Which of the following is a correctly formatted Inmarsat-C address book entry for sending TELEX communications to a vessel in the AOR-E? A. 870436772983 B. 571436772983 C. 581323500120+ D. 581423500120 71I3 Which of the following is a correctly formatted Inmarsat-C address book entry for sending TELEX communications to a vessel in the POR? A. 582436559121 B. 870436559121 C. 582436559121+ D. 583436559121+ 71I4 Which of the following is a correctly formatted Inmarsat-C address book entry for sending TELEX communications to a vessel in the IOR? A. 853446323865 B. 583446976519 C. 582446323862 D. 870446976519 71I5 Which of the following is a correctly formatted Inmarsat-C address book entry for sending TELEX communications to an Inmarsat-C terminal in the AOR-W? A. 584765044177 B. 584431014013 C. 870331014013 D. 584331014013+ 71I6 Which of the following is a correctly formatted Inmarsat-C address book entry for sending TELEX communications to two Inmarsat-C terminals in the POR? A. 583452998777 first and 583423500120 second. B. 582450302113 first and 582761579051 second. C. 582452998777 first and 582423500120 second. D. 582762267098 first and 582450302113 second. Answers: 71I1 - C 71I2 - D 71I3 - A 71I4 - B 71I5 - B 71I6 - C 72I1 Which of the following is a correctly formatted Inmarsat-C address book entry for sending communications to a shoreside TELEX terminal number 45992 in Taiwan (TELEX country code 769)? A. 76945992+ B. None of these answers is correct. C. 769 45992+ D. (769)45992 72I2 Which of the following is a correctly formatted Inmarsat-C address book entry for sending communications to a shoreside TELEX terminal number 440122 in the United Kingdom (TELEX country code 51)? A. 51440122+ B. (51)440122 C. 51440122 D. 51440122# 72I3 If your vessel is in the POR, which of the following is a correctly formatted Inmarsat-C address book entry for sending communications to a shoreside TELEX terminal number 42267 in Ecuador (TELEX country code 308)? A. 58230842267 B. 30842267+ C. (582)30842267 D. 30842267 72I4 Which of the following is a correctly formatted Inmarsat-C address book entry for sending communications to a shoreside terminal number 276992 in New Jersey via TRT (TELEX country code 238)? A. 238276992 B. (238)276992 C. 238276992# D. 238276992+ 72I5 If your vessel is in the IOR, which of the following is a correctly formatted Inmarsat-C address book entry for sending communications to a shoreside TELEX terminal number 77829 in the Philippines (TELEX country code 758)? A. 75877829+ B. 87375877829 C. 58375877829 D. 75877829 72I6 If your vessel is in the AOR-E, which of the following is a correctly formatted Inmarsat-C address book entry for sending communications to a shoreside TELEX terminal number 776424 in Canada via the TWX system (TELEX country code 26)? A. 26776424 B. 58126776424 C. 582776424 D. 26776424+ Answers: 72I1 - B 72I2 - C 72I3 - D 72I4 - A 72I5 - D 72I6 - A 73I1 Which of the following are correctly formatted Inmarsat-C address book entries for sending communications to an F77 with a fax machine in the AOR-W? A. 870768790319 B. 8704336837925 C. 584768790319 D. 1 870 768790319 73I2 Which of the following is a correctly formatted Inmarsat-C address book entry for sending communications to a fax machine number 516-229-4339 in Long Beach, CA, U.S.? A. 015162294339# B. 15162294339 C. 015162294339 D. 1 516-229-4339 73I3 Which of the following is a correctly formatted Inmarsat-C address book entry for sending communications to a fax machine on a vessel’s F77 terminal in the AOR-E? A. 581366269025 B. 870466269025 C. 870763972514 D. 581761138138 73I4 Which of the following is a correctly formatted Inmarsat-C address book entry for sending communications to a fax machine number 1424-8821-902 in the United Kingdom (voice country code 44)? A. 44 1424-8821-902 B. 4414248821902# C. 44+ 14248821902+ D. 4414248821902 73I5 Which of the following is a correctly formatted Inmarsat-C address book entry for sending communications to a fax machine on a vessel’s F77 terminal in the IOR? A. 870763240864 B. 583442519372 C. 1870442519372 D. 870323500121 73I6 Which of the following is a correctly formatted Inmarsat-C address book entry for sending communications to a fax machine number (045) 334-5678 in Japan (voice country code 81)? A. 810453345678# B. 810453345678 C. 81(045)3345678 D. 81 (045) 334-5678 Answers: 73I1 - A 73I2 - B 73I3 - C 73I4 - D 73I5 - A 73I6 - B 74I1 How may an Inmarsat-C unit be used to send text communications to an Internet destination? A. Call up the file menu, insert the internet address in the first line of the file and use the SEND/REC or TRANSMIT menu to send the message. B. Use the SEND/REC or TRANSMIT menu, compose a text file and use the file attach function in the file menu. C. Internet addresses cannot be reached from an Inmarsat-C terminal without a separate e-mail computer. D. Compose a text file, use the SEND/REC or TRANSMIT menu & specify the recipient using the address book function (or by manual entry) for e-mail. 74I2 To send message traffic to an Internet address using an Inmarsat- C terminal -- what action would be required? A. Select the recipient using the e-mail code from the address book (or manually select the code.) B. Insert the Internet address into the correct field when creating the message file. C. Select the recipient using the e-mail code into the DNID/ENID setup e-mail function. D. Insert the Internet address into the correct field of the System setup e-mail function. 74I3 What menu function in Inmarsat-C terminals would typically be used to specify an Internet address destination? A. The System Setup menu to store all required e-mail destinations. B. The Address book function (or manual entry) in the SEND/REC or TRANSMIT menu. C. The Data Report menu to initiate the SEND/REC or TRANSMIT process. D. The menus for File Operations are used for adding the Internet address to the file. 74I4 Which of the following is NOT correct with regard to Inmarsat-C e-mail? A. It is possible to send e-mail messages from your ship’s Inmarsat-C terminal to any e-mail address in the world. B. To receive e-mails from shore, your ship’s e-mail address must be registered with an Inmarsat C Land Earth Station Service Provider. C. An additional hardware upgrade is required to enable your ship’s Inmarsat-C terminal to send and receive emails. D. Not all land earth station service providers support e-mail service. 74I5 How would a notification of arrival be sent as a text to a mobile phone number using an Inmarsat-C unit? A. Mobile phone numbers cannot be reached by Inmarsat-C terminals because they lack voice capability. B. Use the Inmarsat-C voice handset to compose and transmit the text. C. Compose a text file, use the SEND/REC or TRANSMIT menu & specify the recipient using the address book function (or by manual entry) for SMS destinations. D. The mobile phone number is inserted as the first line of the text file and sent with the SEND/REC or TRANSMIT menu. 74I6 How may Inmarsat-C terminals be used for sending Urgency or Safety priority communications (such as synoptic weather reports)? A. Urgency & Safety EGC messages can only be received by an Inmarsat-C terminal. B. Enter PAN PAN or SECURITE into the heading of the message file so the message will be routed by priority. C. Only Routine or Distress priority messages can be sent from an Inmarsat-C terminal. D. Use the appropriate special 2-digit codes selected from the address book or manually enter the correct code into the SEND/REC or TRANSMIT menu. Answers: 74I1 - D 74I2 - A 74I3 - B 74I4 - C 74I5 - C 74I6 - D 75I1 Which statement is FALSE regarding an Inmarsat Distress request? A. The NCS in each ocean region automatically monitors the processing of such calls by other LESs in that region and processes calls if any anomaly exists in the system. B. If all satellite channels are busy then one of them will be preempted by a Distress request. C. Any Distress request is automatically switched to an Inmarsat Distress working frequency. D. Any request message with Distress priority is automatically recognized by the LES and a satellite channel is instantly assigned. 75I2 How may a Distress Alert be initiated to a specific RCC through Iridium? A. By transmitting the Distress message on the U.S. Coast Guard's Iridium monitoring channel. B. By adding the word "Distress" in the first line of the message's preamble. C. All Iridium terminals chose the optimum RCC based upon the vessel’s SAR jurisdiction. D. By programming the preferred RCC and then pressing the dedicated Alert keys. 75I3 How is an Iridium Distress alert routed to the correct RCC? A. The RCC is determined by the geographical area of the vessel or chosen manually by the ship’s officers. B. By dialing the correct code on the telephone remote unit. C. By contacting the LES operator and announcing a Distress condition is in progress. D. By contacting the LES operator using the radiotelephone Distress procedure "Mayday” ... etc. 75I4 What is the best way to use Iridium to alert an RCC of a Distress and then follow-up with voice SAR communications? A. Using the combo Alert/voice feature and then dial the telephone number of the RCC. B. Using the combo Alert/Voice feature. The terminal will initiate a Distress voice call to the RCC, C. It is necessary to wait until the RCC receives the Alert requesting they initiate a voice call to the vessel. D. First use the Alert feature and then wait for the RCC to call back to the vessel. 75I5 Why is the correct selection of the LES in the Inmarsat-C Distress Alert Setup menu so crucial? A. Each LES has its own dedicated RCC whose jurisdiction is defined by the LES selected. B. The LES choice determines the nationality of the RCC which will handle the Distress traffic and perform SAR duties or that will pass the particulars to the RCC with jurisdiction to coordinate the SAR situation. C. Inmarsat-C terminals use the GPS position to automatically determine the optimum LES choice in a Distress situation. D. The vessel need not select the LES because the NCS will always intercept a Distress priority call and route it to the closest RCC. 75I6 If an Inmarsat Distress Alert Setup menu contains an incorrect or unavailable LES code what happens to the Distress Alert transmission? A. The NCS updates the LES codes in the Distress Alert Setup menu as the vessel moves from ocean region to ocean region to ensure this does not happen. B. The NCS will send a Distress Alert Setup incorrect LES code alarm so the alert can be corrected and retransmitted. C. The NCS will step in and route the Distress Alert transmission to an RCC. D. If the LES code is incorrect then the Distress Alert transmission is not detected by any RCC. Answers: 75I1 - C 75I2 - D 75I3 - A 75I4 - B 75I5 - B 75I6 – C 76I1 What action would be the swiftest and most certain way to notify a RCC of a Distress situation aboard your vessel? A. Compose a detailed Distress message and send it to the closest LES to optimize the SAR response. B. Confirm the information in the Distress Alert Message setup menu is correct and use the “hot-key” or Distress Message Generator function on your satellite terminal. C. Press all of the “hot keys” available in the GMDSS console to ensure the RCC is notified. D. Send a multi-frequency DSC alert to ensure the RCC is notified regardless of Ionospheric propagation conditions. 76I2 What information should be sent in a detailed satellite Distress message that was not included in the initial “hot-key” Distress Alert? A. Name/Call sign of vessel, vessel position, vessel description, all vessel I.D. numbers, LES code for Distress traffic. B. POB, vessel description, all vessel I.D. numbers, shore contact numbers, vessel position. C. Name/Call sign of vessel, POB, vessel description, all vessel I.D. numbers and shore contact numbers. D. Name/Call sign of vessel, nature of Distress, POB, vessel description and all vessel I.D. numbers. 76I3 What actions should be taken to transmit a detailed satellite Distress message to a RCC handling your vessel’s initial “hot-key” Distress Alert? A. Compose a detailed Distress message, attach it to the Distress Alert Setup menu and re-transmit the “hotkey” Distress Alert. B. Call up and edit a pre-saved detailed Distress message, select the closest LES and press the “hot-key.” C. Compose a detailed Distress message, use the Transmit or SEND/REC menu and send it to both the RCC and to your company emergency contact number. D. Call up and edit a pre-saved detailed Distress message, use the Transmit or SEND/REC menu, select Distress priority and choose the best LES for the situation. 76I4 What is your vessel’s obligation upon receipt of a Distress priority EGC message requesting that vessels report in response to a SAR situation? A. Silence the alarm, notify the master and send a message to the RCC with your vessel’s position and capabilities. B. Read the Distress EGC message and if the situation is too far away no response is required. C. Read the Distress EGC message and await instructions from the RCC as how to proceed to the distress. D. Silence the alarm, notify the Master and await instructions from the RCC as to whether your vessel is requisitioned or released from participation in SAR activity. 76I5 What statement is true regarding LES codes and Inmarsat “hot-key” alert default menus? A. Automatic or manual updating of the LES code only needs to be done when switching to a different ocean region satellite. B. The SAR jurisdiction software automatically updates the “hot-key” menu based on the vessel’s position. C. The LES code is determined by the NAVAREA based on the vessel’s current position. D. The LES code must be updated by the officers depending upon the SAR jurisdictions the vessel transits and current ocean region satellite in use. 76I6 Detailed Distress situation report message formats can best be found in? A. IAMSAR manual Volume III. B. ITU list of RCC and Coast stations. C. AMVER chapter of NGA PUB 117. D. FCC Title 47, Part 80. Answers: 76I1 - B 76I2 - C 76I3 - D 76I4 - A 76I5 - D 76I6 - A 77I1 Upon receipt of SafetyNETTM messages of the Distress or Urgency category on the ship's EGC receiver, what action is required by the GMDSS Radio Operator? A. Manually reset the alarm. B. No immediate action is required as an audible tone will be generated at the beginning and end of the transmission and a paper printout of the message will be generated. C. No immediate action is required by the operator since the transmission will be automatically acknowledged by the receiving vessel. D. A periodic alarm tone will be heard until the radio operator prints the message from the unit's memory. 77I2 What can be defined as the service that allows terrestrial information providers to send general information messages to pre-defined groups of subscribers? A. SafetyNETTM B. FleetNETTM C. COSPAS-SARSAT D. InfoNETTM 77I3 What additional equipment provides the maximum availability for receiving SafetyNETTM broadcasts when the associated Inmarsat-C SES is engaged in communications? A. An integrated EGC receiver with the existing Inmarsat-C equipment. B. HF SSB can be used to receive voice MSI broadcasts. C. A separate EGC receiver. D. Automatic switching between Inmarsat-C and EGC functions. 77I4 Which of the following is utilized to transmit Enhanced Group Calls? A. COSPAS satellite B. HF SITOR (NBDP) shore stations C. NAVTEX shore stations D. Inmarsat satellite 77I5 What is the equipment arrangement that provides the maximum availability for reception of MSI broadcasts when using Inmarsat-C for TELEX communications? A. Separate EGC receiver. B. Integrating EGC receiver with the existing Inmarsat-C equipment. C. Redundancy using HF SSB to receive voice broadcasts. D. Automatic switching between Inmarsat-C and EGC functions. 77I6 Which of the following statements concerning EGC configuration is FALSE? A. NAVAREA selection should be monitored and appropriately updated. B. The originator of MSI information cannot specify receipt only by vessels within a specific geographical area, circular or rectangular. C. The originator of MSI information can specify receipt only by vessels within a specific geographical area, circular or rectangular. D. GMDSS operators generally can select additional NAVAREAS to acquire EGC messages of interest to the vessel. Answers: 77I1 - A 77I2 - B 77I3 - C 77I4 - D 77I5 - A 77I6 - B 78I1 A vessel with an 18-hour ETA to the Panama Canal on a voyage from Miami loses the ability to communicate via Inmarsat-C. The most likely cause is? A. The vessel has sailed beyond the coverage area of the Southbury Land Earth Station. B. The vessel has sailed beyond the coverage area of the Eastern Atlantic satellite. C. The vessel has sailed beyond the coverage area of the Western Atlantic satellite. D. An equipment fault resulting in a loss of signal from the satellite. 78I2 A vessel, before transiting the Panama Canal, on a voyage from Hawaii to Florida, loses the ability to communicate via Inmarsat-C. The most likely cause is: A. The vessel has sailed beyond the coverage area of the Pacific satellite. B. The vessel has sailed beyond the coverage area of the Santa Paula Land Earth Station. C. The vessel has sailed beyond the coverage area of the Western Atlantic satellite. D. The satellite orbit is beyond the usable range of the SES. 78I3 What would cause an FBB antenna to lose constant lock on the satellite? A. An indication on a meter or on the display terminal of lowered transmit power. B. Loss of the internal antenna pitch/roll sensors (IMS). C. An indication of a very high antenna elevation on the display terminal screen. D. An indication that the antenna has reached its maximum travel in one direction. 78I4 What maintenance function may the holder of a GMDSS Radio Operator license perform, or supervise the performance of, on an Inmarsat-C SES? A. Adjust the station's EIRP (power output) for improved signal levels. B. Enter Azimuth and Elevation values correctly so the Inmarsat-C SES can find the NCS CC. C. Remove stack deposits and other debris from the antenna to prevent degraded performance. D. Adjust a reference oscillator or synthesizer to tune the unit to the NCS CC. 78I5 What maintenance function may the holder of a GMDSS Radio Operator license perform, or supervise the performance of, on an Inmarsat-C SES? A. Painting the antenna dome. B. Adjust the station's EIRP. C. Adjust any front panel controls. D. Adjust a reference oscillator or synthesizer. 78I6 Which functions may the holder of a GMDSS Radio Operator License NOT perform on the Inmarsat-C equipment? A. Maintain the antenna clear of soot, paint, etc. B. Log-on, traffic and log-off functions. C. Entry of position data and selection of LES. D. Optimize performance by adjusting the transmitter EIRP. Answers: 78I1 - D 78I2 - A 78I3 - B 78I4 - C 78I5 - C 78I6 - D 79I1 What immediate remedy can be used to correct shadowing of the satellite signal by a shipboard obstruction? A. Relocate the mast or other obstruction. B. Raise the transmit power level. C. Change the ship's course. D. Increase the receiver gain. 79I2 A vessel loses Inmarsat-FBB SES operation after a large course change. Which of the following could most likely cause this? A. Shadowing of the SES antenna by clouds or other weather formations. B. Misalignment of the shadow correction filter. C. The vessel sailed beyond the footprint of the satellite coverage. D. The ship’s superstructure is now blocking the satellite signal. 79I3 Which statement is correct regarding a method that a vessel experiencing problems with shadowing of an Inmarsat-FBB SES antenna by an on-board obstruction could use to attempt reliable communications? A. Change course to remove the shadow. B. Change the Coast Station ID programming. C. Install a shadow correction filter. D. Switch from TELEX to voice mode. 79I4 Which of the following conditions does not typically impair Inmarsat-FBB communications? A. An obstruction, such as a mast, blocking the signal between the satellite and the SES antenna when the vessel is steering a specific course. B. Normal precipitation from gales and storms. C. A satellite whose signal is on a low elevation, below the horizon. D. Travel beyond the effective radius of the satellite. 79I5 A vessel is experiencing problems tracking the satellite in an Inmarsat-C SES while at sea. The problem is least likely caused by? A. Extremely heavy rain/snowstorms. B. Local RF interference by in-port cell phone or other radio systems. C. Shadowing caused by an obstacle, such as a mast, between the SES antenna and the satellite. D. The vessel is on the fringe of the coverage area of the satellite. 79I6 Which functions may the holder of a GMDSS Radio Operator License not perform on the Inmarsat-C equipment? A. Selection of LES for routine traffic. B. Maintain the antenna clear of soot, paint, etc. C. Adjust the azimuth and elevation values. D. Logon, traffic and logoff functions. Answers: 79I1 – C 79I2 - D 79I3 - A 79I4 - B 79I5 - B 79I6 - C 80J1 Which modes could be selected to receive vessel traffic lists from high seas coast radio stations: A. AM and VHF-FM B. SSB and FEC C. ARQ and FEC D. VHF-FM and SSB 80J2 MF/HF Transceiver Power levels should be set: A. To the highest possible level to ensure effective communications. B. To the lowest possible level at all times regardless of whether communications are effective. C. To the lowest level needed to achieve the necessary propagation radius and communications range. D. To the highest level possible so as to ensure other stations cannot "break-in" on the channel during use. 80J3 Which statement regarding GMDSS MF/HF Transceiver frequency set-up is true: A. Manual keypad entries are quicker and more certain than using the database. B. All consoles ensure that manual keypad entries are checked for legal outcomes. C. All consoles ensure that ITU channel recall from a database produces accurate and legal outcomes. D. Using the manufacturer’s database typically produces a more swift and certain result. 80J4 Which statement regarding GMDSS MF/HF Transceiver frequency set-up is true: A. Some consoles allow both manual keypad entry and ITU channel recall from a database or memory. B. Transmit and receive frequencies must always be manually entered from the keypad. C. Transmit and receive frequencies must always be recalled from a database or memory. D. Frequencies in the manufacturer’s databases are always accurate and legal for use. 80J5 To set-up the MF/HF Transceiver for a TELEX call to a coast station, the operator must: A. Select J3E mode for proper SITOR (NBDP) operations. B. Select F1B/J2B modes or J3E mode, depending on whether ARQ or FEC is preferred. C. Select J3E mode for ARQ and H3E mode for FEC. D. Select F1B mode or J2B mode, depending on the equipment manufacturer. 80J6 To set-up the MF/HF Transceiver for a voice call to a coast station, the operator must: A. Select J3E mode for proper voice operations. B. Select J3E mode for proper SITOR (NBDP) operations. C. Select F1B mode or J2B mode, depending on the equipment manufacturer. D. Select F1B/J2B modes or J3E mode, depending on whether FEC or ARQ is preferred. Answers: 80J1 - B 80J2 - C 80J3 - D 80J4 - A 80J5 - D 80J6 - A 81J1 How are paired SITOR (NBDP) frequencies normally used? A. These are normally used for ARQ communications with coast radio stations. B. These are normally used for FEC communications with coast radio stations. C. These are normally used only for Distress communications to limit channel interference. D. These are normally used for DSC communications with coast radio stations. 81J2 How are paired SSB frequencies normally used? A. These are normally used for FEC communications with coast radio stations. B. These are normally used for J3E communications with coast radio stations. C. These are normally used for ARQ communications with coast radio stations. D. These are normally used for DSC communications with coast radio stations. 81J3 For general communications purposes, paired frequencies are: A. Normally used with private coast stations. B. Normally used between ship stations. C. Normally used with public coast stations. D. Normally used between private coast and ship stations. 81J4 For general communications purposes, simplex frequencies are: A. Normally used with public coast stations for routine telephone communications. B. Normally used between ship stations as well as public coast stations simultaneously. C. Normally used with public coast stations for routine SITOR (NBDP) communications. D. Normally used between ship stations and private coast stations or for ship-ship communications. 81J5 An ITU simplex channel frequency assignment is defined as: A. Transmit and receive frequencies must be identical. B. Transmit and receive frequencies must be different. C. Transmit and receive frequencies may be different, depending on whether communications are ship-shore or ship to ship. D. Transmit and receive frequencies are different regardless of emission mode. 81J6 An ITU duplex channel frequency is defined as: A. Transmit and receive frequencies may be identical if communications are ship-shore. B. Transmit and receive frequencies must be different. C. Transmit and receive frequencies must be identical. D. Transmit and receive frequencies may be different if communications are ship-ship. Answers: 81J1 - A 81J2 - B 81J3 - C 81J4 - D 81J5 - A 81J6 - B 82J1 Which of the following defines "ITU Channel 1216"? A. Ch-12 in the 16 MHz band. B. Ch-1216 in the MF band. C. Ch-12 in the 16 kHz band. D. Ch-16 in the 12 MHz band. 82J2 Which of the following is a valid 22-MHz ITU Channel? A. HF Ch-2206 B. VHF Ch-22 C. Ch-22A VTS D. Ch-70 (DSC only) 82J3 What is meant by the term duplex "ITU channel"? A. This refers to a vessel's SELCAL number. B. A standardized series of frequency pairings for common use. C. This refers to VHF channels 1-28 and 60-88. D. A series of frequency pairings used for ship-ship communications. 82J4 ITU duplex channel 1604 would mean: A. Ch-16 in the 4 MHz band. B. Ch-1604 in the MF band. C. Ch-4 in the 16 MHz band. D. Ch-4 in the 6 MHz band. 82J5 What is a potential danger of using the manufacturer’s database to set up for operations using MF-HF ITU frequency assignments? A. All manufacturer’s frequency databases are required to be standardized & accurate so that there is no danger. B. Using the manufacturer’s frequency database to setup the transceiver typically takes longer and is more prone to error than a manual setup. C. Different manufacturers use different database numbering systems to incorporate the ITU assignments into the transceiver and therefore a potential for confusion exists. D. Using the manufacturer’s frequency databases ensures that the transceiver is always restricted to the vessel’s licensed frequencies so that there is no danger. 82J6 ITU Duplex channels are: A. Frequency assignments specific to U.S. vessels only. B. VHF-FM frequencies. C. International Traffic Utility frequencies. D. Internationally standardized assignments of frequency pairs for common use. Answers: 82J1 - D 82J2 - A 82J3 - B 82J4 - C 82J5 - C 82J6 - D 83J1 Which statement regarding bandwidth and channel spacing is correct: A. Bandwidth values are a function of channel spacing values. B. Channel spacing values are not a function of bandwidth values. C. Channel spacing values are a function of bandwidth values. D. Bandwidth & channel values do not vary with emission mode. 83J2 The purpose of ITU channel spacing is: A. To minimize the number of voice & TELEX channels available. B. To make most efficient use of the radio spectrum, by using voice channels rather than TELEX channels. C. To make most efficient use of the radio spectrum, by using TELEX channels rather than voice channels. D. To minimize the possibility of interference from adjacent channels. 83J3 Which statement regarding channel spacing and bandwidth is true? A. Both TELEX bandwidth and channel spacing values are less than voice bandwidth and channel spacing values. B. Voice bandwidth is greater than TELEX bandwidth and therefore voice channel spacing values are less than TELEX channel spacing values. C. TELEX bandwidth is greater than voice bandwidth and therefore TELEX channel spacing values are less than voice channel spacing values. D. Both TELEX bandwidth and channel spacing values are greater than voice bandwidth and channel spacing values. 83J4 The proper sequence of channel spacing from narrow to widest is: A. SSB voice, SITOR (NBDP), VHF-FM voice. B. SITOR (NBDP), SSB-voice, VHF-FM voice. C. VHF-FM voice, SITOR (NBDP), SSB-voice. D. SITOR (NBDP), VHF-FM voice, SSB-voice. 83J5 Communications with an emission of F1B/J2B would typically have a channel spacing of: A. 0.3 kHz B. 0.5 kHz C. 2.8 kHz D. 3.0 kHz 83J6 Communications with an emission of J3E would typically have a channel spacing of: A. 0.5 kHz B. 0.3 kHz C. 3.0 kHz D. 2.8 kHz Answers: 83J1 - C 83J2 - D 83J3 - A 83J4 - B 83J5 - B 83J6 - C 84J1 For RF communications, "modulation" is best defined as: A. Using a single carrier frequency with the proper power level. B. The combination of information or intelligence on to a radio carrier frequency. C. Setting up the transceiver with the correct bandwidth to ensure proper communications. D. The combination of the received frequency and oscillator frequency in the mixer. 84J2 For RF communications, "bandwidth" is best defined as: A. The modulation technique required to ensure proper ITU channel spacing. B. The emission designation resulting from the desired modulation technique. C. The portion of the radio spectrum consumed by a particular emission selection and modulation technique. D. The portion of the radio spectrum reserved for frequency allocations by the ITU. 84J3 In an AM broadcast signal using voice: A. Varying the amplitude of the carrier and employing both sidebands without the carrier. B. Varying only the amplitude of the carrier, depending on Double or Single-Sideband operations. C. Varying the amplitude of the carrier and employing both sidebands and the carrier. D. There is a carrier with constant amplitude and frequency with complex upper and lower sidebands varying in amplitude and frequency. 84J4 In FM communications, the information is applied to the carrier by: A. Varying the frequency of the carrier to convey the information to other stations. B. Varying the amplitude or the frequency of the carrier, depending on Double or Single-Sideband operations. C. Varying only the frequency of the carrier, depending on Double or Single-Sideband operations. D. Varying the amplitude of the carrier and keeping the frequencies in the sidebands constant. 84J5 The proper sequence of emissions corresponding to the sequence AM-Voice DSB, SSB-Voice without carrier, USB-Voice with carrier and FM-Voice, is: A. A3E, H3E, J3E, F3E. B. J3E, H3E, A3E, F3E. C. H3E, A3E, J3E, F3E. D. A3E, J3E, H3E, F3E. 84J6 The proper sequence of emissions corresponding to the sequence SSB-Voice without carrier, USB-Voice with carrier, FM-Voice and SITOR (NBDP) TELEX is: A. J3E, H3E, F3E, F1B. B. H3E, J3E, F3E, F1B. C. J3E, H3E, F1B, F3E. D. H3E, J3E, F1B, F3E. Answers: 84J1 - B 84J2 - C 84J3 - D 84J4 - A 84J5 - D 84J6 - A 85J1 When placing a SSB MF/HF call to a Coast Station, you should always: A. Make sure the frequency is not occupied. B. Choose the closest station to ensure a quick connection. C. Tune the transmitter on another frequency. D. Wait until the coast station sends his traffic list. 85J2 How are high seas (HF) radiotelephone communications initially established between a vessel and a public correspondence station? A. The vessel listens for "free signals" and calls the public correspondence station on the SITOR (NBDP) calling channel with the strongest marker signal. B. The vessel calls and establishes voice contact with the public correspondence station on a channel that the station is known to monitor, and the two stations then proceed with their business. C. The vessel calls the public correspondence station on VHF Channel 16, and the two stations then switch to the working channel. D. Public Correspondence Stations operate SITOR (NBDP) only. 85J3 What is the best procedure for calling another ship station using HF radiotelephone when the signals are weak but readable? A. Give the name of the ship being called three times, and the words "this is" followed by the name of the ship initiating the call three times, and ending with "over." B. Instruct the nearest public correspondence station to add the desired ship's call sign to the station's traffic list. C. On a properly selected ITU channel, give the call sign of the ship being called three times using phonetics, then "this is" followed by the call sign of the ship initiating the call three times, using phonetics, and ending with "over." D. Notify the local vessel traffic service control station of your intention to contact a specific vessel and request the VTS operator place the call on channel 22A. 85J4 What is the correct procedure for calling a coast radio station using HF radiotelephone? A. On a properly selected ITU channel, give the name of the coast radio station being called three times, and the words "this is" followed by the name of the ship initiating the call three times, and ending with "over". B. Contact the nearest U.S.C.G. station to add the desired ship's call sign to the station's traffic list. C. Request the VTS operator place the call on channel 22A. D. On a correct ITU channel, give the call sign of the coast radio station three times using phonetics, the words "this is", followed by the ship’s call sign three times using phonetics and ending with "over". 85J5 Through which coast radio station(s) may a U.S.-flag merchant vessel communicate? A. Any coast radio station in the world that is licensed to provide such communications. B. Any coast radio station in the world that is licensed to provide such communications, but prior authorization must be obtained for a U.S.-flag merchant vessel to communicate through a non-U.S. station. C. The U.S. Coast Guard coordinates the communications and assigns the working channel. D. U.S. flag ships are licensed to communicate only with U.S. coast radio stations. 85J6 What is the best source of information to find changes or additions to the routine communications frequencies of a Commercial Radio Station? A. GMDSS Master Plan of Shore-Based Facilities. B. ITU List of Coast Stations and Special Service Stations. (List IV) C. FCC Part 80, Subpart W Coast Radio Stations. D. ITU List of Ship Stations and Maritime Mobile Service Identities. (List V) Answers: 85J1 - A 85J2 - B 85J3 - C 85J4 - D 85J5 - A 85J6 - B 86J1 Which of these is not a primary purpose of the MF/HF DSC controller? A. It provides for the electronic memory of incoming and outgoing DSC calls. B. It permits control of transceiver operations in response to an incoming DSC call. C. It provides for the formatting and transmission of outgoing DSC calls. D. It provides the scanning watch receiver capability on the 6 MF/HF DSC frequencies. 86J2 A "Distress Hot Key" MF/HF DSC Distress alert: A. Will be transmitted on 2187.5 kHz or another DSC frequency, depending on the manufacturer. B. Will always be transmitted on 2187.5 kHz and 8414.5 kHz to trip DSC alarms on the mandatory MF/HF DSC watch frequencies. C. Will always be transmitted on 2187.5 kHz first to alert the nearest vessels and coast stations. D. Will always be sent first on 16804.5 kHz to reach coast stations far away from the vessel. 86J3 A Distress Priority DSC call may be formatted and transmitted specifying and requesting: A. Nature of Distress, vessel position, follow-on frequency, only voice follow-on communications. B. Nature of Distress or alternate frequency but not both in a single call, vessel position or alternate frequency/emission but not both in a single call, voice or TELEX follow-up communications. C. Nature of Distress or alternate frequency but not both in a single call, vessel position or alternate frequency/emission but not both in a single call, only TELEX follow-up communications D. Nature of Distress, vessel position, follow-on frequency, only TELEX follow-on communications. 86J4 Which of these statements regarding a multi-frequency MF/HF DSC Distress alert is FALSE? A. Some units transmit on the mandatory MF/HF DSC watch frequencies first, and then on the others. B. Some units transmit in ascending order of propagation radius to alert nearby ships or shore stations first. C. May be transmitted in any order programmed by the GMDSSS operator. D. Multi-frequency alerts work quite differently, depending on the manufacturer and require care and understanding of the feature. 86J5 To make a call to another vessel requesting voice communications regarding important company business, the GMDSS operator should: A. Select Routine priority, enter other vessel's MMSI, specify legal alternate frequency, J2B emission and transmit the properly formatted DSC call. B. Select Routine priority, enter own vessel's MMSI, specify legal alternate frequency, J3E emission and transmit the properly formatted DSC call. C. None of these answers is correct. D. Select Urgency priority, enter other vessel's MMSI, specify legal alternate frequency, F1B emission and transmit the properly formatted DSC call. 86J6 To make a call to another vessel requesting TELEX communications regarding important company business, the GMDSS operator should: A. Select Urgency priority, enter other vessel's MMSI, specify legal alternate frequency, F1B emission and transmit the properly formatted DSC call. B. Select Routine priority, enter own vessel's MMSI, specify legal alternate frequency, F1B emission and transmit the properly formatted DSC call. C. Select Routine priority, enter other vessel's SELCAL for TELEX, specify legal alternate frequency, F1B emission and transmit the properly formatted DSC call. D. Select Routine priority, enter other vessel's MMSI, specify legal alternate frequency, F1B emission and transmit the properly formatted DSC call. Answers: 86J1 - D 86J2 - A 86J3 - B 86J4 - C 86J5 - C 86J6 - D 87J1 What is meant by describing a Coast Station with the acronym ATOR? A. The station’s BFEC operations are computerized and a rigid operating sequence must be followed correctly. B. The station will control all of the ARQ operations and it will generate the proper service request codes at the correct time in the sequence. C. The station’s ARQ operations are computerized and a rigid operating sequence must be followed correctly. D. The station will control all of the ARQ operations and it will provide prompts for the operator to request time & charges at the correct time in the sequence. 87J2 Which of the following acronyms refers to a communications system that does not use ARQ and/or FEC modes? A. NAVTEX B. SITOR (NBDP) C. HF MSI D. SART 87J3 What does the term FEC mean in SITOR (NBDP) communications? A. Forward Error Correction B. Field Effect Correction C. Forward Error Check D. Forward Error Character 87J4 A Coast Station that is described as ATOR typically provides what type of services? A. NAVTEX BFEC weather broadcasts. B. ARQ SITOR (NBDP) connections to shoreside terminals. C. BFEC SITOR (NBDP) connections to shoreside terminals. D. SITOR (NBDP) HF weather broadcasts. 87J5 The acronym SITOR (NBDP) stands for: A. Simplified Telephony Over Radio B. Simplex TELEX Over Radio C. Simplified TELEX Over Radio D. Simplex Telephony Over Radio 87J6 What does the term "ARQ" mean in SITOR (NBDP) operations? A. Automation Repeat Request B. Automaton Repeat Request C. Automatic Repeat Request D. Automatic Request Repeat Answers: 87J1 - C 87J2 - D 87J3 - A 87J4 - B 87J5 - B 87J6 - C 88J1 Which of the following statements concerning SITOR (NBDP) communications is true? A. ARQ transmissions are acknowledged by the Information Receiving Station only at the end of the message. B. ARQ transmissions are made in data groups consisting of three-character blocks. C. ARQ communications rely upon error correction by time diversity transmission and reception. D. Forward error correction is an interactive mode. 88J2 Which of the following statements concerning SITOR (NBDP) communications is true? A. FEC transmissions are made in data groups consisting of three-character blocks. B. FEC transmissions require a "phasing" or "handshaking" process prior to character transmission. C. FEC transmissions rely upon an error correction technique, which transmits each character twice. D. FEC transmissions rely upon parity and "repeat requests" to ensure error correction. 88J3 Which statement best defines the SITOR (NBDP) acronym "ARQ"? A. Error Correction when 2 stations are in direct & phased telephone communications with each other. B. Error correction for one-way TELEX transmissions to a single other station. C. Error correction for one-way TELEX broadcasts of weather or navigation information. D. Error Correction with 2 stations are in direct & phased TELEX communications with each other. 88J4 Which statement best defines the SITOR (NBDP) acronym "BFEC"? A. Error correction for one-way TELEX broadcasts of weather or navigation information. B. Error Correction when 2 stations are in direct & phased telephone communications with each other. C. Error Correction when 2 stations are in direct & phased TELEX communications with each other. D. Error correction when 1 station sends a one-way TELEX to a single other station. 88J5 The purpose of "parity" in SITOR (NBDP) communications is? A. Error correction in HF BFEC MSI broadcasts, SFEC NAVTEX broadcasts and two-way ARQ exchanges. B. Error correction in SFEC NAVTEX broadcasts, HF SFEC MSI broadcasts and two-way ARQ exchanges. C. Error correction in BFEC NAVTEX broadcasts, HF BFEC MSI broadcasts and one-way ARQ broadcasts. D. Error correction in HF BFEC MSI broadcasts, NAVTEX broadcasts and two-way ARQ exchanges. 88J6 "SITOR (NBDP)" communications are based on a digital code system: A. Consisting of 7 bits, with four zeros and three ones. B. Consisting of 7 bits, with four ones and three zeroes. C. Consisting of 5 bits TELEX and 8 bits Fax. D. Consisting of 5 bits for ship stations and 7 bits for shore stations. Answers: 88J1 - B 88J2 - C 88J3 - D 88J4 - A 88J5 - D 88J6 - A 89J1 Which of the following would be a valid SELCAL for use in ARQ communications? A. 1106 B. 212420 WHAQ X. C. Four marks (ones) and three spaces (zeroes) forming the binary signal "1001101". D. This is established by the communications protocol used with the modem. 89J2 Once ARQ communication with the coast radio station has been established, which of the following events will most likely take place? A. The vessel then requests the coast radio station's SELCAL so that communication can be set up on the appropriate working channel. B. After exchanging answer-backs (WRU-AAB) with the vessel, the coast radio station transmits GA+?. C. Since communication has already shifted to the working channel, the vessel then transmits the subscriber number and text of the message to be sent for the coast radio station to store and forward. D. The coast radio station will transmit a menu of commands such as DIRTLX+, OBS+ or AMV+ so the ship can select the desired action. 89J3 Which of the following methods will give a GMDSS Radio Operator the best indication of whether ARQ communication can be established with a coast radio station? A. Referring to propagation charts will tell the Operator when the eruption of communication shattering solar flares will occur. B. Selecting a frequency in the MF band averts interference from severe static discharges. C. Monitor the coast radio station's "free signals" and call on the frequency on which the loudest and most consistent signals are heard. D. Re-position the antenna toward the coast radio station and press the "call request" button. 89J4 When placing a TELEX call to a Coast Station, you should always: A. Choose the closest station. B. Tune the transmitter on another frequency. C. Wait until the coast station sends his traffic list. D. Make sure the frequency is not occupied with normal traffic. 89J5 What is the best method for a GMDSS Radio Operator to determine which SITOR (NBDP) station to contact for the purpose of sending a chargeable message or cable? A. Listen to each station's “free signals” and call the strongest station. B. Listen to each station's voice announcement and determine which channel(s) will be monitored. C. Listen to each station's MSI broadcast to determine which public correspondence station to contact. D. Listen to the U.S. Coast Guard's traffic list to determine which Coast Guard station will handle commercial traffic. 89J6 Which statement is correct regarding HF SITOR (NBDP) under GMDSS? A. Distress communications other than directly to the Coast Guard or other coast stations on the channels that they normally guard, should be in the broadcast SSB mode. B. Safety communications by direct-printing telegraphy should be in the ARQ mode when communicating with the U.S. Coast Guard or other coast stations on channels that they normally guard. C. The ARQ mode may not be used subsequently to the FEC mode even when it is advantageous to do so. D. Distress communications other than directly to the Coast Guard or other coast stations on the channels that they normally guard, should be in the broadcast FEC or SSB mode. Answers: 89J1 - A 89J2 - B 89J3 - C 89J4 - D 89J5 - A 89J6 - B 90J1 Which of the following events will take place immediately after phasing with a Coast Station on an available channel? A. The ship station begins transmitting the text to the destination telex terminal. B. The vessel will request the shore station's answerback to confirm it has reached the correct station. C. The ship will transmit the desired command (such as DIRTLX+, OBS+ or AMV+) to the coast radio station. D. After exchanging answer-backs (WRU/AAB) the coast station transmits GA+? and awaits a command. 90J2 During SITOR (NBDP) ARQ operations through a coast station, what should the GMDSS operator do during the "Automatic Exchange of Answerbacks"? A. Do nothing other than wait for a GA+? prompt and then issue the desired command. B. Send a "WRU" then a "Here is" when requested to do so by the coast station. C. Send the necessary message file and then wait for time and charges. D. Wait for the coast station to transmit a menu of possible commands and select the desired action. 90J3 Assuming sending a direct TELEX message to a shore-based office, which sequence of events best describes a complete ARQ TELEX exchange with a coast station? A. Initiate call, observe phasing, wait for exchange of answer-backs (WRU-AAB), send message, send KKKK to terminate the TELEX link, receive MRN & time and charges. B. Initiate call, observe phasing, wait for exchange of answer-backs (WRU-AAB), send DIRTLX command with zero, TELEX country code, TELEX number, send message, send KKKK to terminate the TELEX link, receive MRN and time and charges. C. Initiate call, observe exchange of answer-backs (WRU-AAB), send message, send KKKK to terminate radio link, receive MRN & time and charges. D. Initiate call, observe phasing, exchange of answer-backs (WRU-AAB), send message, send KKKK to terminate radio link, receive MRN & time and charges. 90J4 For ARQ communications with a Public Correspondence Coast Station, which sequence of events best describes reaching the point in time where the text of TELEX communications should be sent. A. Transceiver setup, SELCAL selection, Initiate Call, wait for exchange of answer-backs (WRU-AAB), OPR+, operator entry of the appropriate automatic TELEX code. B. Transceiver setup, wait for exchange of answer-backs (WRU-AAB), OPR+, operator entry of the appropriate automatic TELEX code. C. Transceiver setup, SELCAL selection, Initiate Call, wait for exchange of answer-backs (WRU-AAB), GA+?, enter DIRTLX xy+, MOM, MSG+? and exchange of terminal answerbacks. D. Transceiver setup, wait for exchange of answer-backs (WRU-AAB), GA+? and then send message text. 90J5 During ARQ communications, which of these is least likely to cause a coast station to immediately break the phased radio connection: A. If the automatic exchange of answerbacks is interrupted by keyboard entries. B. If the error percentage of repeat requests becomes too high. C. If the operator enters "KKKK" at the end of the message. D. If the BRK+? Command is transmitted after time and charges are received. 90J6 During ARQ communications, which of these is least likely to cause a coast station to break the phased radio connection: A. If the error percentage of repeat requests becomes too high. B. If the operator enters "BRK+". C. If the automatic exchange of answerbacks is interrupted by keyboard entries. D. If the operator enters "NNNN" at the end of the message. Answers: 90J1 - D 90J2 - A 90J3 - B 90J4 - C 90J5 - C 90J6 - D 91J1 What sequence of ARQ codes matches the following: manual over, end of message text, end of connection to land destination terminal? A. NNNN, KKKK, GA+ B. KKKK, DIRTLX, NNNN C. +?, NNNN, KKKK D. +?, . . . . ., BRK+ 91J2 What sequence of ARQ codes matches the following: request establishment of a landline, end radio link after traffic is done, request connection for AMVER messages? A. NNNN, KKKK, AMV+ B. KKKK, BRK+, AMV+ C. BRK+, DIRTLX+, AMV+ D. DIRTLX, BRK+, AMV+ 91J3 What sequence of ARQ codes matches the following: Send synoptic weather, switch control from a station currently transmitting over to the receiving station, terminate phasing with coast station. A. OBS+, +?, BRK+ B. OBS+, WRU then Here is, BRK+ C. OBS+, GA+?, KKKK D. AMV+, +?, KKKK 91J4 A manual ship-ship ARQ message would typically begin with what sequence of ARQ procedures? A. Initiate call with CS selcal, observe exchange of answer-backs (WRU-AAB), send message. B. Initiate call with ship selcal, enter “HERE IS” then “WRU” commands and send message. C. After phasing with the other vessel, observe exchange of answer-backs (WRU-AAB), send message and then KKKK to end the transmission. D. After phasing with the other vessel then send GA+? to determine if they are ready to receive your message. 91J5 What sequence of ARQ codes matches the following: shore station indicates it is awaiting instructions from the vessel, vessel requests a live connection to a land telex number, vessel indicates it is done with the coast station? A. WRU-AAB, DIRTLX, NNNN B. GA+?, DIRTLX, BRK+ C. GA+?, DIRTLX, KKKK D. WRU-AAB, DIRTLX, ..... 91J6 All country codes which are transmitted by MF/HF SITOR (NBDP) are preceded by which character(s)? A. 00 B. + C. 0 D. DIR Answers: 91J1 - C 91J2 - D 91J3 - A 91J4 - B 91J5 - B 91J6 - C 92J1 Which of the following statements concerning SITOR (NBDP) communications is true? A. In ARQ, each character is transmitted twice, about 250 milliseconds apart. B. In ARQ, the "information sending station" will transmit a block of three characters that the receiving station will subsequently acknowledge or request be retransmitted. C. In ARQ, the "information sending station" transmits a block of three characters twice, about 250 milliseconds apart. D. SITOR (NBDP) communications can be used to contact a NAVTEX transmitting station when requesting a repeat transmission of a missed NAVTEX message. 92J2 What statement is true regarding the exchange between two parties engaged in SITOR (NBDP) communications? A. In ARQ, each character is transmitted twice, with the second displaced in time from the first. B. In ARQ, the "sending" station transmits a block of three characters and the "receiving" station responds with a one character Repeat Request. Following this the "transmitting" station will send a new block. C. In ARQ, the ISS transmits a block of 3 characters and the IRS checks for parity. If the received block is correct a one-character control signal is sent notifying the ISS to proceed with the next block. If the parity check fails the block must be resent. D. Broadcasts of Maritime Safety Information, traffic lists, etc. can be copied by the receiving station in ARQ mode. 92J3 Of the following, which is true of SITOR (NBDP) ARQ mode? A. The acceptance code consists of three characters. B. A continuous data stream is transmitted. C. Forward error correction reduces the number of errors. D. Each data block consists of three characters. 92J4 Which of the following is true of SITOR (NBDP) ARQ mode? A. This is an interactive mode. B. Each character is repeated three times. C. Each character is transmitted twice. D. This mode is generally used to broadcast messages. 92J5 In ARQ, when the information sending station (ISS) receives a signal that the parity check failed what happens? A. The next block will be sent. B. The data link will break. C. The acknowledge light should illuminate. D. The last block will be resent. 92J6 Which of the following is true of SITOR (NBDP) ARQ mode: A. The ship station sends a group of 3 characters, the shore station checks for proper parity. If parity is OK, the shore station indicates readiness for transmission of the next 3 characters. B. The ship station sends a group of 3 characters twice and then waits for an "RQ" signal to indicate proper receipt before continuing transmission. C. The Ship station sends each character twice, using a time diversity system to ensure proper parity. D. The ship station sends a group of 3 characters, the shore station checks for proper parity and then requests the same group be resent to enable error correction. Answers: 92J1 - B 92J2 - C 92J3 - D 92J4 - A 92J5 - D 92J6 - A 93J1 Which of the following keystrokes or characters is sent as part of ARQ communications to request a direct TELEX call to a shore-based location? A. DIRTLX023123456+ B. MSG+ C. GA+? D. ENTER 93J2 The DIRTLX command should be given to a coast station at what point in time? A. Immediately following the automatic exchange of answerbacks. B. After receipt of the Go Ahead indication following the automatic exchange of answerbacks. C. After receipt of the Go Ahead indication followed by the automatic exchange of answerbacks. D. Sent at the beginning of the message to request a direct TELEX connection. 93J3 Which automatic TELEX command should be sent by a ship station during SITOR (NBDP) operations to properly address a weather report to the national weather authority? A. WX+ followed by the text of the report. B. OBS+ then MSG+ to indicate weather report. C. OBS+ and then send the weather report. D. GA+? then OBS+ and then send the weather report. 93J4 Which of the following would be a valid automatic TELEX code and number for a request for a real-time TELEX connection to a shore-based TELEX terminal? A. DIRTLX then wait for MSG+ to dial 023419645+. B. DIRTLX23122445+. C. DIRTLX followed by GA+? and the TELEX number. D. DIRTLX023424998+. 93J5 When requesting a direct TELEX connection to a shore-based TELEX terminal the GMDSS operator must: A. DIRTLX, 0, Country code, TELEX number, +. B. DIRTLX, 00, Ocean Area Code, TELEX number, +. C. DIRTLX, 0, Ocean Area, TELEX number, +. D. DIRTLX, 00, Country code, TELEX number. 93J6 To correctly address a SITOR (NBDP) message and transmit it "live" to a shore-based office the GMDSS operator would dial which sequence: A. DIRTLX0051440344+ B. DIRTLX051440344+ C. DIRTLX581440344+ D. DIRTLX05811500260+ Answers: 93J1 - A 93J2 - B 93J3 - C 93J4 - D 93J5 - A 93J6 - B 94J1 Which of the following statements concerning SITOR (NBDP) communications is true? A. Communication is established on the working channel and answerbacks are exchanged before FEC broadcasts can be received. B. All of these answers are true. C. Weather broadcasts cannot be made in FEC because sending each character twice would cause the broadcast to be prohibitively long. D. Two-way communication with the coast radio station using FEC is not necessary to be able to receive the broadcasts. 94J2 Which of the following is true of SITOR (NBDP) in FEC mode, in the presence of static crashes. A. FEC reduces the error rate by transmitting each character twice. B. Data flow rate depends on signal propagation. C. Idle characters are sent upon request. D. Transmitter and receiver do not synchronize. 94J3 Which of the following statements concerning SITOR (NBDP) communications is true? A. FEC requests are first acknowledged by the vessel's transmitter before broadcasts can be received. B. FEC mode broadcasts can be passively received without the transmitter being active. C. Weather broadcasts are always made in ARQ mode to ensure reception. D. ARQ mode communications can be passively received without the transmitter being active. 94J4 The sequence ARQ, FEC, SFEC best corresponds to which of the following sequences? A. One-way communications to a single station, one-way communications to all stations, two-way communications. B. One-way communications to all stations, two-way communications, one-way communications to a single station. C. Two-way communications, one-way communications to all stations, one-way communications to a single station. D. Two-way communications, One-way communications to a single station, One-way communications to all stations. 94J5 The sequence BFEC, SFEC, ARQ best corresponds to which of the following sequences? A. One-way communications to a single station, one-way communications to all stations, two-way communications. B. One-way communications to all stations, two-way communications, one-way communications to a single station. C. One-way communications to all stations, one-way communications to a single station, two-way communications. D. Two-way communications, one-way communications to all stations, two-way communications. 94J6 Selective FEC communications (SFEC) are employed when: A. Multiple stations without a group SELCAL must receive communications without using their transmitters (Radio Silence). B. Multiple stations must receive communications by using their transmitters to achieve phasing. C. An individual station must receive communications by using their transmitter to achieve phasing and block other stations from breaking in. D. An individual station must receive communications without using any transmitters (Radio Silence). Answers: 94J1 - D 94J2 - A 94J3 - B 94J4 - C 94J5 - C 94J6 - D 95J1 If the vessel is within range of NAVTEX broadcasts and both the Inmarsat-C and the NAVTEX receiver are inoperative the GMDSS operator should: A. Select 518 kHz ARQ TELEX on the MF/HF console to receive MSI. B. Request repairs of the Sat-C system and wait until within range of NAVTEX. C. Select 518 kHz FEC TELEX on the MF/HF console to receive MSI. D. Select an HF MSI frequency and ARQ TELEX mode to receive MSI. 95J2 If the vessel is beyond range of NAVTEX broadcasts and the Inmarsat-C system fails, the GMDSS operator must: A. Select 518 kHz ARQ TELEX on the MF/HF console to receive MSI. B. Request repairs of the Sat-C system and wait until within range of NAVTEX. C. Select 518 kHz FEC TELEX on the MF/HF console to receive MSI. D. Select an HF MSI frequency and FEC TELEX mode to receive MSI. 95J3 If the vessel is experiencing atmospheric interference with NAVTEX broadcasts, especially in the tropics, the GMDSS operator should: A. Select one of the 8 HF MSI frequencies and set-up the transceiver in FEC TELEX mode. B. Select one of the 6 HF MSI frequencies and set-up the transceiver in ARQ TELEX mode. C. Select one of the 6 MF MSI frequencies and set-up the transceiver in FEC TELEX mode. D. Select the MF MSI frequency dedicated to tropical MSI and set-up the transceiver in FEC TELEX mode. 95J4 Why must the GMDSS operator be able to set-up FEC & ARQ modes and differentiate between them? A. The proper mode of SFEC must be selected for reception of HF MSI and ARQ selected for initial follow-on TELEX communications in a Distress situation B. The proper mode must be selected for follow-on TELEX communications in a Distress situation and for the reception of HF MSI. C. The ARQ TELEX mode must be selected for follow-on TELEX communications in a Distress situation and the BFEC TELEX mode selected for reception of HF MSI. D. The BFEC TELEX mode must be selected for follow-on TELEX communications in a Distress situation and the ARQ TELEX mode selected for reception of HF MSI. 95J5 BFEC SITOR (NBDP) transmissions might be used to? A. Receive Coast station traffic lists, NAVTEX and VHF MSI broadcasts. B. Send and receive Distress TELEX communications and receive HF MSI or NAVTEX. C. Receive weather messages or download ARQ Coast Station traffic lists. D. Receive weather messages and send vessel weather OBS messages. 95J6 FEC SITOR (NBDP) transmissions are normally used to? A. Receive Coast station traffic lists, NAVTEX and VHF MSI broadcasts. B. Receive weather messages, Coast Station traffic lists and company messages. C. Receive HF MSI and NAVTEX. D. Receive company communications sent through coast stations. Answers: 95J1 - C 95J2 - D 95J3 - A 95J4 - B 95J5 - B 95J6 - C 96J1 The "short rules" of propagation necessary to select the appropriate frequency band are: A. Shorter distance = Higher Frequency, Daytime = Higher Frequency. B. Shorter distance = Lower Frequency, Daytime = Higher Frequency. C. Shorter distance = Higher Frequency, Daytime = Lower Frequency. D. Shorter distance = Lower Frequency, Daytime = Lower Frequency. 96J2 GMDSS operators should learn which of the following propagation "rules of thumb"? A. Longer distance = lower frequency, Shorter distance = higher frequency; Daytime = higher frequency, nighttime = lower frequency. B. Longer distance = lower frequency, Shorter distance = lower frequency, Daytime = lower frequency, nighttime = higher frequency. C. Longer distance = higher frequency, Shorter distance = lower frequency, Daytime = higher frequency, nighttime = lower frequency. D. Longer distance = higher frequency, Shorter distance = higher frequency, Daytime = lower frequency, nighttime = higher frequency. 96J3 What would be the most appropriate HF bands for communicating from San Francisco to Taiwan or the Philippines? A. 12 MHz during daylight at each end and 2 MHz when dark at each end. B. 8 MHz during daylight hours and 16 MHz during darkness. C. 6 MHz during daylight hours and 8 MHz during darkness. D. 16 or 22 MHz when daylight at each end and 8 MHz when dark at each end. 96J4 GMDSS operators should routinely focus on the factors affecting propagation in what priority? A. Distance & time of day, seasonal variations, sunspot cycle, solar flare alerts. B. Sunspot cycle, distance & time of day, seasonal variations, solar flare alerts. C. Solar flare alerts, distance & time of day, sunspot cycle, seasonal variations. D. Solar flare alerts, sunspot cycle, seasonal variations, distance & time of day. 96J5 Which statement concerning frequency band selection and propagation most corresponds with standard practice. A. Maximum Usable Frequency (MUF) and Optimum Usable Frequency (OUF) should be calculated prior to setting up the transceiver. B. Propagation rules, Sunspot cycle status and seasonal variations (winter & summer) must always be employed to calculate the proper band selection. C. Propagation "rules of thumb" should be combined with Solar flare alerts to determine band selection. D. Propagation "rules of thumb" are usually sufficient for routine operations. 96J6 To ensure effective HF communications, GMDSS operators should: A. Employ the short rules of propagation selection or rely on previous successful communications as a guide. B. Disregard the short rules of propagation selection and try different bands until one works. C. Do not rely on previous successful communications on the selected frequency band – the ionosphere changes too rapidly and inconsistently. D. Rely on the equipment calculations of Optimum Usable Frequency. Answers: 96J1 - B 96J2 - C 96J3 - D 96J4 - A 96J5 - D 96J6 - A 97J1 A ship has been communicating effectively on 16 MHz during daylight hours with a shore station at a distance of 3200 miles. Toward late afternoon and evening what effect would be noticed? A. Communications should gradually deteriorate and become impossible on this frequency at night. B. Communications should be maintained with slight improvement in the signal received from the shore station. C. The gray line effect will prevent communications after dark. D. Communications should improve and peak at night. 97J2 A ship at anchor has been communicating with a shore station approximately 350 miles distant on a frequency in the 4 MHz band through early afternoon. Toward the late afternoon and evening, what effect should be noticed? A. Communications should be maintained with slight improvement in the signal received from the shore station. B. Communications should gradually improve and peak at night and early morning. C. Communications should slowly deteriorate but may be continued throughout the night. D. Communications should gradually deteriorate and become impossible on this frequency by night. 97J3 At mid-day in the summer, what would be the best choice in attempting to communicate, using J3E voice with a shore station some 1800 miles distant? A. VHF-FM B. Lower HF bands C. Higher HF bands D. MF 97J4 At mid-night, what would be the best choice in attempting to communicate, using SITOR (NBDP) with a shore station some 800 miles distant? A. VHF-FM B. Higher UHF bands C. Communications are impossible at this distance. D. HF bands 97J5 At mid-day, what would be the best choice in attempting to communicate with a shore station some 75 miles distant? A. MF B. VHF-FM C. 22 MHz band D. 16 MHz band 97J6 How can a GMDSS operator determine the best frequency band to choose for a SITOR (NBDP) transmission to a shore station? A. By consulting propagation tables. B. Listen to shore station "free signals" and choose the band with the strongest signal. C. If static interference is present, try lower bands first. D. During nighttime, choose higher frequencies. Choose lower frequencies in the daytime. Answers: 97J1 - A 97J2 - B 97J3 - C 97J4 - D 97J5 - A 97J6 - B 98J1 The Distress Alarm sounds and the screen readout no longer contains the particulars of the Distress: A. The particulars are rarely routed to the printer so it is of no use to examine the printer. B. Examine the Transmitted Data Directory or the printer to recover the information. C. Call the Distress vessel on the DSC frequency and request a retransmission. D. Examine the Received Data Directory or the printer to recover the information. 98J2 A DSC Distress alert is received by your vessel and your transceiver frequency display reads: Transmit = 4207.5 kHz and Receive = 4207.5 kHz with J3E emission -- what information can you infer from this? A. The DSC call requested voice on 4207.5 kHz simplex but the requested alternate frequency is improper. B. The DSC controller decoded the requested voice frequency as 4207.5 kHz simplex and your DSC controller has automatically set-up your transceiver and therefore the requested alternate frequency is correct. C. The DSC call came in on 4 MHz DSC. You should set-up your transmitter and respond on the appropriate voice follow-on frequency of 4177.5 kHz. D. The DSC call came in on 4 MHz DSC. You should set-up your transmitter and respond on the appropriate voice follow-on frequency of 4207.5 kHz. 98J3 What are potential dangers of automatic transceiver switching in response to a DSC call? A. Incorrectly formatted DSC calls from other vessels result in a warning in the DSC alarm screen but the vessel still might be switched to an illegal or improper outcome. B. The transceiver may be switched out of the marine bands or the frequency may not match the requested priority or emission. C. The automatic transceiver switching software always detects improper priorities, emissions & frequencies to ensure there is no danger. D. The automatic transceiver switching feature always interrupting safe navigation of your own vessel and placing the unit on the GMDSS Distress, Urgency or Safety follow-on frequencies. 98J4 Which of these would not be a bad outcome of an Urgency DSC call to all vessels specifying an alternate TELEX frequency & emission that cause your transceiver to automatically switch? A. The DSC controller decoded the contents of the DSC call and the requested frequency is not on the DUS table/placard but is in the marine band frequencies in the J2B emission. B. The DSC controller decoded the contents of the DSC call and the requested frequency is on the DUS table/placard in the J3E emission. C. The DSC controller decoded the contents of the DSC call and the requested frequency is on the DUS table/placard in the J2B emission. D. The DSC controller decoded the contents of the DSC call and the requested frequency is not on the DUS table/placard, is not in the marine band or the other vessel requested a J3E emission. 98J5 An incoming Distress priority 16 MHz DSC call requesting J3E emission might automatically switch to what frequency? A. 16420.0 MHz B. 16696.5 kHz C. 16420.0 kHz D. 16804.5 kHz 98J6 An incoming DSC Distress alert on 8414.5 kHz will have what result? A. The DSC controller will emit both an audible and visual alarm. B. The particulars of the alert may be printed out. C. The Distress information contained in the alert will be sent to the data directory. D. All of these answers would typically occur. Answers: 98J1 - D 98J2 - A 98J3 - B 98J4 - C 98J5 - C 98J6 - D 99J1 What is the normal voltage of a fully charged single lead acid battery cell? A. 1.5 volts B. 2.5 volts C. 2.1 volts D. 1.2 volts 99J2 What is the normal specific gravity of a fully charged lead acid battery cell? What device is used to measuring the electrolyte of a lead acid battery? A. 1.375 Voltmeter B. 1.180 Voltmeter C. 1.210 Hydrometer D. 1.265 Hydrometer 99J3 What is a gel cell battery and how is it maintained & cared for? A. Gel cell batteries are typically sealed; special charging rates and voltages may be required. B. Gel cell batteries are lead acid with a solid electrolyte; each cell is checked with a voltmeter. C. Gel cell batteries are NICAD with a solid electrolyte; each cell is checked with a voltmeter. D. Gel cell batteries are have special liquid electrolytes; they are charged with the NICAD charging rates and voltages. 99J4 What will cause an individual battery cell to reverse polarity. A. High discharge rates without allowing for a cool down period. B. When discharging the battery string if a cell becomes weaker than the remaining cells, the discharge current will effectively charge the weaker cell in reverse polarity. C. Insufficient charging which does not bring all of the cells up to full charge. D. The charging circuits are connected in the correct polarity but all of the cells are equally charged. 99J5 What is the effect of temperature on the specific gravity of lead acid batteries? A. Higher temperature results in a higher specific gravity reading. B. Higher temperature results in a lower specific gravity reading. C. Temperature has no effect on the specific gravity reading. D. Lower temperature results in a lower specific gravity reading. 99J6 What would be an indication of a malfunction on a GMDSS station with a 24 VDC battery system? A. All of these symptoms would indicate a potential battery charger malfunction. B. After testing the station on battery power, a voltmeter reading of 30 volts for a brief period followed by a steady 26 volt reading. C. A constant 30 volt reading on the GMDSS console voltmeter. D. After testing the station on battery power, the ammeter reading indicates a high rate of charge that then declines. Answers: 99J1 - C 99J2 - D 99J3 - A 99J4 - B 99J5 - B 99J6 - C 100J1 Which of the following conditions would be a symptom of malfunction in a 2182 kHz radiotelephone system which must be reported to the Master? A. Much lower noise level observed during daytime operation. B. No indication of power output when speaking into the microphone. C. When testing a radiotelephone alarm on 2182 kHz into an artificial antenna, the Distress frequency watch receiver becomes unmuted, an improper testing procedure. D. Failure to contact a shore station 600 nautical miles distant during daytime operation. 100J2 Which would indicate a malfunction in a 2182 kHz radiotelephone system? A. No discernable traffic has been heard on the 2182 kHz during the radiotelephone silent periods. B. Dramatic increase in noise level observed during night and early morning hours. C. Failure to contact another station 60 miles distant during daytime operation. D. The visual indication of power to the antenna fluctuates while testing the radiotelephone alarm signal generator into an artificial antenna. 100J3 Which would indicate proper operation of a SSB transmitter rated at 60 Watt PEP output in J3E mode? A. In SITOR (NBDP) communications, the power meter can be seen fluctuating regularly from zero to the 60 watt relative output reading. B. In SSB (J3E) mode, speaking into the microphone causes the power meter to fluctuate well above the 60 watt reading. C. A steady indication of transmitted energy on an RF power meter with no fluctuations when speaking into the microphone. D. In SSB (J3E) voice mode, with the transmitter keyed but without speaking into the microphone, no power output is indicated. 100J4 Which would be an indication of proper operation of a SSB transmitter rated at 60 watt PEP output? A. In SITOR (NBDP) communications, the power meter can be seen fluctuating regularly from zero to the 60 watt relative output reading. B. In SSB (J3E) voice mode, with the transmitter keyed but without speaking into the microphone, power output is indicated. C. In SSB (J3E) mode, speaking into the microphone causes power meter to fluctuate slightly around the 60 watt reading. D. A steady indication of transmitted energy on an RF Power meter with no fluctuations when speaking into the microphone. 100J5 Your antenna coupler/tuner becomes totally inoperative. What would you do to obtain operation on 2 HF bands? A. Without an operating antenna coupler/tuner, transmission is impossible. B. It is impossible to obtain operation on 2 different HF bands, without an operating antenna coupler/tuner. C. Bypass the antenna coupler/tuner and shorten the whip to 15 ft. D. Bypass the antenna coupler/tuner. Use a straight whip or wire antenna approximately 30 ft long. 100J6 Your MF-HF whip antenna breaks off and is carried away in a storm. What would you do to regain operation on MF-HF frequencies? A. Rig a wire antenna approximately 35-40 ft long per the equipment instruction manual. B. Rig a wire antenna 10-15 ft long from the antenna coupler/tuner to the highest vertical support. C. Rig a horizontal, center-fed dipole antenna 40 ft long. D. Rig a long wire antenna at least 200 ft long. Answers: 100J1 - B 100J2 - C 100J3 - D 100J4 - A 100J5 - D 100J6 - A share/E9.txt0000664000175000017500000031235414621431021011352 0ustar jtnjtn9-1A1 What are the correct VHF Channels and Frequencies for Calling/Distress, DSC and bridge-to-bridge operations? A. Ch-16, 156.800 MHz, Ch-70, 156.525 MHz and Ch-13, 156.650 MHz. B. Ch-06, 156.300 MHz, Ch-16, 156.800 MHz and Ch-13, 156.650 MHz. C. Ch-08, 156.400 MHz, Ch-70, 156.525 MHz and Ch-16, 156.800 MHz. D. Ch-06, 156.300 MHz, Ch-12, 156.600 MHz and Ch-13, 156.650 MHz. 9-1A2 What is the frequency separation between Transmit and Receive frequencies on a duplex channel? A. 2.8 MHz B. 4.6 MHz C. 6.4 MHz D. 10.7 MHz 9-1A3 What is the assigned channel spacing for VHF channels? A. 10 kHz B. 15 kHz C. 25 kHz D. 50 kHz 9-1A4 What is the allowed frequency tolerance for the DSC carrier frequencies? A. 10 Hz B. 20 Hz C. 5 ppm D. 10 ppm 9-1A5 Using a frequency counter with an accuracy of 2 ppm, which of the following are within legal tolerance for the frequencies of 156.800 MHz and 156.525 MHz? A. 156,798.758 kHz and 156.526.243 kHz. B. 156,798.735 kHz and 156,526.258 kHz. C. 156,801.567 kHz and 156,526.476 kHz. D. 156,798.635 kHz and 156,523.352 kHz 9-1A6 Using a frequency counter with an accuracy of 5 ppm, which of the following are within legal tolerance for the frequencies of 156.875 MHz and 157.200? A. 156,873.562 kHz and 157,198.264 kHz. B. 156,875.774 kHz and 157.199.321 kHz. C. 156,876.562 kHz and 157,201.355 kHz. D. 156,873.336 kHz and 157,201.570 kHz. Answers: 1A1: A 1A2: B 1A3: C 1A4: D 1A5: A 1A6: B 9-2A1 What is the purpose of the USA-INT switch? A. To provide for simplex operations with European Public Correspondence stations. B. To provide for duplex operations with U.S. Public Correspondence stations. C. To change from duplex to simplex operation on designated channels in European waters. D. To change from duplex to simplex operation on designated channels in U.S. waters. 9-2A2 What may happen if the USA-INT control is left on INT when in U.S. waters? A. Your signals will be heard but other station replies will not be heard on certain channels. B. You will be able to communicate with public correspondence stations on Channel 5. C. Other stations will not be able to hear your transmissions and you will not hear any signals. D. You will not be able to operate on channel 13. 9-2A3 What is the purpose of the Dual Watch function? A. Allows simultaneous reception on two different channels. B. To rapidly switch the radio’s receiver between two channels. C. Allows reception and transmission at the same time. D. It allows you to monitor both sides of a public correspondence station’s communication. 9-2A4 What is the proper adjustment of the squelch control for maximum sensitivity? A. Maximum clockwise rotation. B. Maximum counterclockwise rotation. C. Just below the point where the noise breaks through. D. The squelch has no effect on the sensitivity. 9-2A5 Which of the following transmitter power levels are permitted by FCC rules? A. Low Power: 0.1 W, High Power: 5 W B. Low Power: 0.5 W, High Power: 25 W C. Low Power: 1 W, High Power: 25 W D. Low Power: 5 W, High Power: 50 W 9-2A6 Which of the following controls is not found on a VHF-DSC transceiver? A. “Distress” B. “Cancel” C. “Squelch” D. “R.I.T.” Answers: 2A1: D 2A2: A 2A3: B 2A4: C 2A5: C 2A6: D 9-3A1 Which of the following best describes the “Capture effect?” A. The receiver will accept all signals near the operating frequency. B. The receiver will reject all but the weakest signal. C. The receiver will reject all but the strongest signal. D. The receiver will modulate an adjacent transmitter. 9-3A2 Which of the following may be adjusted in a FM ratio detector for improved signal-to-noise? A. The diode detector B. Input signal to the two diodes C. Input voltage to the transistor D. Ratio Arm balance control bridge 9-3A3 What is the function of a properly adjusted limiter circuit? A. Maintains a constant output amplitude with a varying input amplitude. B. Limits the level of RF output power in the final amplifier stage. C. Limits the modulation input amplitude while amplifying the modulation output. D. Controls the DC input voltage excursions of the final amplifier stage. 9-3A4 Which of the following are true about SINAD measurements? A. SINAD is the product of the signal and noise divided by the sum of the noise and distortion. B. SINAD is the sum of the signal, noise and distortion divided by the sum of the noise and distortion. C. SINAD is the sum of the noise and distortion divided by the sum of the signal, noise and distortion. D. SINAD is the product of the noise and distortion divided by the sum of the signal and noise. 9-3A5 What would be considered a normal sensitivity for 10 db of quieting in a VHF marine receiver? A. 0.1 microvolt B. 1 microvolt C. 5 microvolts D. 10 microvolts 9-3A6 What is meant by “full quieting” in a FM VHF receiver? A. Adjusting the squelch control to eliminate background noise. B. The rapid decrease in SINAD and noise with increasing signal level. C. The received signal is strong enough to completely quiet the receiver background noise. D. The rapid improvement in SINAD and decrease in noise with decreasing signal level. Answers: 3A1: C 3A2: D 3A3: A 3A4: B 3A5: B 3A6: C 9-4A1 What condition may prevent a VHF radio receiver from staying tuned to the desired channel? A. The local oscillator frequency is beating against the incoming signal to produce an Intermediate Frequency (IF). B. The output signal of the Phase Locked Loop (PLL) circuit in the frequency synthesizer has become unlocked. C. The discriminator circuit is alternately developing positive and negative voltages at the modulation frequency. D. The ratio detector circuit is producing a variable output that deviates across the receiver’s dynamic range. 9-4A2 What fault may exist if a VHF radio receiver fails to produce audible output from the speaker and the squelch control has no effect? A. A component in the RF amplifier stage has failed or the signal from a preceding stage is grounded. B. The Local Oscillator stage is no longer supplying a signal to the mixer stage at the correct frequency. C. The AF amplifier may be defective or the transmitter Push-To-Talk circuit may be activated. D. The mixer stage is no longer producing an output signal on the correct Intermediate Frequency (IF). 9-4A3 What is indicated if a VHF radio fails to receive nearby stations and a voltmeter connected between the positive side of a radio’s DC line and ground reads zero line voltage? The fuse in the VHF radio also reads zero when checked with an ohmmeter. A. The antenna may be defective or water intrusion has affected antenna system performance. B. The coaxial transmission line may be open, shorted, or a connector has become intermittent. C. A fault in the discriminator circuit is producing zero output voltage during peak modulation. D. A “crowbar” circuit has prevented an over current condition that might damage the radio. 9-4A4 What fault may exist if a VHF radio receiver fails to produce audible output from the speaker and the squelch control has no effect? A. The AF amplifier may be defective or the transmitter Push-To-Talk circuit may be activated. B. A component in the RF amplifier stage has failed or the signal from a preceding stage is grounded. C. The Local Oscillator stage is no longer supplying a signal to the mixer stage at the correct frequency. D. The mixer stage is no longer producing an output signal on the correct Intermediate Frequency (IF). 9-4A5 What condition may prevent a VHF radio receiver from receiving a weak signal? A. The local oscillator frequency is beating against the incoming signal to produce an Intermediate Frequency (IF). B. The output signal of the Phase Locked Loop (PLL) circuit in the frequency synthesizer has become unlocked. C. The output signal of an AF amplifier stage is greater than the input signal. D. The weak RF signal has been suppressed at the limiter stage of the received by capture effect. 9-4A6 Which of the following is the best test procedure to isolate the source of distortion in the audio output of a receiver? A. Use an oscilloscope to visually display AC signals on the output of each AF amplifier stage. B. Use a spectrum analyzer to visually display the amplitude and frequency of each AF amplifier stage input. C. Use a signal generator to inject a 1 KHz signal into the first AF amplifier stage and evaluate audio output. D. Use a digital voltmeter to measure transistor bias voltages in each AF amplifier stage. Answers: 4A1: B 4A2: C 4A3: D 4A4: A 4A5: D 4A6: A 9-5A1 What condition may cause a significant loss in VHF receiver sensitivity? A. A reading of 9.6 when a voltmeter is connected between the positive side of the radio’s DC line and ground. B. The presence of a -90dbm signal measured at the 2nd IF output with the receiver tuned to the desired input frequency. C. An internal signal that is very weak in comparison to the desired signal at the output of the second IF stage. D. Replacing (75 ohm) RG-59/U coaxial transmission line with a (50 ohm) RG-8/U or LMR-400 Ultraflex cable. 9-5A2 Which of the following test procedures may be used to determine a VHF receiver’s minimum discernible signal? A. Connect an oscilliscope to the antenna input and observe the amplitude of minimum signal voltage plotted on the display’s vertical axis as a function of time on the horizontal axis. B. Set a signal generator to the frequency of the VHF receiver, adjust the output signal to near zero, and increase the signal level until an audio voltmeter connected to the AF output point indicates a 3-dB increase. C. Connect a spectrum analyzer to the antenna input and apply the maximum amount of attentuation to detect minimum signal level plotted on the display’s vertical axis as a function of frequency on the horizontal axis. D. Connect a 156.3 Mhz signal generator to the antenna input, set the VHF receiver to channel 06 and measure dynamic range using an oscilliscope. 9-5A3 Which of the following procedures may be used in many U.S. ports as a quick field test to determine if a shipboard VHF receiver is operating properly? A. Tune the VHF receiver to 158.6 MHz and listen for local U.S. Coast Guard announcements or radio traffic from other vessels. B. Set the VHF radio to a simplex channel, key the transmitter, and monitor the quality of the transmitted signal with the internal receiver. C. Tune the VHF radio to 162.550 MHz, 162.400 MHz or 162.475 MHz and listen for broadcasts from the National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration. D. Connect appropriate test equipment to the radio and measure signal levels at the output of the receiver’s RF amplifier stage. 9-5A4 What ohmmeter reading may indicate a faulty component in a VHF receiver? A. Low resistance across a diode in one direction, high resistance when test leads are reversed. B. Zero ohms across an in-line fuse in a DC power circuit. C. Infinite ohms across a ceramic bypass capacitor in a transistor amplifier circuit. D. A transistor indicates low resistance between emitter and base when test leads are reversed across them. 9-5A5 What condition may indicate a VHF receiver fault? A. The same voltage reading between each lead of a 100K-ohm resistor and ground in a bias circuit. B. A “click” is heard when an ohmmeter set to R X 1 is touched across loudspeaker terminals. C. A voltage drop across the leads of a 47K ohm resistor in an intermediate frequency amplifier stage. D. The presence of an AC signal on the output of an audio frequency amplifier stage. 9-5A6 What condition may cause noisy operation of a VHF receiver? A. An output signal that is larger than the input signal in an audio frequency amplifier stage. B. A defective potentiometer in the audio frequency amplifier stage. C. Low bias voltage to an intermediate frequency amplifier stage. D. An open winding in a secondary of a coupling transformer in the audio frequency amplifier stage. Answers: 5A1: A 5A2: B 5A3: C 5A4: D 5A5: A 5A6: B 9-6A1 What is the maximum allowable deviation of a marine VHF transmitter? A. 12 kHz B. 10 kHz C. 7.5 kHz D. 5 kHz 9-6A2 What is the modulation index? A. The maximum carrier deviation divided by the maximum modulation frequency. B. The maximum modulation frequency divided by the maximum carrier frequency. C. The maximum carrier deviation multiplied by the maximum carrier frequency. D. The maximum carrier deviation divided by the amount of pre-emphasis. 9-6A3 How is pre-emphasis used in an FM transceiver? A. The lower modulation frequencies are boosted before transmitting by 3 db per octave and reduced by the same amount at the receiver. B. The higher modulation frequencies are boosted before transmitting by 6 db per octave and reduced by the same amount at the receiver. C. The lower modulation frequencies are boosted before transmitting by 6 db per octave and reduced by the same amount at the receiver. D. The higher modulation frequencies are boosted before transmitting by 3 db per octave and reduced by the same amount at the receiver. 9-6A4 A modulation index set to less than 1 to 1 may result in what? A. Excessive deviation B. Unstable signal excursions C. Unusually low level transmit audio D. Unusually high pitch audio response 9-6A5 What is the most common type of emission for shipboard VHF-DSC transceivers? A. F1B B. J3B C. G3E D. H3E 9-6A6 How many sidebands does a VHF FM transmitter have? A. One B. Two C. One to four D. Many Answers: 6A1: D 6A2: A 6A3: B 6A4: C 6A5: C 6A6: D 9-7A1 What condition may be indicated if a VHF radio is unable to contact nearby stations and an inline wattmeter indicates power outputs of 1 watt (LOW power) mode and 8.5 watts (HIGH power) mode with +12.8 vdc applied to the radio’s DC line? A. The AF Power Amplifier (PA) may be malfunctioning when the transmitter operates in the high power mode. B. Negative feedback in the PA stage may be preventing high amplitude oscillations in the high power mode. C. The transmitter output is low in the high power mode but it is still functioning within FCC specifications. D. The transmitter output will increase in the high power mode with modulation between 75 and 100 percent. 9-7A2 Antenna system matching can be analyzed by determining the Standing Wave Ratio (SWR). Which of the following is the best test procedure to measure the SWR of a marine VHF antenna system? A. Insert an in-line RF Power meter between the VHF radio and an artificial antenna, set the radio to any channel, key the microphone, and read the measured value. B. Insert a SWR meter between the VHF transmitter and the coaxial transmission line connected to the antenna, set the radio to channel 16, and conduct a “RADIO CHECK” with a nearby U.S. Coast Guard station or vessel. C. Insert an in-line RF Power meter between the VHF radio and the coaxial transmission line disconnected from the antenna, activate the Push-To-Talk (PTT) circuit, and read the forward and reflected values. D. Insert a SWR meter between the VHF radio and the coaxial transmission line connected to the antenna, set the radio to an unused channel, activate the Push-To-Talk (PTT) circuit, and read the measured value. 9-7A3 A mismatched antenna system can degrade marine VHF radio performance. Antenna system matching can be analyzed by determining the Standing Wave Ratio (SWR). Which of the following is the best test procedure to determine the VHF antenna system SWR? A. Insert a directional wattmeter between the VHF transmitter and the coaxial transmission line connected to the antenna, activate the Push-To-Talk (PTT) circuit, observe the measured values of forward and reflected power. B. Insert a SWR meter between the VHF transmitter and the coaxial transmission line disconnected from the antenna, set the radio to an unused channel, activate the Push-To-Talk circuit, and read the measured value. C. Insert a directional wattmeter between the VHF radio and an artificial antenna, set the radio to any channel, key the microphone, and read the values of forward and reflected power. D. Insert an in-line RF Power meter between the VHF transmitter and the coaxial transmission line connected to a 50 ohm load, activate the Push-To-Talk (PTT) circuit, observe the measured value of reflected power. 9-7A4 What may be indicated if a VHF radio operates normally but the transmitter produces nearly zero RF output in the high power mode on all marine channels? A. The antenna system is presenting a Standing Wave Ratio (SWR) of 1.5 to 1.0 on the desired frequency. B. The SWR protection circuit in the transmitter has engaged to prevent damage to the Power Amplifier. C. A “crowbar” circuit in the power supply has prevented an over current condition that might damage the radio. D. A 50-ohm impedance in the antenna system is preventing the transmitter from achieving full power output. 9-7A5 What condition may indicate voltage controlled oscillator failure in the synthesizer of a VHF transmitter? A. Low transmitter power output in the high power mode. B. An out-of-lock condition in the Phased Locked-Loop circuit. C. Excessive deviation in the frequency modulated output signal. D. A constant transmitter power output at various modulation levels. 9-7A6 What condition may exist if a VHF radio is operational in receive mode but unable to transmit? A. Excessive bias is being applied to switching transistors in the transmitter output stage. B. The solid-state antenna relay is no longer functioning properly. C. A component in the Push-To-Talk (PTT) circuit has failed. D. The SWR protection circuit has engaged to prevent transmission. Answers: 7A1: C 7A2: D 7A3: A 7A4: B 7A5: B 7A6: C 9-8A1 What condition may be indicated if a VHF radio cannot contact nearby stations on any channel, an inline wattmeter indicates 25 watts output (HIGH power mode), and no modulation is heard when the transmitted signal is monitored with an external receiver? A. A fault in the transmitter’s Push-To-Talk circuit is causing the loss of audio. B. There is an open connection in the microphone cable or connector. C. The microphone’s Automatic Gain Control (AGC) has malfunctioned. D. Degenerative feedback applied to the AF amplifier exceeds specifications. 9-8A2 What condition may be indicated if a VHF radio cannot contact nearby stations, an inline wattmeter indicates less than 1 watt output (HIGH power mode), and nominal voltage (e.g., 12.8 vdc) is applied to the VHF radio power input line? A. The RF power applied to the input of the Power Amplifier (PA) stage is excessive. B. There is an open connection between the radio’s PA stage and the antenna connector. C. The bias voltage applied to the Power Amplifier (PA) stage may be insufficient. D. A defective capacitor is blocking DC voltage from appearing at the antenna connector. 9-8A3 A spectrum analyzer (SPECAN) can be a useful test instrument to troubleshoot a marine VHF radio. Which of the following is the best procedure to evaluate the input/output stages of a marine VHF transmitter? A. Connect the radio to the SPECAN through an in-line attenuator, apply maximum attentuation and set the radio to HIGH power. Use an inductive probe to evaluate signals at the input/output of AF transmitter stages. B. Connect the radio to the SPECAN through an in-line attenuator, apply maximum attentuation and switch the radio to HIGH power. Use an inductive probe to evaluate signals at the input/output of RF transmitter stages. C. Connect the radio to the SPECAN through an in-line attenuator, apply minimum attentuation and switch the radio to LOW power. Use an inductive probe to evaluate signals at the input/output of AF transmitter stages. D. Connect the radio to the SPECAN through an in-line attenuator, apply maximum attentuation and switch the radio to LOW power. Use an inductive probe to evaluate signals at the input/output of RF transmitter stages. 9-8A4 Which in-line RF power reading indicates the proper operation of a VHF marine transmitter? A. 25 watts forward/1.5 watts reflected. B. 25 watts forward/25 watts reflected. C. 27.5 watts forward/1.5 watts reflected. D. 2.5 watts forward/1.5 watts reflected. 9-8A5 What condition may cause distortion in the modulator stage of a marine VHF transmitter? A. The reactance modulator may be out of alignment. B. The excessive use of pre-emphasis on audio signals above 25 kHz. C. A defective varactor diode in the transmitter’s voltage controlled oscillator. D. Transmitter modulation in excess of 150%. 9-8A6 What terms are used to describe a device used to test the RF power output of a marine VHF transmitter without emitting a signal on the air? A. Dummy load, artificial antenna. B. Phantom Antenna, dummy load. C. Isotropic suppressor, artificial antenna. D. Artificial attenuator, dummy load. Answers: 8A1: B 8A2: C 8A3: D 8A4: A 8A5: D 8A6: A 9-9A1 What is the correct frequency shift and sub-carrier for VHF-DSC? A. 1300-2100 Hz, sub-carrier 1700 Hz. B. 1500-2300 Hz, sub-carrier 1900 Hz. C. 1200-2600 Hz, sub-carrier 1900 Hz. D. 1500-2300 Hz, sub-carrier 1700 Hz. 9-9A2 What is the correct modulation rate and index of modulation for VHF-DSC? A. 800 baud, 3.0 +/- 10% B. 1200 baud, 2.0 +/- 10% C. 1500 baud, 2.0 +/- 5% D. 1800 baud, 3.0 +/- 5% 9-9A3 How might a DSC radio check be accomplished with a coast station? A. Enter the station's MMSI, and press the button under the red plastic cover for 5 seconds. B. Select DSC menu item TEST, enter the Coast Station's FCC call letters, and send the test call. C. Select DSC menu item TEST, enter the Coast Station's MMSI number, and send the test. D. Select DSC menu ALL SHIPS, and send the test message. 9-9A4 You attempt to program a new MMSI into a VHF radio with an existing MMSI. The radio will not accept the entry. What is the best course of action to correct this problem? A. You must RESET the DSC memory by holding down two buttons as described in the user manual. B. You can never change a number, once one is already programmed. C. Re-register the old MMSI with the new owner and make no programming changes to the radio. D. Contact the manufacturer for action to clear the MMSI memory and accept the new number. 9-9A5 What is the time diversity reception interval for a VHF-DSC call? A. 33-1/3 milliseconds B. 40.5 milliseconds C. 66-2/3 milliseconds D. 91 milliseconds 9-9A6 What might a voltmeter indicate when testing a DSC circuit for an outgoing message data stream? A. Steady reading of 12 volts DC. B. Fluctuating reading from 0 to 2 volts DC. C. There will be an absence of voltage. D. Voltage swing from -12 VDC to + 12 VDC. Answers: 9A1: A 9A2: B 9A3: C 9A4: D 9A5: A 9A6: B 9-10A1 It becomes necessary to construct a temporary VHF marine antenna. What should be the approximate length of the antenna? A. 10 inches B. 12 inches C. 15 inches D. 18 inches 9-10A2 Which of the following best describes a VHF collinear array? A. An antenna with phased elements, omni directional radiation pattern, offering up to 9 db gain. B. The cascade filters in the VHF radio's IF section. C. A shoreside directional VHF yagi antenna. D. A depth sounder phased array transducer. 9-10A3 A masthead antenna with a base loading coil appears shorted to an ohmmeter check. What might this indicate? A. Positive proof of shorted coaxial cable plugs. B. May be normal for a well working shunt fed antenna system. C. Immediately repair both upper and lower PL-259s. D. No VHF antenna should measure a short circuit. 9-10A4 What is the most common type of coax connector used on VHF transceivers? A. “N” B. “BNC” C. “UHF” D. “TNC” 9-10A5 What type of coaxial cable would be most appropriate for a long transmission line run? A. “RG-58/U” B. “RG-59/U” C. “RG-8/U” D. “RG-174/U” 9-10A6 What is a disadvantage when using high gain VHF antennas? A. Poor horizontal radiation pattern. B. Very high radiation pattern. C. Very low radiation pattern. D. Signal dropout in severe weather on small craft. Answers: 10A1: D 10A2: A 10A3: B 10A4: C 10A5: C 10A6: D 9-11B1 What is the assigned bandwidth and channel spacing for J3E voice transmissions? A. 170 Hz and 300 Hz B. 300 Hz and 500 Hz C. 2.8 kHz and 3.0 kHz D. 3.1 kHz and 4.0 kHz 9-11B2 What is the assigned bandwidth and channel spacing for J2B SITOR (NBDP) transmissions? A. 3.1 kHz and 4.0 kHz B. 2.8 kHz and 3.0 kHz C. 170 Hz and 300 Hz D. 300 Hz and 500 Hz 9-11B3 What is the allowable frequency tolerance for GMDSS MF-HF transmitters? A. 10 Hz B. 15 Hz C. 20 Hz D. 30 Hz 9-11B4 Using a frequency counter with an accuracy of 2 ppm which of the following are within legal tolerance for the frequencies of 2182.0 kHz and 4125.0 kHz? The counter has a display resolution of 1 Hz. A. 2181.991 kHz and 4125.004 kHz B. 2182.006 kHz and 4124.995 kHz C. 2182.010 kHz and 4124.992 kHz D. 2181.990 kHz and 4125.009 kHz 9-11B5 Which of the following are assigned frequencies for Digital Selective Calling? A. 2182 kHz, 4177.5 kHz, 6312 kHz, 8376.5 kHz, 12577 kHz, 16420 kHz. B. 2187.5 kHz, 4207.5 kHz, 6312 kHz, 8414.5 kHz, 12577 kHz, 16804.5 kHz. C. 2187.5 kHz, 4207.5 kHz, 6268 kHz, 8414.5 kHz, 12520 kHz, 16420. kHz. D. 2174.5 kHz, 4125 kHz, 6312 kHz, 8291 kHz, 12577 kHz, 16804.5 kHz 9-11B6 What are the assigned frequencies for VOICE and SITOR (NBDP) follow on communications? A. VOICE: 2182 kHz, 4125 kHz, 6312 kHz, SITOR (NBDP) 4177.5 kHz, 8376.5 kHz, 12520 kHz B. VOICE: 8291 kHz, 12577 kHz, 16420 kHz, SITOR (NBDP) 4125 kHz, 6268 kHz, 8376.5 kHz C. VOICE: 4125 kHz, 8291 kHz, 16420 kHz, SITOR (NBDP) 2174.5 kHz, 6268 kHz, 12520 kHz D. VOICE: 6215 kHz, 8414.5 kHz, 12290 kHz, SITOR (NBDP) 6268 kHz, 8291 kHz, 12520 kHz Answers: 11B1: C 11B2: D 11B3: A 11B4: B 11B5: B 11B6: C 9-12B1 What is the purpose of the “R.I.T.“ control on a MF/HF transceiver? A. Make slight adjustments to the transmit frequency. B. Make slight adjustments in the receiver frequency. C. Select the proper transmitter emissions. D. Select the proper paired duplex channel. 9-12B2 What is the function of the “TUNE” button on a MF/HF transceiver? A. To tune in a new ITU channel. B. To tune the frequency of the receiver. C. To tune the antenna to the transmit frequency. D. To tune the frequency of the AF amplifier. 9-12B3 What is the purpose of the “ENTER” function. A. To store any incoming DSC message in memory. B. To recall any previously received message. C. To transmit a DSC distress alert. D. To accept the previous selection or data input. 9-12B4 What mode is a MF/HF transceiver operating in when “TLX” displayed? A. SITOR (NBDP) B. SSB C. DSC D. AM 9-12B5 Reducing the “RF Gain” control on an MF/HF transceiver has what effect? A. Reduces degenerative feedback to the RF amplifier stage. B. Reduces volume in response to a varying RF signal input. C. Reduces coupling between the receiver’s RF amplifier stages. D. Reduces sensitivity of the RF amplifier stage. 9-12B6 What is the function of an “AGC” button? A. To maintain a relatively constant AF output when the input signal varies. B. To reduce AF output when the input signal becomes weak. C. To increase the gain of the RF amplifier when the input signal is strong. D. To increase RF output when the input signal becomes strong. Answers: 12B1: B 12B2: C 12B3: D 12B4: A 12B5: D 12B6: A 9-13B1 What is the purpose of the BFO? A. Re-injects the carrier frequency in the receiver’s detector to demodulate the SSB signal. B. Replace the missing sideband and carrier frequency. C. Remove the carrier from H3E transmissions. D. Inverts the SSB signal to remove interference. 9-13B2 If the BFO is turned off what kind of emissions can still be received? A. J3E and J2B B. A3E and H3E C. H3E and F1B D. A1A and J3E 9-13B3 If you are listening to another vessel’s HF transmission and it sounds garbled what should you do? A. Change the receive frequency to either adjacent channel. B. Advise the other vessel that his transmission is faulty. C. Use the “R.I.T.” or “Clarifier” control to adjust the frequency of the receiver. D. Adjust the squelch control to clear up the sound quality. 9-13B4 What characteristics are desirable in an AGC circuit for SSB voice reception? A. Slow attack and decay. B. Slow attack and fast decay. C. Fast attack and decay. D. Fast attack and slow decay. 9-13B5 What is the primary purpose of both a high and a low I.F. system in a HF receiver? A. Using a high first I.F. amplifier results in eliminating image signals. B. Using a high first I.F. amplifier results in less intermodulation products. C. Using a low first I.F. amplifier results in fewer third harmonic signals. D. Using a low first I.F. amplifier results in greater signal amplification. 9-13B6 How does a noise blanker circuit work in a HF receiver? A. A limiter circuit clips the peaks of the noise pulses. B. The noise pulses are used to develop a blanking pulse for the I.F. amplifier. C. The noise pulses operate on the ratio detector to blank the audio output. D. A Noise blanker briefly reduces the gain of the RF amplifier when the noise pulses occur. Answers: 13B1: A 13B2: B 13B3: C 13B4: D 13B5: A 13B6: B 9-14B1 The voice is garbled and unreadable on MF/HF SSB channels. What is the most likely cause? A. The R.I.T circuit has failed. B. The first RF stage has failed. C. The frequency synthesizer has failed. D. The beat frequency oscillator circuit has failed. 9-14B2 All signals sound normal on an MF/HF receiver except one that has a very high pitched voice barely readable. What is the most likely cause? A. The transmitter of the abnormal signal is off frequency. B. The receiver frequency synthesizer circuit is defective. C. The voltage controlled oscillator has failed. D. The B.F.O. circuit is faulty. 9-14B3 You are able to hear signals in the voice/SSB mode but not in the SITOR (NBDP) mode. What is the most likely cause? A. The phase locked loop circuit has failed. B. The 500 Hz I.F. filter has become defective. C. The R.F. amplifier has failed. D. The B.F.O. circuit has failed. 9-14B4 The phase locked loop circuit in an MF/HF receiver appears to be faulty. What is the most likely cause? A. The AGC circuit has become defective. B. The Beat Frequency Oscillator is inoperative. C. The Voltage Controlled Oscillator is inoperative. D. The 500 Hz I.F. filter has become defective. 9-14B5 You are able to hear signals in the SITOR (NBDP) mode but not in the voice/SSB mode. What is the most likely cause? A. The B.F.O. circuit has failed. B. The audio amplifier is defective. C. The 2.8 kHz filter has become defective. D. The R.F. amplifier has failed. 9-14B6 The AGC function of an MF/HF receiver is inoperative. What is the most likely cause? A. The B.F.O. circuit has failed. B. The Voltage controlled Oscillator is inoperative. C. The audio amplifier is defective. D. Failure of a variable gain amplifier in the RF stage. Answers: 14B1: D 14B2: A 14B3: B 14B4: C 14B5: C 14B6: D 9-15B1 The MF/HF receiver fails to suppress the AF output in the absence of a sufficiently strong input signal. What is the most likely cause? A. The AGC circuit has failed. B. The BFO circuit has failed. C. The squelch circuit has failed. D. The AF amplifier circuit has failed. 9-15B2 The MF/HF receiver fails to produce any AF output. An ohmmeter reading is near zero between speaker leads. What is the most likely cause? A. The 3 – 30 MHz amplifier stage has failed. B. The speaker is shorted out. C. Excess negative feedback is reducing AF gain. D. The audio amplifier stage has failed. 9-15B3 The MF/HF transceiver produces strong AF output but no signals are heard on any frequency. What is the most likely cause? A. The transceiver is connected to a “Dummy Load.” B. A high Standing Wave Ratio (SWR) in the antenna system. C. A “crowbar” circuit in the power supply is activated. D. The squelch circuit has failed. 9-15B4 The MF/HF transceiver produces strong AF output but no signals are heard on any frequency. What is the most likely cause? A. The squelch sensitivity control is set too high. B. There is an open circuit in the transmission line to the antenna. C. The final stage of the AF amplifier circuit has failed. D. The power amplifier stage in the receiver has failed. 9-15B5 The MF/HF transceiver fails to produce AF output but the radio is powered on and “TX” is illuminated. What is the most likely cause? A. The speaker is shorted out. B. A shorted Push-To-Talk circuit in the microphone. C. A “crowbar” circuit in the power supply has engaged. D. The final stage of the AF amplifier circuit has failed. 9-15B6 A received signal on a MF/HF transceiver breaks up rapidly and repeatedly. The signal alternates between mid scale and zero on the “Signal” meter. What is the most likely cause? A. Intermittent gain in the AF amplifier circuit. B. The squelch sensitivity control is set too high. C. An intermittent connection between the antenna and coupler. D. The AGC circuit has malfunctioned. Answers: 15B1: C 15B2: D 15B3: A 15B4: B 15B5: B 15B6: C 9-16B1 How is a J3E signal generated? A. By using high-level modulation to produce a single sideband. B. By using a double balanced mixer and a sideband filter. C. By using the audio signal to phase modulate the carrier. D. By using low level modulation and a sideband filter. 9-16B2 What would be the most likely power level to use for initial MF-HF communications? A. 25 watts PEP B. 50 watts PEP C.150 watts PEP D. 600 watts PEP 9-16B3 How is the lower sideband eliminated? A. By using a double balanced mixer to block the lower sideband. B. By using a filter to pass the lower sideband and block the upper sideband. C. By using a double balanced mixer to insert the carrier. D. By using a filter to pass the upper sideband and block the lower sideband. 9-16B4 What is the most common method of generating a SITOR (NBDP) signal on shipboard GMDSS equipment? A. Two alternating sidebands of 1615 Hz and 1785 Hz are offset from the carrier frequency by 1700 Hz. B. The carrier frequency is alternately shifted from + 85 Hz to – 85 Hz while suppressing the sidebands. C. There is one 1500 Hz sideband which is shifted from +170 Hz to – 170 Hz with a suppressed carrier. D. Two alternating sidebands of 1500 Hz and 2300 Hz are offset from the carrier frequency by 1900 Hz. 9-16B5 What are the major components of a phase locked loop frequency synthesizer? A. Ratio detector, master oscillator, limiting amplifier and voltage controlled oscillator. B. Phase comparator, loop filter, master oscillator and first mixer stage. C. High pass filter, master oscillator, double balanced mixer and voltage controlled oscillator. D. Master oscillator, frequency dividers, phase comparator, loop filter and voltage controlled oscillator. 9-16B6 What is the purpose of a phase comparator in a frequency synthesizer? A. Compare the divided outputs of the master oscillator and the voltage controlled oscillator. B. Compare the direct outputs of the master oscillator and the voltage controlled oscillator. C. Compare the direct output of the master oscillator and the divided output of the voltage controlled oscillator. D. Compare the divided output of the master oscillator and the direct output of the voltage controlled oscillator. Answers: 16B1: B 16B2: C 16B3: D 16B4: A 16B5: D 16B6: A 9-17B1 An MF-HF transceiver works properly on voice but not SITOR (NBDP). What is the most likely source of the problem? A. The 500 Hz I.F. filter has failed. B. The audio amplifier has failed. C. The phase locked loop circuit has failed. D. The R.F. amplifier has failed. 9-17B2 Which of the following conditions would indicate the malfunction of a 2182 kHz radiotelephone system? A. No discernable traffic has been heard on the 2182 kHz during the radiotelephone silent periods. B. Failure to contact another station 60 miles distant during daytime operation. C. Dramatic decrease in noise level observed during night and early morning hours. D. The visual indication of power to the antenna fluctuates while testing the radiotelephone alarm signal generator into an artificial antenna. 9-17B3 Which would be an indication of proper operation of a SSB transmitter rated at 60 watt PEP output? A. In SSB (J3E) voice mode, with the transmitter keyed but without speaking into the microphone, power output is indicated. B. In SSB (J3E) mode, speaking into the microphone causes power meter to fluctuate slightly around the 60 watt reading. C. In SITOR (NBDP) communications, the power meter can be seen fluctuating regularly from zero to the 60 watt relative output reading. D. A steady indication of transmitted energy on an RF Power meter with no fluctuations when speaking into the microphone. 9-17B4 An MF-HF transceiver is functioning correctly in voice mode/SSB but not in SITOR (NBDP). What is the most likely source of the problem? A. The second I.F. amplifier has become defective. B. The voltage controlled oscillator is defective. C. The 2.8 kHz filter has become defective. D. The 1615 kHz audio oscillator is not working. 9-17B5 Which of the following conditions would be a symptom of malfunction in a 2182 kHz SSB radiotelephone? A. No indication of power output when speaking into the microphone. B. Much higher noise level observed during daytime operation. C. When testing a radiotelephone alarm on 2182 kHz into an artificial antenna, the Distress frequency watch receiver becomes un-muted, an improper testing procedure. D. Failure to contact a shore station 600 nautical miles distant during daytime operation. 9-17B6 Which would indicate proper operation of a SSB transmitter rated at 60 Watt PEP output in J3E mode? A. In SITOR communications, the power meter can be seen fluctuating regularly from zero to the 60 watt relative output reading. B. In SSB (J3E) voice mode, with the transmitter keyed but without speaking into the microphone, no power output is indicated. C. In SSB (J3E) mode, speaking into the microphone causes the power meter to fluctuate well above the 60 watt reading. D. A steady indication of transmitted energy on an RF power meter with no fluctuations when speaking into the microphone. Answers: 17B1: A 17B2: B 17B3: C 17B4: D 17B5: A 17B6: B 9-18B1 Which of the following conditions indicate the proper operation of a 150 Watt MF/HF transmitter in the F1B ARQ mode? A. The RF power meter indicates constant output at a level between 125 watts and 150 watts during transmission. B. The RF power meter indicates power output only when characters are typed on the NBDP keyboard. C. The RF “S” meter indicates a signal level between 125 watts and 150 watts during NBDP reception. D. The RF power meter indicates an output that fluctuates between 0 and 150 watts during transmission. 9-18B2 Which of the following conditions indicate the proper operation of a 250 Watt MF/HF transmitter in the F1B FEC mode? A. The RF power meter indicates constant output at a level between 225 watts and 250 watts during transmission. B. The RF power meter indicates power output only when characters are typed on the NBDP keyboard. C. The RF “S” meter indicates a signal level between 225 watts and 250 watts during NBDP reception. D. The RF power meter indicates an output that fluctuates between 0 and 250 watts during transmission. 9-18B3 Which of the following conditions could cause very low RF output in a MF/HF transmitter operating in the F1B FEC mode? A. Failure of a voltage controlled oscillator in the IF amplifier stage. B. A high Standing Wave Ratio (SWR) in the antenna system. C. The connection of a transceiver is connected to a “Dummy Load” antenna. D. Failure of a SSB bandpass filter in the stage preceding the RF amplifier. 9-18B4 which of the following troubleshooting methods is not valid for finding the fault in a MF/HF transmitter operating in the F1B FEC mode? A. Visual inspection of the transmitter (control settings, signs of physical damage or overheating, etc.) B. Power supply testing with a DVM to ensure all prescribed operating voltages are within acceptable limits. C. Modulation testing with a RF spectrum analyzer to measure frequency deviation in the transmit mode. D. Input/Output checks with a 10:1 oscilloscope probe to identify any points of severe signal degradation. 9-18B5 Which of the following conditions could cause zero RF output in a MF/HF transmitter operating in the F1B FEC mode? A. The connection of a transceiver is connected to a “Dummy Load” antenna. B. The failure of the voice bandpass filter in the stage preceding the RF amplifier. C. The activation of a “crowbar” circuit in the power supply to prevent an unregulated voltage increase. D. The generation of a positive VCO feedback signal to a Phase Locked Loop circuit in the transmitter. 9-18B6 Which of the following conditions indicate improper operation of a 150 Watt MF/HF transmitter in the F1B FEC mode? A. The RF power meter indicates constant output at a level between 125 watts and 150 watts during transmission. B. The SWR meter indicates 125 watts forward RF power and 5 watts reflected RF power during transmission. C. The RF “S” meter fluctuates depending on the strength of the received signal during NBDP reception. D. The RF power meter indicates an output that fluctuates between 0 and 150 watts during transmission. Answers: 18B1: D 18B2: A 18B3: B 18B4: C 18B5: C 18B6: D 9-19B1 What precedes the phasing signal in a DSC distress alert call? A. An alternating dot pattern of 20 bits B. An alternating dot pattern of 100 bits C. An alternating dot pattern of 200 bits D. An alternating dot pattern of 400 bits 9-19B2 What type of code is used for DSC transmissions? A. A 7 bit code with a constant ratio of 4/3 between the 1s and 0s. B. A 7 bit code followed by an error check character at the end. C. A 10 bit code followed by an error check character at the end. D. A 10 bit code with 7 bits used for information and 3 bits used for error correction. 9-19B3 What is the correct frequency shift and sub-carrier for MF-HF-DSC? A. +/- 85 Hz and 1700 Hz B. +/- 170 Hz and 1700 Hz C. +/- 250 Hz and 1500 Hz D. +/- 400 Hz and 1900 Hz 9-19B4 What is the time diversity reception interval for a MF-HF-DSC call? A. 33-1/3 milliseconds B. 400 milliseconds C. 450 milliseconds D. 250 milliseconds 9-19B5 A MF/HF Distress priority DSC call may be formatted to include the following: A. MMSI, vessel position, nature of distress, follow-on communications by J3E only. B. MMSI, vessel position, nature of distress, follow-on communications by J3E or F1B. C. Call sign, vessel position, nature of distress, follow-on communications by J3E or F1B. D. Name of vessel, vessel position, nature of distress, follow-on communications by J3E or F1B. 9-19B6 What statement is false concerning DSC calls addressed to MMSI 003669999? A. MMSI 003669999 is an established group call that includes all U.S. Coast Guard Stations. B. DSC calls to MMSI 003669999 will be received by all DSC-equipped USCG coast stations within radio range. C. DSC calls to MMSI 003669999 may not be used to test MF/HF DSC equipment aboard ships. D. DSC calls to MMSI 003669999 may result in an automated acknowledgement from USCG coast stations. Answers: 19B1: C 19B2: D 19B3: A 19B4: B 19B5: B 19B6: C 9-20B1 Which of the following statements concerning SITOR (NBDP) communications is true? A. In ARQ, each character is transmitted twice, about 250 milliseconds apart. B. In ARQ, the "information sending station" will transmit a block of three characters that the receiving station will subsequently acknowledge or request it to be retransmitted. C. In ARQ, the "information sending station" transmits a block of three characters twice, about 250 milliseconds apart. D. SITOR communications can be used to contact a NAVTEX transmitting station when requesting a repeat transmission of a missed NAVTEX message. 9-20B2 What statement is true regarding the exchange between two stations engaged in SITOR (NBDP) communications? A. In ARQ, each character is transmitted twice, with the second displaced in time from the first. B. In ARQ, the "sending" station transmits a block of three characters and the "receiving" station responds with a one character Repeat Request. Following this the "transmitting" station will send a new block. C. In ARQ, the ISS transmits a block of 3 characters and the IRS checks for parity. If the received block is correct a control signal is sent notifying the ISS to proceed. If the parity check fails the block must be resent. D. Broadcasts of Maritime Safety Information, traffic lists, etc. can be copied by the receiving station in ARQ mode. 9-20B3 Which of the following is true of SITOR (NBDP) ARQ mode: A. The ship station sends a group of 3 characters twice and then waits for an "RQ" signal to indicate proper receipt before transmission of the next 3 characters. B. The Ship station sends each character twice, using a time diversity system to ensure proper parity. C. The ship station sends a group of 3 characters, the shore station checks for proper parity and then requests the same group be resent to enable error correction. D. The ship station sends a group of 3 characters, the shore station checks for proper parity. If parity is OK, the shore station indicates readiness for transmission of the next 3 characters. 9-20B4 Which of the following keystrokes or characters follows most commands in ARQ communications when working an automated Coast Station? A. + B. GA+? C. ENTER D. END 9-20B5 Which characters are sent by the ship station to indicate a desire to send a message via a direct connection to a shoreside TELEX subscriber? A. MSG+ B. AMV+ C. OPR+ D. DIRTLX0xxyyyy+ 9-20B6 What are the characters that are transmitted to terminate a direct TELEX connection in SITOR (NBDP) operations? A. KKKK B. . . . . . C. END+ D. EOM Answers: 20B1: B 20B2: C 20B3: D 20B4: A 20B5: D 20B6: A 9-21B1 If a vessel is within range of NAVTEX broadcasts and both the Inmarsat-C and the NAVTEX receiver are inoperative the GMDSS operator should: A. Select 518 kHz FEC TELEX on the MF/HF console to receive MSI. B. Select 518 kHz ARQ TELEX on the MF/HF console to receive MSI. C. Request repairs of the Sat-C system and wait until within range of NAVTEX. D. Select an HF MSI frequency and ARQ TELEX mode to receive MSI. 9-21B2 The sequence ARQ, FEC, SFEC best corresponds to which of the following sequences? A. One-way communications to a single station, one-way communications to all stations, two-way communications. B. Two way communications, one-way communications to all stations, one-way communications to a single station. C. One-way communications to all stations, two-way communications, one-way communications to a single station. D. Two way communications, One way communications to a single station, One way communications to all stations. 9-21B3 Selective FEC communications (SFEC) are employed when: A. Multiple stations without a group SELCALL must receive communications without using their transmitters. B. Multiple stations must receive communications by using their transmitters to achieve phasing. C. An individual station must receive communications without transmitting (Radio Silence). D. An individual station must receive communications by using their transmitter to achieve phasing and block other stations from breaking in. 9-21B4 Which of the following is true of SITOR (NBDP) Mode B (FEC), in the presence of static crashes. A. Data flow rate depends on signal propagation. B. Idle characters are sent upon request. C. Transmitter and receiver cannot synchronize. D. FEC reduces the error rate by transmitting each character twice. 9-21B5 If the vessel is beyond range of NAVTEX broadcasts and the Sat-C system fails, the GMDSS operator must: A. Select an HF MSI frequency and FEC TELEX mode to receive MSI. B. Select 518 kHz ARQ TELEX on the MF/HF console to receive MSI. C. Request repairs of the Sat-C system and wait until within range of NAVTEX. D. Select 518 kHz FEC TELEX on the MF/HF console to receive MSI. 9-21B6 If the vessel is experiencing atmospheric interference with NAVTEX broadcasts, especially in the tropics, the GMDSS operator should: A. Select one of the 6 HF MSI frequencies and set-up the transceiver in ARQ TELEX mode. B. Select one of the 8 HF MSI frequencies and set-up the transceiver in FEC TELEX mode. C. Select one of the 6 MF MSI frequencies and set-up the transceiver in FEC TELEX mode. D. Select the MF MSI frequency dedicated to tropical MSI and set-up the transceiver in FEC TELEX mode. Answers: 21B1: A 21B2: B 21B3: C 21B4: D 21B5: A 21B6: B 9-22B1 What is the purpose of the antenna tuner? A. Minimizes the carrier output. B. Maximizes the sidebands. C. Provides for maximum VSWR. D. Match the antenna to the operating frequency. 9-22B2 What is the electrical effect of an inductance in series with the antenna? A. It electrically lengthens a physically fixed length antenna. B. It electrically shortens a physically fixed length antenna. C. It raises the resonant frequency of a physically fixed length antenna. D. It increases the bandwidth of a physically fixed length antenna. 9-22B3 What is the electrical effect of a capacitance in series with the antenna? A. It electrically lengthens a physically fixed length antenna. B. It electrically shortens a physically fixed length antenna. C. It lowers the resonant frequency of a physically fixed length antenna. D. It increases the bandwidth of a physically fixed length antenna. 9-22B4 Which of the following coaxial cables is suitable for use in GMDSS MF/HF antenna systems? A. RG-59, 72 ohm Coax B. RG-6, 72 ohm Coax C. RG-8, 50 ohm Coax D. RG-179, 75 ohm Coax 9-22B5 A ship’s MF-HF whip antenna breaks off and is carried away in a storm. What would you do to regain operation on MF-HF GMDSS frequencies? A. Rig a wire antenna 10 ft long from the antenna tuner to the highest vertical support. B. Rig a horizontal, center-fed dipole antenna 10 ft long to the antenna tuner. C. Rig a wire antenna approximately 35-40 ft long per the equipment instruction manual. D. Connect the MF/HF transceiver to the VHF antenna. 9-22B6 Which of the following connectors is often used in GMDSS MF/HF antenna systems? A. “F” Connector B. “SMA” Connector C. “EIA-232” Connector D. “PL-259” Connector Answers: 22B1: D 22B2: A 22B3: B 22B4: C 22B5: C 22B6: D 9-23C1 What are the frequencies for Inmarsat-C shipboard satellite operation? A. Reception: 1526.5 - 1560.5 MHz and Transmission: 1625.0 - 1659.0 MHz B. Reception: 1625.0 - 1659.0 MHz and Transmission: 1526.5 - 1560.5 MHz C. Reception: 1530.0 - 1545.0 MHZ and Transmission: 1626.5 - 1645.5 MHz D. Reception: 1625.0 - 1659.0 MHz and Transmission: 1526.5 - 1560.5 MHz 9-23C2 What is an LNA? A. Line noise amplifier B. Low number algorithm C. Low noise antenna D. Low noise amplifier 9-23C3 What function does the LNA perform? A. Receives and amplifies a very weak signal from the satellite. B. Calculates data received. C. Increases the receiver’s noise figure. D. Provides degenerative feedback to the LNB. 9-23C4 What is the fade margin factor? A. A design allowance that provides for the sun to accommodate expected fading for the purpose of ensuring that the required quality of service is maintained. B. A design allowance to accommodate expected fading. C. The increase in fade over a receiver’s noise floor. D. The ratio between the largest and smallest values of a received signal. 9-23C5 What is signal to noise ratio? A. A measure used that compares the distance of a desired signal to the level of background noise. B. A measure used that compares the level of a desired signal to the level of background noise. C. A measure used that compares the frequency of a desired signal to the frequency of background noise. D. A measure that measures signal in the forward direction and noise in the reverse direction. 9-23C6 What is the abbreviation for signal to noise? A. STN B. SIG/NR C. SNR D. SIN Answers: 23C1: C 23C2: D 23C3: A 23C4: B 23C5: B 23C6: C 9-24C1 Which of the following actions should be taken to minimize shock hazard of an Inmarsat terminal? A. Ensure the DC power supply is insulated from the ship’s hull. B. Ensure the chassis of the Inmarsat terminal is connected to an electrical ground. C. Install a common busbar for grounding to ensure common-mode coupling. D. Isolate the transceiver’s metal frame to avoid a return path for fault currents. 9-24C2 How do you perform a LOOP BACK test? A. Initiate a Performance Verification Test through terminal software. B. Initiate a test to IP address: 127.0.0.1. C. Send yourself a test message. D. Request the LES to send you a test message. 9-24C3 What do EGC messages contain? A. Maritime Mobile Service Identity information. B. SafeNetTM, FleetwideNetTM and System information. C. Electronic Grounding Codes and System information. D. SafetyNetTM, FleetNetTM and System information. 9-24C4 Which of the following is not recommended for Inmarsat-C antenna installations? A. Ensure the antenna is electrically insulated from the mounting mast. Check resistance with ohmmeter. B. Ground the antenna chassis to the mounting mast. Apply silicone to weatherproof the connection. C. Fashion a drip loop in the transmission line near the antenna. Secure to the mounting mast with cable tie. D. Apply waterproof sealant or putty around transmission line connectors. Wrap with self-bonding/vinyl tape. 9-24C5 How many NCS’s operate in each Inmarsat ocean region per Inmarsat system? A. Three B. Four C. Two D. One 9-24C6 What type of services cannot be provided by the Inmarsat-C system? A. Telephone communications via VOIP. B. Message transmission to and from a mobile unit. C. Broadcast data to groups of mobile terminals. D. Position reporting from fleets of mobile units. Answers: 24C1: B 24C2: C 24C3: D 24C4: A 24C5: D 24C6: A 9-25C1 The U.S. National Data Center that monitors polling input for each US Flag ship: A. Must receive at least 4 position reports daily. B. Must receive LRIT position reports each hour. C. Must receive at least 1 position report daily including the number of crew aboard. D. Is a double check on AIS output. 9-25C2 LRIT Long Range Information Tracking data: A. Need not be transmitted if AMVER daily messages are sent. B. Is a separate tracking system for each flag state’s security. C. Is shared for the Captain of the Port. D. Is broadcast on the Internet for company tracking purposes. 9-25C3 LRIT Long Range Information Tracking: A. Can serve as duplicate back up information for AIS (Automatic Information System.) B. Works on the same frequencies as AIS, but on different channels. C. is detected on the Inmarsat-C satellite network. D. Puts out a polling signal on the Inmarsat B system. 9-25C4 When a compulsory equipped IMO ship is not correctly broadcasting LRIT Info what action should be taken? A. Check the power fuse on the Sat D box located on the bridge. B. Can re-boot the AIS broadcasting unit. C. Verify the Ship Security Alerting System has not been accidentally activated. D. Double check the GMDSS Console's Inmarsat-C terminal for regular operation. 9-25C5 What must a LRIT terminal do? A. Capable of being configured to automatically transmit an APR, transmit an APR every 6 hours, be able to automatically transmit a PR if requested. B. Capable of being configured to automatically transmit an APR, transmit an APR every 12 hours, be able to automatically transmit a PR if requested. C. Capable of being configured to automatically receive an APR, transmit an APR every 8 hours, be able to automatically transmit a PR if requested. D. Capable of being configured to automatically receive an APR, transmit an APR every 24 hours, be able to automatically transmit a PR if requested. 9-25C6 What satellite system does not support LRIT? A. Inmarsat-C B. GPS C. IRIDIUM D. Inmarsat-D+ Answers: 25C1: A 25C2: B 25C3: C 25C4: D 25C5: A 25C6: B 9-26C1 Which of the following Inmarsat units stores configuration data and contains all user interfaces and LED indicators? A. Main Control Unit – an element of the Pedestal Control Assembly. B. Master Communications Unit – an element of the antenna control unit. C. Master Communications Unit – an element of the RF transceiver. D. Fleet Broadband terminal – a component of below deck equipment. 9-26C2 Which of the following is not a function of an Inmarsat Fleet Broadband IP handset? A. Polling and Data Reporting. B. Voice over IP telephone calls. C. Displaying terminal status. D. Changing terminal parameters. 9-26C3 Which of the following best describes Inmarsat BGAN Streaming Data service? A. A service ideal for TCP/IP traffic such as e-mail, file transfers and Internet access. B. Exclusive, high-priority connection ideal for time critical applications. C. A service used by the Inmarsat terminal’s web interface for operation and configuration. D. A high speed data service used for high speed connections via ISDN. 9-26C4 Which of the following is the best procedure to test the Inmarsat Distress Alarm? A. Lift the plastic cover and depress the “DISTRESS” button. B. Advise the US Coast Guard you are going to test the Distress Alarm. C. Use service number 33 to arrange a Distress Alarm test transmission with the LES in advance. D. Broadcast a SAFETY priority call to all stations immediately prior to initiating the Distress Alarm. 9-26C5 Which of the following is the correct Fax/Data configuration of a Fleet Broadband terminal? A. RJ11 Port 1 and 2 set to standard voice. B. ISDN Port set to standard voice. C. RJ11 Port 1 and 2 set to 3.1 kHz audio. D. LAN Ports set to 3.1 kHz audio. 9-26C6 Which of the following is not a characteristic of an Inmarsat Fleet Broadband IP handset? A. Ability to transmit telephone calls as circuit-switched calls. B. Displays menu options to configure the terminal. C. Uses TCP/IP to communicate with the terminal. D. Provides the terminal with Power over Ethernet. Answers: 26C1: D 26C2: A 26C3: B 26C4: C 26C5: C 26C6: D 9-27C1 What protocol can be used in connecting a PC to the LAN interface of an Inmarsat terminal? A. ISDN B. SMTP C. TCP/IP D. FTP 9-27C2 When is a PIN Unlock Key (PUK) used with an Inmarsat terminal? A. To place a credit card telephone call via the Inmarsat terminal. B. To input the Personal Identification Number (PIN) applied to a telephone extension. C. To override a long distance block on an Inmarsat terminal. D. To unlock the SIM card in a Fleet broadband terminal. 9-27C3 Which of the following is NOT a function of the LAN port on a Fleet Broadband terminal? A. To provide connectivity to an ISDN telephone handset. B. To provide IP connectivity for terminal configuration and troubleshooting. C. To provide connectivity for Internet browsing with a computer. D. To provide connectivity for a Voice Over IP (VOIP) telephone Handset. 9-27C4 What is the configuration for Thrane & Thrane F250 & F500 facsimile operation? A. Fax - Group 3 fax via standard voice channel for analog fax applications. B. Fax - Group 3 fax via 3.1 kHz audio channel for analog fax applications. C. Fax - Group 5 fax via 5.1 kHz audio channel for efax applications. D. Fax - Group 3 fax via ISDN channel for analog fax applications. 9-27C5 What is the configuration Thrane & Thrane F500 for standard voice telephone operation? A. RJ11 Port 1 and 2 set to 3.1 kHz. B. RJ11 Port 1 and 2 set to standard voice. C. ISDN Port set to 3.1 kHz. D. ISDN Port 1 and 2 set to standard voice. 9-27C6 Which of the following best describes a Subscriber Identity Module (SIM)? A. A removable device to implement Inmarsat digital rights management (DRM). B. A non-volatile device to implement high-speed data and other advanced terminal features. C. An integrated circuit device that securely stores the Inmarsat identity and an authentication key. D. A Read/Write data device that uses x.25 protocol to limit terminal access to authorized users. Answers: 27C1: C 27C2: D 27C3: A 27C4: B 27C5: B 27C6: C 9-28C1 What is the usual arrangement of GPS satellites? A. 18 satellites in 3 orbital planes, 6 satellites in each plane, 23,400 km altitude and 55 degrees inclination. B. 24 satellites in 6 orbital planes, 4 satellites in each plane, 20,200 km altitude and 55 degrees inclination. C. 30 satellites in 5 orbital planes, 6 satellites in each plane, 20,200 km altitude and 60 degrees inclination. D. 36 satellites in 6 orbital planes, 6 satellites in each plane, 23,600 km altitude and 60 degrees inclination. 9-28C2 What is the purpose of the Differential GPS system and how does it work? A. To measure the difference between L-1 and L-2 signals and transmit the information via the GPS signal. B. To correct for time errors in the satellites and transmit this information via the GPS signal. C. To correct for various errors using a fixed receiving station which transmits corrections via radio signals. D. To correct for phase errors between L-1 and L-2 signals and transmit the information via radio beacons. 9-28C3 How is the GPS usually interconnected with other bridge equipment? A. Through a 8-bit parallel line network. B. Through a USB port. C. Through an Ethernet LAN. D. Through a NMEA-0183 or NMEA-2000 LAN. 9-28C4 Which of the following statements is true? A. The L2 carrier of 1227.60 MHz is used to measure the ionospheric delay. B. The L1 carrier of 1650.5 MHz is used to measure the ionospheric delay. C. The L1 carrier of 1545.22 MHz is used to provide the navigation message. D. The L2 carrier of 1575.42 MHz is used to provide the navigation message. 9-28C5 Which of the following best describes the GPS satellite signals transmitted? A. The L2 carrier at 1650.5 MHz carries the navigation message and the L1 carrier at 1575.42 MHz is used to measure the ionospheric delay. B. The two carriers are combined in a mixer circuit to develop an intermediate signal which is transmitted. C. The main carrier of 1650.5 MHz and a sub-carrier of 1575.24 MHz containing the SPS code signals. D. The L1 carrier of 1575.42 MHz carries the navigation message and the SPS code signals and the L2 carrier 1227.60 MHz which is used to measure the ionospheric delay. 9-28C6 What is the minimum number of satellites that must be received to provide the highest accuracy? A. Four B. Two C. Eight D. Six Answers: 28C1: B 28C2: C 28C3: D 28C4: A 28C5: D 28C6: A 9-29C1 Which of the following best describes the polarization of a satellite signal? A. The orientation of the RF signal’s electric field component. B. The orientation of the RF signal relative to a dipole antenna. C. The orientation of the RF signal relative to a parabolic antenna. D. The orientation of the RF signal’s magnetic field component. 9-29C2 Which of the following is characteristic of the parabolic dish antenna? A. Feedhorn located behind the parabolic reflector. B. Feedhorn adjusted to the focal point of the antenna. C. Most often used on high frequencies (3-30 MHz). D. Low gain, highly directional radiation pattern. 9-29C3 Which of the following best describes a phased array antenna system? A. RF from the feedline array is dissipated by a single antenna element. B. RF from a multiple feedline array is dissipated by a single antenna element. C. RF from multiple antennas is varied to produce a desired radiation pattern. D. RF from multiple antennas is combined to produce unity gain. 9-29C4 Which of the following is characteristic of an Inmarsat-C antenna? A. The antenna is RHC polarized with a cardioid radiation pattern. B. The antenna is vertically polarized and highly directional. C. The antenna is horizontally polarized and omni-directional. D. The antenna is RHC polarized with an omni-directional radiation pattern. 9-29C5 What is a best practice for installing Inmarsat satellite antennas aboard ship? A. Install antennas as high as practical, free from shadowing of structures. B. Install antennas next to other Inmarsat antennas, away from structures. C. Connect the antenna to transmission line with the highest characteristic impedance. D. Install an inline filter with the transmission line to attenuate frequencies above 1 GHz. 9-29C6 What components does an Inmarsat Fleet Broadband RADOME typically include? A. Phased array antenna, gyro-stabilized platform, rotary joint, AC power supply. B. Stabilized antenna, RF unit, Antenna Control Unit, GPS antenna. C. Parabolic dish antenna, Main Control Unit, rotary joint, HV power supply. D. Parabolic dish antenna, rotary joint, AC power supply TDMA Control Unit. Answers: 29C1: A 29C2: B 29C3: C 29C4: D 29C5: A 29C6: B 9-30C1 Which of the following conditions would prevent communications between an Inmarsat-C data port and external data terminal equipment (DTE)? A. Use of a stop bit in the DCE/DTE communication parameters. B. Grounding pin 5 of the standard EIA-232 connector. C. Use of a “0” parity bit in the DCE/DTE communication parameters. D. Use of a “null” MODEM cable to connect the DTE device. 9-30C2 How can a LES/RCC (Rescue Coordination Centre) determine if an Inmarsat-C Distress Alert is a TEST transmission? A. A flag in the message is set to identify the transmission as a test alert. B. The validity of each Distress alert must be manually verified by LES/RCC personnel. C. A Distress acknowledgement is sent from the LES/RCC to the originating station. D. LES/RCC personnel cannot distinguish between valid and TEST transmissions. 9-30C3 What is the meaning of the “ACB” Inmarsat-C Non-Delivery Notification (NDN) failure code? A. The terminal received an invalid answer-back from the destination. B. Access to the Inmarsat system has been barred. C. The Automatic Communications Bit error rate was exceeded. D. An Inmarsat message channel failure occurred. 9-30C4 What condition can indicate a communication failure between the second receiver (RX2) and the Antenna Control Unit (ACU) in an Inmarsat Fleet 77 terminal? A. The terminal will indicate RX2 is locked onto a signal on the Inmarsat NCSC channel. B. The terminal will indicate receipt of a valid frame on the Inmarsat NCSC channel. C. The message "RX2 Comm error" or “ACU Comm error” will be displayed. D. The DCE/DTE communication protocol is improperly configured. 9-30C5 Which of the following devices can cause interference to Fleet 77/55 systems? A. 406 MHz Emergency Position Indicating Radio Beacons (EPIRBs) in the transmit mode. B. 9.3 GHz Search And Rescue RADAR Transponders (SARTs) in the transmit mode. C. Transmitters operating in the 3-30 MHz range and shipboard RADARS in close proximity. D. Survival Craft Equipment in the VHF range in the high power transmit mode. 9-30C6 What error message may be displayed if a connection to the Inmarsat Mobile Packet Data Service (MPDS) network fails? A. “ECM 0071” is displayed indicating the called station ID was not properly decoded. B. “ECM 00F0” is displayed indicating the terminal’s failure to transmit over the Inmarsat network. C. “77F0h” or “77F1h” is displayed indicating the terminal is not registered to the MPDS network. D. “00F0h” or “00F1h” is displayed indicating the terminal is not registered to the MPDS network. Answers: 30C1: D 30C2: A 30C3: B 30C4: C 30C5: C 30C6: D 9-31C1 An Inmarsat-C terminal shows a “No Receive Signal” alarm. There is no voltage on the antenna center pin. What is the most likely cause? A. Defective AZ or EL motor in the above deck equipment. B. Blown line fuse in the terminal’s DC power supply. C. Blown antenna power fuse in the above deck equipment. D. Defective Low Noise Amplifier in the above deck equipment. 9-31C2 An Inmarsat-C terminal will not “LOG IN”. A test antenna cable with a new ADE attached in view of the satellite allows the terminal to “LOG IN”. What steps would you take? A. Replace the AZ or EL motor in the above deck equipment. B. Try logging into a different satellite with the original ADE. C. Use a DVM to check the feedline between the terminal and ADE. D. Install a replacement ADE. 9-31C3 An Inmarsat-C terminal will not “LOG IN” and shows an “Antenna not connected” alarm. What action would you take? A. Short one end of coax cable. If the resistance is above one ohm replace the cable. B. Change to a different satellite and try a new “LOG IN”. C. Replace the antenna unit. D. Replace the AZ-EL board. 9-31C4 The antenna goes past the AZ EL of the satellite but does not initialize but you can manually point the antenna at the satellite and acquire signal. What is the most likely problem? A. Defective coax cable. B. Faulty antenna control module. C. Bad I.F. amplifier. D. Bad Gyro repeater motor. 9-31C5 The antenna creeps up and down after initialization. What action would you take? A. Check AZ step motor with power off. If it is stiff replace the motor. B. Check EL step motor with power off. If it is stiff replace the motor. C. Replace the platform sensor. D. Replace the gyro repeater motor. 9-31C6 The antenna tries to initialize then points straight up and stops. What is the most likely problem? A. A defective EL motor. B. A defective AZ motor. C. A defective level platform sensor. D. A defective I.F. amplifier. Answers: 31C1: C 31C2: D 31C3: A 31C4: B 31C5: B 31C6: C 9-32C1 What action should be taken if an Inmarsat Fleet Broadband antenna continuously changes azimuth after initialization? A. Replace the gyro repeater motor in the Antenna Tracking Unit. B. Use the Web interface to check the event log. C. Check the EL step motor with power off. D. Check the integrity of the antenna interface cable. 9-32C2 What condition would cause failure of an Inmarsat-C terminal to power up when AC voltage is present at the input terminals of the power supply? A. A defective coaxial cable connecting the terminal to the antenna. B. The failure of an I.F. amplifier stage in the terminal’s receiver. C. A component failure within the power supply itself. D. A defective video monitor connected to the Inmarsat-C terminal. 9-32C3 What condition would cause an IP connection failure between a technician’s laptop and an Inmarsat Fleet Broadband terminal? A. The laptop settings are not compatible with the terminal’s LAN port. B. The technician has disabled the Power over Ethernet (POE) function. C. The EIA-232 configuration is not compatible with the Inmarsat terminal. D. The technician has connected the Ethernet cable to the terminal’s ISDN port. 9-32C4 What condition would cause a connection failure between a technician’s laptop and an Inmarsat Fleet Broadband terminal? A. The wrong IP address was entered as the URL in the web browser. B. The ASD function is enabled but the HSD function is disabled. C. The terminal’s DTE port is set to the Asynchronous Data Service. D. The password for the High Speed Data service has been improperly entered. 9-32C5 Interference induced from nearby HF transmitters may cause Inmarsat system failures. What is the most appropriate action to resolve this problem? A. Install a longer ground lead to the INMARSAT terminal. B. Install a low-pass filter between the coax cable and antenna. C. Reduce bias to the INMARSAT antenna’s Low Noise Amplifier. D. Install ferrite clamps on the coax cable to suppress induced RF. 9-32C6 What condition will lower the observed bit rate on a Fleet Broadband terminal? A. A standard IP satellite channel that is “busy” with many active users. B. Selection of an upstream IP data service for downstream high-speed data transmission. C. Use of the FTP, POP, SMTP or HTTP protocol instead of TCP/IP. D. Use of highly contended connections instead of store-and-forward IP circuits. Answers: 32C1: B 32C2: C 32C3: D 32C4: A 32C5: D 32C6: A 9-33D1 Which is not a function of a satellite under COSPAS-SARSAT using satellite EPIRBs? A. After the EPIRB’s position is calculated using the Doppler shift COSPAS-SARSAT satellites provide follow-on SAR communications. B. Relayed satellite message includes the EPIRB ID number which provides a reference for retrieval of vessel information from the shore database. C. Doppler shift of EPIRB signal is measured and the EPIRB’s position is calculated. D. Information received from EPIRBs is time-tagged and transmitted to any Local User Terminal in the satellite's view. 9-33D2 What is the purpose of the magnet in the EPIRB mounting bracket? A. To secure the EPIRB in the mounting bracket. B. Prevent accidental operation of the EPIRB while secured in the mounting bracket. C. To activate the automatic release mechanism. D. When the EPIRB is released it causes a signal to be sent to the bridge. 9-33D3 How often must the EPIRB battery be replaced? A. Every 2 years. B. Every 3 years or after use. C. Every 5 years or after use. D. Every 8 years. 9-33D4 What feature is not a component of a 406 MHz satellite EPIRB? A. 121.5 MHz emergency homing transmitter. B. Emergency transmission on 406.025 MHz. C. Float-free release bracket. D. Aural locator signal. 9-33D5 How often must the automatic release mechanism be replaced. A. Every 2 years B. Every 3 years C. Every 5 years D. Every 8 years 9-33D6 Which of the following is normally part of 406 MHz satellite EPIRBs? A. A strobe light, automatic float-free bracket, 1-watt 406-MHz alert beacon. B. A 5-watt 406-MHz alert beacon, Automatic Hydrostatic Release (ARM), strobe light. C. Automatic float-free bracket, 5-watt 121.5 MHz homing beacon, strobe light. D. Automatic Hydrostatic Release (ARM), 1-watt 121.5 MHz alerting beacon, strobe light. Answers: 33D1: A 33D2: B 33D3: C 33D4: D 33D5: A 33D6: B 9-34D1 How should the signal from a Search And Rescue RADAR Transponder appear on a RADAR display? A. A series of dashes. B. A series of spirals all originating from the range and bearing of the SART. C. A series of twenty dashes. D. A series of 12 equally spaced dots. 9-34D2 In what frequency band does a search and rescue transponder operate? A. 9 GHz B. 3 GHz C. S-band D. 406 MHz 9-34D3 What causes the SART to begin a transmission? A. When activated manually, it begins radiating immediately. B. After being activated the SART responds to RADAR interrogation. C. It is either manually or water activated before radiating. D. It begins radiating only when keyed by the operator. 9-34D4 At what interval must the SART’s battery be replaced? A. Every 2 years. B. Every 3 years or after being used. C. Every 5 years or after being used. D. Every 8 years. 9-34D5 What are the characteristics of the SART transmitted signal? A. It starts with a sweep of 10.2 usec.followed by a sweep of 0.6 usec for a total of 10 sweeps. B. It starts with a sweep of 0.8 usec followed by a sweep of 12.6 usec for a total of 12 sweeps. C. It starts with a sweep of 0.4usec across the entire 3 cm radar band followed by a returning sweep of 7.5 usec back to the beginning for a total of 12 sweeps. D. It starts with a sweep of 8.5 usec followed by a sweep of 0.4 usec for 10 sweeps. 9-34D6 What is the approximate distance between dots on a radar display at a distance of 5 miles? A. 0.36 nm B. 0.48 nm C. 0.56 nm D. 0.64 nm Answers: 34D1: D 34D2: A 34D3: B 34D4: C 34D5: C 34D6: D 9-35D1 How often must the Survival Craft Transceiver battery be changed? A. 2 years or after use for distress communications. B. 3 years or after use for distress communications. C. 5 years or after use for distress communications. D. 8 years or after use for distress communications. 9-35D2 What is the minimum receiver sensitivity required for a Survival Craft Transceiver? A. 0.1 microvolts B. 0.5 microvolts C. 1.0 microvolts D. 2.0 microvolts 9-35D3 What is the minimum required effective radiated power? A. 0.25 watt B. 0.5 watt C. 1 watt D. 2 watts 9-35D4 Equipment for radiotelephony use in survival craft stations under GMDSS must have what capability? A. Operation on 457.525 MHz. B. Operation on Ch-16. C. Operation on 121.5 MHz. D. Operation on Ch-70. 9-35D5 Which statement is NOT true regarding the requirements of survival craft portable two-way VHF radiotelephone equipment? A. Watertight to a depth of 1 meter for 5 minutes. B. Operates simplex on Ch-70 and at least one other channel. C. Effective radiated power should be a minimum of 0.25 Watts. D. The antenna is fixed and non-removable. 9-35D6 Equipment for radiotelephony use in survival craft stations under GMDSS must have what characteristics? A. Permanently-affixed antenna, watertight, power 1W or 25W. B. Watertight, power a minimum of 1W, operation on CH-16, Ch-13 & Ch-70. C. Operation on Ch-16, watertight, permanently-affixed antenna. D. Operation on Ch-16, Ch-13 & Ch-70, power 1W, permanently-affixed antenna. Answers: 35D1: C 35D2: D 35D3: A 35D4: B 35D5: B 35D6: C 9-36D1 Which of the following is the primary frequency that is used exclusively for NAVTEX broadcasts internationally? A. 490 kHz B. 518 kHz C. 2187.5 kHz D. 4209.5 kHz 9-36D2 The NAVTEX is powering on and appears to be functioning normally except there have been no new messages for an extended period. The station settings are correct. What is the most likely source of the problem? A. The audio amplifier is defective. B. The wrong frequency has been selected. C. The RF amplifier at the antenna base is defective. D. The DC supply voltage is too low. 9-36D3 How is a NAVTEX receiver programmed to reject certain messages? A. The transmitting station's two-digit identification can be entered to de-select reception of its broadcasts. B. By entering the SELCALL of the transmitting station. C. By pressing "00" in the transmitter's ID block. D. By choosing a message category's single letter (A-Z) identifier and then deselecting or deactivating. 9-36D4 How can reception of certain NAVTEX broadcasts be prevented? A. The receiver can be programmed to reject certain stations and message categories. B. Stations are limited to daytime operation only. C. Coordinating reception with published broadcast schedules. D. Automatic receiver desensitization during night hours. 9-36D5 How is accuracy insured in NAVTEX broadcasts? A. A parity check character is sent at the end of each line. B. Each message is retransmitted. C. Selective FEC is used to prevent errors. D. Each character is sent twice with a time interval. 9-36D6 NAVTEX broadcasts are sent: A. In categories of messages indicated by a single letter or identifier. B. Immediately following traffic lists. C. On request of maritime mobile stations. D. Regularly, after the radiotelephone silent periods. Answers: 36D1: B 36D2: C 36D3: D 36D4: A 36D5: D 36D6: A 9-37E1 What is the normal voltage of a single NICAD battery cell? A. 1.2 volts B. 1.5 volts C. 2.1 volts D. 2.5 volts 9-37E2 What is the effect of temperature on the specific gravity of lead acid batteries? A. Higher temperature results in a higher specific gravity reading. B. Higher temperature results in a lower specific gravity reading. C. Temperature has no effect on the specific gravity reading. D. Lower temperature results in a lower specific gravity reading. 9-37E3 What will cause an individual battery cell to reverse polarity? A. The charging circuits are connected in the correct polarity but all of the cells are equally charged. B. High discharge rates without allowing for a cool down period. C. When discharging the battery, if a cell becomes weaker then the remaining cells the discharge current will effectively charge the weaker cell in reverse polarity. D. Insufficient charging which does not bring all of the cells up to full charge. 9-37E4 What is the normal specific gravity of a fully charged lead acid battery cell? What device is used to measuring the electrolyte of a lead acid battery? A. 1.375 Voltmeter B. 1.180 Voltmeter C. 1.210 Hydrometer D. 1.280 Hydrometer 9-37E5 What is a gel cell battery and how is it maintained & cared for? A. Gel cell batteries are typically sealed, special charging rates and voltages may be required. B. Gel cell batteries are lead acid with a solid electrolyte, each cell is checked with a voltmeter. C. Gel cell batteries are NICAD with a solid electrolyte, each cell is checked with a voltmeter. D. Gel cell batteries are have special liquid electrolytes, they are charged with the NICAD charging rates and voltages. 9-37E6 What is the normal voltage of a single lead acid battery cell? A. 1.5 volts B. 2.1 volts C. 2.5 volts D. 2.8 volts Answers: 37E1: A 37E2: B 37E3: C 37E4: D 37E5: A 37E6: B 9-38E1 How often should high charging be use with a standard lead acid battery and a fully automatic GMDSS compliant Battery charger? A. Once every 24 hours for 1 hour. B. Once every month till the battery reaches 2.5V/cell. C. Never use High charging rate on a fully charged battery. D. Once a week till the battery reaches the gassing range. 9-38E2 What are the different modes of charging for a GMDSS compliant battery charger/supply? A. Charging, Change-over, Parallel B. Charging, float, trickle C. Charging, Full, Trickle D. Boots, Full, Float 9-38E3 What would be an indication of a malfunction on a GMDSS station with a 24 VDC battery system? A. All of these symptoms would indicate a potential battery charger malfunction. B. A constant 30 volt reading on the GMDSS console voltmeter. C. After testing the station on battery power, a voltmeter reading of 30 volts for a brief period followed by a steady 26 volt reading. D. After testing the station on battery power, the ammeter reading indicates a high rate of charge that then declines. 9-38E4 What is the meaning of “Reserve Source of Energy”? A. High caloric value items for lifeboat, per SOLAS regulations. B. Diesel fuel stored for the purpose of operating the powered survival craft for a period equal to or exceeding the U.S.C.G. and SOLAS requirements. C. Power to operate the radio installation and conduct Distress and Safety communications in the event of failure of the ship's main and emergency sources of electrical power. D. The diesel fueled emergency generator that supplies AC to the vessel’s Emergency power bus. 9-38E5 With a fully automatic GMDSS compliant battery charger / power supply, when must the high charging process be interrupted? A. To keep the battery from overheating. B. To keep the battery electrolyte from reaching 212 degrees F. C. To inhibit the generation of electrolytic gas. D. To keep the battery as cool as possible. 9-38E6 A fully automatic GMDSS compliant Battery charger/ Power supply’s high (Full) charging mode must be disabled during setup for what type batteries? A. When the batteries are Ni Cadmium type. B. When the Batteries are standard lead acid type. C. When the batteries are lithium ion type. D. When the batteries are Maintenance free lead acid gel type. Answers: 38E1: D 38E2: A 38E3: B 38E4: C 38E5: C 38E6: D 9-39E1 Which of the following best describes a standard full wave rectifier power supply? A. It uses a capacitor input filter to provide good voltage regulation. B. It must only use a single diode rectifier. C. The ripple frequency is twice the input frequency. D. It must always use a center tapped transformer secondary. 9-39E2 Which of the following statements concerning power supply filters is true? A. A capacitor input has high output voltage, good voltage regulation, low rectifier peak currents and low transformer utilization factor. B. A capacitor input has low output voltage, poor voltage regulation, high rectifier peak currents and low transformer utilization factor. C. An Inductive input has poor voltage regulation, low transformer utilization factor, high rectifier peak currents and relative low output voltage. D. An Inductive input has good voltage regulation, high transformer utilization factor, low rectifier peak currents and relatively low output voltage. 9-39E3 What are the main advantages of using switcher type power supply? A. Line voltage is directly rectified and filtered to produce a high dc voltage, components are much smaller and lighter weight, can provide much better efficiency. B. The transformed voltage is directly rectified and filtered to produce a high dc voltage, components are much smaller and lighter weight and can provide much better efficiency. C. They use laminated steel transformers which are more efficient. D. Using a center tapped transformer secondary allows fewer rectifiers to be used. 9-39E4 What are the disadvantages of using a switcher type power supply? A. Increased complexity (more likelihood of a component failure), increased cost (many more parts) and tendency to create radiated AF. B. Increased complexity (more likelihood of a component failure), increased cost (many more parts) and tendency to create radiated RF. C. Decreased complexity (less likelihood of a component failure) and decreased cost (fewer parts and tendency to create radiated RF. D. Decreased complexity (less likelihood of a component failure) and decreased cost (fewer parts and tendency to create radiated AF. 9-39E5 Power supplies with inductive input filters have the following characteristics: A. Poor voltage regulation with high peak rectifier currents. B. Good voltage regulation with high transformer utilization factor. C. Low transformer utilization factor with low rectifier peak currents. D. High transformer utilization factor with high rectifier peak currents. 9-39E6 Power supplies with capacitive input filters have the following characteristics: A. Relatively high output voltage with low rectifier peak currents. B. High transformer utilization factor with good voltage regulation. C. Poor voltage regulation and high rectifier peak currents. D. Good voltage regulation with high transformer utilization factor. Answers: 39E1: C 39E2: D 39E3: A 39E4: B 39E5: B 39E6: C 9-40E1 What is the function of a crowbar circuit? A. It provides a voltage reference for the voltage regulator. B. It prevents an overvoltage condition from damaging circuitry by shorting the power supply output. C. It provides a voltage reference for the chopper circuit. D. It provides a feedback signal for the chopper circuit. 9-40E2 Which of the following is not one of the main advantages of a switching power supply? A. Works with a wide range of input voltages. B. Can work with direct current input. C. No RFI problems. D. Lighter weight than linear power supplies. 9-40E3 What is the configuration for a mains operated switching power supply with output regulation? A. Input rectifier and filter, Inverter (chopper), output transformer, feedback loop to a chopper controller and inverter and output rectifier and filter to DC output. B. Line, Inverter (chopper), input rectifier and filter, output transformer, output rectifier and filter to DC output. C. Input rectifier and filter, output transformer, output rectifier and filter to DC output with feedback loop to the input followed by the chopper controller. D. Input rectifier and filter, Inverter (chopper), output transformer, output rectifier and filter to DC output with feedback loop to a chopper controller and the inverter. 9-40E4 Which of the following statements about switching power supplies is the most accurate? A. Transformers use a ferrite core to reduce losses at high frequencies. B. Transformers use a laminated steel core to reduce losses at high frequencies. C. Lower switching frequencies provide better voltage regulation. D. Higher switching frequencies are more difficult to filter. 9-40E5 What are the input/output voltages of a “BUCK” switching power supply with a 50% duty cycle? A. 120 volts in, 240 volts out. B. 24 volts in, 36 volts out. C. 12 volts in, 12 volts out. D. 10 volts in, 5 volts out. 9-40E6 Which of the following statements about a switching mode power supply input current is correct? A. It has high harmonic content and a low power factor. B. It has low harmonic content and a low power factor. C. It has high harmonic content and a high power factor. D. It has low harmonic content and a high power factor. Answers: 40E1: B 40E2: C 40E3: D 40E4: A 40E5: D 40E6: A 9-41F1 The printer will not print a document. Which of the following is NOT a likely reason? A. The graphics card is defective. B. The printer queue is frozen. C. The printer may be out of toner or ink. D. There may be a paper jam in the printer. 9-41F2 There is no display on the monitor. What are the most likely causes? A. Bad video card, defective RAM or bad CD-ROM. B. Bad video card, bad 15 pin video connector or no power to monitor. C. Defective CD-ROM Drive. D. Fragmented Hard Drive. 9-41F3 What are the four main functions of the “BIOS” in most computers? A. BIOS Drivers, Bootstrap Loader, Printer Driver and BIOS Setup. B. CPU Setup, Disc Partition, USB driver and BIOS Setup. C. P.O.S.T., Bootstrap Loader, BIOS Drivers and BIOS Setup. D. BIOS Setup, P.O.S.T., CPU Setup and RAM Setup. 9-41F4 Power is on but the computer will not boot into the operating system. What steps should you take? A. Make sure the CPU fan is operating normally. B. Remove the network driver card, clean contacts and reinsert. C. Remove all external cables and try again. D. Use the BIOS setup mode to check for proper BIOS settings. 9-41F5 How do you determine the type of disc drives in an XP system? A. Click on Start programs, accessories and system information. B. Click on System information then Disc Drives. C. Click on Control panel then Sounds and Audio Devices. D. Click on Control panel followed by Taskbar and Start Menu. 9-41F6 What are important considerations when replacing a CD-ROM drive? A. The speed must be identical to the drive it is replacing. B. The replacement drive should use the same interface system as the old drive. C. The amount of RAM in the replacement unit must match the old drive. D. The rate of data transfer must match the old drive. Answers: 41F1: A 41F2: B 41F3: C 41F4: D 41F5: A 41F6: B 9-42F1 Nodes in an Ethernet network are interconnected using a cable making a “Home Run“back to the central: A. Router B. Backbone C. Computer D. Hub 9-42F2 What is the maximum length of a USB 2.0 cable between two hubs or between a hub and peripheral? A. 5 meters B. 10 meters C. 15 meters D. 20 meters 9-42F3 10Base-T and 100Base-TX systems generally uses the following type of cable: A. CAT-5 with 2 twisted pairs B. CAT-5 with 4 twisted pairs C. Coax D. Fiber optic 9-42F4 What initial steps should be taken when installing a router? A. Connect the router to your computer and boot up the router with the setup software. B. Open web browser, access the internet, enter username and password and download instructions. C. Open web browser, enter router’s address for network admin and enter username and password. D. Connect the router to your computer and enter the addresses for all stations in the system. 9-42F5 What are the most commonly used IP addresses for routers? A. 198.162.1.1, 196.168.1.1 and 196.166.1.1 B. 194.166.1.0, 194.166.1.1 and 194.168.1.2 C. 192.168.1.1, 192.168.0.1 and 192.168.2.0 D. 192.166.1.0, 192.166.1.1 and 192.164.2.0 9-42F6 In an Ethernet network, the available bandwidth is shared between all nodes within the same: A. Vessel Compartment B. Address Range C. Star Topology D. Collision Domain Answers: 42F1: D 42F2: A 42F3: B 42F4: C 42F5: C 42F6: D 9-43F1 A typical PC program that is used widely for logging and troubleshooting NMEA 0183 data is: A. Excel B. Windows Explorer C. HyperTerminal D. Microsoft Word 9-43F2 what is the maximum signal voltage range that an NMEA-0183 unit must be capable of handling without damage? A. +/- 5 volts B. +/- 10 volts C. +/- 12 volts D. +/- 15 volts 9-43F3 The current and most recent version of NMEA 0183 uses what standard for data communications? A. RS422 B. RS485 C. RS232 D. ISO 11783 9-43F4 What type of data communication is used for NMEA 0183. A. Parallel B. Serial C. Can Bus D. Ethernet 9-43F5 Which of the following statements about an NMEA -0183 system is correct? A. The cable shield must be grounded at both ends including the opto-isolators. B. Opto-isolators must be used and the shield should be grounded to the talker chassis only. C. Opto-isolators must be used and the shield should be grounded to the listener chassis only. D. Version 2 devices use higher voltages than version 1 devices. 9-43F6 An important difference between NMEA 0183 and NMEA 2000 is: A. Relay switched vs diode switch B. Low voltage vs high voltage C. Single talker vs multi-talkers D. Data transfer vs video transfer Answers: 43F1: C 43F2: D 43F3: A 43F4: B 43F5: B 43F6: C 9-44F1 The Voltage of the NMEA 2000 backbone power supply pair must be maintained to within the following range. A. 0 to 5 volts B. 9 to 16 volts C. 10.5 to 13.6 volts D. 12 to 24 volts 9-44F2 NMEA 2000 Certified Device identify their current requirements in terms of LENs (load Equivalent Number). 1 LEN is equal to: A. 1 Amp B. 500 mA C. 50 mA D. 25 mA 9-44F3 Which of the following are NOT components of a NMEA 2000 network? A. Tees, Drop Cables and terminating Resistors. B. Tees, Backbone Cables, Power Cables. C. Termination Resistors, Power Cables, Backbone Cables. D. Multiplexers, Combiners, Routers. 9-44F4 The NMEA 2000 backbone operating speed is: A. 250 bps B. 500 bps C. 1500 bps D. 2000 bps 9-44F5 When viewing NMEA 2000 data you must use the following. A. Voltmeter B. Converter C. HyperTerminal D. Gateway 9-44F6 What is the maximum length for a drop cable to a single NMEA 2000 device? A. 6 meters B. 12 meters C. 18 meters D. 24 meters Answers: 44F1: B 44F2: C 44F3: D 44F4: A 44F5: D 44F6: A 9-45F1 What is a common range of frequencies used for depth finding equipment? A. 200-400 kHz B. 1000-2600 kHz C. 200-800 Hz D. 4,000-6,000 kHz 9-45F2 What is a common range of pulse widths used for depth finding equipment? A. 10 to 30 microseconds B. 25 to 600 microseconds C. 2 to 20 milliseconds D. 50 to 200 milliseconds 9-45F3 What is the purpose of the “carbon pile” on an older gyro compass? A. Ballast regulation B. Precession control C. Voltage regulation D. Prevent pendulum effect errors 9-45F4 What are the principles of operation of a fiber-optic gyro compass? A. A fiber-optic coil and three accelerometers determine the speed of rotation of the earth. B. Two fiber-optic coils with one accelerometer and a level sensor determine the direction of true north. C. Three fiber-optic coils with a dual accelerometer and a yaw detector determines the direction of true north. D. Three fiber-optic coils and a dual-axis electronic level sensor determine the direction of true north. 9-45F5 How does the Ship Security Alert System operate? A. It sends an alert to specific addresses via the Inmarsat-C terminal. B. It sends an all ships alert via the VHF-DSC unit. C. It sends an alert to the RCC via the Inmarsat-C terminal. D. It sends an all ships alert via MF-HF. 9-45F6 AIS units use the following: A. VHF channels 65B ( 160.875 MHz) and 66B ( 160.925 MHz) and 9.6 kbs GMSK modulation. B. VHF channels 87B (161.975 MHz) and 88B (162.025 MHz) and 9.6 kbs GMSK modulation. C. VHF channels 16 ( 158.800 MHz) and 70 ( 156.525 MHz) and 4.8 kbs GMSK modulation. D. VHF channels 18B ( 161.500 MHz) and 19B ( 161.550 MHz) and 4.8 kbs GMSK modulation. Answers: 45F1: A 45F2: B 45F3: C 45F4: D 45F5: A 45F6: B 9-46F1 What procedure must be followed before using C-Map charts for an Electronic Chart System? A. License information must be entered in the master computer terminal. B. The C-Map charts must be downloaded from the internet. C. A dongle or password device must be inserted in the master computer terminal. D. License information must be entered for each computer being used. 9-46F2 Which of the following lists of data inputs for an Electronic Chart System is incorrect? A. Radar, SSAS and Position. B. Speed, Depth and Position. C. Radar, Depth and Position. D. Speed, Radar and Depth. 9-46F3 Which of the following is a necessary component of an auto pilot? A. GPS B. Rudder feedback unit C. Engine RPM data D. SSAS 9-46F4 What inputs are normally required for an Auto Pilot? A. Course information and GPS. B. Rudder feedback and Radar data. C. Course information and rudder feedback. D. Rudder feedback and yaw sensors. 9-46F5 Which of the following is not an accurate list of functions/data recorded by the Vessel Data Recorder? A. Position, Date, Time and Speed. B. Heading, VHF radio communications, Position and Depth of water. C. Heading, Depth of water, EGC data and Radar. D. Depth of water, Audio from the bridge, Speed and Position. 9-46F6 Which of the following statements about Vessel Data Recorders is NOT true? A. The “Crash Survivable Module” (CSM) retains data for up to 12 hours. B. The “Data Acquisition Unit” (DAU) may have data storage for as long as 30 days. C. Data input may include Rudder feedback, Depth of water and Radar. D. Data input may include Position, Date, MSI information and Audio from the bridge. Answers: 46F1: D 46F2: A 46F3: B 46F4: C 46F5: C 46F6: D 9-47G1 What is the best method for grounding an Inmarsat-C terminal? A. Number 10 copper wire between terminal and the ship/s steel hull. B. A good ground at the antenna is sufficient. C. Copper strap brazed to the steel terminal and ship’s steel hull. D. An aluminum strap bolted to both the steel terminal and ship’s steel hull. 9-47G2 What is the most important consideration for installing a Full-Duplex VHF radiotelephone. A. Maximum separation between the transmitter and receiver. B. Minimum separation between transmitting antennas. C. Maximum separation between transmitting antennas. D. Maximum separation between transmitting antenna and the duplex receiver antenna. 9-47G3 What is the most important factor when locating depth finder transducers? A. In an area not subject to cavitation. B. They must be equidistant from the bow and the stern. C. They must be on the centerline of the ship. D. They should be as close to the bow as possible. 9-47G4 Bridge equipment separation recommendations generally refer to what instrument? A. GPS B. Magnetic compass C. ECDIS D. Auto Pilot 9-47G5 When installing an Inmarsat-C antenna what should be the minimum distance to other Inmarsat antennas? A. 4 meters B. 8 meters C. 10 meters D. 12 meters 9-47G6 What action must be taken after an Inmarsat-C system is fully installed? A. Advise the nearest RCC that your terminal is active. B. Send a distress alert and then cancel it. C. Your Inmarsat Mobile Number must be entered in the terminal. D. Send a brief test message to your own terminal. Answers: 47G1: C 47G2: D 47G3: A 47G4: B 47G5: B 47G6: C 9-48G1 What are the operator’s license requirements for conducting a GMDSS ship station annual inspection? A. GMDSS Radio Operator’s License. B. GMDSS Maintainer’s License. C. First Class Radiotelegraph Operator’s License. D. General Radiotelephone Operator’s License. 9-48G2 What log entries are required after passing the annual inspection? A. One of the ship’s GMDSS Radio Operators must certify that inspecting technician as properly conducted all the required equipment tests. B. The inspecting technician must enter the results of all the equipment tests and specifically note which tests passed and which tests failed. C. Certification by both the inspecting technician and the vessel’s Master/owner that the inspection was successful. D. The vessel’s Master/Owner must certify that the inspection was successful. 9-48G3 What battery tests are made during the annual inspection? A. Record the specific gravity of all cells while the batteries are charging. B. The terminal voltage is measured and recorded at the end of a 6 hour full load discharge. C. Record the specific gravity of all cells while the batteries are discharging. D. With battery off charge and maximum required load measure and record maximum discharge current and voltage. 9-48G4 What is the easiest way to test the Inmarsat-C terminal for proper operation? A. Send a brief test message to your own terminal. B. Contact the nearest RCC for a signal report. C. Contact the nearest ship for a signal report. D. Use the internal POST function. 9-48G5 After the station has successfully passed the survey what document is issued to the vessel? A. FCC 817 B. SOLAS Annual Certificate C. Radio Station License D. Cargo Ship Safety Certificate 9-48G6 Which of the following is NOT a required VHF test during an annual inspection? A. Carrier deviation measurement. B. Power output and VSWR on Channels 6, 13 and 16. C. Equipment is within frequency tolerance. D. Equipment operates from all required power sources. Answers: 48G1: B 48G2: C 48G3: D 48G4: A 48G5: D 48G6: A 9-49G1 A 4 digit multi-meter with an accuracy of 0.15% and 2 counts is set on the 6 volt scale. What range of readings may be expected when measuring a 5 volt DC source? A. 4.99 to 5.01 volts DC B. 4.98 to 5.02 volts DC C. 4.97 to 5.02 volts DC D. 4.95 to 5.05 volts DC 9-49G2 A 4 digit multi-meter with an accuracy of 0.15% and 2 counts is set on the 60 volt scale. What range of readings may be expected when measuring a 24 volt DC source? A. 23.74 to 24.52 volts DC B. 23.62 to 24.38 volts DC C. 23.56 to 24.28 volts DC D. 23.42 to 24.52 volts DC 9-49G3 What is the most important specification for an R. F. Signal Generator used at VHF frequencies? A. Frequency accuracy B. Modulation percentage C. Low signal leakage D. Frequency modulation 9-49G4 A good lab type signal generator for VHF measurements should be able to reduce its output to: A. 5.0 microvolt B. 1.0 microvolt C. 0.5 microvolt D. 0.1 microvolt 9-49G5 The characteristics of a 10:1 attenuation probe for an oscilloscope is as follows: A. A load of about 10 megohms shunted by 12 pF. B. A load of about 20 megohms shunted by a 12 mH coil. C. A load of about 5 megohms shunted by 6 pF. D. A load of about 5 megohms shunted by a 6 mH coil. 9-49G6 In dual-trace oscilloscopes the purpose of the “Mode” control is to: A. Select a choice between DC or AC input on either channel. B. Select either channel alone or a combination of both channels. C. Select the proper time base of either channel. D. Select the proper frequency compensation for both channels. Answers: 49G1: A 49G2: B 49G3: C 49G4: D 49G5: A 49G6: B 9-50G1 What type of signals are usually provided by a simple Function Generator? A. Sine Waves with pulse modulation. B. Sine Waves and Square Waves. C. Square Waves and Triangular Waves. D. Sine Waves, Square Waves and Triangular Waves. 9-50G2 a SINAD meter consists of a multi-range audio frequency voltmeter: A. Calibrated in decibels with a sharp internal 1000 Hz bandstop filter. B. Calibrated in millivolts with a medium 1000 Hz bandpass filter. C. Calibrated in decibels with an internal 1000 Hz highpass filter. D. Calibrated in decibels with an internal 1000 Hz lowpass filter. 9-50G3 Which of the following statements about a logic probe is false? A. A “Red” LED indicates a “High” state. B. Both “Red” and “Green” LEDs on indicate a short. C. A “Green” LED indicates a “Low” state. D. An “Amber” LED indicates a “pulse”. 9-50G4 An analog RF wattmeter provides the most accurate reading: A. At the middle one third of the dial. B. At the lower one third of the dial. C. At the upper one third of the dial. D. The accuracy is uniform the whole scale. 9-50G5 What is the purpose of a deviation meter? A. Measure the number of sidebands. B. Measure the modulation index. C. Measure the carrier deviation in an FM transmitter. D. Measure the carrier frequency. 9-50G6 What would be the most likely reason to observe the transmitter output with a spectrum analyzer? A. Measure frequency modulation deviation. B. Measure percentage of amplitude modulation. C. Measure the carrier frequency. D. Measure spurious signals. Answers: 50G1: D 50G2: A 50G3: B 50G4: C 50G5: C 50G6: D share/E9/0000775000175000017500000000000014621431034010605 5ustar jtnjtnshare/E9/9-35D30000664000175000017500000000015614621431034011316 0ustar jtnjtn9-35D3 A What is the minimum required effective radiated power? A. 0.25 watt B. 0.5 watt C. 1 watt D. 2 watts share/E9/9-8A60000664000175000017500000000045214621431033011234 0ustar jtnjtn9-8A6 A What terms are used to describe a device used to test the RF power output of a marine VHF transmitter without emitting a signal on the air? A. Dummy load, artificial antenna. B. Phantom Antenna, dummy load. C. Isotropic suppressor, artificial antenna. D. Artificial attenuator, dummy load. share/E9/9-44F10000664000175000017500000000027414621431034011317 0ustar jtnjtn9-44F1 B The Voltage of the NMEA 2000 backbone power supply pair must be maintained to within the following range. A. 0 to 5 volts B. 9 to 16 volts C. 10.5 to 13.6 volts D. 12 to 24 volts share/E9/9-15B10000664000175000017500000000043214621431033011304 0ustar jtnjtn9-15B1 C The MF/HF receiver fails to suppress the AF output in the absence of a sufficiently strong input signal. What is the most likely cause? A. The AGC circuit has failed. B. The BFO circuit has failed. C. The squelch circuit has failed. D. The AF amplifier circuit has failed. share/E9/9-16B60000664000175000017500000000076214621431033011320 0ustar jtnjtn9-16B6 A What is the purpose of a phase comparator in a frequency synthesizer? A. Compare the divided outputs of the master oscillator and the voltage controlled oscillator. B. Compare the direct outputs of the master oscillator and the voltage controlled oscillator. C. Compare the direct output of the master oscillator and the divided output of the voltage controlled oscillator. D. Compare the divided output of the master oscillator and the direct output of the voltage controlled oscillator. share/E9/9-1A10000664000175000017500000000057514621431033011226 0ustar jtnjtn9-1A1 A What are the correct VHF Channels and Frequencies for Calling/Distress, DSC and bridge-to-bridge operations? A. Ch-16, 156.800 MHz, Ch-70, 156.525 MHz and Ch-13, 156.650 MHz. B. Ch-06, 156.300 MHz, Ch-16, 156.800 MHz and Ch-13, 156.650 MHz. C. Ch-08, 156.400 MHz, Ch-70, 156.525 MHz and Ch-16, 156.800 MHz. D. Ch-06, 156.300 MHz, Ch-12, 156.600 MHz and Ch-13, 156.650 MHz. share/E9/9-39E50000664000175000017500000000055614621431034011331 0ustar jtnjtn9-39E5 B Power supplies with inductive input filters have the following characteristics: A. Poor voltage regulation with high peak rectifier currents. B. Good voltage regulation with high transformer utilization factor. C. Low transformer utilization factor with low rectifier peak currents. D. High transformer utilization factor with high rectifier peak currents. share/E9/9-47G60000664000175000017500000000045214621431034011326 0ustar jtnjtn9-47G6 C What action must be taken after an Inmarsat-C system is fully installed? A. Advise the nearest RCC that your terminal is active. B. Send a distress alert and then cancel it. C. Your Inmarsat Mobile Number must be entered in the terminal. D. Send a brief test message to your own terminal. share/E9/9-19B20000664000175000017500000000053114621431033011311 0ustar jtnjtn9-19B2 D What type of code is used for DSC transmissions? A. A 7 bit code with a constant ratio of 4/3 between the 1s and 0s. B. A 7 bit code followed by an error check character at the end. C. A 10 bit code followed by an error check character at the end. D. A 10 bit code with 7 bits used for information and 3 bits used for error correction. share/E9/9-22B30000664000175000017500000000054114621431034011306 0ustar jtnjtn9-22B3 B What is the electrical effect of a capacitance in series with the antenna? A. It electrically lengthens a physically fixed length antenna. B. It electrically shortens a physically fixed length antenna. C. It lowers the resonant frequency of a physically fixed length antenna. D. It increases the bandwidth of a physically fixed length antenna. share/E9/9-47G30000664000175000017500000000042614621431034011324 0ustar jtnjtn9-47G3 A What is the most important factor when locating depth finder transducers? A. In an area not subject to cavitation. B. They must be equidistant from the bow and the stern. C. They must be on the centerline of the ship. D. They should be as close to the bow as possible. share/E9/9-3A60000664000175000017500000000056714621431033011236 0ustar jtnjtn9-3A6 C What is meant by "full quieting" in a FM VHF receiver? A. Adjusting the squelch control to eliminate background noise. B. The rapid decrease in SINAD and noise with increasing signal level. C. The received signal is strong enough to completely quiet the receiver background noise. D. The rapid improvement in SINAD and decrease in noise with decreasing signal level. share/E9/9-2A10000664000175000017500000000060214621431033011216 0ustar jtnjtn9-2A1 D What is the purpose of the USA-INT switch? A. To provide for simplex operations with European Public Correspondence stations. B. To provide for duplex operations with U.S. Public Correspondence stations. C. To change from duplex to simplex operation on designated channels in European waters. D. To change from duplex to simplex operation on designated channels in U.S. waters. share/E9/9-42F40000664000175000017500000000067414621431034011324 0ustar jtnjtn9-42F4 C What initial steps should be taken when installing a router? A. Connect the router to your computer and boot up the router with the setup software. B. Open web browser, access the internet, enter username and password and download instructions. C. Open web browser, enter router's address for network admin and enter username and password. D. Connect the router to your computer and enter the addresses for all stations in the system. share/E9/9-2A60000664000175000017500000000020214621431033011217 0ustar jtnjtn9-2A6 D Which of the following controls is not found on a VHF-DSC transceiver? A. "Distress" B. "Cancel" C. "Squelch" D. "R.I.T." share/E9/9-5A20000664000175000017500000000156414621431033011232 0ustar jtnjtn9-5A2 B Which of the following test procedures may be used to determine a VHF receiver's minimum discernible signal? A. Connect an oscilliscope to the antenna input and observe the amplitude of minimum signal voltage plotted on the display's vertical axis as a function of time on the horizontal axis. B. Set a signal generator to the frequency of the VHF receiver, adjust the output signal to near zero, and increase the signal level until an audio voltmeter connected to the AF output point indicates a 3-dB increase. C. Connect a spectrum analyzer to the antenna input and apply the maximum amount of attentuation to detect minimum signal level plotted on the display's vertical axis as a function of frequency on the horizontal axis. D. Connect a 156.3 Mhz signal generator to the antenna input, set the VHF receiver to channel 06 and measure dynamic range using an oscilliscope. share/E9/9-39E20000664000175000017500000000122614621431034011321 0ustar jtnjtn9-39E2 D Which of the following statements concerning power supply filters is true? A. A capacitor input has high output voltage, good voltage regulation, low rectifier peak currents and low transformer utilization factor. B. A capacitor input has low output voltage, poor voltage regulation, high rectifier peak currents and low transformer utilization factor. C. An Inductive input has poor voltage regulation, low transformer utilization factor, high rectifier peak currents and relative low output voltage. D. An Inductive input has good voltage regulation, high transformer utilization factor, low rectifier peak currents and relatively low output voltage. share/E9/9-41F50000664000175000017500000000045714621431034011323 0ustar jtnjtn9-41F5 A How do you determine the type of disc drives in an XP system? A. Click on Start programs, accessories and system information. B. Click on System information then Disc Drives. C. Click on Control panel then Sounds and Audio Devices. D. Click on Control panel followed by Taskbar and Start Menu. share/E9/9-20B40000664000175000017500000000025314621431033011304 0ustar jtnjtn9-20B4 A Which of the following keystrokes or characters follows most commands in ARQ communications when working an automated Coast Station? A. + B. GA+? C. ENTER D. END share/E9/9-41F40000664000175000017500000000050614621431034011315 0ustar jtnjtn9-41F4 D Power is on but the computer will not boot into the operating system. What steps should you take? A. Make sure the CPU fan is operating normally. B. Remove the network driver card, clean contacts and reinsert. C. Remove all external cables and try again. D. Use the BIOS setup mode to check for proper BIOS settings. share/E9/9-40E60000664000175000017500000000051114621431034011311 0ustar jtnjtn9-40E6 A Which of the following statements about a switching mode power supply input current is correct? A. It has high harmonic content and a low power factor. B. It has low harmonic content and a low power factor. C. It has high harmonic content and a high power factor. D. It has low harmonic content and a high power factor. share/E9/9-17B20000664000175000017500000000100614621431033011305 0ustar jtnjtn9-17B2 B Which of the following conditions would indicate the malfunction of a 2182 kHz radiotelephone system? A. No discernable traffic has been heard on the 2182 kHz during the radiotelephone silent periods. B. Failure to contact another station 60 miles distant during daytime operation. C. Dramatic decrease in noise level observed during night and early morning hours. D. The visual indication of power to the antenna fluctuates while testing the radiotelephone alarm signal generator into an artificial antenna. share/E9/9-30C30000664000175000017500000000051114621431034011303 0ustar jtnjtn9-30C3 B What is the meaning of the "ACB" Inmarsat-C Non-Delivery Notification (NDN) failure code? A. The terminal received an invalid answer-back from the destination. B. Access to the Inmarsat system has been barred. C. The Automatic Communications Bit error rate was exceeded. D. An Inmarsat message channel failure occurred. share/E9/9-45F40000664000175000017500000000075614621431034011330 0ustar jtnjtn9-45F4 D What are the principles of operation of a fiber-optic gyro compass? A. A fiber-optic coil and three accelerometers determine the speed of rotation of the earth. B. Two fiber-optic coils with one accelerometer and a level sensor determine the direction of true north. C. Three fiber-optic coils with a dual accelerometer and a yaw detector determines the direction of true north. D. Three fiber-optic coils and a dual-axis electronic level sensor determine the direction of true north. share/E9/9-6A50000664000175000017500000000016114621431033011226 0ustar jtnjtn9-6A5 C What is the most common type of emission for shipboard VHF-DSC transceivers? A. F1B B. J3B C. G3E D. H3E share/E9/9-22B10000664000175000017500000000027714621431034011312 0ustar jtnjtn9-22B1 D What is the purpose of the antenna tuner? A. Minimizes the carrier output. B. Maximizes the sidebands. C. Provides for maximum VSWR. D. Match the antenna to the operating frequency. share/E9/9-1A60000664000175000017500000000047714621431033011234 0ustar jtnjtn9-1A6 B Using a frequency counter with an accuracy of 5 ppm, which of the following are within legal tolerance for the frequencies of 156.875 MHz and 157.200? A. 156,873.562 kHz and 157,198.264 kHz. B. 156,875.774 kHz and 157.199.321 kHz. C. 156,876.562 kHz and 157,201.355 kHz. D. 156,873.336 kHz and 157,201.570 kHz. share/E9/9-49G10000664000175000017500000000042014621431034011316 0ustar jtnjtn9-49G1 A A 4 digit multi-meter with an accuracy of 0.15% and 2 counts is set on the 6 volt scale. What range of readings may be expected when measuring a 5 volt DC source? A. 4.99 to 5.01 volts DC B. 4.98 to 5.02 volts DC C. 4.97 to 5.02 volts DC D. 4.95 to 5.05 volts DC share/E9/9-12B50000664000175000017500000000047314621431033011312 0ustar jtnjtn9-12B5 D Reducing the "RF Gain" control on an MF/HF transceiver has what effect? A. Reduces degenerative feedback to the RF amplifier stage. B. Reduces volume in response to a varying RF signal input. C. Reduces coupling between the receiver's RF amplifier stages. D. Reduces sensitivity of the RF amplifier stage. share/E9/9-10A60000664000175000017500000000033414621431033011304 0ustar jtnjtn9-10A6 D What is a disadvantage when using high gain VHF antennas? A. Poor horizontal radiation pattern. B. Very high radiation pattern. C. Very low radiation pattern. D. Signal dropout in severe weather on small craft. share/E9/9-49G60000664000175000017500000000047614621431034011336 0ustar jtnjtn9-49G6 B In dual-trace oscilloscopes the purpose of the "Mode" control is to: A. Select a choice between DC or AC input on either channel. B. Select either channel alone or a combination of both channels. C. Select the proper time base of either channel. D. Select the proper frequency compensation for both channels. share/E9/9-19B30000664000175000017500000000026314621431033011314 0ustar jtnjtn9-19B3 A What is the correct frequency shift and sub-carrier for MF-HF-DSC? A. +/- 85 Hz and 1700 Hz B. +/- 170 Hz and 1700 Hz C. +/- 250 Hz and 1500 Hz D. +/- 400 Hz and 1900 Hz share/E9/9-9A20000664000175000017500000000026614621431033011234 0ustar jtnjtn9-9A2 B What is the correct modulation rate and index of modulation for VHF-DSC? A. 800 baud, 3.0 +/- 10% B. 1200 baud, 2.0 +/- 10% C. 1500 baud, 2.0 +/- 5% D. 1800 baud, 3.0 +/- 5% share/E9/9-9A10000664000175000017500000000034114621431033011225 0ustar jtnjtn9-9A1 A What is the correct frequency shift and sub-carrier for VHF-DSC? A. 1300-2100 Hz, sub-carrier 1700 Hz. B. 1500-2300 Hz, sub-carrier 1900 Hz. C. 1200-2600 Hz, sub-carrier 1900 Hz. D. 1500-2300 Hz, sub-carrier 1700 Hz. share/E9/9-1A20000664000175000017500000000022414621431033011216 0ustar jtnjtn9-1A2 B What is the frequency separation between Transmit and Receive frequencies on a duplex channel? A. 2.8 MHz B. 4.6 MHz C. 6.4 MHz D. 10.7 MHz share/E9/9-47G10000664000175000017500000000051514621431034011321 0ustar jtnjtn9-47G1 C What is the best method for grounding an Inmarsat-C terminal? A. Number 10 copper wire between terminal and the ship/s steel hull. B. A good ground at the antenna is sufficient. C. Copper strap brazed to the steel terminal and ship's steel hull. D. An aluminum strap bolted to both the steel terminal and ship's steel hull. share/E9/9-8A10000664000175000017500000000105714621431033011231 0ustar jtnjtn9-8A1 B What condition may be indicated if a VHF radio cannot contact nearby stations on any channel, an inline wattmeter indicates 25 watts output (HIGH power mode), and no modulation is heard when the transmitted signal is monitored with an external receiver? A. A fault in the transmitter's Push-To-Talk circuit is causing the loss of audio. B. There is an open connection in the microphone cable or connector. C. The microphone's Automatic Gain Control (AGC) has malfunctioned. D. Degenerative feedback applied to the AF amplifier exceeds specifications. share/E9/9-44F20000664000175000017500000000025314621431034011315 0ustar jtnjtn9-44F2 C NMEA 2000 Certified Device identify their current requirements in terms of LENs (load Equivalent Number). 1 LEN is equal to: A. 1 Amp B. 500 mA C. 50 mA D. 25 mA share/E9/9-46F50000664000175000017500000000050414621431034011321 0ustar jtnjtn9-46F5 C Which of the following is not an accurate list of functions/data recorded by the Vessel Data Recorder? A. Position, Date, Time and Speed. B. Heading, VHF radio communications, Position and Depth of water. C. Heading, Depth of water, EGC data and Radar. D. Depth of water, Audio from the bridge, Speed and Position. share/E9/9-40E50000664000175000017500000000033714621431034011316 0ustar jtnjtn9-40E5 D What are the input/output voltages of a "BUCK" switching power supply with a 50% duty cycle? A. 120 volts in, 240 volts out. B. 24 volts in, 36 volts out. C. 12 volts in, 12 volts out. D. 10 volts in, 5 volts out. share/E9/9-12B60000664000175000017500000000050614621431033011310 0ustar jtnjtn9-12B6 A What is the function of an "AGC" button? A. To maintain a relatively constant AF output when the input signal varies. B. To reduce AF output when the input signal becomes weak. C. To increase the gain of the RF amplifier when the input signal is strong. D. To increase RF output when the input signal becomes strong. share/E9/9-29C10000664000175000017500000000053614621431034011320 0ustar jtnjtn9-29C1 A Which of the following best describes the polarization of a satellite signal? A. The orientation of the RF signal's electric field component. B. The orientation of the RF signal relative to a dipole antenna. C. The orientation of the RF signal relative to a parabolic antenna. D. The orientation of the RF signal's magnetic field component. share/E9/9-8A20000664000175000017500000000111314621431033011223 0ustar jtnjtn9-8A2 C What condition may be indicated if a VHF radio cannot contact nearby stations, an inline wattmeter indicates less than 1 watt output (HIGH power mode), and nominal voltage (e.g., 12.8 vdc) is applied to the VHF radio power input line? A. The RF power applied to the input of the Power Amplifier (PA) stage is excessive. B. There is an open connection between the radio's PA stage and the antenna connector. C. The bias voltage applied to the Power Amplifier (PA) stage may be insufficient. D. A defective capacitor is blocking DC voltage from appearing at the antenna connector. share/E9/9-26C60000664000175000017500000000047514621431034011324 0ustar jtnjtn9-26C6 D Which of the following is not a characteristic of an Inmarsat Fleet Broadband IP handset? A. Ability to transmit telephone calls as circuit-switched calls. B. Displays menu options to configure the terminal. C. Uses TCP/IP to communicate with the terminal. D. Provides the terminal with Power over Ethernet. share/E9/9-37E20000664000175000017500000000054214621431034011317 0ustar jtnjtn9-37E2 B What is the effect of temperature on the specific gravity of lead acid batteries? A. Higher temperature results in a higher specific gravity reading. B. Higher temperature results in a lower specific gravity reading. C. Temperature has no effect on the specific gravity reading. D. Lower temperature results in a lower specific gravity reading. share/E9/9-6A60000664000175000017500000000014014621431033011224 0ustar jtnjtn9-6A6 D How many sidebands does a VHF FM transmitter have? A. One B. Two C. One to four D. Many share/E9/9-21B10000664000175000017500000000064614621431034011311 0ustar jtnjtn9-21B1 A If a vessel is within range of NAVTEX broadcasts and both the Inmarsat-C and the NAVTEX receiver are inoperative the GMDSS operator should: A. Select 518 kHz FEC TELEX on the MF/HF console to receive MSI. B. Select 518 kHz ARQ TELEX on the MF/HF console to receive MSI. C. Request repairs of the Sat-C system and wait until within range of NAVTEX. D. Select an HF MSI frequency and ARQ TELEX mode to receive MSI. share/E9/9-27C60000664000175000017500000000070414621431034011320 0ustar jtnjtn9-27C6 C Which of the following best describes a Subscriber Identity Module (SIM)? A. A removable device to implement Inmarsat digital rights management (DRM). B. A non-volatile device to implement high-speed data and other advanced terminal features. C. An integrated circuit device that securely stores the Inmarsat identity and an authentication key. D. A Read/Write data device that uses x.25 protocol to limit terminal access to authorized users. share/E9/9-26C20000664000175000017500000000033614621431034011314 0ustar jtnjtn9-26C2 A Which of the following is not a function of an Inmarsat Fleet Broadband IP handset? A. Polling and Data Reporting. B. Voice over IP telephone calls. C. Displaying terminal status. D. Changing terminal parameters. share/E9/9-41F30000664000175000017500000000046414621431034011317 0ustar jtnjtn9-41F3 C What are the four main functions of the "BIOS" in most computers? A. BIOS Drivers, Bootstrap Loader, Printer Driver and BIOS Setup. B. CPU Setup, Disc Partition, USB driver and BIOS Setup. C. P.O.S.T., Bootstrap Loader, BIOS Drivers and BIOS Setup. D. BIOS Setup, P.O.S.T., CPU Setup and RAM Setup. share/E9/9-27C10000664000175000017500000000020514621431034011307 0ustar jtnjtn9-27C1 C What protocol can be used in connecting a PC to the LAN interface of an Inmarsat terminal? A. ISDN B. SMTP C. TCP/IP D. FTP share/E9/9-50G10000664000175000017500000000036014621431034011311 0ustar jtnjtn9-50G1 D What type of signals are usually provided by a simple Function Generator? A. Sine Waves with pulse modulation. B. Sine Waves and Square Waves. C. Square Waves and Triangular Waves. D. Sine Waves, Square Waves and Triangular Waves. share/E9/9-40E40000664000175000017500000000057214621431034011316 0ustar jtnjtn9-40E4 A Which of the following statements about switching power supplies is the most accurate? A. Transformers use a ferrite core to reduce losses at high frequencies. B. Transformers use a laminated steel core to reduce losses at high frequencies. C. Lower switching frequencies provide better voltage regulation. D. Higher switching frequencies are more difficult to filter. share/E9/9-50G30000664000175000017500000000036714621431034011322 0ustar jtnjtn9-50G3 B Which of the following statements about a logic probe is false? A. A "Red" LED indicates a "High" state. B. Both "Red" and "Green" LEDs on indicate a short. C. A "Green" LED indicates a "Low" state. D. An "Amber" LED indicates a "pulse". share/E9/9-13B20000664000175000017500000000021414621431033011301 0ustar jtnjtn9-13B2 B If the BFO is turned off what kind of emissions can still be received? A. J3E and J2B B. A3E and H3E C. H3E and F1B D. A1A and J3E share/E9/9-49G30000664000175000017500000000030614621431034011323 0ustar jtnjtn9-49G3 C What is the most important specification for an R. F. Signal Generator used at VHF frequencies? A. Frequency accuracy B. Modulation percentage C. Low signal leakage D. Frequency modulation share/E9/9-21B50000664000175000017500000000060214621431033011304 0ustar jtnjtn9-21B5 A If the vessel is beyond range of NAVTEX broadcasts and the Sat-C system fails, the GMDSS operator must: A. Select an HF MSI frequency and FEC TELEX mode to receive MSI. B. Select 518 kHz ARQ TELEX on the MF/HF console to receive MSI. C. Request repairs of the Sat-C system and wait until within range of NAVTEX. D. Select 518 kHz FEC TELEX on the MF/HF console to receive MSI. share/E9/9-14B30000664000175000017500000000043614621431033011311 0ustar jtnjtn9-14B3 B You are able to hear signals in the voice/SSB mode but not in the SITOR (NBDP) mode. What is the most likely cause? A. The phase locked loop circuit has failed. B. The 500 Hz I.F. filter has become defective. C. The R.F. amplifier has failed. D. The B.F.O. circuit has failed. share/E9/9-18B30000664000175000017500000000063414621431033011315 0ustar jtnjtn9-18B3 B Which of the following conditions could cause very low RF output in a MF/HF transmitter operating in the F1B FEC mode? A. Failure of a voltage controlled oscillator in the IF amplifier stage. B. A high Standing Wave Ratio (SWR) in the antenna system. C. The connection of a transceiver is connected to a "Dummy Load" antenna. D. Failure of a SSB bandpass filter in the stage preceding the RF amplifier. share/E9/9-28C40000664000175000017500000000054114621431034011316 0ustar jtnjtn9-28C4 A Which of the following statements is true? A. The L2 carrier of 1227.60 MHz is used to measure the ionospheric delay. B. The L1 carrier of 1650.5 MHz is used to measure the ionospheric delay. C. The L1 carrier of 1545.22 MHz is used to provide the navigation message. D. The L2 carrier of 1575.42 MHz is used to provide the navigation message. share/E9/9-32C10000664000175000017500000000052314621431034011306 0ustar jtnjtn9-32C1 B What action should be taken if an Inmarsat Fleet Broadband antenna continuously changes azimuth after initialization? A. Replace the gyro repeater motor in the Antenna Tracking Unit. B. Use the Web interface to check the event log. C. Check the EL step motor with power off. D. Check the integrity of the antenna interface cable. share/E9/9-13B60000664000175000017500000000056614621431033011317 0ustar jtnjtn9-13B6 B How does a noise blanker circuit work in a HF receiver? A. A limiter circuit clips the peaks of the noise pulses. B. The noise pulses are used to develop a blanking pulse for the I.F. amplifier. C. The noise pulses operate on the ratio detector to blank the audio output. D. A Noise blanker briefly reduces the gain of the RF amplifier when the noise pulses occur. share/E9/9-32C40000664000175000017500000000062614621431034011315 0ustar jtnjtn9-32C4 A What condition would cause a connection failure between a technician's laptop and an Inmarsat Fleet Broadband terminal? A. The wrong IP address was entered as the URL in the web browser. B. The ASD function is enabled but the HSD function is disabled. C. The terminal's DTE port is set to the Asynchronous Data Service. D. The password for the High Speed Data service has been improperly entered. share/E9/9-24C40000664000175000017500000000077714621431034011325 0ustar jtnjtn9-24C4 A Which of the following is not recommended for Inmarsat-C antenna installations? A. Ensure the antenna is electrically insulated from the mounting mast. Check resistance with ohmmeter. B. Ground the antenna chassis to the mounting mast. Apply silicone to weatherproof the connection. C. Fashion a drip loop in the transmission line near the antenna. Secure to the mounting mast with cable tie. D. Apply waterproof sealant or putty around transmission line connectors. Wrap with self-bonding/vinyl tape. share/E9/9-9A60000664000175000017500000000041214621431033011231 0ustar jtnjtn9-9A6 B What might a voltmeter indicate when testing a DSC circuit for an outgoing message data stream? A. Steady reading of 12 volts DC. B. Fluctuating reading from 0 to 2 volts DC. C. There will be an absence of voltage. D. Voltage swing from -12 VDC to + 12 VDC. share/E9/9-19B40000664000175000017500000000024014621431033011310 0ustar jtnjtn9-19B4 B What is the time diversity reception interval for a MF-HF-DSC call? A. 33-1/3 milliseconds B. 400 milliseconds C. 450 milliseconds D. 250 milliseconds share/E9/9-3A30000664000175000017500000000055614621431033011231 0ustar jtnjtn9-3A3 A What is the function of a properly adjusted limiter circuit? A. Maintains a constant output amplitude with a varying input amplitude. B. Limits the level of RF output power in the final amplifier stage. C. Limits the modulation input amplitude while amplifying the modulation output. D. Controls the DC input voltage excursions of the final amplifier stage. share/E9/9-10A20000664000175000017500000000046714621431033011307 0ustar jtnjtn9-10A2 A Which of the following best describes a VHF collinear array? A. An antenna with phased elements, omni directional radiation pattern, offering up to 9 db gain. B. The cascade filters in the VHF radio's IF section. C. A shoreside directional VHF yagi antenna. D. A depth sounder phased array transducer. share/E9/9-10A40000664000175000017500000000016414621431033011303 0ustar jtnjtn9-10A4 C What is the most common type of coax connector used on VHF transceivers? A. "N" B. "BNC" C. "UHF" D. "TNC" share/E9/9-16B50000664000175000017500000000071014621431033011310 0ustar jtnjtn9-16B5 D What are the major components of a phase locked loop frequency synthesizer? A. Ratio detector, master oscillator, limiting amplifier and voltage controlled oscillator. B. Phase comparator, loop filter, master oscillator and first mixer stage. C. High pass filter, master oscillator, double balanced mixer and voltage controlled oscillator. D. Master oscillator, frequency dividers, phase comparator, loop filter and voltage controlled oscillator. share/E9/9-34D20000664000175000017500000000016514621431034011314 0ustar jtnjtn9-34D2 A In what frequency band does a search and rescue transponder operate? A. 9 GHz B. 3 GHz C. S-band D. 406 MHz share/E9/9-13B30000664000175000017500000000056514621431033011313 0ustar jtnjtn9-13B3 C If you are listening to another vessel's HF transmission and it sounds garbled what should you do? A. Change the receive frequency to either adjacent channel. B. Advise the other vessel that his transmission is faulty. C. Use the "R.I.T." or "Clarifier" control to adjust the frequency of the receiver. D. Adjust the squelch control to clear up the sound quality. share/E9/9-7A30000664000175000017500000000210414621431033011224 0ustar jtnjtn9-7A3 A A mismatched antenna system can degrade marine VHF radio performance. Antenna system matching can be analyzed by determining the Standing Wave Ratio (SWR). Which of the following is the best test procedure to determine the VHF antenna system SWR? A. Insert a directional wattmeter between the VHF transmitter and the coaxial transmission line connected to the antenna, activate the Push-To-Talk (PTT) circuit, observe the measured values of forward and reflected power. B. Insert a SWR meter between the VHF transmitter and the coaxial transmission line disconnected from the antenna, set the radio to an unused channel, activate the Push-To-Talk circuit, and read the measured value. C. Insert a directional wattmeter between the VHF radio and an artificial antenna, set the radio to any channel, key the microphone, and read the values of forward and reflected power. D. Insert an in-line RF Power meter between the VHF transmitter and the coaxial transmission line connected to a 50 ohm load, activate the Push-To-Talk (PTT) circuit, observe the measured value of reflected power. share/E9/9-21B30000664000175000017500000000076514621431033011314 0ustar jtnjtn9-21B3 C Selective FEC communications (SFEC) are employed when: A. Multiple stations without a group SELCALL must receive communications without using their transmitters. B. Multiple stations must receive communications by using their transmitters to achieve phasing. C. An individual station must receive communications without transmitting (Radio Silence). D. An individual station must receive communications by using their transmitter to achieve phasing and block other stations from breaking in. share/E9/9-23C60000664000175000017500000000012614621431034011312 0ustar jtnjtn9-23C6 C What is the abbreviation for signal to noise? A. STN B. SIG/NR C. SNR D. SIN share/E9/9-17B10000664000175000017500000000042314621431033011306 0ustar jtnjtn9-17B1 A An MF-HF transceiver works properly on voice but not SITOR (NBDP). What is the most likely source of the problem? A. The 500 Hz I.F. filter has failed. B. The audio amplifier has failed. C. The phase locked loop circuit has failed. D. The R.F. amplifier has failed. share/E9/9-16B30000664000175000017500000000050714621431033011312 0ustar jtnjtn9-16B3 D How is the lower sideband eliminated? A. By using a double balanced mixer to block the lower sideband. B. By using a filter to pass the lower sideband and block the upper sideband. C. By using a double balanced mixer to insert the carrier. D. By using a filter to pass the upper sideband and block the lower sideband. share/E9/9-12B20000664000175000017500000000036614621431033011310 0ustar jtnjtn9-12B2 C What is the function of the "TUNE" button on a MF/HF transceiver? A. To tune in a new ITU channel. B. To tune the frequency of the receiver. C. To tune the antenna to the transmit frequency. D. To tune the frequency of the AF amplifier. share/E9/9-25C30000664000175000017500000000046414621431034011316 0ustar jtnjtn9-25C3 C LRIT Long Range Information Tracking: A. Can serve as duplicate back up information for AIS (Automatic Information System.) B. Works on the same frequencies as AIS, but on different channels. C. is detected on the Inmarsat-C satellite network. D. Puts out a polling signal on the Inmarsat B system. share/E9/9-34D30000664000175000017500000000045514621431034011317 0ustar jtnjtn9-34D3 B What causes the SART to begin a transmission? A. When activated manually, it begins radiating immediately. B. After being activated the SART responds to RADAR interrogation. C. It is either manually or water activated before radiating. D. It begins radiating only when keyed by the operator. share/E9/9-28C50000664000175000017500000000113114621431034011313 0ustar jtnjtn9-28C5 D Which of the following best describes the GPS satellite signals transmitted? A. The L2 carrier at 1650.5 MHz carries the navigation message and the L1 carrier at 1575.42 MHz is used to measure the ionospheric delay. B. The two carriers are combined in a mixer circuit to develop an intermediate signal which is transmitted. C. The main carrier of 1650.5 MHz and a sub-carrier of 1575.24 MHz containing the SPS code signals. D. The L1 carrier of 1575.42 MHz carries the navigation message and the SPS code signals and the L2 carrier 1227.60 MHz which is used to measure the ionospheric delay. share/E9/9-29C50000664000175000017500000000064514621431034011325 0ustar jtnjtn9-29C5 A What is a best practice for installing Inmarsat satellite antennas aboard ship? A. Install antennas as high as practical, free from shadowing of structures. B. Install antennas next to other Inmarsat antennas, away from structures. C. Connect the antenna to transmission line with the highest characteristic impedance. D. Install an inline filter with the transmission line to attenuate frequencies above 1 GHz. share/E9/9-46F30000664000175000017500000000020514621431034011315 0ustar jtnjtn9-46F3 B Which of the following is a necessary component of an auto pilot? A. GPS B. Rudder feedback unit C. Engine RPM data D. SSAS share/E9/9-10A10000664000175000017500000000026514621431033011302 0ustar jtnjtn9-10A1 D It becomes necessary to construct a temporary VHF marine antenna. What should be the approximate length of the antenna? A. 10 inches B. 12 inches C. 15 inches D. 18 inches share/E9/9-43F40000664000175000017500000000015514621431034011317 0ustar jtnjtn9-43F4 B What type of data communication is used for NMEA 0183. A. Parallel B. Serial C. Can Bus D. Ethernet share/E9/9-43F30000664000175000017500000000021614621431034011314 0ustar jtnjtn9-43F3 A The current and most recent version of NMEA 0183 uses what standard for data communications? A. RS422 B. RS485 C. RS232 D. ISO 11783 share/E9/9-37E40000664000175000017500000000035714621431034011325 0ustar jtnjtn9-37E4 D What is the normal specific gravity of a fully charged lead acid battery cell? What device is used to measuring the electrolyte of a lead acid battery? A. 1.375 Voltmeter B. 1.180 Voltmeter C. 1.210 Hydrometer D. 1.280 Hydrometer share/E9/9-24C20000664000175000017500000000036214621431034011311 0ustar jtnjtn9-24C2 C How do you perform a LOOP BACK test? A. Initiate a Performance Verification Test through terminal software. B. Initiate a test to IP address: 127.0.0.1. C. Send yourself a test message. D. Request the LES to send you a test message. share/E9/9-7A40000664000175000017500000000111414621431033011225 0ustar jtnjtn9-7A4 B What may be indicated if a VHF radio operates normally but the transmitter produces nearly zero RF output in the high power mode on all marine channels? A. The antenna system is presenting a Standing Wave Ratio (SWR) of 1.5 to 1.0 on the desired frequency. B. The SWR protection circuit in the transmitter has engaged to prevent damage to the Power Amplifier. C. A "crowbar" circuit in the power supply has prevented an over current condition that might damage the radio. D. A 50-ohm impedance in the antenna system is preventing the transmitter from achieving full power output. share/E9/9-40E30000664000175000017500000000132314621431034011310 0ustar jtnjtn9-40E3 D What is the configuration for a mains operated switching power supply with output regulation? A. Input rectifier and filter, Inverter (chopper), output transformer, feedback loop to a chopper controller and inverter and output rectifier and filter to DC output. B. Line, Inverter (chopper), input rectifier and filter, output transformer, output rectifier and filter to DC output. C. Input rectifier and filter, output transformer, output rectifier and filter to DC output with feedback loop to the input followed by the chopper controller. D. Input rectifier and filter, Inverter (chopper), output transformer, output rectifier and filter to DC output with feedback loop to a chopper controller and the inverter. share/E9/9-23C20000664000175000017500000000016514621431034011311 0ustar jtnjtn9-23C2 D What is an LNA? A. Line noise amplifier B. Low number algorithm C. Low noise antenna D. Low noise amplifier share/E9/9-34D40000664000175000017500000000025714621431034011320 0ustar jtnjtn9-34D4 C At what interval must the SART's battery be replaced? A. Every 2 years. B. Every 3 years or after being used. C. Every 5 years or after being used. D. Every 8 years. share/E9/9-25C10000664000175000017500000000047014621431034011311 0ustar jtnjtn9-25C1 A The U.S. National Data Center that monitors polling input for each US Flag ship: A. Must receive at least 4 position reports daily. B. Must receive LRIT position reports each hour. C. Must receive at least 1 position report daily including the number of crew aboard. D. Is a double check on AIS output. share/E9/9-48G50000664000175000017500000000030614621431034011324 0ustar jtnjtn9-48G5 D After the station has successfully passed the survey what document is issued to the vessel? A. FCC 817 B. SOLAS Annual Certificate C. Radio Station License D. Cargo Ship Safety Certificate share/E9/9-15B30000664000175000017500000000051514621431033011310 0ustar jtnjtn9-15B3 A The MF/HF transceiver produces strong AF output but no signals are heard on any frequency. What is the most likely cause? A. The transceiver is connected to a "Dummy Load." B. A high Standing Wave Ratio (SWR) in the antenna system. C. A "crowbar" circuit in the power supply is activated. D. The squelch circuit has failed. share/E9/9-29C60000664000175000017500000000060214621431034011317 0ustar jtnjtn9-29C6 B What components does an Inmarsat Fleet Broadband RADOME typically include? A. Phased array antenna, gyro-stabilized platform, rotary joint, AC power supply. B. Stabilized antenna, RF unit, Antenna Control Unit, GPS antenna. C. Parabolic dish antenna, Main Control Unit, rotary joint, HV power supply. D. Parabolic dish antenna, rotary joint, AC power supply TDMA Control Unit. share/E9/9-27C50000664000175000017500000000037214621431034011320 0ustar jtnjtn9-27C5 B What is the configuration Thrane & Thrane F500 for standard voice telephone operation? A. RJ11 Port 1 and 2 set to 3.1 kHz. B. RJ11 Port 1 and 2 set to standard voice. C. ISDN Port set to 3.1 kHz. D. ISDN Port 1 and 2 set to standard voice. share/E9/9-23C30000664000175000017500000000034314621431034011310 0ustar jtnjtn9-23C3 A What function does the LNA perform? A. Receives and amplifies a very weak signal from the satellite. B. Calculates data received. C. Increases the receiver's noise figure. D. Provides degenerative feedback to the LNB. share/E9/9-30C10000664000175000017500000000060614621431034011306 0ustar jtnjtn9-30C1 D Which of the following conditions would prevent communications between an Inmarsat-C data port and external data terminal equipment (DTE)? A. Use of a stop bit in the DCE/DTE communication parameters. B. Grounding pin 5 of the standard EIA-232 connector. C. Use of a "0" parity bit in the DCE/DTE communication parameters. D. Use of a "null" MODEM cable to connect the DTE device. share/E9/9-47G50000664000175000017500000000024114621431034011321 0ustar jtnjtn9-47G5 B When installing an Inmarsat-C antenna what should be the minimum distance to other Inmarsat antennas? A. 4 meters B. 8 meters C. 10 meters D. 12 meters share/E9/9-50G40000664000175000017500000000034614621431034011320 0ustar jtnjtn9-50G4 C An analog RF wattmeter provides the most accurate reading: A. At the middle one third of the dial. B. At the lower one third of the dial. C. At the upper one third of the dial. D. The accuracy is uniform the whole scale. share/E9/9-16B40000664000175000017500000000100514621431033011305 0ustar jtnjtn9-16B4 A What is the most common method of generating a SITOR (NBDP) signal on shipboard GMDSS equipment? A. Two alternating sidebands of 1615 Hz and 1785 Hz are offset from the carrier frequency by 1700 Hz. B. The carrier frequency is alternately shifted from + 85 Hz to - 85 Hz while suppressing the sidebands. C. There is one 1500 Hz sideband which is shifted from +170 Hz to - 170 Hz with a suppressed carrier. D. Two alternating sidebands of 1500 Hz and 2300 Hz are offset from the carrier frequency by 1900 Hz. share/E9/9-46F40000664000175000017500000000031714621431034011322 0ustar jtnjtn9-46F4 C What inputs are normally required for an Auto Pilot? A. Course information and GPS. B. Rudder feedback and Radar data. C. Course information and rudder feedback. D. Rudder feedback and yaw sensors. share/E9/9-35D40000664000175000017500000000032214621431034011312 0ustar jtnjtn9-35D4 B Equipment for radiotelephony use in survival craft stations under GMDSS must have what capability? A. Operation on 457.525 MHz. B. Operation on Ch-16. C. Operation on 121.5 MHz. D. Operation on Ch-70. share/E9/9-31C10000664000175000017500000000056714621431034011315 0ustar jtnjtn9-31C1 C An Inmarsat-C terminal shows a "No Receive Signal" alarm. There is no voltage on the antenna center pin. What is the most likely cause? A. Defective AZ or EL motor in the above deck equipment. B. Blown line fuse in the terminal's DC power supply. C. Blown antenna power fuse in the above deck equipment. D. Defective Low Noise Amplifier in the above deck equipment. share/E9/9-14B60000664000175000017500000000042314621431033011310 0ustar jtnjtn9-14B6 D The AGC function of an MF/HF receiver is inoperative. What is the most likely cause? A. The B.F.O. circuit has failed. B. The Voltage controlled Oscillator is inoperative. C. The audio amplifier is defective. D. Failure of a variable gain amplifier in the RF stage. share/E9/9-48G30000664000175000017500000000065614621431034011332 0ustar jtnjtn9-48G3 D What battery tests are made during the annual inspection? A. Record the specific gravity of all cells while the batteries are charging. B. The terminal voltage is measured and recorded at the end of a 6 hour full load discharge. C. Record the specific gravity of all cells while the batteries are discharging. D. With battery off charge and maximum required load measure and record maximum discharge current and voltage. share/E9/9-45F30000664000175000017500000000026014621431034011315 0ustar jtnjtn9-45F3 C What is the purpose of the "carbon pile" on an older gyro compass? A. Ballast regulation B. Precession control C. Voltage regulation D. Prevent pendulum effect errors share/E9/9-17B40000664000175000017500000000052414621431033011313 0ustar jtnjtn9-17B4 D An MF-HF transceiver is functioning correctly in voice mode/SSB but not in SITOR (NBDP). What is the most likely source of the problem? A. The second I.F. amplifier has become defective. B. The voltage controlled oscillator is defective. C. The 2.8 kHz filter has become defective. D. The 1615 kHz audio oscillator is not working. share/E9/9-18B60000664000175000017500000000104414621431033011314 0ustar jtnjtn9-18B6 D Which of the following conditions indicate improper operation of a 150 Watt MF/HF transmitter in the F1B FEC mode? A. The RF power meter indicates constant output at a level between 125 watts and 150 watts during transmission. B. The SWR meter indicates 125 watts forward RF power and 5 watts reflected RF power during transmission. C. The RF "S" meter fluctuates depending on the strength of the received signal during NBDP reception. D. The RF power meter indicates an output that fluctuates between 0 and 150 watts during transmission. share/E9/9-28C20000664000175000017500000000077114621431034011321 0ustar jtnjtn9-28C2 C What is the purpose of the Differential GPS system and how does it work? A. To measure the difference between L-1 and L-2 signals and transmit the information via the GPS signal. B. To correct for time errors in the satellites and transmit this information via the GPS signal. C. To correct for various errors using a fixed receiving station which transmits corrections via radio signals. D. To correct for phase errors between L-1 and L-2 signals and transmit the information via radio beacons. share/E9/9-32C50000664000175000017500000000063014621431034011311 0ustar jtnjtn9-32C5 D Interference induced from nearby HF transmitters may cause Inmarsat system failures. What is the most appropriate action to resolve this problem? A. Install a longer ground lead to the INMARSAT terminal. B. Install a low-pass filter between the coax cable and antenna. C. Reduce bias to the INMARSAT antenna's Low Noise Amplifier. D. Install ferrite clamps on the coax cable to suppress induced RF. share/E9/9-20B30000664000175000017500000000126214621431033011304 0ustar jtnjtn9-20B3 D Which of the following is true of SITOR (NBDP) ARQ mode: A. The ship station sends a group of 3 characters twice and then waits for an "RQ" signal to indicate proper receipt before transmission of the next 3 characters. B. The Ship station sends each character twice, using a time diversity system to ensure proper parity. C. The ship station sends a group of 3 characters, the shore station checks for proper parity and then requests the same group be resent to enable error correction. D. The ship station sends a group of 3 characters, the shore station checks for proper parity. If parity is OK, the shore station indicates readiness for transmission of the next 3 characters. share/E9/9-33D30000664000175000017500000000023114621431034011306 0ustar jtnjtn9-33D3 C How often must the EPIRB battery be replaced? A. Every 2 years. B. Every 3 years or after use. C. Every 5 years or after use. D. Every 8 years. share/E9/9-3A40000664000175000017500000000072214621431033011225 0ustar jtnjtn9-3A4 B Which of the following are true about SINAD measurements? A. SINAD is the product of the signal and noise divided by the sum of the noise and distortion. B. SINAD is the sum of the signal, noise and distortion divided by the sum of the noise and distortion. C. SINAD is the sum of the noise and distortion divided by the sum of the signal, noise and distortion. D. SINAD is the product of the noise and distortion divided by the sum of the signal and noise. share/E9/9-48G10000664000175000017500000000041714621431034011323 0ustar jtnjtn9-48G1 B What are the operator's license requirements for conducting a GMDSS ship station annual inspection? A. GMDSS Radio Operator's License. B. GMDSS Maintainer's License. C. First Class Radiotelegraph Operator's License. D. General Radiotelephone Operator's License. share/E9/9-38E10000664000175000017500000000053214621431034011316 0ustar jtnjtn9-38E1 D How often should high charging be use with a standard lead acid battery and a fully automatic GMDSS compliant Battery charger? A. Once every 24 hours for 1 hour. B. Once every month till the battery reaches 2.5V/cell. C. Never use High charging rate on a fully charged battery. D. Once a week till the battery reaches the gassing range. share/E9/9-2A30000664000175000017500000000050614621431033011223 0ustar jtnjtn9-2A3 B What is the purpose of the Dual Watch function? A. Allows simultaneous reception on two different channels. B. To rapidly switch the radio's receiver between two channels. C. Allows reception and transmission at the same time. D. It allows you to monitor both sides of a public correspondence station's communication. share/E9/9-42F10000664000175000017500000000023014621431034011305 0ustar jtnjtn9-42F1 D Nodes in an Ethernet network are interconnected using a cable making a "Home Run"back to the central: A. Router B. Backbone C. Computer D. Hub share/E9/9-20B10000664000175000017500000000114314621431033011300 0ustar jtnjtn9-20B1 B Which of the following statements concerning SITOR (NBDP) communications is true? A. In ARQ, each character is transmitted twice, about 250 milliseconds apart. B. In ARQ, the "information sending station" will transmit a block of three characters that the receiving station will subsequently acknowledge or request it to be retransmitted. C. In ARQ, the "information sending station" transmits a block of three characters twice, about 250 milliseconds apart. D. SITOR communications can be used to contact a NAVTEX transmitting station when requesting a repeat transmission of a missed NAVTEX message. share/E9/9-24C10000664000175000017500000000063514621431034011313 0ustar jtnjtn9-24C1 B Which of the following actions should be taken to minimize shock hazard of an Inmarsat terminal? A. Ensure the DC power supply is insulated from the ship's hull. B. Ensure the chassis of the Inmarsat terminal is connected to an electrical ground. C. Install a common busbar for grounding to ensure common-mode coupling. D. Isolate the transceiver's metal frame to avoid a return path for fault currents. share/E9/9-35D10000664000175000017500000000043714621431034011316 0ustar jtnjtn9-35D1 C How often must the Survival Craft Transceiver battery be changed? A. 2 years or after use for distress communications. B. 3 years or after use for distress communications. C. 5 years or after use for distress communications. D. 8 years or after use for distress communications. share/E9/9-22B50000664000175000017500000000071014621431034011306 0ustar jtnjtn9-22B5 C A ship's MF-HF whip antenna breaks off and is carried away in a storm. What would you do to regain operation on MF-HF GMDSS frequencies? A. Rig a wire antenna 10 ft long from the antenna tuner to the highest vertical support. B. Rig a horizontal, center-fed dipole antenna 10 ft long to the antenna tuner. C. Rig a wire antenna approximately 35-40 ft long per the equipment instruction manual. D. Connect the MF/HF transceiver to the VHF antenna. share/E9/9-45F50000664000175000017500000000043614621431034011324 0ustar jtnjtn9-45F5 A How does the Ship Security Alert System operate? A. It sends an alert to specific addresses via the Inmarsat-C terminal. B. It sends an all ships alert via the VHF-DSC unit. C. It sends an alert to the RCC via the Inmarsat-C terminal. D. It sends an all ships alert via MF-HF. share/E9/9-1A40000664000175000017500000000016614621431033011225 0ustar jtnjtn9-1A4 D What is the allowed frequency tolerance for the DSC carrier frequencies? A. 10 Hz B. 20 Hz C. 5 ppm D. 10 ppm share/E9/9-9A50000664000175000017500000000024014621431033011227 0ustar jtnjtn9-9A5 A What is the time diversity reception interval for a VHF-DSC call? A. 33-1/3 milliseconds B. 40.5 milliseconds C. 66-2/3 milliseconds D. 91 milliseconds share/E9/9-10A30000664000175000017500000000051314621431033011300 0ustar jtnjtn9-10A3 B A masthead antenna with a base loading coil appears shorted to an ohmmeter check. What might this indicate? A. Positive proof of shorted coaxial cable plugs. B. May be normal for a well working shunt fed antenna system. C. Immediately repair both upper and lower PL-259s. D. No VHF antenna should measure a short circuit. share/E9/9-4A30000664000175000017500000000117014621431033011223 0ustar jtnjtn9-4A3 D What is indicated if a VHF radio fails to receive nearby stations and a voltmeter connected between the positive side of a radio's DC line and ground reads zero line voltage? The fuse in the VHF radio also reads zero when checked with an ohmmeter. A. The antenna may be defective or water intrusion has affected antenna system performance. B. The coaxial transmission line may be open, shorted, or a connector has become intermittent. C. A fault in the discriminator circuit is producing zero output voltage during peak modulation. D. A "crowbar" circuit has prevented an over current condition that might damage the radio. share/E9/9-16B10000664000175000017500000000042714621431033011311 0ustar jtnjtn9-16B1 B How is a J3E signal generated? A. By using high-level modulation to produce a single sideband. B. By using a double balanced mixer and a sideband filter. C. By using the audio signal to phase modulate the carrier. D. By using low level modulation and a sideband filter. share/E9/9-23C40000664000175000017500000000060014621431034011305 0ustar jtnjtn9-23C4 B What is the fade margin factor? A. A design allowance that provides for the sun to accommodate expected fading for the purpose of ensuring that the required quality of service is maintained. B. A design allowance to accommodate expected fading. C. The increase in fade over a receiver's noise floor. D. The ratio between the largest and smallest values of a received signal. share/E9/9-4A50000664000175000017500000000075214621431033011232 0ustar jtnjtn9-4A5 D What condition may prevent a VHF radio receiver from receiving a weak signal? A. The local oscillator frequency is beating against the incoming signal to produce an Intermediate Frequency (IF). B. The output signal of the Phase Locked Loop (PLL) circuit in the frequency synthesizer has become unlocked. C. The output signal of an AF amplifier stage is greater than the input signal. D. The weak RF signal has been suppressed at the limiter stage of the received by capture effect. share/E9/9-35D50000664000175000017500000000053314621431034011317 0ustar jtnjtn9-35D5 B Which statement is NOT true regarding the requirements of survival craft portable two-way VHF radiotelephone equipment? A. Watertight to a depth of 1 meter for 5 minutes. B. Operates simplex on Ch-70 and at least one other channel. C. Effective radiated power should be a minimum of 0.25 Watts. D. The antenna is fixed and non-removable. share/E9/9-37E30000664000175000017500000000075314621431034011324 0ustar jtnjtn9-37E3 C What will cause an individual battery cell to reverse polarity? A. The charging circuits are connected in the correct polarity but all of the cells are equally charged. B. High discharge rates without allowing for a cool down period. C. When discharging the battery, if a cell becomes weaker then the remaining cells the discharge current will effectively charge the weaker cell in reverse polarity. D. Insufficient charging which does not bring all of the cells up to full charge. share/E9/9-24C60000664000175000017500000000041114621431034011310 0ustar jtnjtn9-24C6 A What type of services cannot be provided by the Inmarsat-C system? A. Telephone communications via VOIP. B. Message transmission to and from a mobile unit. C. Broadcast data to groups of mobile terminals. D. Position reporting from fleets of mobile units. share/E9/9-8A50000664000175000017500000000052714621431033011236 0ustar jtnjtn9-8A5 D What condition may cause distortion in the modulator stage of a marine VHF transmitter? A. The reactance modulator may be out of alignment. B. The excessive use of pre-emphasis on audio signals above 25 kHz. C. A defective varactor diode in the transmitter's voltage controlled oscillator. D. Transmitter modulation in excess of 150%. share/E9/9-5A60000664000175000017500000000061714621431033011234 0ustar jtnjtn9-5A6 B What condition may cause noisy operation of a VHF receiver? A. An output signal that is larger than the input signal in an audio frequency amplifier stage. B. A defective potentiometer in the audio frequency amplifier stage. C. Low bias voltage to an intermediate frequency amplifier stage. D. An open winding in a secondary of a coupling transformer in the audio frequency amplifier stage. share/E9/9-11B30000664000175000017500000000016514621431033011305 0ustar jtnjtn9-11B3 A What is the allowable frequency tolerance for GMDSS MF-HF transmitters? A. 10 Hz B. 15 Hz C. 20 Hz D. 30 Hz share/E9/9-36D60000664000175000017500000000037014621431034011320 0ustar jtnjtn9-36D6 A NAVTEX broadcasts are sent: A. In categories of messages indicated by a single letter or identifier. B. Immediately following traffic lists. C. On request of maritime mobile stations. D. Regularly, after the radiotelephone silent periods. share/E9/9-50G60000664000175000017500000000040314621431034011314 0ustar jtnjtn9-50G6 D What would be the most likely reason to observe the transmitter output with a spectrum analyzer? A. Measure frequency modulation deviation. B. Measure percentage of amplitude modulation. C. Measure the carrier frequency. D. Measure spurious signals. share/E9/9-8A30000664000175000017500000000207214621431033011231 0ustar jtnjtn9-8A3 D A spectrum analyzer (SPECAN) can be a useful test instrument to troubleshoot a marine VHF radio. Which of the following is the best procedure to evaluate the input/output stages of a marine VHF transmitter? A. Connect the radio to the SPECAN through an in-line attenuator, apply maximum attentuation and set the radio to HIGH power. Use an inductive probe to evaluate signals at the input/output of AF transmitter stages. B. Connect the radio to the SPECAN through an in-line attenuator, apply maximum attentuation and switch the radio to HIGH power. Use an inductive probe to evaluate signals at the input/output of RF transmitter stages. C. Connect the radio to the SPECAN through an in-line attenuator, apply minimum attentuation and switch the radio to LOW power. Use an inductive probe to evaluate signals at the input/output of AF transmitter stages. D. Connect the radio to the SPECAN through an in-line attenuator, apply maximum attentuation and switch the radio to LOW power. Use an inductive probe to evaluate signals at the input/output of RF transmitter stages. share/E9/9-39E40000664000175000017500000000114314621431034011321 0ustar jtnjtn9-39E4 B What are the disadvantages of using a switcher type power supply? A. Increased complexity (more likelihood of a component failure), increased cost (many more parts) and tendency to create radiated AF. B. Increased complexity (more likelihood of a component failure), increased cost (many more parts) and tendency to create radiated RF. C. Decreased complexity (less likelihood of a component failure) and decreased cost (fewer parts and tendency to create radiated RF. D. Decreased complexity (less likelihood of a component failure) and decreased cost (fewer parts and tendency to create radiated AF. share/E9/9-28C60000664000175000017500000000021014621431034011311 0ustar jtnjtn9-28C6 A What is the minimum number of satellites that must be received to provide the highest accuracy? A. Four B. Two C. Eight D. Six share/E9/9-2A50000664000175000017500000000034714621431033011230 0ustar jtnjtn9-2A5 C Which of the following transmitter power levels are permitted by FCC rules? A. Low Power: 0.1 W, High Power: 5 W B. Low Power: 0.5 W, High Power: 25 W C. Low Power: 1 W, High Power: 25 W D. Low Power: 5 W, High Power: 50 W share/E9/9-30C50000664000175000017500000000064214621431034011312 0ustar jtnjtn9-30C5 C Which of the following devices can cause interference to Fleet 77/55 systems? A. 406 MHz Emergency Position Indicating Radio Beacons (EPIRBs) in the transmit mode. B. 9.3 GHz Search And Rescue RADAR Transponders (SARTs) in the transmit mode. C. Transmitters operating in the 3-30 MHz range and shipboard RADARS in close proximity. D. Survival Craft Equipment in the VHF range in the high power transmit mode. share/E9/9-20B60000664000175000017500000000023514621431033011306 0ustar jtnjtn9-20B6 A What are the characters that are transmitted to terminate a direct TELEX connection in SITOR (NBDP) operations? A. KKKK B. . . . . . C. END+ D. EOM share/E9/9-42F50000664000175000017500000000036314621431034011320 0ustar jtnjtn9-42F5 C What are the most commonly used IP addresses for routers? A. 198.162.1.1, 196.168.1.1 and 196.166.1.1 B. 194.166.1.0, 194.166.1.1 and 194.168.1.2 C. 192.168.1.1, 192.168.0.1 and 192.168.2.0 D. 192.166.1.0, 192.166.1.1 and 192.164.2.0 share/E9/9-42F60000664000175000017500000000026214621431034011317 0ustar jtnjtn9-42F6 D In an Ethernet network, the available bandwidth is shared between all nodes within the same: A. Vessel Compartment B. Address Range C. Star Topology D. Collision Domain share/E9/9-36D30000664000175000017500000000061514621431034011317 0ustar jtnjtn9-36D3 D How is a NAVTEX receiver programmed to reject certain messages? A. The transmitting station's two-digit identification can be entered to de-select reception of its broadcasts. B. By entering the SELCALL of the transmitting station. C. By pressing "00" in the transmitter's ID block. D. By choosing a message category's single letter (A-Z) identifier and then deselecting or deactivating. share/E9/9-23C10000664000175000017500000000056014621431034011307 0ustar jtnjtn9-23C1 C What are the frequencies for Inmarsat-C shipboard satellite operation? A. Reception: 1526.5 - 1560.5 MHz and Transmission: 1625.0 - 1659.0 MHz B. Reception: 1625.0 - 1659.0 MHz and Transmission: 1526.5 - 1560.5 MHz C. Reception: 1530.0 - 1545.0 MHZ and Transmission: 1626.5 - 1645.5 MHz D. Reception: 1625.0 - 1659.0 MHz and Transmission: 1526.5 - 1560.5 MHz share/E9/9-36D20000664000175000017500000000060414621431034011314 0ustar jtnjtn9-36D2 C The NAVTEX is powering on and appears to be functioning normally except there have been no new messages for an extended period. The station settings are correct. What is the most likely source of the problem? A. The audio amplifier is defective. B. The wrong frequency has been selected. C. The RF amplifier at the antenna base is defective. D. The DC supply voltage is too low. share/E9/9-30C60000664000175000017500000000077414621431034011321 0ustar jtnjtn9-30C6 D What error message may be displayed if a connection to the Inmarsat Mobile Packet Data Service (MPDS) network fails? A. "ECM 0071" is displayed indicating the called station ID was not properly decoded. B. "ECM 00F0" is displayed indicating the terminal's failure to transmit over the Inmarsat network. C. "77F0h" or "77F1h" is displayed indicating the terminal is not registered to the MPDS network. D. "00F0h" or "00F1h" is displayed indicating the terminal is not registered to the MPDS network. share/E9/9-13B40000664000175000017500000000031114621431033011301 0ustar jtnjtn9-13B4 D What characteristics are desirable in an AGC circuit for SSB voice reception? A. Slow attack and decay. B. Slow attack and fast decay. C. Fast attack and decay. D. Fast attack and slow decay. share/E9/9-11B10000664000175000017500000000026114621431033011300 0ustar jtnjtn9-11B1 C What is the assigned bandwidth and channel spacing for J3E voice transmissions? A. 170 Hz and 300 Hz B. 300 Hz and 500 Hz C. 2.8 kHz and 3.0 kHz D. 3.1 kHz and 4.0 kHz share/E9/9-43F20000664000175000017500000000026414621431034011316 0ustar jtnjtn9-43F2 D what is the maximum signal voltage range that an NMEA-0183 unit must be capable of handling without damage? A. +/- 5 volts B. +/- 10 volts C. +/- 12 volts D. +/- 15 volts share/E9/9-2A40000664000175000017500000000040414621431033011221 0ustar jtnjtn9-2A4 C What is the proper adjustment of the squelch control for maximum sensitivity? A. Maximum clockwise rotation. B. Maximum counterclockwise rotation. C. Just below the point where the noise breaks through. D. The squelch has no effect on the sensitivity. share/E9/9-19B60000664000175000017500000000073014621431033011316 0ustar jtnjtn9-19B6 C What statement is false concerning DSC calls addressed to MMSI 003669999? A. MMSI 003669999 is an established group call that includes all U.S. Coast Guard Stations. B. DSC calls to MMSI 003669999 will be received by all DSC-equipped USCG coast stations within radio range. C. DSC calls to MMSI 003669999 may not be used to test MF/HF DSC equipment aboard ships. D. DSC calls to MMSI 003669999 may result in an automated acknowledgement from USCG coast stations. share/E9/9-29C20000664000175000017500000000044314621431034011316 0ustar jtnjtn9-29C2 B Which of the following is characteristic of the parabolic dish antenna? A. Feedhorn located behind the parabolic reflector. B. Feedhorn adjusted to the focal point of the antenna. C. Most often used on high frequencies (3-30 MHz). D. Low gain, highly directional radiation pattern. share/E9/9-46F20000664000175000017500000000032614621431034011320 0ustar jtnjtn9-46F2 A Which of the following lists of data inputs for an Electronic Chart System is incorrect? A. Radar, SSAS and Position. B. Speed, Depth and Position. C. Radar, Depth and Position. D. Speed, Radar and Depth. share/E9/9-44F60000664000175000017500000000020614621431034011317 0ustar jtnjtn9-44F6 A What is the maximum length for a drop cable to a single NMEA 2000 device? A. 6 meters B. 12 meters C. 18 meters D. 24 meters share/E9/9-28C10000664000175000017500000000077614621431034011325 0ustar jtnjtn9-28C1 B What is the usual arrangement of GPS satellites? A. 18 satellites in 3 orbital planes, 6 satellites in each plane, 23,400 km altitude and 55 degrees inclination. B. 24 satellites in 6 orbital planes, 4 satellites in each plane, 20,200 km altitude and 55 degrees inclination. C. 30 satellites in 5 orbital planes, 6 satellites in each plane, 20,200 km altitude and 60 degrees inclination. D. 36 satellites in 6 orbital planes, 6 satellites in each plane, 23,600 km altitude and 60 degrees inclination. share/E9/9-37E10000664000175000017500000000017014621431034011313 0ustar jtnjtn9-37E1 A What is the normal voltage of a single NICAD battery cell? A. 1.2 volts B. 1.5 volts C. 2.1 volts D. 2.5 volts share/E9/9-7A60000664000175000017500000000061014621431033011227 0ustar jtnjtn9-7A6 C What condition may exist if a VHF radio is operational in receive mode but unable to transmit? A. Excessive bias is being applied to switching transistors in the transmitter output stage. B. The solid-state antenna relay is no longer functioning properly. C. A component in the Push-To-Talk (PTT) circuit has failed. D. The SWR protection circuit has engaged to prevent transmission. share/E9/9-38E30000664000175000017500000000076514621431034011330 0ustar jtnjtn9-38E3 B What would be an indication of a malfunction on a GMDSS station with a 24 VDC battery system? A. All of these symptoms would indicate a potential battery charger malfunction. B. A constant 30 volt reading on the GMDSS console voltmeter. C. After testing the station on battery power, a voltmeter reading of 30 volts for a brief period followed by a steady 26 volt reading. D. After testing the station on battery power, the ammeter reading indicates a high rate of charge that then declines. share/E9/9-29C40000664000175000017500000000053114621431034011316 0ustar jtnjtn9-29C4 D Which of the following is characteristic of an Inmarsat-C antenna? A. The antenna is RHC polarized with a cardioid radiation pattern. B. The antenna is vertically polarized and highly directional. C. The antenna is horizontally polarized and omni-directional. D. The antenna is RHC polarized with an omni-directional radiation pattern. share/E9/9-23C50000664000175000017500000000066214621431034011316 0ustar jtnjtn9-23C5 B What is signal to noise ratio? A. A measure used that compares the distance of a desired signal to the level of background noise. B. A measure used that compares the level of a desired signal to the level of background noise. C. A measure used that compares the frequency of a desired signal to the frequency of background noise. D. A measure that measures signal in the forward direction and noise in the reverse direction. share/E9/9-42F30000664000175000017500000000025014621431034011311 0ustar jtnjtn9-42F3 B 10Base-T and 100Base-TX systems generally uses the following type of cable: A. CAT-5 with 2 twisted pairs B. CAT-5 with 4 twisted pairs C. Coax D. Fiber optic share/E9/9-21B60000664000175000017500000000077514621431033011320 0ustar jtnjtn9-21B6 B If the vessel is experiencing atmospheric interference with NAVTEX broadcasts, especially in the tropics, the GMDSS operator should: A. Select one of the 6 HF MSI frequencies and set-up the transceiver in ARQ TELEX mode. B. Select one of the 8 HF MSI frequencies and set-up the transceiver in FEC TELEX mode. C. Select one of the 6 MF MSI frequencies and set-up the transceiver in FEC TELEX mode. D. Select the MF MSI frequency dedicated to tropical MSI and set-up the transceiver in FEC TELEX mode. share/E9/9-11B50000664000175000017500000000056214621431033011310 0ustar jtnjtn9-11B5 B Which of the following are assigned frequencies for Digital Selective Calling? A. 2182 kHz, 4177.5 kHz, 6312 kHz, 8376.5 kHz, 12577 kHz, 16420 kHz. B. 2187.5 kHz, 4207.5 kHz, 6312 kHz, 8414.5 kHz, 12577 kHz, 16804.5 kHz. C. 2187.5 kHz, 4207.5 kHz, 6268 kHz, 8414.5 kHz, 12520 kHz, 16420. kHz. D. 2174.5 kHz, 4125 kHz, 6312 kHz, 8291 kHz, 12577 kHz, 16804.5 kHz share/E9/9-19B50000664000175000017500000000067414621431033011324 0ustar jtnjtn9-19B5 B A MF/HF Distress priority DSC call may be formatted to include the following: A. MMSI, vessel position, nature of distress, follow-on communications by J3E only. B. MMSI, vessel position, nature of distress, follow-on communications by J3E or F1B. C. Call sign, vessel position, nature of distress, follow-on communications by J3E or F1B. D. Name of vessel, vessel position, nature of distress, follow-on communications by J3E or F1B. share/E9/9-46F10000664000175000017500000000057314621431034011323 0ustar jtnjtn9-46F1 D What procedure must be followed before using C-Map charts for an Electronic Chart System? A. License information must be entered in the master computer terminal. B. The C-Map charts must be downloaded from the internet. C. A dongle or password device must be inserted in the master computer terminal. D. License information must be entered for each computer being used. share/E9/9-47G20000664000175000017500000000053514621431034011324 0ustar jtnjtn9-47G2 D What is the most important consideration for installing a Full-Duplex VHF radiotelephone. A. Maximum separation between the transmitter and receiver. B. Minimum separation between transmitting antennas. C. Maximum separation between transmitting antennas. D. Maximum separation between transmitting antenna and the duplex receiver antenna. share/E9/9-4A60000664000175000017500000000103114621431033011222 0ustar jtnjtn9-4A6 A Which of the following is the best test procedure to isolate the source of distortion in the audio output of a receiver? A. Use an oscilloscope to visually display AC signals on the output of each AF amplifier stage. B. Use a spectrum analyzer to visually display the amplitude and frequency of each AF amplifier stage input. C. Use a signal generator to inject a 1 KHz signal into the first AF amplifier stage and evaluate audio output. D. Use a digital voltmeter to measure transistor bias voltages in each AF amplifier stage. share/E9/9-28C30000664000175000017500000000032214621431034011312 0ustar jtnjtn9-28C3 D How is the GPS usually interconnected with other bridge equipment? A. Through a 8-bit parallel line network. B. Through a USB port. C. Through an Ethernet LAN. D. Through a NMEA-0183 or NMEA-2000 LAN. share/E9/9-35D60000664000175000017500000000060414621431034011317 0ustar jtnjtn9-35D6 C Equipment for radiotelephony use in survival craft stations under GMDSS must have what characteristics? A. Permanently-affixed antenna, watertight, power 1W or 25W. B. Watertight, power a minimum of 1W, operation on CH-16, Ch-13 & Ch-70. C. Operation on Ch-16, watertight, permanently-affixed antenna. D. Operation on Ch-16, Ch-13 & Ch-70, power 1W, permanently-affixed antenna. share/E9/9-2A20000664000175000017500000000063214621431033011222 0ustar jtnjtn9-2A2 A What may happen if the USA-INT control is left on INT when in U.S. waters? A. Your signals will be heard but other station replies will not be heard on certain channels. B. You will be able to communicate with public correspondence stations on Channel 5. C. Other stations will not be able to hear your transmissions and you will not hear any signals. D. You will not be able to operate on channel 13. share/E9/9-11B60000664000175000017500000000067114621431033011312 0ustar jtnjtn9-11B6 C What are the assigned frequencies for VOICE and SITOR (NBDP) follow on communications? A. VOICE: 2182 kHz, 4125 kHz, 6312 kHz, SITOR (NBDP) 4177.5 kHz, 8376.5 kHz, 12520 kHz B. VOICE: 8291 kHz, 12577 kHz, 16420 kHz, SITOR (NBDP) 4125 kHz, 6268 kHz, 8376.5 kHz C. VOICE: 4125 kHz, 8291 kHz, 16420 kHz, SITOR (NBDP) 2174.5 kHz, 6268 kHz, 12520 kHz D. VOICE: 6215 kHz, 8414.5 kHz, 12290 kHz, SITOR (NBDP) 6268 kHz, 8291 kHz, 12520 kHz share/E9/9-27C20000664000175000017500000000053214621431034011313 0ustar jtnjtn9-27C2 D When is a PIN Unlock Key (PUK) used with an Inmarsat terminal? A. To place a credit card telephone call via the Inmarsat terminal. B. To input the Personal Identification Number (PIN) applied to a telephone extension. C. To override a long distance block on an Inmarsat terminal. D. To unlock the SIM card in a Fleet broadband terminal. share/E9/9-38E40000664000175000017500000000104214621431034011316 0ustar jtnjtn9-38E4 C What is the meaning of "Reserve Source of Energy"? A. High caloric value items for lifeboat, per SOLAS regulations. B. Diesel fuel stored for the purpose of operating the powered survival craft for a period equal to or exceeding the U.S.C.G. and SOLAS requirements. C. Power to operate the radio installation and conduct Distress and Safety communications in the event of failure of the ship's main and emergency sources of electrical power. D. The diesel fueled emergency generator that supplies AC to the vessel's Emergency power bus. share/E9/9-42F20000664000175000017500000000023414621431034011312 0ustar jtnjtn9-42F2 A What is the maximum length of a USB 2.0 cable between two hubs or between a hub and peripheral? A. 5 meters B. 10 meters C. 15 meters D. 20 meters share/E9/9-41F60000664000175000017500000000052514621431034011320 0ustar jtnjtn9-41F6 B What are important considerations when replacing a CD-ROM drive? A. The speed must be identical to the drive it is replacing. B. The replacement drive should use the same interface system as the old drive. C. The amount of RAM in the replacement unit must match the old drive. D. The rate of data transfer must match the old drive. share/E9/9-33D10000664000175000017500000000107514621431034011313 0ustar jtnjtn9-33D1 A Which is not a function of a satellite under COSPAS-SARSAT using satellite EPIRBs? A. After the EPIRB's position is calculated using the Doppler shift COSPAS-SARSAT satellites provide follow-on SAR communications. B. Relayed satellite message includes the EPIRB ID number which provides a reference for retrieval of vessel information from the shore database. C. Doppler shift of EPIRB signal is measured and the EPIRB's position is calculated. D. Information received from EPIRBs is time-tagged and transmitted to any Local User Terminal in the satellite's view. share/E9/9-4A20000664000175000017500000000104414621431033011222 0ustar jtnjtn9-4A2 C What fault may exist if a VHF radio receiver fails to produce audible output from the speaker and the squelch control has no effect? A. A component in the RF amplifier stage has failed or the signal from a preceding stage is grounded. B. The Local Oscillator stage is no longer supplying a signal to the mixer stage at the correct frequency. C. The AF amplifier may be defective or the transmitter Push-To-Talk circuit may be activated. D. The mixer stage is no longer producing an output signal on the correct Intermediate Frequency (IF). share/E9/9-46F60000664000175000017500000000061114621431034011321 0ustar jtnjtn9-46F6 D Which of the following statements about Vessel Data Recorders is NOT true? A. The "Crash Survivable Module" (CSM) retains data for up to 12 hours. B. The "Data Acquisition Unit" (DAU) may have data storage for as long as 30 days. C. Data input may include Rudder feedback, Depth of water and Radar. D. Data input may include Position, Date, MSI information and Audio from the bridge. share/E9/9-4A40000664000175000017500000000104414621431033011224 0ustar jtnjtn9-4A4 A What fault may exist if a VHF radio receiver fails to produce audible output from the speaker and the squelch control has no effect? A. The AF amplifier may be defective or the transmitter Push-To-Talk circuit may be activated. B. A component in the RF amplifier stage has failed or the signal from a preceding stage is grounded. C. The Local Oscillator stage is no longer supplying a signal to the mixer stage at the correct frequency. D. The mixer stage is no longer producing an output signal on the correct Intermediate Frequency (IF). share/E9/9-10A50000664000175000017500000000022414621431033011301 0ustar jtnjtn9-10A5 C What type of coaxial cable would be most appropriate for a long transmission line run? A. "RG-58/U" B. "RG-59/U" C. "RG-8/U" D. "RG-174/U" share/E9/9-50G20000664000175000017500000000053714621431034011320 0ustar jtnjtn9-50G2 A a SINAD meter consists of a multi-range audio frequency voltmeter: A. Calibrated in decibels with a sharp internal 1000 Hz bandstop filter. B. Calibrated in millivolts with a medium 1000 Hz bandpass filter. C. Calibrated in decibels with an internal 1000 Hz highpass filter. D. Calibrated in decibels with an internal 1000 Hz lowpass filter. share/E9/9-26C50000664000175000017500000000040314621431034011312 0ustar jtnjtn9-26C5 C Which of the following is the correct Fax/Data configuration of a Fleet Broadband terminal? A. RJ11 Port 1 and 2 set to standard voice. B. ISDN Port set to standard voice. C. RJ11 Port 1 and 2 set to 3.1 kHz audio. D. LAN Ports set to 3.1 kHz audio. share/E9/9-5A10000664000175000017500000000102614621431033011222 0ustar jtnjtn9-5A1 A What condition may cause a significant loss in VHF receiver sensitivity? A. A reading of 9.6 when a voltmeter is connected between the positive side of the radio's DC line and ground. B. The presence of a -90dbm signal measured at the 2nd IF output with the receiver tuned to the desired input frequency. C. An internal signal that is very weak in comparison to the desired signal at the output of the second IF stage. D. Replacing (75 ohm) RG-59/U coaxial transmission line with a (50 ohm) RG-8/U or LMR-400 Ultraflex cable. share/E9/9-37E60000664000175000017500000000017414621431034011324 0ustar jtnjtn9-37E6 B What is the normal voltage of a single lead acid battery cell? A. 1.5 volts B. 2.1 volts C. 2.5 volts D. 2.8 volts share/E9/9-25C50000664000175000017500000000117314621431034011316 0ustar jtnjtn9-25C5 A What must a LRIT terminal do? A. Capable of being configured to automatically transmit an APR, transmit an APR every 6 hours, be able to automatically transmit a PR if requested. B. Capable of being configured to automatically transmit an APR, transmit an APR every 12 hours, be able to automatically transmit a PR if requested. C. Capable of being configured to automatically receive an APR, transmit an APR every 8 hours, be able to automatically transmit a PR if requested. D. Capable of being configured to automatically receive an APR, transmit an APR every 24 hours, be able to automatically transmit a PR if requested. share/E9/9-31C30000664000175000017500000000050414621431034011306 0ustar jtnjtn9-31C3 A An Inmarsat-C terminal will not "LOG IN" and shows an "Antenna not connected" alarm. What action would you take? A. Short one end of coax cable. If the resistance is above one ohm replace the cable. B. Change to a different satellite and try a new "LOG IN". C. Replace the antenna unit. D. Replace the AZ-EL board. share/E9/9-18B50000664000175000017500000000075414621431033011322 0ustar jtnjtn9-18B5 C Which of the following conditions could cause zero RF output in a MF/HF transmitter operating in the F1B FEC mode? A. The connection of a transceiver is connected to a "Dummy Load" antenna. B. The failure of the voice bandpass filter in the stage preceding the RF amplifier. C. The activation of a "crowbar" circuit in the power supply to prevent an unregulated voltage increase. D. The generation of a positive VCO feedback signal to a Phase Locked Loop circuit in the transmitter. share/E9/9-22B40000664000175000017500000000027214621431034011310 0ustar jtnjtn9-22B4 C Which of the following coaxial cables is suitable for use in GMDSS MF/HF antenna systems? A. RG-59, 72 ohm Coax B. RG-6, 72 ohm Coax C. RG-8, 50 ohm Coax D. RG-179, 75 ohm Coax share/E9/9-40E20000664000175000017500000000036614621431034011315 0ustar jtnjtn9-40E2 C Which of the following is not one of the main advantages of a switching power supply? A. Works with a wide range of input voltages. B. Can work with direct current input. C. No RFI problems. D. Lighter weight than linear power supplies. share/E9/9-25C20000664000175000017500000000043314621431034011311 0ustar jtnjtn9-25C2 B LRIT Long Range Information Tracking data: A. Need not be transmitted if AMVER daily messages are sent. B. Is a separate tracking system for each flag state's security. C. Is shared for the Captain of the Port. D. Is broadcast on the Internet for company tracking purposes. share/E9/9-48G40000664000175000017500000000041614621431034011325 0ustar jtnjtn9-48G4 A What is the easiest way to test the Inmarsat-C terminal for proper operation? A. Send a brief test message to your own terminal. B. Contact the nearest RCC for a signal report. C. Contact the nearest ship for a signal report. D. Use the internal POST function. share/E9/9-25C40000664000175000017500000000057414621431034011321 0ustar jtnjtn9-25C4 D When a compulsory equipped IMO ship is not correctly broadcasting LRIT Info what action should be taken? A. Check the power fuse on the Sat D box located on the bridge. B. Can re-boot the AIS broadcasting unit. C. Verify the Ship Security Alerting System has not been accidentally activated. D. Double check the GMDSS Console's Inmarsat-C terminal for regular operation. share/E9/9-44F30000664000175000017500000000040114621431034011311 0ustar jtnjtn9-44F3 D Which of the following are NOT components of a NMEA 2000 network? A. Tees, Drop Cables and terminating Resistors. B. Tees, Backbone Cables, Power Cables. C. Termination Resistors, Power Cables, Backbone Cables. D. Multiplexers, Combiners, Routers. share/E9/9-14B40000664000175000017500000000046014621431033011307 0ustar jtnjtn9-14B4 C The phase locked loop circuit in an MF/HF receiver appears to be faulty. What is the most likely cause? A. The AGC circuit has become defective. B. The Beat Frequency Oscillator is inoperative. C. The Voltage Controlled Oscillator is inoperative. D. The 500 Hz I.F. filter has become defective. share/E9/9-12B40000664000175000017500000000016114621431033011303 0ustar jtnjtn9-12B4 A What mode is a MF/HF transceiver operating in when "TLX" displayed? A. SITOR (NBDP) B. SSB C. DSC D. AM share/E9/9-31C20000664000175000017500000000062014621431034011304 0ustar jtnjtn9-31C2 D An Inmarsat-C terminal will not "LOG IN". A test antenna cable with a new ADE attached in view of the satellite allows the terminal to "LOG IN". What steps would you take? A. Replace the AZ or EL motor in the above deck equipment. B. Try logging into a different satellite with the original ADE. C. Use a DVM to check the feedline between the terminal and ADE. D. Install a replacement ADE. share/E9/9-12B30000664000175000017500000000035414621431033011306 0ustar jtnjtn9-12B3 D What is the purpose of the "ENTER" function. A. To store any incoming DSC message in memory. B. To recall any previously received message. C. To transmit a DSC distress alert. D. To accept the previous selection or data input. share/E9/9-41F20000664000175000017500000000037114621431034011313 0ustar jtnjtn9-41F2 B There is no display on the monitor. What are the most likely causes? A. Bad video card, defective RAM or bad CD-ROM. B. Bad video card, bad 15 pin video connector or no power to monitor. C. Defective CD-ROM Drive. D. Fragmented Hard Drive. share/E9/9-39E10000664000175000017500000000050514621431034011317 0ustar jtnjtn9-39E1 C Which of the following best describes a standard full wave rectifier power supply? A. It uses a capacitor input filter to provide good voltage regulation. B. It must only use a single diode rectifier. C. The ripple frequency is twice the input frequency. D. It must always use a center tapped transformer secondary. share/E9/9-36D50000664000175000017500000000037014621431034011317 0ustar jtnjtn9-36D5 D How is accuracy insured in NAVTEX broadcasts? A. A parity check character is sent at the end of each line. B. Each message is retransmitted. C. Selective FEC is used to prevent errors. D. Each character is sent twice with a time interval. share/E9/9-14B10000664000175000017500000000040414621431033011302 0ustar jtnjtn9-14B1 D The voice is garbled and unreadable on MF/HF SSB channels. What is the most likely cause? A. The R.I.T circuit has failed. B. The first RF stage has failed. C. The frequency synthesizer has failed. D. The beat frequency oscillator circuit has failed. share/E9/9-30C40000664000175000017500000000073014621431034011307 0ustar jtnjtn9-30C4 C What condition can indicate a communication failure between the second receiver (RX2) and the Antenna Control Unit (ACU) in an Inmarsat Fleet 77 terminal? A. The terminal will indicate RX2 is locked onto a signal on the Inmarsat NCSC channel. B. The terminal will indicate receipt of a valid frame on the Inmarsat NCSC channel. C. The message "RX2 Comm error" or "ACU Comm error" will be displayed. D. The DCE/DTE communication protocol is improperly configured. share/E9/9-31C40000664000175000017500000000045514621431034011314 0ustar jtnjtn9-31C4 B The antenna goes past the AZ EL of the satellite but does not initialize but you can manually point the antenna at the satellite and acquire signal. What is the most likely problem? A. Defective coax cable. B. Faulty antenna control module. C. Bad I.F. amplifier. D. Bad Gyro repeater motor. share/E9/9-11B40000664000175000017500000000052314621431033011304 0ustar jtnjtn9-11B4 B Using a frequency counter with an accuracy of 2 ppm which of the following are within legal tolerance for the frequencies of 2182.0 kHz and 4125.0 kHz? The counter has a display resolution of 1 Hz. A. 2181.991 kHz and 4125.004 kHz B. 2182.006 kHz and 4124.995 kHz C. 2182.010 kHz and 4124.992 kHz D. 2181.990 kHz and 4125.009 kHz share/E9/9-9A40000664000175000017500000000101214621431033011224 0ustar jtnjtn9-9A4 D You attempt to program a new MMSI into a VHF radio with an existing MMSI. The radio will not accept the entry. What is the best course of action to correct this problem? A. You must RESET the DSC memory by holding down two buttons as described in the user manual. B. You can never change a number, once one is already programmed. C. Re-register the old MMSI with the new owner and make no programming changes to the radio. D. Contact the manufacturer for action to clear the MMSI memory and accept the new number. share/E9/9-32C20000664000175000017500000000063614621431034011314 0ustar jtnjtn9-32C2 C What condition would cause failure of an Inmarsat-C terminal to power up when AC voltage is present at the input terminals of the power supply? A. A defective coaxial cable connecting the terminal to the antenna. B. The failure of an I.F. amplifier stage in the terminal's receiver. C. A component failure within the power supply itself. D. A defective video monitor connected to the Inmarsat-C terminal. share/E9/9-32C30000664000175000017500000000065714621431034011320 0ustar jtnjtn9-32C3 D What condition would cause an IP connection failure between a technician's laptop and an Inmarsat Fleet Broadband terminal? A. The laptop settings are not compatible with the terminal's LAN port. B. The technician has disabled the Power over Ethernet (POE) function. C. The EIA-232 configuration is not compatible with the Inmarsat terminal. D. The technician has connected the Ethernet cable to the terminal's ISDN port. share/E9/9-43F50000664000175000017500000000063714621431034011325 0ustar jtnjtn9-43F5 B Which of the following statements about an NMEA -0183 system is correct? A. The cable shield must be grounded at both ends including the opto-isolators. B. Opto-isolators must be used and the shield should be grounded to the talker chassis only. C. Opto-isolators must be used and the shield should be grounded to the listener chassis only. D. Version 2 devices use higher voltages than version 1 devices. share/E9/9-32C60000664000175000017500000000061514621431034011315 0ustar jtnjtn9-32C6 A What condition will lower the observed bit rate on a Fleet Broadband terminal? A. A standard IP satellite channel that is "busy" with many active users. B. Selection of an upstream IP data service for downstream high-speed data transmission. C. Use of the FTP, POP, SMTP or HTTP protocol instead of TCP/IP. D. Use of highly contended connections instead of store-and-forward IP circuits. share/E9/9-38E50000664000175000017500000000051314621431034011321 0ustar jtnjtn9-38E5 C With a fully automatic GMDSS compliant battery charger / power supply, when must the high charging process be interrupted? A. To keep the battery from overheating. B. To keep the battery electrolyte from reaching 212 degrees F. C. To inhibit the generation of electrolytic gas. D. To keep the battery as cool as possible. share/E9/9-20B20000664000175000017500000000137614621431033011311 0ustar jtnjtn9-20B2 C What statement is true regarding the exchange between two stations engaged in SITOR (NBDP) communications? A. In ARQ, each character is transmitted twice, with the second displaced in time from the first. B. In ARQ, the "sending" station transmits a block of three characters and the "receiving" station responds with a one character Repeat Request. Following this the "transmitting" station will send a new block. C. In ARQ, the ISS transmits a block of 3 characters and the IRS checks for parity. If the received block is correct a control signal is sent notifying the ISS to proceed. If the parity check fails the block must be resent. D. Broadcasts of Maritime Safety Information, traffic lists, etc. can be copied by the receiving station in ARQ mode. share/E9/9-33D40000664000175000017500000000032414621431034011312 0ustar jtnjtn9-33D4 D What feature is not a component of a 406 MHz satellite EPIRB? A. 121.5 MHz emergency homing transmitter. B. Emergency transmission on 406.025 MHz. C. Float-free release bracket. D. Aural locator signal. share/E9/9-18B20000664000175000017500000000103314621431033011306 0ustar jtnjtn9-18B2 A Which of the following conditions indicate the proper operation of a 250 Watt MF/HF transmitter in the F1B FEC mode? A. The RF power meter indicates constant output at a level between 225 watts and 250 watts during transmission. B. The RF power meter indicates power output only when characters are typed on the NBDP keyboard. C. The RF "S" meter indicates a signal level between 225 watts and 250 watts during NBDP reception. D. The RF power meter indicates an output that fluctuates between 0 and 250 watts during transmission. share/E9/9-29C30000664000175000017500000000056614621431034011325 0ustar jtnjtn9-29C3 C Which of the following best describes a phased array antenna system? A. RF from the feedline array is dissipated by a single antenna element. B. RF from a multiple feedline array is dissipated by a single antenna element. C. RF from multiple antennas is varied to produce a desired radiation pattern. D. RF from multiple antennas is combined to produce unity gain. share/E9/9-6A10000664000175000017500000000016514621431033011226 0ustar jtnjtn9-6A1 D What is the maximum allowable deviation of a marine VHF transmitter? A. 12 kHz B. 10 kHz C. 7.5 kHz D. 5 kHz share/E9/9-21B40000664000175000017500000000047014621431033011306 0ustar jtnjtn9-21B4 D Which of the following is true of SITOR (NBDP) Mode B (FEC), in the presence of static crashes. A. Data flow rate depends on signal propagation. B. Idle characters are sent upon request. C. Transmitter and receiver cannot synchronize. D. FEC reduces the error rate by transmitting each character twice. share/E9/9-18B10000664000175000017500000000103314621431033011305 0ustar jtnjtn9-18B1 D Which of the following conditions indicate the proper operation of a 150 Watt MF/HF transmitter in the F1B ARQ mode? A. The RF power meter indicates constant output at a level between 125 watts and 150 watts during transmission. B. The RF power meter indicates power output only when characters are typed on the NBDP keyboard. C. The RF "S" meter indicates a signal level between 125 watts and 150 watts during NBDP reception. D. The RF power meter indicates an output that fluctuates between 0 and 150 watts during transmission. share/E9/9-44F40000664000175000017500000000014214621431034011314 0ustar jtnjtn9-44F4 A The NMEA 2000 backbone operating speed is: A. 250 bps B. 500 bps C. 1500 bps D. 2000 bps share/E9/9-3A10000664000175000017500000000046314621431033011224 0ustar jtnjtn9-3A1 C Which of the following best describes the "Capture effect?" A. The receiver will accept all signals near the operating frequency. B. The receiver will reject all but the weakest signal. C. The receiver will reject all but the strongest signal. D. The receiver will modulate an adjacent transmitter. share/E9/9-35D20000664000175000017500000000024514621431034011314 0ustar jtnjtn9-35D2 D What is the minimum receiver sensitivity required for a Survival Craft Transceiver? A. 0.1 microvolts B. 0.5 microvolts C. 1.0 microvolts D. 2.0 microvolts share/E9/9-15B50000664000175000017500000000052514621431033011313 0ustar jtnjtn9-15B5 B The MF/HF transceiver fails to produce AF output but the radio is powered on and "TX" is illuminated. What is the most likely cause? A. The speaker is shorted out. B. A shorted Push-To-Talk circuit in the microphone. C. A "crowbar" circuit in the power supply has engaged. D. The final stage of the AF amplifier circuit has failed. share/E9/9-21B20000664000175000017500000000102714621431033011303 0ustar jtnjtn9-21B2 B The sequence ARQ, FEC, SFEC best corresponds to which of the following sequences? A. One-way communications to a single station, one-way communications to all stations, two-way communications. B. Two way communications, one-way communications to all stations, one-way communications to a single station. C. One-way communications to all stations, two-way communications, one-way communications to a single station. D. Two way communications, One way communications to a single station, One way communications to all stations. share/E9/9-3A20000664000175000017500000000034314621431033011222 0ustar jtnjtn9-3A2 D Which of the following may be adjusted in a FM ratio detector for improved signal-to-noise? A. The diode detector B. Input signal to the two diodes C. Input voltage to the transistor D. Ratio Arm balance control bridge share/E9/9-48G20000664000175000017500000000105214621431034011320 0ustar jtnjtn9-48G2 C What log entries are required after passing the annual inspection? A. One of the ship's GMDSS Radio Operators must certify that inspecting technician as properly conducted all the required equipment tests. B. The inspecting technician must enter the results of all the equipment tests and specifically note which tests passed and which tests failed. C. Certification by both the inspecting technician and the vessel's Master/owner that the inspection was successful. D. The vessel's Master/Owner must certify that the inspection was successful. share/E9/9-22B20000664000175000017500000000054114621431034011305 0ustar jtnjtn9-22B2 A What is the electrical effect of an inductance in series with the antenna? A. It electrically lengthens a physically fixed length antenna. B. It electrically shortens a physically fixed length antenna. C. It raises the resonant frequency of a physically fixed length antenna. D. It increases the bandwidth of a physically fixed length antenna. share/E9/9-41F10000664000175000017500000000037114621431034011312 0ustar jtnjtn9-41F1 A The printer will not print a document. Which of the following is NOT a likely reason? A. The graphics card is defective. B. The printer queue is frozen. C. The printer may be out of toner or ink. D. There may be a paper jam in the printer. share/E9/9-38E60000664000175000017500000000054514621431034011327 0ustar jtnjtn9-38E6 D A fully automatic GMDSS compliant Battery charger/ Power supply's high (Full) charging mode must be disabled during setup for what type batteries? A. When the batteries are Ni Cadmium type. B. When the Batteries are standard lead acid type. C. When the batteries are lithium ion type. D. When the batteries are Maintenance free lead acid gel type. share/E9/9-14B50000664000175000017500000000042214621431033011306 0ustar jtnjtn9-14B5 C You are able to hear signals in the SITOR (NBDP) mode but not in the voice/SSB mode. What is the most likely cause? A. The B.F.O. circuit has failed. B. The audio amplifier is defective. C. The 2.8 kHz filter has become defective. D. The R.F. amplifier has failed. share/E9/9-45F10000664000175000017500000000022214621431034011311 0ustar jtnjtn9-45F1 A What is a common range of frequencies used for depth finding equipment? A. 200-400 kHz B. 1000-2600 kHz C. 200-800 Hz D. 4,000-6,000 kHz share/E9/9-11B20000664000175000017500000000027014621431033011301 0ustar jtnjtn9-11B2 D What is the assigned bandwidth and channel spacing for J2B SITOR (NBDP) transmissions? A. 3.1 kHz and 4.0 kHz B. 2.8 kHz and 3.0 kHz C. 170 Hz and 300 Hz D. 300 Hz and 500 Hz share/E9/9-39E30000664000175000017500000000107114621431034011320 0ustar jtnjtn9-39E3 A What are the main advantages of using switcher type power supply? A. Line voltage is directly rectified and filtered to produce a high dc voltage, components are much smaller and lighter weight, can provide much better efficiency. B. The transformed voltage is directly rectified and filtered to produce a high dc voltage, components are much smaller and lighter weight and can provide much better efficiency. C. They use laminated steel transformers which are more efficient. D. Using a center tapped transformer secondary allows fewer rectifiers to be used. share/E9/9-48G60000664000175000017500000000042014621431034011322 0ustar jtnjtn9-48G6 A Which of the following is NOT a required VHF test during an annual inspection? A. Carrier deviation measurement. B. Power output and VSWR on Channels 6, 13 and 16. C. Equipment is within frequency tolerance. D. Equipment operates from all required power sources. share/E9/9-26C10000664000175000017500000000061714621431034011315 0ustar jtnjtn9-26C1 D Which of the following Inmarsat units stores configuration data and contains all user interfaces and LED indicators? A. Main Control Unit - an element of the Pedestal Control Assembly. B. Master Communications Unit - an element of the antenna control unit. C. Master Communications Unit - an element of the RF transceiver. D. Fleet Broadband terminal - a component of below deck equipment. share/E9/9-34D60000664000175000017500000000022014621431034011310 0ustar jtnjtn9-34D6 D What is the approximate distance between dots on a radar display at a distance of 5 miles? A. 0.36 nm B. 0.48 nm C. 0.56 nm D. 0.64 nm share/E9/9-6A40000664000175000017500000000031114621431033011222 0ustar jtnjtn9-6A4 C A modulation index set to less than 1 to 1 may result in what? A. Excessive deviation B. Unstable signal excursions C. Unusually low level transmit audio D. Unusually high pitch audio response share/E9/9-9A30000664000175000017500000000063214621431033011232 0ustar jtnjtn9-9A3 C How might a DSC radio check be accomplished with a coast station? A. Enter the station's MMSI, and press the button under the red plastic cover for 5 seconds. B. Select DSC menu item TEST, enter the Coast Station's FCC call letters, and send the test call. C. Select DSC menu item TEST, enter the Coast Station's MMSI number, and send the test. D. Select DSC menu ALL SHIPS, and send the test message. share/E9/9-31C50000664000175000017500000000046014621431034011311 0ustar jtnjtn9-31C5 B The antenna creeps up and down after initialization. What action would you take? A. Check AZ step motor with power off. If it is stiff replace the motor. B. Check EL step motor with power off. If it is stiff replace the motor. C. Replace the platform sensor. D. Replace the gyro repeater motor. share/E9/9-17B50000664000175000017500000000076214621431033011320 0ustar jtnjtn9-17B5 A Which of the following conditions would be a symptom of malfunction in a 2182 kHz SSB radiotelephone? A. No indication of power output when speaking into the microphone. B. Much higher noise level observed during daytime operation. C. When testing a radiotelephone alarm on 2182 kHz into an artificial antenna, the Distress frequency watch receiver becomes un-muted, an improper testing procedure. D. Failure to contact a shore station 600 nautical miles distant during daytime operation. share/E9/9-24C50000664000175000017500000000016214621431034011312 0ustar jtnjtn9-24C5 D How many NCS's operate in each Inmarsat ocean region per Inmarsat system? A. Three B. Four C. Two D. One share/E9/9-5A40000664000175000017500000000065714621431033011236 0ustar jtnjtn9-5A4 D What ohmmeter reading may indicate a faulty component in a VHF receiver? A. Low resistance across a diode in one direction, high resistance when test leads are reversed. B. Zero ohms across an in-line fuse in a DC power circuit. C. Infinite ohms across a ceramic bypass capacitor in a transistor amplifier circuit. D. A transistor indicates low resistance between emitter and base when test leads are reversed across them. share/E9/9-3A50000664000175000017500000000024714621431033011230 0ustar jtnjtn9-3A5 B What would be considered a normal sensitivity for 10 db of quieting in a VHF marine receiver? A. 0.1 microvolt B. 1 microvolt C. 5 microvolts D. 10 microvolts share/E9/9-14B20000664000175000017500000000053714621431033011312 0ustar jtnjtn9-14B2 A All signals sound normal on an MF/HF receiver except one that has a very high pitched voice barely readable. What is the most likely cause? A. The transmitter of the abnormal signal is off frequency. B. The receiver frequency synthesizer circuit is defective. C. The voltage controlled oscillator has failed. D. The B.F.O. circuit is faulty. share/E9/9-7A10000664000175000017500000000124614621431033011230 0ustar jtnjtn9-7A1 C What condition may be indicated if a VHF radio is unable to contact nearby stations and an inline wattmeter indicates power outputs of 1 watt (LOW power) mode and 8.5 watts (HIGH power) mode with +12.8 vdc applied to the radio's DC line? A. The AF Power Amplifier (PA) may be malfunctioning when the transmitter operates in the high power mode. B. Negative feedback in the PA stage may be preventing high amplitude oscillations in the high power mode. C. The transmitter output is low in the high power mode but it is still functioning within FCC specifications. D. The transmitter output will increase in the high power mode with modulation between 75 and 100 percent. share/E9/9-39E60000664000175000017500000000054514621431034011330 0ustar jtnjtn9-39E6 C Power supplies with capacitive input filters have the following characteristics: A. Relatively high output voltage with low rectifier peak currents. B. High transformer utilization factor with good voltage regulation. C. Poor voltage regulation and high rectifier peak currents. D. Good voltage regulation with high transformer utilization factor. share/E9/9-34D50000664000175000017500000000077614621431034011327 0ustar jtnjtn9-34D5 C What are the characteristics of the SART transmitted signal? A. It starts with a sweep of 10.2 usec.followed by a sweep of 0.6 usec for a total of 10 sweeps. B. It starts with a sweep of 0.8 usec followed by a sweep of 12.6 usec for a total of 12 sweeps. C. It starts with a sweep of 0.4usec across the entire 3 cm radar band followed by a returning sweep of 7.5 usec back to the beginning for a total of 12 sweeps. D. It starts with a sweep of 8.5 usec followed by a sweep of 0.4 usec for 10 sweeps. share/E9/9-13B10000664000175000017500000000043514621431033011305 0ustar jtnjtn9-13B1 A What is the purpose of the BFO? A. Re-injects the carrier frequency in the receiver's detector to demodulate the SSB signal. B. Replace the missing sideband and carrier frequency. C. Remove the carrier from H3E transmissions. D. Inverts the SSB signal to remove interference. share/E9/9-37E50000664000175000017500000000075214621431034011325 0ustar jtnjtn9-37E5 A What is a gel cell battery and how is it maintained & cared for? A. Gel cell batteries are typically sealed, special charging rates and voltages may be required. B. Gel cell batteries are lead acid with a solid electrolyte, each cell is checked with a voltmeter. C. Gel cell batteries are NICAD with a solid electrolyte, each cell is checked with a voltmeter. D. Gel cell batteries are have special liquid electrolytes, they are charged with the NICAD charging rates and voltages. share/E9/9-1A30000664000175000017500000000014714621431033011223 0ustar jtnjtn9-1A3 C What is the assigned channel spacing for VHF channels? A. 10 kHz B. 15 kHz C. 25 kHz D. 50 kHz share/E9/9-24C30000664000175000017500000000036614621431034011316 0ustar jtnjtn9-24C3 D What do EGC messages contain? A. Maritime Mobile Service Identity information. B. SafeNetTM, FleetwideNetTM and System information. C. Electronic Grounding Codes and System information. D. SafetyNetTM, FleetNetTM and System information. share/E9/9-4A10000664000175000017500000000105014621431033011216 0ustar jtnjtn9-4A1 B What condition may prevent a VHF radio receiver from staying tuned to the desired channel? A. The local oscillator frequency is beating against the incoming signal to produce an Intermediate Frequency (IF). B. The output signal of the Phase Locked Loop (PLL) circuit in the frequency synthesizer has become unlocked. C. The discriminator circuit is alternately developing positive and negative voltages at the modulation frequency. D. The ratio detector circuit is producing a variable output that deviates across the receiver's dynamic range. share/E9/9-33D20000664000175000017500000000051114621431034011306 0ustar jtnjtn9-33D2 B What is the purpose of the magnet in the EPIRB mounting bracket? A. To secure the EPIRB in the mounting bracket. B. Prevent accidental operation of the EPIRB while secured in the mounting bracket. C. To activate the automatic release mechanism. D. When the EPIRB is released it causes a signal to be sent to the bridge. share/E9/9-31C60000664000175000017500000000034414621431034011313 0ustar jtnjtn9-31C6 C The antenna tries to initialize then points straight up and stops. What is the most likely problem? A. A defective EL motor. B. A defective AZ motor. C. A defective level platform sensor. D. A defective I.F. amplifier. share/E9/9-18B40000664000175000017500000000107214621431033011313 0ustar jtnjtn9-18B4 C which of the following troubleshooting methods is not valid for finding the fault in a MF/HF transmitter operating in the F1B FEC mode? A. Visual inspection of the transmitter (control settings, signs of physical damage or overheating, etc.) B. Power supply testing with a DVM to ensure all prescribed operating voltages are within acceptable limits. C. Modulation testing with a RF spectrum analyzer to measure frequency deviation in the transmit mode. D. Input/Output checks with a 10:1 oscilloscope probe to identify any points of severe signal degradation. share/E9/9-20B50000664000175000017500000000030114621431033011277 0ustar jtnjtn9-20B5 D Which characters are sent by the ship station to indicate a desire to send a message via a direct connection to a shoreside TELEX subscriber? A. MSG+ B. AMV+ C. OPR+ D. DIRTLX0xxyyyy+ share/E9/9-6A20000664000175000017500000000053014621431033011223 0ustar jtnjtn9-6A2 A What is the modulation index? A. The maximum carrier deviation divided by the maximum modulation frequency. B. The maximum modulation frequency divided by the maximum carrier frequency. C. The maximum carrier deviation multiplied by the maximum carrier frequency. D. The maximum carrier deviation divided by the amount of pre-emphasis. share/E9/9-7A50000664000175000017500000000056014621431033011232 0ustar jtnjtn9-7A5 B What condition may indicate voltage controlled oscillator failure in the synthesizer of a VHF transmitter? A. Low transmitter power output in the high power mode. B. An out-of-lock condition in the Phased Locked-Loop circuit. C. Excessive deviation in the frequency modulated output signal. D. A constant transmitter power output at various modulation levels. share/E9/9-43F10000664000175000017500000000024514621431034011314 0ustar jtnjtn9-43F1 C A typical PC program that is used widely for logging and troubleshooting NMEA 0183 data is: A. Excel B. Windows Explorer C. HyperTerminal D. Microsoft Word share/E9/9-43F60000664000175000017500000000031314621431034011315 0ustar jtnjtn9-43F6 C An important difference between NMEA 0183 and NMEA 2000 is: A. Relay switched vs diode switch B. Low voltage vs high voltage C. Single talker vs multi-talkers D. Data transfer vs video transfer share/E9/9-16B20000664000175000017500000000023514621431033011307 0ustar jtnjtn9-16B2 C What would be the most likely power level to use for initial MF-HF communications? A. 25 watts PEP B. 50 watts PEP C.150 watts PEP D. 600 watts PEP share/E9/9-36D10000664000175000017500000000025314621431034011313 0ustar jtnjtn9-36D1 B Which of the following is the primary frequency that is used exclusively for NAVTEX broadcasts internationally? A. 490 kHz B. 518 kHz C. 2187.5 kHz D. 4209.5 kHz share/E9/9-33D60000664000175000017500000000063014621431034011314 0ustar jtnjtn9-33D6 B Which of the following is normally part of 406 MHz satellite EPIRBs? A. A strobe light, automatic float-free bracket, 1-watt 406-MHz alert beacon. B. A 5-watt 406-MHz alert beacon, Automatic Hydrostatic Release (ARM), strobe light. C. Automatic float-free bracket, 5-watt 121.5 MHz homing beacon, strobe light. D. Automatic Hydrostatic Release (ARM), 1-watt 121.5 MHz alerting beacon, strobe light. share/E9/9-44F50000664000175000017500000000016714621431034011324 0ustar jtnjtn9-44F5 D When viewing NMEA 2000 data you must use the following. A. Voltmeter B. Converter C. HyperTerminal D. Gateway share/E9/9-49G50000664000175000017500000000044614621431034011332 0ustar jtnjtn9-49G5 A The characteristics of a 10:1 attenuation probe for an oscilloscope is as follows: A. A load of about 10 megohms shunted by 12 pF. B. A load of about 20 megohms shunted by a 12 mH coil. C. A load of about 5 megohms shunted by 6 pF. D. A load of about 5 megohms shunted by a 6 mH coil. share/E9/9-26C30000664000175000017500000000063714621431034011321 0ustar jtnjtn9-26C3 B Which of the following best describes Inmarsat BGAN Streaming Data service? A. A service ideal for TCP/IP traffic such as e-mail, file transfers and Internet access. B. Exclusive, high-priority connection ideal for time critical applications. C. A service used by the Inmarsat terminal's web interface for operation and configuration. D. A high speed data service used for high speed connections via ISDN. share/E9/9-1A50000664000175000017500000000050214621431033011220 0ustar jtnjtn9-1A5 A Using a frequency counter with an accuracy of 2 ppm, which of the following are within legal tolerance for the frequencies of 156.800 MHz and 156.525 MHz? A. 156,798.758 kHz and 156.526.243 kHz. B. 156,798.735 kHz and 156,526.258 kHz. C. 156,801.567 kHz and 156,526.476 kHz. D. 156,798.635 kHz and 156,523.352 kHz share/E9/9-19B10000664000175000017500000000035714621431033011316 0ustar jtnjtn9-19B1 C What precedes the phasing signal in a DSC distress alert call? A. An alternating dot pattern of 20 bits B. An alternating dot pattern of 100 bits C. An alternating dot pattern of 200 bits D. An alternating dot pattern of 400 bits share/E9/9-8A40000664000175000017500000000041114621431033011225 0ustar jtnjtn9-8A4 A Which in-line RF power reading indicates the proper operation of a VHF marine transmitter? A. 25 watts forward/1.5 watts reflected. B. 25 watts forward/25 watts reflected. C. 27.5 watts forward/1.5 watts reflected. D. 2.5 watts forward/1.5 watts reflected. share/E9/9-45F20000664000175000017500000000026714621431034011323 0ustar jtnjtn9-45F2 B What is a common range of pulse widths used for depth finding equipment? A. 10 to 30 microseconds B. 25 to 600 microseconds C. 2 to 20 milliseconds D. 50 to 200 milliseconds share/E9/9-17B60000664000175000017500000000113514621431033011314 0ustar jtnjtn9-17B6 B Which would indicate proper operation of a SSB transmitter rated at 60 Watt PEP output in J3E mode? A. In SITOR communications, the power meter can be seen fluctuating regularly from zero to the 60 watt relative output reading. B. In SSB (J3E) voice mode, with the transmitter keyed but without speaking into the microphone, no power output is indicated. C. In SSB (J3E) mode, speaking into the microphone causes the power meter to fluctuate well above the 60 watt reading. D. A steady indication of transmitted energy on an RF power meter with no fluctuations when speaking into the microphone. share/E9/9-7A20000664000175000017500000000174114621431033011231 0ustar jtnjtn9-7A2 D Antenna system matching can be analyzed by determining the Standing Wave Ratio (SWR). Which of the following is the best test procedure to measure the SWR of a marine VHF antenna system? A. Insert an in-line RF Power meter between the VHF radio and an artificial antenna, set the radio to any channel, key the microphone, and read the measured value. B. Insert a SWR meter between the VHF transmitter and the coaxial transmission line connected to the antenna, set the radio to channel 16, and conduct a "RADIO CHECK" with a nearby U.S. Coast Guard station or vessel. C. Insert an in-line RF Power meter between the VHF radio and the coaxial transmission line disconnected from the antenna, activate the Push-To-Talk (PTT) circuit, and read the forward and reflected values. D. Insert a SWR meter between the VHF radio and the coaxial transmission line connected to the antenna, set the radio to an unused channel, activate the Push-To-Talk (PTT) circuit, and read the measured value. share/E9/9-22B60000664000175000017500000000025214621431034011310 0ustar jtnjtn9-22B6 D Which of the following connectors is often used in GMDSS MF/HF antenna systems? A. "F" Connector B. "SMA" Connector C. "EIA-232" Connector D. "PL-259" Connector share/E9/9-27C30000664000175000017500000000056314621431034011320 0ustar jtnjtn9-27C3 A Which of the following is NOT a function of the LAN port on a Fleet Broadband terminal? A. To provide connectivity to an ISDN telephone handset. B. To provide IP connectivity for terminal configuration and troubleshooting. C. To provide connectivity for Internet browsing with a computer. D. To provide connectivity for a Voice Over IP (VOIP) telephone Handset. share/E9/9-15B40000664000175000017500000000056014621431033011311 0ustar jtnjtn9-15B4 B The MF/HF transceiver produces strong AF output but no signals are heard on any frequency. What is the most likely cause? A. The squelch sensitivity control is set too high. B. There is an open circuit in the transmission line to the antenna. C. The final stage of the AF amplifier circuit has failed. D. The power amplifier stage in the receiver has failed. share/E9/9-25C60000664000175000017500000000014514621431034011315 0ustar jtnjtn9-25C6 B What satellite system does not support LRIT? A. Inmarsat-C B. GPS C. IRIDIUM D. Inmarsat-D+ share/E9/9-36D40000664000175000017500000000050614621431034011317 0ustar jtnjtn9-36D4 A How can reception of certain NAVTEX broadcasts be prevented? A. The receiver can be programmed to reject certain stations and message categories. B. Stations are limited to daytime operation only. C. Coordinating reception with published broadcast schedules. D. Automatic receiver desensitization during night hours. share/E9/9-15B20000664000175000017500000000047214621431033011311 0ustar jtnjtn9-15B2 D The MF/HF receiver fails to produce any AF output. An ohmmeter reading is near zero between speaker leads. What is the most likely cause? A. The 3 - 30 MHz amplifier stage has failed. B. The speaker is shorted out. C. Excess negative feedback is reducing AF gain. D. The audio amplifier stage has failed. share/E9/9-12B10000664000175000017500000000042114621431033011277 0ustar jtnjtn9-12B1 B What is the purpose of the "R.I.T." control on a MF/HF transceiver? A. Make slight adjustments to the transmit frequency. B. Make slight adjustments in the receiver frequency. C. Select the proper transmitter emissions. D. Select the proper paired duplex channel. share/E9/9-40E10000664000175000017500000000051514621431034011310 0ustar jtnjtn9-40E1 B What is the function of a crowbar circuit? A. It provides a voltage reference for the voltage regulator. B. It prevents an overvoltage condition from damaging circuitry by shorting the power supply output. C. It provides a voltage reference for the chopper circuit. D. It provides a feedback signal for the chopper circuit. share/E9/9-34D10000664000175000017500000000042014621431034011305 0ustar jtnjtn9-34D1 D How should the signal from a Search And Rescue RADAR Transponder appear on a RADAR display? A. A series of dashes. B. A series of spirals all originating from the range and bearing of the SART. C. A series of twenty dashes. D. A series of 12 equally spaced dots. share/E9/9-45F60000664000175000017500000000057614621431034011332 0ustar jtnjtn9-45F6 B AIS units use the following: A. VHF channels 65B ( 160.875 MHz) and 66B ( 160.925 MHz) and 9.6 kbs GMSK modulation. B. VHF channels 87B (161.975 MHz) and 88B (162.025 MHz) and 9.6 kbs GMSK modulation. C. VHF channels 16 ( 158.800 MHz) and 70 ( 156.525 MHz) and 4.8 kbs GMSK modulation. D. VHF channels 18B ( 161.500 MHz) and 19B ( 161.550 MHz) and 4.8 kbs GMSK modulation. share/E9/9-33D50000664000175000017500000000021114621431034011306 0ustar jtnjtn9-33D5 A How often must the automatic release mechanism be replaced. A. Every 2 years B. Every 3 years C. Every 5 years D. Every 8 years share/E9/9-27C40000664000175000017500000000057214621431034011321 0ustar jtnjtn9-27C4 B What is the configuration for Thrane & Thrane F250 & F500 facsimile operation? A. Fax - Group 3 fax via standard voice channel for analog fax applications. B. Fax - Group 3 fax via 3.1 kHz audio channel for analog fax applications. C. Fax - Group 5 fax via 5.1 kHz audio channel for efax applications. D. Fax - Group 3 fax via ISDN channel for analog fax applications. share/E9/9-6A30000664000175000017500000000112514621431033011225 0ustar jtnjtn9-6A3 B How is pre-emphasis used in an FM transceiver? A. The lower modulation frequencies are boosted before transmitting by 3 db per octave and reduced by the same amount at the receiver. B. The higher modulation frequencies are boosted before transmitting by 6 db per octave and reduced by the same amount at the receiver. C. The lower modulation frequencies are boosted before transmitting by 6 db per octave and reduced by the same amount at the receiver. D. The higher modulation frequencies are boosted before transmitting by 3 db per octave and reduced by the same amount at the receiver. share/E9/9-47G40000664000175000017500000000021314621431034011317 0ustar jtnjtn9-47G4 B Bridge equipment separation recommendations generally refer to what instrument? A. GPS B. Magnetic compass C. ECDIS D. Auto Pilot share/E9/9-13B50000664000175000017500000000062014621431033011305 0ustar jtnjtn9-13B5 A What is the primary purpose of both a high and a low I.F. system in a HF receiver? A. Using a high first I.F. amplifier results in eliminating image signals. B. Using a high first I.F. amplifier results in less intermodulation products. C. Using a low first I.F. amplifier results in fewer third harmonic signals. D. Using a low first I.F. amplifier results in greater signal amplification. share/E9/9-50G50000664000175000017500000000032114621431034011312 0ustar jtnjtn9-50G5 C What is the purpose of a deviation meter? A. Measure the number of sidebands. B. Measure the modulation index. C. Measure the carrier deviation in an FM transmitter. D. Measure the carrier frequency. share/E9/9-38E20000664000175000017500000000032014621431034011312 0ustar jtnjtn9-38E2 A What are the different modes of charging for a GMDSS compliant battery charger/supply? A. Charging, Change-over, Parallel B. Charging, float, trickle C. Charging, Full, Trickle D. Boots, Full, Float share/E9/9-5A30000664000175000017500000000130214621431033011221 0ustar jtnjtn9-5A3 C Which of the following procedures may be used in many U.S. ports as a quick field test to determine if a shipboard VHF receiver is operating properly? A. Tune the VHF receiver to 158.6 MHz and listen for local U.S. Coast Guard announcements or radio traffic from other vessels. B. Set the VHF radio to a simplex channel, key the transmitter, and monitor the quality of the transmitted signal with the internal receiver. C. Tune the VHF radio to 162.550 MHz, 162.400 MHz or 162.475 MHz and listen for broadcasts from the National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration. D. Connect appropriate test equipment to the radio and measure signal levels at the output of the receiver's RF amplifier stage. share/E9/9-17B30000664000175000017500000000114114621431033011306 0ustar jtnjtn9-17B3 C Which would be an indication of proper operation of a SSB transmitter rated at 60 watt PEP output? A. In SSB (J3E) voice mode, with the transmitter keyed but without speaking into the microphone, power output is indicated. B. In SSB (J3E) mode, speaking into the microphone causes power meter to fluctuate slightly around the 60 watt reading. C. In SITOR (NBDP) communications, the power meter can be seen fluctuating regularly from zero to the 60 watt relative output reading. D. A steady indication of transmitted energy on an RF Power meter with no fluctuations when speaking into the microphone. share/E9/9-15B60000664000175000017500000000060614621431033011314 0ustar jtnjtn9-15B6 C A received signal on a MF/HF transceiver breaks up rapidly and repeatedly. The signal alternates between mid scale and zero on the "Signal" meter. What is the most likely cause? A. Intermittent gain in the AF amplifier circuit. B. The squelch sensitivity control is set too high. C. An intermittent connection between the antenna and coupler. D. The AGC circuit has malfunctioned. share/E9/9-5A50000664000175000017500000000066614621431033011237 0ustar jtnjtn9-5A5 A What condition may indicate a VHF receiver fault? A. The same voltage reading between each lead of a 100K-ohm resistor and ground in a bias circuit. B. A "click" is heard when an ohmmeter set to R X 1 is touched across loudspeaker terminals. C. A voltage drop across the leads of a 47K ohm resistor in an intermediate frequency amplifier stage. D. The presence of an AC signal on the output of an audio frequency amplifier stage. share/E9/9-26C40000664000175000017500000000064714621431034011323 0ustar jtnjtn9-26C4 C Which of the following is the best procedure to test the Inmarsat Distress Alarm? A. Lift the plastic cover and depress the "DISTRESS" button. B. Advise the US Coast Guard you are going to test the Distress Alarm. C. Use service number 33 to arrange a Distress Alarm test transmission with the LES in advance. D. Broadcast a SAFETY priority call to all stations immediately prior to initiating the Distress Alarm. share/E9/9-30C20000664000175000017500000000070014621431034011302 0ustar jtnjtn9-30C2 A How can a LES/RCC (Rescue Coordination Centre) determine if an Inmarsat-C Distress Alert is a TEST transmission? A. A flag in the message is set to identify the transmission as a test alert. B. The validity of each Distress alert must be manually verified by LES/RCC personnel. C. A Distress acknowledgement is sent from the LES/RCC to the originating station. D. LES/RCC personnel cannot distinguish between valid and TEST transmissions. share/E9/9-49G20000664000175000017500000000043214621431034011322 0ustar jtnjtn9-49G2 B A 4 digit multi-meter with an accuracy of 0.15% and 2 counts is set on the 60 volt scale. What range of readings may be expected when measuring a 24 volt DC source? A. 23.74 to 24.52 volts DC B. 23.62 to 24.38 volts DC C. 23.56 to 24.28 volts DC D. 23.42 to 24.52 volts DC share/E9/9-49G40000664000175000017500000000025314621431034011325 0ustar jtnjtn9-49G4 D A good lab type signal generator for VHF measurements should be able to reduce its output to: A. 5.0 microvolt B. 1.0 microvolt C. 0.5 microvolt D. 0.1 microvolt share/E1/0000775000175000017500000000000014621164266010607 5ustar jtnjtnshare/E1/1-19D30000664000175000017500000000025614621163524011307 0ustar jtnjtn1-19D3 D What is the most common type of antenna for GMDSS VHF? A. Horizontally polarized circular antenna. B. Long wire antenna. C. Both of the above. D. None of the above. share/E1/1-15C60000664000175000017500000000051114621163524011277 0ustar jtnjtn1-15C6 A What is the purpose of the Receiver Incremental Tuning (RIT) or "Clarifier" control? A. It acts as a "fine-tune" control on the receive frequency. B. It acts as a "fine-tune" control on the transmitted frequency. C. It acts as a "fine-tune" control on both the receive and transmitted frequencies. D. None of the above. share/E1/1-20D40000664000175000017500000000052314621163524011275 0ustar jtnjtn1-20D4 C In the event of failure of the main and emergency sources of electrical power, what is the term for the source required to supply the GMDSS console with power for conducting distress and other radio communications? A. Emergency power. B. Ship's emergency diesel generator. C. Reserve source of energy. D. Ship's standby generator share/E1/1-6A50000664000175000017500000000061214621163523011215 0ustar jtnjtn1-6A5 C Where must the principal radiotelephone operating position be installed in a ship station? A. At the principal radio operating position of the vessel. B. In the chart room, master's quarters or wheel house. C. In the room or an adjoining room from which the ship is normally steered while at sea. D. At the level of the main wheel house or at least one deck above the ship's main deck. share/E1/1-24D30000664000175000017500000000040414621163524011276 0ustar jtnjtn1-24D3 A Which of the following is the primary frequency that is used exclusively for NAVTEX broadcasts internationally? A. 518 kHz. B. 2187.5 kHz. C. 4209.5 kHz. D. VHF channel 16 when the vessel is sailing in Sea Area A1, and 2187.5 kHz when in Sea Area A2. share/E1/1-12B10000664000175000017500000000077014621163524011275 0ustar jtnjtn1-12B1 D What is the fundamental concept of the GMDSS? A. It is intended to automate and improve existing digital selective calling procedures and techniques. B. It is intended to provide more effective but lower cost commercial communications. C. It is intended to provide compulsory vessels with a collision avoidance system when they are operating in waters that are also occupied by non-compulsory vessels. D. It is intended to automate and improve emergency communications in the maritime industry. share/E1/1-20D50000664000175000017500000000102714621163524011276 0ustar jtnjtn1-20D5 D What is the requirement for emergency and reserve power in GMDSS radio installations? A. An emergency power source for radio communications is not required if a vessel has proper reserve power (batteries). B. A reserve power source is not required for radio communications. C. Only one of the above is required if a vessel is equipped with a second 406 EPIRB as a backup means of sending a distress alert. D. All newly constructed ships under GMDSS must have both emergency and reserve power sources for radio communications. share/E1/1-17C40000664000175000017500000000056314621163524011306 0ustar jtnjtn1-17C4 D The best way to test the MF-HF NBDP system is? A. Make a radiotelephone call to a coast station. B. Initiate an ARQ call to demonstrate that the transmitter and antenna are working. C. Initiate an FEC call to demonstrate that the transmitter and antenna are working. D. Initiate an ARQ call to a Coast Station and wait for the automatic exchange of answerbacks. share/E1/1-5A10000664000175000017500000000033714621163523011214 0ustar jtnjtn1-5A1 D Radiotelephone stations required to keep logs of their transmissions must include: A. Station, date and time. B. Name of operator on duty. C. Station call signs with which communication took place. D. All of these. share/E1/1-2A50000664000175000017500000000043614621163523011215 0ustar jtnjtn1-2A5 C What is the minimum radio operator requirement for ships subject to the Great Lakes Radio Agreement? A. Third Class Radiotelegraph Operator's Certificate. B. General Radiotelephone Operator License. C. Marine Radio Operator Permit. D. Restricted Radiotelephone Operator Permit. share/E1/1-16C20000664000175000017500000000017514621163524011302 0ustar jtnjtn1-16C2 C What is the MF radiotelephony calling and Distress frequency? A. 2670 kHz. B. Ch-06 VHF. C. 2182 kHz. D. Ch-22 VHF. share/E1/1-6A60000664000175000017500000000061614621163523011222 0ustar jtnjtn1-6A6 D By international agreement, which ships must carry radio equipment for the safety of life at sea? A. All ships traveling more than 100 miles out to sea. B. Cargo ships of more than 100 gross tons and passenger vessels on international deep-sea voyages. C. All cargo ships of more than 100 gross tons. D. Cargo ships of more than 300 gross tons and vessels carrying more than 12 passengers. share/E1/1-5A40000664000175000017500000000052214621163523011213 0ustar jtnjtn1-5A4 A Which of the following statements is true? A. Key letters or abbreviations may be used in GMDSS Radio Logbooks if their meaning is noted in the log. B. Key letters or abbreviations may not be used in GMDSS Radio Logbooks under any circumstances. C. All Urgency communications must be entered in the logbook. D. None of the above. share/E1/1-6A30000664000175000017500000000062314621163524011216 0ustar jtnjtn1-6A3 C Where do you make an application for inspection of a ship GMDSS radio station? A. To a Commercial Operator Licensing Examination Manager (COLE Manager). B. To the Federal Communications Commission, Washington, DC 20554. C. To the Engineer-in-Charge of the FCC District Office nearest the proposed place of inspection. D. To an FCC-licensed technician holding a GMDSS Radio Maintainer's License. share/E1/1-20D60000664000175000017500000000101514621163524011274 0ustar jtnjtn1-20D6 A What is the meaning of "Reserve Source of Energy"? A. The supply of electrical energy sufficient to operate the radio installations for the purpose of conducting Distress and Safety communications in the event of failure of the ship's main and emergency sources of electrical power. B. High caloric value items for lifeboat, per SOLAS regulations. C. Diesel fuel stored for the purpose of operating the powered survival craft for a period equal to or exceeding the U.S.C.G. and SOLAS requirements. D. None of these. share/E1/1-17C10000664000175000017500000000074114621163524011301 0ustar jtnjtn1-17C1 B What is the proper procedure for testing a radiotelephone installation? A. A dummy antenna must be used to insure the test will not interfere with ongoing communications. B. Transmit the station's call sign, followed by the word "test" on the frequency being used for the test. C. Permission for the voice test must be requested and received from the nearest public coast station. D. Short tests must be confined to a single frequency and must never be conducted in port. share/E1/1-10B50000664000175000017500000000067214621163524011300 0ustar jtnjtn1-10B5 D The radiotelephone Distress call and message consists of: A. MAYDAY spoken three times, followed by the name of the vessel and the call sign in phonetics spoken three times. B. Particulars of its position, latitude and longitude, and other information which might facilitate rescue, such as length, color and type of vessel, and number of persons on board. C. Nature of distress and kind of assistance required. D. All of the above. share/E1/1-1A60000664000175000017500000000022714621163523011213 0ustar jtnjtn1-1A6 D Shipboard transmitters using F3E emission (FM voice) may not exceed what carrier power? A. 500 watts. B. 250 watts. C. 100 watts. D. 25 watts. share/E1/1-1A40000664000175000017500000000026514621163523011213 0ustar jtnjtn1-1A4 C What equipment is programmed to initiate transmission of distress alerts and calls to individual stations? A. NAVTEX. B. GPS. C. DSC controller. D. Scanning Watch Receiver. share/E1/1-13C50000664000175000017500000000036314621163524011301 0ustar jtnjtn1-13C5 D The "Scan" function is used to: A. Monitor Ch-16 continuously and switching to either Ch-70 or Ch-13 every 5 seconds. B. Scan Ch-16 for Distress calls. C. Scan Ch-70 for Distress alerts. D. Sequentially scan all or selected channels. share/E1/1-3A50000664000175000017500000000066414621163523011221 0ustar jtnjtn1-3A5 D Which is true concerning a required watch on VHF Ch-16? A. It is compulsory at all times while at sea until further notice, unless the vessel is in a VTS system. B. When a vessel is in an A1 sea area and subject to the Bridge-to-Bridge act and in a VTS system, a watch is not required on Ch-16, provided the vessel monitors both Ch-13 and VTS channel. C. It is always compulsory in sea areas A2, A3 and A4. D. All of the above. share/E1/1-9B10000664000175000017500000000056214621163524011222 0ustar jtnjtn1-9B1 A Under what circumstances may a ship or aircraft station interfere with a public coast station? A. In cases of distress. B. Under no circumstances during on-going radiocommunications. C. During periods of government priority traffic handling. D. When it is necessary to transmit a message concerning the safety of navigation or important meteorological warnings. share/E1/1-7B10000664000175000017500000000052714621163524011221 0ustar jtnjtn1-7B1 B What traffic management service is operated by the U.S. Coast Guard in certain designated water areas to prevent ship collisions, groundings and environmental harm? A. Water Safety Management Bureau (WSMB). B. Vessel Traffic Service (VTS). C. Ship Movement and Safety Agency (SMSA). D. Interdepartmental Harbor and Port Patrol (IHPP). share/E1/1-23D60000664000175000017500000000015514621163524011303 0ustar jtnjtn1-23D6 B What is the minimum power of the SCT A. Five watts. B. One watt. C. 1/4 watt. D. None of the above. share/E1/1-8B60000664000175000017500000000037514621163524011230 0ustar jtnjtn1-8B6 B What is the priority of communications? A. Safety, Distress, Urgency and radio direction-finding. B. Distress, Urgency and Safety. C. Distress, Safety, radio direction-finding, search and rescue. D. Radio direction-finding, Distress and Safety. share/E1/1-15C10000664000175000017500000000025314621163524011275 0ustar jtnjtn1-15C1 D Which modes could be selected to receive vessel traffic lists from high seas shore stations? A. AM and VHF-FM. B. ARQ and FEC. C. VHF-FM and SSB. D. SSB and FEC. share/E1/1-1A30000664000175000017500000000036014621163523011206 0ustar jtnjtn1-1A3 D Small passenger vessels that sail 20 to 150 nautical miles from the nearest land must have what additional equipment? A. Inmarsat-B terminal. B. Inmarsat-C terminal. C. Aircraft Transceiver with 121.5 MHz. D. MF-HF SSB Transceiver. share/E1/1-3A60000664000175000017500000000040714621163523011215 0ustar jtnjtn1-3A6 B What are the mandatory DSC watchkeeping bands/channels? A. VHF Ch-70, 2 MHz MF DSC, 6 MHz DSC and 1 other HF DSC. B. 8 MHz HF DSC, 1 other HF DSC, 2 MHz MF DSC and VHF Ch-70. C. 2 MHz MF DSC, 8 MHz DSC, VHF Ch-16 and 1 other HF DSC. D. None of the above. share/E1/1-24D50000664000175000017500000000023014621163524011275 0ustar jtnjtn1-24D5 B When do NAVTEX broadcasts typically achieve maximum transmitting range? A. Local noontime. B. Middle of the night. C. Sunset. D. Post sunrise. share/E1/1-7B50000664000175000017500000000046214621163524011223 0ustar jtnjtn1-7B5 A A ship station using VHF bridge-to-bridge Channel 13: A. May be identified by the name of the ship in lieu of call sign. B. May be identified by call sign and country of origin. C. Must be identified by call sign and name of vessel. D. Does not need to identify itself within 100 miles from shore. share/E1/1-6A20000664000175000017500000000062514621163524011217 0ustar jtnjtn1-6A2 C When may the operator of a ship radio station allow an unlicensed person to speak over the transmitter? A. At no time. Only commercially-licensed radio operators may modulate the transmitting apparatus. B. When the station power does not exceed 200 watts peak envelope power. C. When under the supervision of the licensed operator. D. During the hours that the radio officer is normally off duty. share/E1/1-18C20000664000175000017500000000113214621163524011276 0ustar jtnjtn1-18C2 B Which would be an indication of proper operation of a SSB transmitter rated at 60 watt PEP output? A. In SSB (J3E) voice mode, with the transmitter keyed but without speaking into the microphone, power output is indicated. B. In SITOR communications, the power meter can be seen fluctuating regularly from zero to the 60 watt relative output reading. C. In SSB (J3E) mode, speaking into the microphone causes power meter to fluctuate slightly around the 60 watt reading. D. A steady indication of transmitted energy on an RF Power meter with no fluctuations when speaking into the microphone. share/E1/1-16C30000664000175000017500000000040314621163524011275 0ustar jtnjtn1-16C3 D For general communications purposes, paired frequencies are: A. Normally used with private coast stations. B. Normally used between ship stations. C. Normally used between private coast and ship stations. D. Normally used with public coast stations. share/E1/1-14C10000664000175000017500000000023614621163524011275 0ustar jtnjtn1-14C1 B What channel must VHF-FM-equipped vessels monitor at all times when the vessel is at sea? A. Channel 8. B. Channel 16. C. Channel 5A. D. Channel 1A. share/E1/1-12B30000664000175000017500000000050614621163524011274 0ustar jtnjtn1-12B3 D What is the basic concept of GMDSS? A. Shoreside authorities and vessels can assist in a coordinated SAR operation with minimum delay. B. Search and rescue authorities ashore can be alerted to a Distress situation. C. Shipping in the immediate vicinity of a ship in Distress will be rapidly alerted. D. All of these. share/E1/1-7B60000664000175000017500000000036014621163524011221 0ustar jtnjtn1-7B6 C The primary purpose of bridge-to-bridge communications is: A. Search and rescue emergency calls only. B. All short-range transmission aboard ship. C. Navigational communications. D. Transmission of Captain's orders from the bridge. share/E1/1-7B40000664000175000017500000000032214621163524011215 0ustar jtnjtn1-7B4 D When is it legal to transmit high power on Channel 13? A. Failure of vessel being called to respond. B. In a blind situation such as rounding a bend in a river. C. During an emergency. D. All of these. share/E1/1-23D30000664000175000017500000000045014621163524011276 0ustar jtnjtn1-23D3 D With what other stations may portable survival craft transceivers communicate? A. Communication is permitted between survival craft. B. Communication is permitted between survival craft and ship. C. Communication is permitted between survival craft and rescue unit. D. All of the above. share/E1/1-22D40000664000175000017500000000070314621163524011277 0ustar jtnjtn1-22D4 D Which statement is true regarding the SART? A. This is a performance monitor attached to at least one S-band navigational RADAR system. B. This is a 9 GHz transponder capable of being received by another vessel's S-band navigational RADAR system. C. This is a performance monitor attached to at least one X-band navigational RADAR system. D. This is a 9 GHz transponder capable of being received by vessel's X-band navigational RADAR system. share/E1/1-14C40000664000175000017500000000033314621163524011276 0ustar jtnjtn1-14C4 C Which channel is utilized for the required bridge-to-bridge watch? A. DSC on Ch-70. B. VHF-FM on Ch-16. C. VHF-FM on Ch-13 in most areas of the continental United States. D. The vessel's VHF working frequency. share/E1/1-21D20000664000175000017500000000045414621163524011277 0ustar jtnjtn1-21D2 B When are EPIRB batteries changed? A. After emergency use; after battery life expires. B. After emergency use or within the month and year replacement date printed on the EPIRB. C. After emergency use; every 12 months when not used. D. Whenever voltage drops to less than 20% of full charge. share/E1/1-10B20000664000175000017500000000055314621163524011273 0ustar jtnjtn1-10B2 C What are the highest priority communications from ships at sea? A. All critical message traffic authorized by the ship's master. B. Navigation and meteorological warnings. C. Distress calls are highest and then communications preceded by Urgency and then Safety signals. D. Authorized government communications for which priority right has been claimed. share/E1/1-5A30000664000175000017500000000025014621163523011210 0ustar jtnjtn1-5A3 C Where should the GMDSS radio log be kept on board ship? A. Captain's office. B. Sea cabin. C. At the GMDSS operating position. D. Anywhere on board the vessel. share/E1/1-16C40000664000175000017500000000045314621163524011303 0ustar jtnjtn1-16C4 A What emission must be used when operating on the MF distress and calling voice frequency? A. J3E - Single sideband telephony. B. A1A - On-off keying without modulation by an audio frequency. C. F3E - Frequency modulation telephony. D. A3E - Amplitude modulation telephony, double sideband. share/E1/1-24D60000664000175000017500000000047614621163524011312 0ustar jtnjtn1-24D6 C What is the transmitting range of most NAVTEX stations? A. Typically 50-100 nautical miles (90-180 km) from shore. B. Typically upwards of 1000 nautical miles (1800 km) during the daytime. C. Typically 200-400 nautical miles (360-720 km). D. It is limited to line-of-sight or about 30 nautical miles (54 km). share/E1/1-23D20000664000175000017500000000042414621163524011276 0ustar jtnjtn1-23D2 A Which statement is NOT true regarding the requirements of survival craft portable two-way VHF radiotelephone equipment? A. Operation on Ch-13. B. Effective radiated power should be a minimum of 0.25 Watts. C. Simplex voice communications only. D. Operation on Ch-16. share/E1/1-2A40000664000175000017500000000102114621163523011203 0ustar jtnjtn1-2A4 D What are the radio operator requirements of a passenger ship equipped with a GMDSS installation? A. The operator must hold a General Radiotelephone Operator License or higher-class license. B. The operator must hold a Restricted Radiotelephone Operator Permit or higher-class license. C. The operator must hold a Marine Radio Operator Permit or higher-class license. D. Two operators on board must hold a GMDSS Radio Operator License or a Restricted GMDSS Radio Operator License, depending on the ship's operating areas. share/E1/1-18C60000664000175000017500000000106314621163524011305 0ustar jtnjtn1-18C6 B Which of the following conditions would be a symptom of malfunction in a 2182 kHz radiotelephone system that must be reported to the Master, then logged appropriately. A. Much higher noise level observed during daytime operation. B. No indication of power output when speaking into the microphone. C. When testing a radiotelephone alarm on 2182 kHz into an artificial antenna, the Distress frequency watch receiver becomes unmuted, an improper testing procedure. D. Failure to contact a shore station 600 nautical miles distant during daytime operation. share/E1/1-16C60000664000175000017500000000037614621163524011311 0ustar jtnjtn1-16C6 D For general communications purposes, simplex frequencies are: A. Normally used between ship stations and private coast stations. B. Normally used with public coast stations. C. Normally used between ship stations. D. Both a) and c) are correct. share/E1/1-9B40000664000175000017500000000062614621163524011226 0ustar jtnjtn1-9B4 A What should a station operator do before making a transmission? A. Except for the transmission of distress calls, determine that the frequency is not in use by monitoring the frequency before transmitting. B. Transmit a general notification that the operator wishes to utilize the channel. C. Check transmitting equipment to be certain it is properly calibrated. D. Ask if the frequency is in use. share/E1/1-10B60000664000175000017500000000070514621163524011276 0ustar jtnjtn1-10B6 A What is Distress traffic? A. All messages relative to the immediate assistance required by a ship, aircraft or other vehicle threatened by grave or imminent danger, such as life and safety of persons on board, or man overboard. B. In radiotelephony, the speaking of the word, "Mayday." C. Health and welfare messages concerning property and the safety of a vessel. D. Internationally recognized communications relating to important situations. share/E1/1-15C40000664000175000017500000000050014621163524011273 0ustar jtnjtn1-15C4 A MF/HF transceiver power levels should be set: A. To the lowest level necessary for effective communications. B. To the level necessary to maximize the propagation radius. C. To the highest level possible so as to ensure other stations cannot "break-in" on the channel during use. D. Both a) and c) are correct. share/E1/1-8B40000664000175000017500000000106014621163524011216 0ustar jtnjtn1-8B4 A What is required of a ship station which has established initial contact with another station on 2182 kHz or Ch-16? A. The stations must change to an authorized working frequency for the transmission of messages. B. The stations must check the radio channel for Distress, Urgency and Safety calls at least once every ten minutes. C. Radiated power must be minimized so as not to interfere with other stations needing to use the channel. D. To expedite safety communications, the vessels must observe radio silence for two out of every fifteen minutes. share/E1/1-20D20000664000175000017500000000060414621163524011273 0ustar jtnjtn1-20D2 C What are the characteristics of the Reserve Source of Energy under GMDSS? A. Supplies independent HF and MF installations at the same time. B. Cannot be independent of the propelling power of the ship. C. Must be independent of the ship's electrical system when the RSE is needed to supply power to the GMDSS equipment. D. Must be incorporated into the ship's electrical system. share/E1/1-24D40000664000175000017500000000053614621163524011305 0ustar jtnjtn1-24D4 C What means are used to prevent the reception of unwanted broadcasts by vessels utilizing the NAVTEX system? A. Operating the receiver only during daytime hours. B. Coordinating reception with published broadcast schedules. C. Programming the receiver to reject unwanted broadcasts. D. Automatic receiver de-sensitization during night hours. share/E1/1-9B60000664000175000017500000000031314621163524011221 0ustar jtnjtn1-9B6 C In the International Phonetic Alphabet, the letters E, M, and S are represented by the words: A. Echo, Michigan, Sonar. B. Equator, Mike, Sonar. C. Echo, Mike, Sierra D. Element, Mister, Scooter share/E1/1-19D40000664000175000017500000000050314621163524011303 0ustar jtnjtn1-19D4 A What is the purpose of the antenna tuner? A. It alters the electrical characteristics of the antenna to match the frequency in use. B. It physically alters the length of the antenna to match the frequency in use. C. It makes the antenna look like a half-wave antenna at the frequency in use. D. None of the above. share/E1/1-21D30000664000175000017500000000047314621163524011301 0ustar jtnjtn1-21D3 A If a ship sinks, what device is designed to float free of the mother ship, is turned on automatically and transmits a distress signal? A. An emergency position indicating radio beacon. B. EPIRB on 2182 kHz and 405.025 kHz. C. Bridge-to-bridge transmitter on 2182 kHz. D. Auto alarm keyer on any frequency. share/E1/1-16C50000664000175000017500000000034614621163524011305 0ustar jtnjtn1-16C5 C Which of the following defines high frequency "ITU Channel 1212"? A. Ch-12 in the 16 MHz band. B. Ch-1216 in the MF band. C. The 12th channel in the 12 MHz band. D. This would indicate the 1st channel in the 12 MHz band. share/E1/1-5A60000664000175000017500000000044314621163523011217 0ustar jtnjtn1-5A6 A Which of the following statements concerning log entries is false? A. All Safety communications received on VHF must be logged. B. All required equipment tests must be logged. C. The radio operator must log on and off watch. D. The vessels daily position must be entered in the log. share/E1/1-15C20000664000175000017500000000107414621163524011300 0ustar jtnjtn1-15C2 B Why must all MF-HF Distress, Urgency and Safety communications take place solely on the 6 assigned frequencies and in the simplex operating mode? A. For non-GMDSS ships, to maximize the chances for other vessels to receive those communications. B. Answers a) and c) are both correct. C. For GMDSS or DSC-equipped ships, to maximize the chances for other vessels to receive those communications following the transmission of a DSC call of the correct priority. D. To enable an RCC or Coast station to only hear communications from the vessel actually in distress. share/E1/1-5A20000664000175000017500000000030414621163523011207 0ustar jtnjtn1-5A2 B Which of the following is true? A. Battery test must be logged daily. B. EPIRB tests are normally logged monthly. C. Radiotelephone tests are normally logged weekly. D. None of the above. share/E1/1-19D20000664000175000017500000000104014621163524011276 0ustar jtnjtn1-19D2 B What is the antenna requirement of a radiotelephone installation aboard a passenger vessel? A. The antenna must be located a minimum of 15 meters from the radiotelegraph antenna. B. The antenna must be vertically polarized and as non-directional and efficient as is practicable for the transmission and reception of ground waves over seawater. C. An emergency reserve antenna system must be provided for communications on 156.800 MHz. D. All antennas must be tested and the operational results logged at least once during each voyage. share/E1/1-13C20000664000175000017500000000022014621163524011266 0ustar jtnjtn1-13C2 A VHF ship station transmitters must have the capability of reducing carrier power to: A. 1 watt. B. 10 watts. C. 25 watts. D. 50 watts. share/E1/1-2A30000664000175000017500000000101214621163523011202 0ustar jtnjtn1-2A3 A Which of the following persons are ineligible to be issued a commercial radio operator license? A. Individuals who are unable to send and receive correctly by telephone spoken messages in English. B. Handicapped persons with uncorrected disabilities which affect their ability to perform all duties required of commercial radio operators. C. Foreign maritime radio operators unless they are certified by the International Maritime Organization (IMO). D. U.S. Military radio operators who are still on active duty. share/E1/1-11B40000664000175000017500000000042514621163524011274 0ustar jtnjtn1-11B4 C The Urgency signal concerning the safety of a ship, aircraft or person shall be sent only on the authority of: A. Master of ship. B. Person responsible for mobile station. C. Either Master of ship or person responsible for mobile station. D. An FCC-licensed operator. share/E1/1-22D60000664000175000017500000000052514621163524011303 0ustar jtnjtn1-22D6 B How can a SART's effective range be maximized? A. The SART should be placed in water immediately upon activation. B. The SART should be held as high as possible. C. Switch the SART into the "high" power position. D. If possible, the SART should be mounted horizontally so that its signal matches that of the searching RADAR signal. share/E1/1-12B20000664000175000017500000000051314621163524011271 0ustar jtnjtn1-12B2 C The primary purpose of the GMDSS is to: A. Allow more effective control of SAR situations by vessels. B. Provide additional shipboard systems for more effective company communications. C. Automate and improve emergency communications for the world's shipping industry. D. Provide effective and inexpensive communications. share/E1/1-14C20000664000175000017500000000025714621163524011301 0ustar jtnjtn1-14C2 D What is the aircraft frequency and emission used for distress communications? A. 243.000 MHz - F3E. B. 121.500 MHz - F3E. C. 156.525 MHz - F1B. D. 121.500 MHz - A3E. share/E1/1-22D30000664000175000017500000000051014621163524011272 0ustar jtnjtn1-22D3 A What is the purpose of the SART's audible tone alarm? A. It informs survivors that assistance may be nearby. B. It informs survivors when the battery's charge condition has weakened. C. It informs survivors when the SART switches to the "standby" mode. D. It informs survivors that a nearby vessel is signaling on DSC. share/E1/1-1A20000664000175000017500000000073714621163523011215 0ustar jtnjtn1-1A2 B What transmitting equipment is authorized for use by a station in the maritime services? A. Transmitters that have been certified by the manufacturer for maritime use. B. Unless specifically excepted, only transmitters certified by the Federal Communications Commission for Part 80 operations. C. Equipment that has been inspected and approved by the U.S. Coast Guard. D. Transceivers and transmitters that meet all ITU specifications for use in maritime mobile service. share/E1/1-13C10000664000175000017500000000066414621163524011301 0ustar jtnjtn1-13C1 C What is the purpose of the INT-USA control settings on a VHF? A. To change all VTS frequencies to Duplex so all vessels can receive maneuvering orders. B. To change all VHF channels from Duplex to Simplex while in U.S. waters. C. To change certain International Duplex channel assignments to simplex in the U.S. for VTS and other purposes. D. To change to NOAA weather channels and receive weather broadcasts while in the U.S. share/E1/1-10B10000664000175000017500000000025414621163524011270 0ustar jtnjtn1-10B1 D What information must be included in a Distress message? A. Name of vessel. B. Location. C. Type of distress and specifics of help requested. D. All of the above. share/E1/1-17C60000664000175000017500000000044114621163524011303 0ustar jtnjtn1-17C6 C When may you test a radiotelephone transmitter on the air? A. Between midnight and 6:00 AM local time. B. Only when authorized by the Commission. C. At any time (except during silent periods) as necessary to assure proper operation. D. After reducing transmitter power to 1 watt. share/E1/1-14C60000664000175000017500000000016214621163524011300 0ustar jtnjtn1-14C6 C What channel would you use to place a call to a shore telephone? A. Ch-16. B. Ch-70. C. Ch-28. D. Ch-06. share/E1/1-23D10000664000175000017500000000053314621163524011276 0ustar jtnjtn1-23D1 C Which statement is NOT true regarding the requirements of survival craft portable two-way VHF radiotelephone equipment? A. Watertight to a depth of 1 meter for 5 minutes. B. Effective radiated power should be a minimum of 0.25 watts. C. Operates simplex on Ch-70 and at least one other channel. D. The antenna is fixed and non-removable. share/E1/1-11B60000664000175000017500000000036614621163524011302 0ustar jtnjtn1-11B6 D What safety signal call word is spoken three times, followed by the station call letters spoken three times, to announce a storm warning, danger to navigation, or special aid to navigation? A. PAN PAN. B. MAYDAY. C. SAFETY. D. SECURITE. share/E1/1-12B50000664000175000017500000000117014621163524011274 0ustar jtnjtn1-12B5 C What is the responsibility of vessels under GMDSS? A. Vessels over 300 gross tons may be required to render assistance if such assistance does not adversely affect their port schedule. B. Only that vessel, regardless of size, closest to a vessel in Distress, is required to render assistance. C. Every ship is able to perform those communications functions that are essential for the Safety of the ship itself and of other ships. D. Vessels operating under GMDSS, outside of areas effectively serviced by shoreside authorities, operating in sea areas A2, and A4 may be required to render assistance in Distress situations. share/E1/1-22D20000664000175000017500000000042014621163524011271 0ustar jtnjtn1-22D2 C How should the signal from a Search And Rescue Radar Transponder appear on a RADAR display? A. A series of dashes. B. A series of spirals all originating from the range and bearing of the SART. C. A series of 12 equally spaced dots. D. A series of twenty dashes. share/E1/1-15C50000664000175000017500000000050314621163524011277 0ustar jtnjtn1-15C5 B To set-up the MF/HF transceiver for a TELEX call to a coast station, the operator must: A. Select J3E mode for proper SITOR operations. B. Select F1B mode or J2B mode, depending on the equipment manufacturer. C. Select F1B/J2B modes or J3E mode, depending on whether ARQ or FEC is preferred. D. None of the above. share/E1/1-12B60000664000175000017500000000043114621163524011274 0ustar jtnjtn1-12B6 B GMDSS is required for which of the following? A. All vessels capable of international voyages. B. SOLAS Convention ships of 300 gross tonnage or more. C. Vessels operating outside of the range of VHF coastal radio stations. D. Coastal vessels of less than 300 gross tons. share/E1/1-9B30000664000175000017500000000044614621163524011225 0ustar jtnjtn1-9B3 D When using a SSB station on 2182 kHz or VHF-FM on channel 16: A. Preliminary call must not exceed 30 seconds. B. If contact is not made, you must wait at least 2 minutes before repeating the call. C. Once contact is established, you must switch to a working frequency. D. All of these. share/E1/1-21D50000664000175000017500000000051014621163524011273 0ustar jtnjtn1-21D5 B What is the COSPAS-SARSAT system? A. A global satellite communications system for users in the maritime, land and aeronautical mobile services. B. An international satellite-based search and rescue system. C. A broadband military satellite communications network. D. A Wide Area Geostationary Satellite program (WAGS). share/E1/1-18C50000664000175000017500000000071314621163524011305 0ustar jtnjtn1-18C5 D Your antenna tuner becomes totally inoperative. What would you do to obtain operation on both the 8 MHz and 22 MHz frequency bands? A. Without an operating antenna tuner, transmission is impossible. B. It is impossible to obtain operation on 2 different HF bands, without an operating antenna tuner. C. Bypass the antenna tuner and shorten the whip to 15 ft. D. Bypass the antenna tuner. Use a straight whip or wire antenna approximately 30 ft long. share/E1/1-6A10000664000175000017500000000077714621163524011226 0ustar jtnjtn1-6A1 B What regulations govern the use and operation of FCC-licensed ship stations in international waters? A. The regulations of the International Maritime Organization (IMO) and Radio Officers Union. B. Part 80 of the FCC Rules plus the international Radio Regulations and agreements to which the United States is a party. C. The Maritime Mobile Directives of the International Telecommunication Union. D. Those of the FCC's Wireless Telecommunications Bureau, Maritime Mobile Service, Washington, DC 20554. share/E1/1-3A40000664000175000017500000000024714621163523011215 0ustar jtnjtn1-3A4 A When a watch is required on 2182 kHz, at how many minutes past the hour must a 3 minute silent period be observed? A. 00, 30. B. 15, 45. C. 10, 40. D. 05, 35. share/E1/1-10B40000664000175000017500000000073614621163524011300 0ustar jtnjtn1-10B4 C What is the order of priority of radiotelephone communications in the maritime services? A. Alarm and health and welfare communications. B. Navigation hazards, meteorological warnings, priority traffic. C. Distress calls and signals, followed by communications preceded by Urgency and Safety signals and all other communications. D. Government precedence, messages concerning safety of life and protection of property, and traffic concerning grave and imminent danger. share/E1/1-20D10000664000175000017500000000042114621163524011267 0ustar jtnjtn1-20D1 D For a small passenger vessel inspection, reserve power batteries must be tested: A. At intervals not exceeding every 3 months. B. At intervals not exceeding every 6 months C. Before any new voyage D. At intervals not exceeding 12 months, or during the inspection. share/E1/1-5A50000664000175000017500000000070714621163523011221 0ustar jtnjtn1-5A5 B Which of the following logkeeping statements is true? A. Entries relating to pre-voyage, pre-departure and daily tests are required. B. Both a) and c) C. A summary of all required Distress communications heard and Urgency communications affecting the station's own ship. Also, all Safety communications (other than VHF) affecting the station's own ship must be logged. D. Routine daily MF-HF and Inmarsat-C transmissions do not have to be logged. share/E1/1-4A10000664000175000017500000000057614621163523011220 0ustar jtnjtn1-4A1 B Who is required to make entries in a required service or maintenance log? A. The licensed operator or a person whom he or she designates. B. The operator responsible for the station operation or maintenance. C. Any commercial radio operator holding at least a Restricted Radiotelephone Operator Permit. D. The technician who actually makes the adjustments to the equipment. share/E1/1-24D20000664000175000017500000000017214621163524011277 0ustar jtnjtn1-24D2 D MSI can be obtained by one (or more) of the following: A. NAVTEX. B. SafetyNET. C. HF NBDP. D. All of the above. share/E1/1-4A40000664000175000017500000000102114621163523011205 0ustar jtnjtn1-4A4 C What is the proper procedure for making a correction in the station log? A. The ship's master must be notified, approve and initial all changes to the station log. B. The mistake may be erased and the correction made and initialized only by the radio operator making the original error. C. The original person making the entry must strike out the error, initial the correction and indicate the date of the correction. D. Rewrite the new entry in its entirety directly below the incorrect notation and initial the change. share/E1/1-17C20000664000175000017500000000027314621163524011302 0ustar jtnjtn1-17C2 D When testing is conducted on 2182 kHz or Ch-16, testing should not continue for more than ______ in any 5-minute period. A. 2 minutes. B. 1 minute. C. 30 seconds. D. 10 seconds. share/E1/1-8B50000664000175000017500000000066214621163524011226 0ustar jtnjtn1-8B5 D How does a coast station notify a ship that it has a message for the ship? A. By making a directed transmission on 2182 kHz or 156.800 MHz. B. The coast station changes to the vessel's known working frequency. C. By establishing communications using the eight-digit maritime mobile service identification. D. The coast station may transmit, at intervals, lists of call signs in alphabetical order for which they have traffic. share/E1/1-9B50000664000175000017500000000063014621163524011222 0ustar jtnjtn1-9B5 B On what frequency should a ship station normally call a coast station when using a radiotelephony emission? A. On a vacant radio channel determined by the licensed radio officer. B. Calls should be initiated on the appropriate ship-to-shore working frequency of the coast station. C. On any calling frequency internationally approved for use within ITU Region 2. D. On 2182 kHz or Ch-16 at any time. share/E1/1-7B30000664000175000017500000000046614621163524011225 0ustar jtnjtn1-7B3 A When may a bridge-to-bridge transmission be more than 1 watt? A. When broadcasting a distress message and rounding a bend in a river or traveling in a blind spot. B. When broadcasting a distress message. C. When rounding a bend in a river or traveling in a blind spot. D. When calling the Coast Guard. share/E1/1-22D50000664000175000017500000000061614621163524011303 0ustar jtnjtn1-22D5 C At what point does a SART begin transmitting? A. It immediately begins radiating when placed in the "on" position. B. It must be manually activated. C. If it has been placed in the "on" position, it will respond when it has been interrogated by a 9-GHz RADAR signal. D. If it has been placed in the "on" position, it will begin transmitting immediately upon detecting that it is in water. share/E1/1-1A50000664000175000017500000000072014621163523011210 0ustar jtnjtn1-1A5 B What is the minimum transmitter power level required by the FCC for a medium-frequency transmitter aboard a compulsorily fitted vessel? A. At least 100 watts, single-sideband, suppressed-carrier power. B. At least 60 watts PEP. C. The power predictably needed to communicate with the nearest public coast station operating on 2182 kHz. D. At least 25 watts delivered into 50 ohms effective resistance when operated with a primary voltage of 13.6 volts DC. share/E1/1-13C60000664000175000017500000000112414621163524011276 0ustar jtnjtn1-13C6 B Why must all VHF Distress, Urgency and Safety communications (as well as VTS traffic calls) be performed in Simplex operating mode? A. To minimize interference from vessels engaged in routine communications. B. To ensure that vessels not directly participating in the communications can hear both sides of the radio exchange. C. To enable an RCC or Coast station to only hear communications from the vessel actually in distress. D. To allow an RCC or Coast station to determine which transmissions are from other vessels and which transmissions are from the vessel actually in distress. share/E1/1-4A50000664000175000017500000000064214621163523011216 0ustar jtnjtn1-4A5 B How long should station logs be retained when there are entries relating to distress or disaster situations? A. Until authorized by the Commission in writing to destroy them. B. For a period of three years from the last date of entry, unless notified by the FCC. C. Indefinitely, or until destruction is specifically authorized by the U.S. Coast Guard. D. For a period of one year from the last date of entry. share/E1/1-18C40000664000175000017500000000067014621163524011306 0ustar jtnjtn1-18C4 A What would be an indication of a malfunction on a GMDSS station with a 24 VDC battery system? A. A constant 30 volt reading on the GMDSS console voltmeter. B. After testing the station on battery power, the ammeter reading indicates a high rate of charge that then declines. C. After testing the station on battery power, a voltmeter reading of 30 volts for brief period followed by a steady 26 volt reading. D. None of the above. share/E1/1-1A10000664000175000017500000000070314621163523011205 0ustar jtnjtn1-1A1 A What is a requirement of all marine transmitting apparatus used aboard United States vessels? A. Only equipment that has been certified by the FCC for Part 80 operations is authorized. B. Equipment must be type-accepted by the U.S. Coast Guard for maritime mobile use. C. Certification is required by the International Maritime Organization (IMO). D. Programming of all maritime channels must be performed by a licensed Marine Radio Operator. share/E1/1-17C50000664000175000017500000000046114621163524011304 0ustar jtnjtn1-17C5 A The best way to test the Inmarsat-C terminal is? A. Compose and send a brief message to your own Inmarsat-C terminal. B. Send a message to a shore terminal and wait for confirmation. C. Send a message to another ship terminal. D. If the "Send" light flashes, proper operation has been confirmed. share/E1/1-18C10000664000175000017500000000041314621164054011275 0ustar jtnjtn1-18C1 C Under normal circumstances, what do you do if the transmitter aboard your ship is operating off-frequency, overmodulating or distorting? A. Reduce to low power. B. Reduce audio volume level. C. Stop transmitting. D. Make a notation in station operating log. share/E1/1-19D50000664000175000017500000000033514621163524011307 0ustar jtnjtn1-19D5 B What advantage does a vertical whip have over a long wire? A. It radiates more signal fore and aft. B. It radiates equally well in all directions. C. It radiates a strong signal vertically. D. None of the above. share/E1/1-11B20000664000175000017500000000046414621163524011275 0ustar jtnjtn1-11B2 B What is the internationally recognized Urgency signal? A. The letters "TTT" transmitted three times by radiotelegraphy. B. The words "PAN PAN" spoken three times before the Urgency call. C. Three oral repetitions of the word "Safety" sent before the call. D. The pronouncement of the word "Mayday." share/E1/1-12B40000664000175000017500000000065314621163524011300 0ustar jtnjtn1-12B4 D GMDSS is primarily a system based on? A. Ship-to-ship Distress communications using MF or HF radiotelephony. B. VHF digital selective calling from ship to shore. C. Distress, Urgency and Safety communications carried out by the use of narrow-band direct printing telegraphy. D. The linking of search and rescue authorities ashore with shipping in the immediate vicinity of a ship in Distress or in need of assistance. share/E1/1-21D40000664000175000017500000000050614621163524011277 0ustar jtnjtn1-21D4 C How do you cancel a false EPIRB distress alert? A. Transmit a DSC distress alert cancellation. B. Transmit a broadcast message to "all stations" canceling the distress message. C. Notify the Coast Guard or rescue coordination center at once. D. Make a radiotelephony "distress cancellation" transmission on 2182 kHz. share/E1/1-20D30000664000175000017500000000055614621163524011302 0ustar jtnjtn1-20D3 B Which of the following terms is defined as a back-up power source that provides power to radio installations for the purpose of conducting Distress and Safety communications when the vessel's main and emergency generators cannot? A. Emergency Diesel Generator. B. Reserve Source of Energy. C. Reserve Source of Diesel Power. D. Emergency Back-up Generator. share/E1/1-6A40000664000175000017500000000055414621163523011221 0ustar jtnjtn1-6A4 A Who has ultimate control of service at a ship's radio station? A. The master of the ship. B. A holder of a First Class Radiotelegraph Certificate with a six months' service endorsement. C. The Radio Officer-in-Charge authorized by the captain of the vessel. D. An appointed licensed radio operator who agrees to comply with all Radio Regulations in force. share/E1/1-21D10000664000175000017500000000044614621163524011277 0ustar jtnjtn1-21D1 A What is an EPIRB? A. A battery-operated emergency position-indicating radio beacon that floats free of a sinking ship. B. An alerting device notifying mariners of imminent danger. C. A satellite-based maritime distress and safety alerting system. D. A high-efficiency audio amplifier. share/E1/1-3A30000664000175000017500000000023414621163523011210 0ustar jtnjtn1-3A3 D What channel must all compulsory, non-GMDSS vessels monitor at all times in the open sea? A. Channel 8. B. Channel 70. C. Channel 6. D. Channel 16. share/E1/1-7B20000664000175000017500000000106414621163524011217 0ustar jtnjtn1-7B2 D What is a bridge-to-bridge station? A. An internal communications system linking the wheel house with the ship's primary radio operating position and other integral ship control points. B. An inland waterways and coastal radio station serving ship stations operating within the United States. C. A portable ship station necessary to eliminate frequent application to operate a ship station on board different vessels. D. A VHF radio station located on a ship's navigational bridge or main control station that is used only for navigational communications. share/E1/1-3A10000664000175000017500000000033314621163523011206 0ustar jtnjtn1-3A1 C Radio watches for compulsory radiotelephone stations will include the following: A. VHF channel 22a continuous watch at sea. B. 121.5 MHz continuous watch at sea. C. VHF channel 16 continuous watch. D. 500 kHz. share/E1/1-24D10000664000175000017500000000037014621163524011276 0ustar jtnjtn1-24D1 B NAVTEX broadcasts are sent: A. Immediately following traffic lists. B. In categories of messages indicated by a single letter or identifier. C. On request of maritime mobile stations. D. Regularly, after the radiotelephone silent periods. share/E1/1-8B20000664000175000017500000000062414621163524011221 0ustar jtnjtn1-8B2 B Under what circumstances may a coast station using telephony transmit a general call to a group of vessels? A. Under no circumstances. B. When announcing or preceding the transmission of Distress, Urgency, Safety or other important messages. C. When the vessels are located in international waters beyond 12 miles. D. When identical traffic is destined for multiple mobile stations within range. share/E1/1-23D50000664000175000017500000000031214621163524011275 0ustar jtnjtn1-23D5 D Equipment for radiotelephony use in survival craft stations under GMDSS must have what characteristic(s)? A. Operation on Ch-16. B. Watertight. C. Permanently-affixed antenna. D. All of these. share/E1/1-14C30000664000175000017500000000020314621163524011271 0ustar jtnjtn1-14C3 A Which VHF channel is used only for digital selective calling? A. Channel 70. B. Channel 16. C. Channel 22A. D. Channel 6. share/E1/1-23D40000664000175000017500000000032014621163524011273 0ustar jtnjtn1-23D4 A Equipment for radiotelephony use in survival craft stations under GMDSS must have what capability? A. Operation on Ch-16. B. Operation on 457.525 MHz. C. Operation on 121.5 MHz. D. Any one of these. share/E1/1-13C30000664000175000017500000000042014621163524011271 0ustar jtnjtn1-13C3 D The Dual Watch (DW) function is used to: A. Listen to Ch-70 at the same time while monitoring Ch-16. B. Sequentially monitor 4 different channels. C. Sequentially monitoring all VHF channels. D. Listen on any selected channel while periodically monitoring Ch-16. share/E1/1-19D10000664000175000017500000000070314621163524011302 0ustar jtnjtn1-19D1 A What are the antenna requirements of a VHF telephony coast, maritime utility or ship station? A. The shore or on-board antenna must be vertically polarized. B. The antenna array must be type-accepted for 30-200 MHz operation by the FCC. C. The horizontally-polarized antenna must be positioned so as not to cause excessive interference to other stations. D. The antenna must be capable of being energized by an output in excess of 100 watts. share/E1/1-11B30000664000175000017500000000055014621163524011272 0ustar jtnjtn1-11B3 A What is a Safety transmission? A. A communications transmission which indicates that a station is preparing to transmit an important navigation or weather warning. B. A radiotelephony warning preceded by the words "PAN PAN." C. Health and welfare traffic concerning the protection of human life. D. A voice call proceeded by the words "Safety Alert." share/E1/1-14C50000664000175000017500000000020214621163524011272 0ustar jtnjtn1-14C5 B Which channel would most likely be used for routine ship-to-ship voice traffic? A. Ch-16. B. Ch-08. C. Ch-70. D. Ch-22A. share/E1/1-8B30000664000175000017500000000107614621164266011230 0ustar jtnjtn1-8B3 C Who determines when a ship station may transmit routine traffic destined for a coast or government station in the maritime mobile service? A. Shipboard radio officers may transmit traffic when it will not interfere with ongoing radiocommunications. B. The order and time of transmission and permissible type of message traffic is decided by the licensed on-duty operator. C. Ship stations must comply with instructions given by the coast or government station. D. The precedence of conventional radiocommunications is determined by FCC and international regulation. share/E1/1-15C30000664000175000017500000000053514621163524011302 0ustar jtnjtn1-15C3 C To set-up the MF/HF transceiver for a voice call to a coast station, the operator must: A. Select J3E mode for proper SITOR operations. B. Select F1B mode or J2B mode, depending on the equipment manufacturer. C. Select J3E mode for proper voice operations. D. Select F1B/J2B modes or J3E mode, depending on whether FEC or ARQ is preferred. share/E1/1-2A10000664000175000017500000000061514621163523011210 0ustar jtnjtn1-2A1 D Which commercial radio operator license is required to operate a fixed-tuned ship RADAR station with external controls? A. A radio operator certificate containing a Ship RADAR Endorsement. B. A Marine Radio Operator Permit or higher. C. Either a First or Second Class Radiotelegraph certificate or a General Radiotelephone Operator License. D. No radio operator authorization is required. share/E1/1-9B20000664000175000017500000000044114621163524011217 0ustar jtnjtn1-9B2 B Ordinarily, how often would a station using a telephony emission identify? A. At least every 10 minutes. B. At the beginning and end of each transmission and at 15-minute intervals. C. At 15-minute intervals, unless public correspondence is in progress. D. At 20-minute intervals. share/E1/1-16C10000664000175000017500000000074214621163524011301 0ustar jtnjtn1-16C1 B On what frequency would a vessel normally call another ship station when using a radiotelephony emission? A. Only on 2182 kHz in ITU Region 2. B. On 2182 kHz or Ch-16, unless the station knows that the called vessel maintains a simultaneous watch on another intership working frequency. C. On the appropriate calling channel of the ship station at 15 minutes past the hour. D. On the vessel's unique working radio channel assigned by the Federal Communications Commission. share/E1/1-11B50000664000175000017500000000017114621163524011273 0ustar jtnjtn1-11B5 B The Urgency signal has lower priority than: A. Ship-to-ship routine calls. B. Distress. C. Safety. D. Security. share/E1/1-22D10000664000175000017500000000017214621163524011274 0ustar jtnjtn1-22D1 D In which frequency band does a search and rescue transponder operate? A. 3 GHz. B. S-band. C. 406 MHz. D. 9 GHz. share/E1/1-4A30000664000175000017500000000052614621163523011215 0ustar jtnjtn1-4A3 A Where must ship station logs be kept during a voyage? A. At the principal radiotelephone operating position. B. They must be secured in the vessel's strongbox for safekeeping. C. In the personal custody of the licensed commercial radio operator. D. All logs are turned over to the ship's master when the radio operator goes off duty. share/E1/1-2A60000664000175000017500000000106514621163523011215 0ustar jtnjtn1-2A6 B What is a requirement of every commercial operator on duty and in charge of a transmitting system? A. A copy of the Proof-of-Passing Certificate (PPC) must be in the station's records. B. The original license or a photocopy must be posted or in the operator's personal possession and available for inspection. C. The FCC Form 605 certifying the operator's qualifications must be readily available at the transmitting system site. D. A copy of the operator's license must be supplied to the radio station's supervisor as evidence of technical qualification. share/E1/1-17C30000664000175000017500000000030614621163524011300 0ustar jtnjtn1-17C3 A Under GMDSS, a compulsory VHF-DSC radiotelephone installation must be tested at what minimum intervals at sea? A. Daily. B. Annually, by a representative of the FCC. C. Weekly. D. Monthly. share/E1/1-21D60000664000175000017500000000060514621163524011301 0ustar jtnjtn1-21D6 D What is an advantage of a 406 MHz satellite EPIRB? A. It is compatible with the COSPAS-SARSAT Satellites and Global Maritime Distress Safety System (GMDSS) regulations. B. Provides a fast, accurate method for the Coast Guard to locating and rescuing persons in distress. C. Includes a digitally encoded message containing the ship's identity and nationality. D. All of the above. share/E1/1-3A20000664000175000017500000000046314621163523011213 0ustar jtnjtn1-3A2 A All compulsory equipped cargo ships (except those operating under GMDSS regulations or in a VTS) while being navigated outside of a harbor or port, shall keep a continuous radiotelephone watch on: A. 2182 kHz and Ch-16. B. 2182 kHz. C. Ch-16. D. Cargo ships are exempt from radio watch regulations. share/E1/1-8B10000664000175000017500000000067314621163524011224 0ustar jtnjtn1-8B1 C What is the best way for a radio operator to minimize or prevent interference to other stations? A. By using an omni-directional antenna pointed away from other stations. B. Reducing power to a level that will not affect other on-frequency communications. C. Determine that a frequency is not in use by monitoring the frequency before transmitting. D. By changing frequency when notified that a radiocommunication causes interference. share/E1/1-19D60000664000175000017500000000021214621163524011302 0ustar jtnjtn1-19D6 C A vertical whip antenna has a radiation pattern best described by? A. A figure eight. B. A cardioid. C. A circle. D. An ellipse. share/E1/1-4A60000664000175000017500000000064614621163523011223 0ustar jtnjtn1-4A6 C How long should station logs be retained when there are no entries relating to distress or disaster situations? A. For a period of three years from the last date of entry, unless notified by the FCC. B. Until authorized by the Commission in writing to destroy them. C. For a period of two years from the last date of entry. D. Indefinitely, or until destruction is specifically authorized by the U.S. Coast Guard. share/E1/1-18C30000664000175000017500000000024714621163524011305 0ustar jtnjtn1-18C3 C If a ship radio transmitter signal becomes distorted: A. Reduce transmitter power. B. Use minimum modulation. C. Cease operations. D. Reduce audio amplitude. share/E1/1-2A20000664000175000017500000000075414621163523011215 0ustar jtnjtn1-2A2 C When is a Marine Radio Operator Permit or higher license required for aircraft communications? A. When operating on frequencies below 30 MHz allocated exclusively to aeronautical mobile services. B. When operating on frequencies above 30 MHz allocated exclusively to aeronautical mobile services. C. When operating on frequencies below 30 MHz not allocated exclusively to aeronautical mobile services. D. When operating on frequencies above 30 MHz not assigned for international use. share/E1/1-10B30000664000175000017500000000075614621163524011301 0ustar jtnjtn1-10B3 B What is a Distress communication? A. Communications indicating that the calling station has a very urgent message concerning safety. B. An internationally recognized communication indicating that the sender is threatened by grave and imminent danger and requests immediate assistance. C. Radio communications which, if delayed, will adversely affect the safety of life or property. D. An official radio communication notification of approaching navigational or meteorological hazards. share/E1/1-4A20000664000175000017500000000043614621163523011214 0ustar jtnjtn1-4A2 D Who is responsible for the proper maintenance of station logs? A. The station licensee. B. The commercially-licensed radio operator in charge of the station. C. The ship's master and the station licensee. D. The station licensee and the radio operator in charge of the station. share/E1/1-13C40000664000175000017500000000070214621163524011275 0ustar jtnjtn1-13C4 A Which of the following statements best describes the correct setting for manual adjustment of the squelch control? A. Adjust squelch control to the minimum level necessary to barely suppress any background noise. B. Always adjust squelch control to its maximum level. C. Always adjust squelch control to its minimum level. D. Adjust squelch control to approximately twice the minimum level necessary to barely suppress any background noise. share/E1/1-11B10000664000175000017500000000065314621163524011274 0ustar jtnjtn1-11B1 A What is a typical Urgency transmission? A. A request for medical assistance that does not rise to the level of a Distress or a critical weather transmission higher than Safety. B. A radio Distress transmission affecting the security of humans or property. C. Health and welfare traffic which impacts the protection of on-board personnel. D. A communications alert that important personal messages must be transmitted. share/E3.txt0000664000175000017500000045137114621207555011364 0ustar jtnjtn3-1A1 The product of the readings of an AC voltmeter and AC ammeter is called: A. Apparent power. B. True power. C. Power factor. D. Current power. 3-1A2 What is the basic unit of electrical power? A. Ohm. B. Watt. C. Volt. D. Ampere. 3-1A3 What is the term used to express the amount of electrical energy stored in an electrostatic field? A. Joules. B. Coulombs. C. Watts. D. Volts. 3-1A4 What device is used to store electrical energy in an electrostatic field? A. Battery. B. Transformer. C. Capacitor. D. Inductor. 3-1A5 What formula would determine the inductive reactance of a coil if frequency and coil inductance are known? A. XL = pi f L B. XL = 2 pi f L C. XL = 1 / 2 pi f C D. XL = 1 / R2+X2 3-1A6 What is the term for the out-of-phase power associated with inductors and capacitors? A. Effective power. B. True power. C. Peak envelope power. D. Reactive power. Answer Key: 3-1A1: A 3-1A2: B 3-1A3: A 3-1A4: C 3-1A5: B 3-1A6: D 3-2A1 What determines the strength of the magnetic field around a conductor? A. The resistance divided by the current. B. The ratio of the current to the resistance. C. The diameter of the conductor. D. The amount of current. 3-2A2 What will produce a magnetic field? A. A DC source not connected to a circuit. B. The presence of a voltage across a capacitor. C. A current flowing through a conductor. D. The force that drives current through a resistor. 3-2A3 When induced currents produce expanding magnetic fields around conductors in a direction that opposes the original magnetic field, this is known as: A. Lenz’s law. B. Gilbert's law. C. Maxwell’s law. D. Norton’s law. 3-2A4 The opposition to the creation of magnetic lines of force in a magnetic circuit is known as: A. Eddy currents. B. Hysteresis. C. Permeability. D. Reluctance. 3-2A5 What is meant by the term “back EMF”? A. A current equal to the applied EMF. B. An opposing EMF equal to R times C (RC) percent of the applied EMF. C. A voltage that opposes the applied EMF. D. A current that opposes the applied EMF. 3-2A6 Permeability is defined as: A. The magnetic field created by a conductor wound on a laminated core and carrying current. B. The ratio of magnetic flux density in a substance to the magnetizing force that produces it. C. Polarized molecular alignment in a ferromagnetic material while under the influence of a magnetizing force. D. None of these. Answer Key: 3-2A1: D 3-2A2: C 3-2A3: A 3-2A4: D 3-2A5: C 3-2A6: B 3-3A1 What metal is usually employed as a sacrificial anode for corrosion control purposes? A. Platinum bushing. B. Lead bar. C. Zinc bar. D. Brass rod. 3-3A2 What is the relative dielectric constant for air? A. 1 B. 2 C. 4 D. 0 3-3A3 Which metal object may be least affected by galvanic corrosion when submerged in seawater? A. Aluminum outdrive. B. Bronze through-hull. C. Exposed lead keel. D. Stainless steel propeller shaft. 3-3A4 Skin effect is the phenomenon where: A. RF current flows in a thin layer of the conductor, closer to the surface, as frequency increases. B. RF current flows in a thin layer of the conductor, closer to the surface, as frequency decreases. C. Thermal effects on the surface of the conductor increase the impedance. D. Thermal effects on the surface of the conductor decrease the impedance. 3-3A5 Corrosion resulting from electric current flow between dissimilar metals is called: A. Electrolysis. B. Stray current corrosion. C. Oxygen starvation corrosion. D. Galvanic corrosion. 3-3A6 Which of these will be most useful for insulation at UHF frequencies? A. Rubber. B. Mica. C. Wax impregnated paper. D. Lead. Answer Key: 3-3A1: C 3-3A2: A 3-3A3: D 3-3A4: A 3-3A5: D 3-3A6: B 3-4A1 What formula would calculate the total inductance of inductors in series? A. LT = L1 / L2 B. LT = L1 + L2 C. LT = 1 / L1 + L2 D. LT = 1 / L1 x L2 3-4A2 Good conductors with minimum resistance have what type of electrons? A. Few free electrons. B. No electrons. C. Some free electrons. D. Many free electrons. 3-4A3 Which of the 4 groups of metals listed below are the best low-resistance conductors? A. Gold, silver, and copper. B. Stainless steel, bronze, and lead. C. Iron, lead, and nickel. D. Bronze, zinc, and manganese. 3-4A4 What is the purpose of a bypass capacitor? A. It increases the resonant frequency of the circuit. B. It removes direct current from the circuit by shunting DC to ground. C. It removes alternating current by providing a low impedance path to ground. D. It forms part of an impedance transforming circuit. 3-4A5 How would you calculate the total capacitance of three capacitors in parallel? A. CT = C1 + C2 / C1 - C2 + C3. B. CT = C1 + C2 + C3. C. CT = C1 + C2 / C1 x C2 + C3. D. CT = 1 / C1+1 / C2 + 1 / C3. 3-4A6 How might you reduce the inductance of an antenna coil? A. Add additional turns. B. Add more core permeability. C. Reduce the number of turns. D. Compress the coil turns. Answer Key: 3-4A1: B 3-4A2: D 3-4A3: A 3-4A4: C 3-4A5: B 3-4A6: C 3-5A1 What are the two most commonly-used specifications for a junction diode? A. Maximum forward current and capacitance. B. Maximum reverse current and PIV (peak inverse voltage). C. Maximum reverse current and capacitance. D. Maximum forward current and PIV (peak inverse voltage). 3-5A2 What limits the maximum forward current in a junction diode? A. The peak inverse voltage (PIV). B. The junction temperature. C. The forward voltage. D. The back EMF. 3-5A3 MOSFETs are manufactured with THIS protective device built into their gate to protect the device from static charges and excessive voltages: A. Schottky diode. B. Metal oxide varistor (MOV). C. Zener diode. D. Tunnel diode. 3-5A4 What are the two basic types of junction field-effect transistors? A. N-channel and P-channel. B. High power and low power. C. MOSFET and GaAsFET. D. Silicon FET and germanium FET. 3-5A5 A common emitter amplifier has: A. Lower input impedance than a common base. B. More voltage gain than a common collector. C. Less current gain than a common base. D. Less voltage gain than a common collector. 3-5A6 How does the input impedance of a field-effect transistor compare with that of a bipolar transistor? A. An FET has high input impedance; a bipolar transistor has low input impedance. B. One cannot compare input impedance without first knowing the supply voltage. C. An FET has low input impedance; a bipolar transistor has high input impedance. D. The input impedance of FETs and bipolar transistors is the same. Answer Key: 3-5A1: D 3-5A2: B 3-5A3: C 3-5A4: A 3-5A5: B 3-5A6: A 3-6A1 An AC ammeter indicates: A. Effective (TRM) values of current. B. Effective (RMS) values of current. C. Peak values of current. D. Average values of current. 3-6A2 By what factor must the voltage of an AC circuit, as indicated on the scale of an AC voltmeter, be multiplied to obtain the peak voltage value? A. 0.707 B. 0.9 C. 1.414 D. 3.14 3-6A3 What is the RMS voltage at a common household electrical power outlet? A. 331-V AC. B. 82.7-V AC. C. 165.5-V AC. D. 117-V AC. 3-6A4 What is the easiest voltage amplitude to measure by viewing a pure sine wave signal on an oscilloscope? A. Peak-to-peak. B. RMS. C. Average. D. DC. 3-6A5 By what factor must the voltage measured in an AC circuit, as indicated on the scale of an AC voltmeter, be multiplied to obtain the average voltage value? A. 0.707 B. 1.414 C. 0.9 D. 3.14 3-6A6 What is the peak voltage at a common household electrical outlet? A. 234 volts. B. 117 volts. C. 331 volts. D. 165.5 volts. Answer Key: 3-6A1: B 3-6A2: C 3-6A3: D 3-6A4: A 3-6A5: C 3-6A6: D 3-7A1 What is a sine wave? A. A constant-voltage, varying-current wave. B. A wave whose amplitude at any given instant can be represented by the projection of a point on a wheel rotating at a uniform speed. C. A wave following the laws of the trigonometric tangent function. D. A wave whose polarity changes in a random manner. 3-7A2 How many degrees are there in one complete sine wave cycle? A. 90 degrees. B. 270 degrees. C. 180 degrees. D. 360 degrees. 3-7A3 What type of wave is made up of sine waves of the fundamental frequency and all the odd harmonics? A. Square. B. Sine. C. Cosine. D. Tangent. 3-7A4 What is the description of a square wave? A. A wave with only 300 degrees in one cycle. B. A wave whose periodic function is always negative. C. A wave whose periodic function is always positive. D. A wave that abruptly changes back and forth between two voltage levels and stays at these levels for equal amounts of time. 3-7A5 What type of wave is made up of sine waves at the fundamental frequency and all the harmonics? A. Sawtooth wave. B. Square wave. C. Sine wave. D. Cosine wave. 3-7A6 What type of wave is characterized by a rise time significantly faster than the fall time (or vice versa)? A. Cosine wave. B. Square wave. C. Sawtooth wave. D. Sine wave. Answer Key: 3-7A1: B 3-7A2: D 3-7A3: A 3-7A4: D 3-7A5: A 3-7A6: C 3-8A1 What is the term used to identify an AC voltage that would cause the same heating in a resistor as a corresponding value of DC voltage? A. Cosine voltage. B. Power factor. C. Root mean square (RMS). D. Average voltage. 3-8A2 What happens to reactive power in a circuit that has both inductors and capacitors? A. It is dissipated as heat in the circuit. B. It alternates between magnetic and electric fields and is not dissipated. C. It is dissipated as inductive and capacitive fields. D. It is dissipated as kinetic energy within the circuit. 3-8A3 Halving the cross-sectional area of a conductor will: A. Not affect the resistance. B. Quarter the resistance. C. Double the resistance. D. Halve the resistance. 3-8A4 Which of the following groups is correct for listing common materials in order of descending conductivity? A. Silver, copper, aluminum, iron, and lead. B. Lead, iron, silver, aluminum, and copper. C. Iron, silver, aluminum, copper, and silver. D. Silver, aluminum, iron, lead, and copper. 3-8A5 How do you compute true power (power dissipated in the circuit) in a circuit where AC voltage and current are out of phase? A. Multiply RMS voltage times RMS current. B. Subtract apparent power from the power factor. C. Divide apparent power by the power factor. D. Multiply apparent power times the power factor. 3-8A6 Assuming a power source to have a fixed value of internal resistance, maximum power will be transferred to the load when: A. The load impedance is greater than the source impedance. B. The load impedance equals the internal impedance of the source. C. The load impedance is less than the source impedance. D. The fixed values of internal impedance are not relative to the power source. Answer Key: 3-8A1: C 3-8A2: B 3-8A3: C 3-8A4: A 3-8A5: D 3-8A6: B 3-9B1 What value of series resistor would be needed to obtain a full scale deflection on a 50 microamp DC meter with an applied voltage of 200 volts DC? A. 4 megohms. B. 2 megohms. C. 400 kilohms. D. 200 kilohms. 3-9B2 Which of the following Ohms Law formulas is incorrect? A. I = E / R B. I = R / E C. E = I x R D. R = E / I 3-9B3 If a current of 2 amperes flows through a 50-ohm resistor, what is the voltage across the resistor? A. 25 volts. B. 52 volts. C. 200 volts. D. 100 volts. 3-9B4 If a 100-ohm resistor is connected across 200 volts, what is the current through the resistor? A. 2 amperes. B. 1 ampere. C. 300 amperes. D. 20,000 amperes. 3-9B5 If a current of 3 amperes flows through a resistor connected to 90 volts, what is the resistance? A. 3 ohms. B. 30 ohms. C. 93 ohms. D. 270 ohms. 3-9B6 A relay coil has 500 ohms resistance, and operates on 125 mA. What value of resistance should be connected in series with it to operate from 110 V DC? A. 150 ohms. B. 220 ohms. C. 380 ohms. D. 470 ohms. Answer Key: 3-9B1: A 3-9B2: B 3-9B3: D 3-9B4: A 3-9B5: B 3-9B6: C 3-10B1 What is the peak-to-peak RF voltage on the 50 ohm output of a 100 watt transmitter? A. 70 volts. B. 100 volts. C. 140 volts. D. 200 volts. 3-10B2 What is the maximum DC or RMS voltage that may be connected across a 20 watt, 2000 ohm resistor? A. 10 volts. B. 100 volts. C. 200 volts. D. 10,000 volts. 3-10B3 A 500-ohm, 2-watt resistor and a 1500-ohm, 1-watt resistor are connected in parallel. What is the maximum voltage that can be applied across the parallel circuit without exceeding wattage ratings? A. 22.4 volts. B. 31.6 volts. C. 38.7 volts. D. 875 volts. 3-10B4 In Figure 3B1, what is the voltage drop across R1? A. 9 volts. B. 7 volts. C. 5 volts. D. 3 volts. 3-10B5 In Figure 3B2, what is the voltage drop across R1? A. 1.2 volts. B. 2.4 volts. C. 3.7 volts. D. 9 volts. 3-10B6 What is the maximum rated current-carrying capacity of a resistor marked “2000 ohms, 200 watts”? A. 0.316 amps. B. 3.16 amps. C. 10 amps. D. 100 amps. Answer Key: 3-10B1: D 3-10B2: C 3-10B3: B 3-10B4: C 3-10B5: D 3-10B6: A 3-11B1 What is the most the actual transmit frequency could differ from a reading of 462,100,000 Hertz on a frequency counter with a time base accuracy of +/- 0.1 ppm? A. 46.21 Hz. B. 0.1 MHz. C. 462.1 Hz. D. 0.2 MHz. 3-11B2 The second harmonic of a 380 kHz frequency is: A. 2 MHz. B. 760 kHz. C. 190 kHz. D. 144.4 GHz. 3-11B3 What is the second harmonic of SSB frequency 4146 kHz? A. 8292 kHz. B. 4.146 MHz. C. 2073 kHz. D. 12438 kHz. 3-11B4 What is the most the actual transmitter frequency could differ from a reading of 156,520,000 hertz on a frequency counter with a time base accuracy of +/- 1.0 ppm? A. 165.2 Hz. B. 15.652 kHz. C. 156.52 Hz. D. 1.4652 MHz. 3-11B5 What is the most the actual transmitter frequency could differ from a reading of 156,520,000 Hertz on a frequency counter with a time base accuracy of +/- 10 ppm? A. 146.52 Hz. B. 1565.20 Hz. C. 10 Hz. D. 156.52 kHz. 3-11B6 What is the most the actual transmitter frequency could differ from a reading of 462,100,000 hertz on a frequency counter with a time base accuracy of +/- 1.0 ppm? A. 46.21 MHz. B. 10 Hz. C. 1.0 MHz. D. 462.1 Hz. Answer Key: 3-11B1: A 3-11B2: B 3-11B3: A 3-11B4: C 3-11B5: B 3-11B6: D 3-12B1 At pi/3 radians, what is the amplitude of a sine-wave having a peak value of 5 volts? A. -4.3 volts. B. -2.5 volts. C. +2.5 volts. D. +4.3 volts. 3-12B2 At 150 degrees, what is the amplitude of a sine-wave having a peak value of 5 volts? A. -4.3 volts. B. -2.5 volts. C. +2.5 volts. D. +4.3 volts. 3-12B3 At 240 degrees, what is the amplitude of a sine-wave having a peak value of 5 volts? A. -4.3 volts. B. -2.5 volts. C. +2.5 volts. D. +4.3 volts. 3-12B4 What is the equivalent to the root-mean-square value of an AC voltage? A. AC voltage is the square root of the average AC value. B. The DC voltage causing the same heating in a given resistor at the peak AC voltage. C. The AC voltage found by taking the square of the average value of the peak AC voltage. D. The DC voltage causing the same heating in a given resistor as the RMS AC voltage of the same value. 3-12B5 What is the RMS value of a 340-volt peak-to-peak pure sine wave? A. 170 volts AC. B. 240 volts AC. C. 120 volts AC. D. 350 volts AC. 3-12B6 Determine the phase relationship between the two signals shown in Figure 3B3. A. A is lagging B by 90 degrees. B. B is lagging A by 90 degrees. C. A is leading B by 180 degrees. D. B is leading A by 90 degrees. Answer Key: 3-12B1: D 3-12B2: C 3-12B3: A 3-12B4: D 3-12B5: C 3-12B6: B 3-13B1 What does the power factor equal in an R-L circuit having a 60 degree phase angle between the voltage and the current? A. 0.414 B. 0.866 C. 0.5 D. 1.73 3-13B2 If a resistance to which a constant voltage is applied is halved, what power dissipation will result? A. Double. B. Halved. C. Quadruple. D. Remain the same. 3-13B3 746 watts, corresponding to the lifting of 550 pounds at the rate of one-foot-per-second, is the equivalent of how much horsepower? A. One-quarter horsepower. B. One-half horsepower. C. Three-quarters horsepower. D. One horsepower. 3-13B4 In a circuit where the AC voltage and current are out of phase, how can the true power be determined? A. By multiplying the apparent power times the power factor. B. By subtracting the apparent power from the power factor. C. By dividing the apparent power by the power factor. D. By multiplying the RMS voltage times the RMS current. 3-13B5 What does the power factor equal in an R-L circuit having a 45 degree phase angle between the voltage and the current? A. 0.866 B. 1.0 C. 0.5 D. 0.707 3-13B6 What does the power factor equal in an R-L circuit having a 30 degree phase angle between the voltage and the current? A. 1.73 B. 0.866 C. 0.5 D. 0.577 Answer Key: 3-13B1: C 3-13B2: A 3-13B3: D 3-13B4: A 3-13B5: D 3-13B6: B 3-14B1 What is the term for the time required for the capacitor in an RC circuit to be charged to 63.2% of the supply voltage? A. An exponential rate of one. B. One time constant. C. One exponential period. D. A time factor of one. 3-14B2 What is the meaning of the term “time constant of an RC circuit”? The time required to charge the capacitor in the circuit to: A. 23.7% of the supply voltage. B. 36.8% of the supply voltage. C. 57.3% of the supply voltage. D. 63.2% of the supply voltage. 3-14B3 What is the term for the time required for the current in an RL circuit to build up to 63.2% of the maximum value? A. One time constant. B. An exponential period of one. C. A time factor of one. D. One exponential rate. 3-14B4 What is the meaning of the term “time constant of an RL circuit”? The time required for the: A. Current in the circuit to build up to 36.8% of the maximum value. B. Voltage in the circuit to build up to 63.2% of the maximum value. C. Current in the circuit to build up to 63.2% of the maximum value. D. Voltage in the circuit to build up to 36.8% of the maximum value. 3-14B5 After two time constants, the capacitor in an RC circuit is charged to what percentage of the supply voltage? A. 36.8 % B. 63.2 % C. 86.5 % D. 95 % 3-14B6 After two time constants, the capacitor in an RC circuit is discharged to what percentage of the starting voltage? A. 86.5 % B. 13.5 % C. 63.2 % D. 36.8 % Answer Key: 3-14B1: B) 3-14B2: D) 3-14B3: A) 3-14B4: C 3-14B5: C 3-14B6: B 3-15B1 What is the time constant of a circuit having two 220-microfarad capacitors and two 1-megohm resistors all in parallel? A. 22 seconds. B. 44 seconds. C. 440 seconds. D. 220 seconds. 3-15B2 What is the time constant of a circuit having two 100-microfarad capacitors and two 470-kilohm resistors all in series? A. 470 seconds. B. 47 seconds. C. 4.7 seconds. D. 0.47 seconds. 3-15B3 What is the time constant of a circuit having a 100-microfarad capacitor and a 470-kilohm resistor in series? A. 4700 seconds. B. 470 seconds. C. 47 seconds. D. 0.47 seconds. 3-15B4 What is the time constant of a circuit having a 220-microfarad capacitor and a 1-megohm resistor in parallel? A. 220 seconds. B. 22 seconds. C. 2.2 seconds. D. 0.22 seconds. 3-15B5 What is the time constant of a circuit having two 100-microfarad capacitors and two 470-kilohm resistors all in parallel? A. 470 seconds. B. 47 seconds. C. 4.7 seconds. D. 0.47 seconds. 3-15B6 What is the time constant of a circuit having two 220-microfarad capacitors and two 1-megohm resistors all in series? A. 220 seconds. B. 55 seconds. C. 110 seconds. D. 440 seconds. Answer Key: 3-15B1: D 3-15B2: B 3-15B3: C 3-15B4: A 3-15B5: B 3-15B6: A 3-16B1 What is the impedance of a network composed of a 0.1-microhenry inductor in series with a 20-ohm resistor, at 30 MHz? Specify your answer in rectangular coordinates. A. 20 -j19 B. 19 +j20 C. 20 +j19 D. 19 -j20 3-16B2 In rectangular coordinates, what is the impedance of a network composed of a 0.1-microhenry inductor in series with a 30-ohm resistor, at 5 MHz? A. 30 -j3 B. 3 +j30 C. 3 -j30 D. 30 +j3 3-16B3 In rectangular coordinates, what is the impedance of a network composed of a 10-microhenry inductor in series with a 40-ohm resistor, at 500 MHz? A. 40 +j31400 B. 40 -j31400 C. 31400 +j40 D. 31400 -j40 3-16B4 In rectangular coordinates, what is the impedance of a network composed of a 1.0-millihenry inductor in series with a 200-ohm resistor, at 30 kHz? A. 200 - j188 B. 200 + j188 C. 188 + j200 D. 188 - j200 3-16B5 In rectangular coordinates, what is the impedance of a network composed of a 0.01-microfarad capacitor in parallel with a 300-ohm resistor, at 50 kHz? A. 150 - j159 B. 150 + j159 C. 159 - j150 D. 159 + j150 3-16B6 In rectangular coordinates, what is the impedance of a network composed of a 0.001-microfarad capacitor in series with a 400-ohm resistor, at 500 kHz? A. 318 - j400 B. 400 + j318 C. 318 + j400 D. 400 - j318 Answer Key: 3-16B1: C 3-16B2: D 3-16B3: A 3-16B4: B 3-16B5: C 3-16B6: D 3-17B1 What is the impedance of a network composed of a 100-picofarad capacitor in parallel with a 4000-ohm resistor, at 500 KHz? Specify your answer in polar coordinates. A. 2490 ohms, /51.5 degrees B. 4000 ohms, /38.5 degrees C. 5112 ohms, /-38.5 degrees D. 2490 ohms, /-51.5 degrees 3-17B2 In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network composed of a 100-ohm-reactance inductor in series with a 100-ohm resistor? A. 121 ohms, /35 degrees B. 141 ohms, /45 degrees C. 161 ohms, /55 degrees D. 181 ohms, /65 degrees 3-17B3 In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network composed of a 400-ohm-reactance capacitor in series with a 300-ohm resistor? A. 240 ohms, /36.9 degrees B. 240 ohms, /-36.9 degrees C. 500 ohms, /-53.1 degrees D. 500 ohms, /53.1 degrees 3-17B4 In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network composed of a 300-ohm-reactance capacitor, a 600-ohm-reactance inductor, and a 400-ohm resistor, all connected in series? A. 500 ohms, /37 degrees B. 400 ohms, /27 degrees C. 300 ohms, /17 degrees D. 200 ohms, /10 degrees 3-17B5 In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network comprised of a 400-ohm-reactance inductor in parallel with a 300-ohm resistor? A. 240 ohms, /-36.9 degrees B. 240 ohms, /36.9 degrees C. 500 ohms, /53.1 degrees D. 500 ohms, /-53.1 degrees 3-17B6 Using the polar coordinate system, what visual representation would you get of a voltage in a sinewave circuit? A. To show the reactance which is present. B. To graphically represent the AC and DC component. C. To display the data on an XY chart. D. The plot shows the magnitude and phase angle. Answer Key: 3-17B1: D 3-17B2: B 3-17B3: C 3-17B4: A 3-17B5: B 3-17B6: D 3-18B1 What is the magnitude of the impedance of a series AC circuit having a resistance of 6 ohms, an inductive reactance of 17 ohms, and zero capacitive reactance? A. 6.6 ohms. B. 11 ohms. C. 18 ohms. D. 23 ohms. 3-18B2 A 1-watt, 10-volt Zener diode with the following characteristics: Imin. = 5 mA; Imax. = 95 mA; and Z = 8 ohms, is to be used as part of a voltage regulator in a 20-V power supply. Approximately what size currentlimiting resistor would be used to set its bias to the midpoint of its operating range? A. 100 ohms. B. 200 ohms. C. 1 kilohms. D. 2 kilohms. 3-18B3 Given a power supply with a no load voltage of 12 volts and a full load voltage of 10 volts, what is the percentage of voltage regulation? A. 17 % B. 80 % C. 20 % D. 83 % 3-18B4 What turns ratio does a transformer need in order to match a source impedance of 500 ohms to a load of 10 ohms? A. 7.1 to 1. B. 14.2 to 1. C. 50 to 1. D. None of these. 3-18B5 Given a power supply with a full load voltage of 200 volts and a regulation of 25%, what is the no load voltage? A. 150 volts. B. 160 volts. C. 240 volts. D. 250 volts. 3-18B6 What is the conductance (G) of a circuit if 6 amperes of current flows when 12 volts DC is applied? A. 0.25 Siemens (mhos). B. 0.50 Siemens (mhos). C. 1.00 Siemens (mhos). D. 1.25 Siemens (mhos). Answer Key: 3-18B1: C 3-18B2: B 3-18B3: C 3-18B4: A 3-18B5: D 3-18B6: B 3-19C1 What happens to the conductivity of photoconductive material when light shines on it? A. It increases. B. It decreases. C. It stays the same. D. It becomes temperature dependent. 3-19C2 What is the photoconductive effect? A. The conversion of photon energy to electromotive energy. B. The increased conductivity of an illuminated semiconductor junction. C. The conversion of electromotive energy to photon energy. D. The decreased conductivity of an illuminated semiconductor junction. 3-19C3 What does the photoconductive effect in crystalline solids produce a noticeable change in? A. The capacitance of the solid. B. The inductance of the solid. C. The specific gravity of the solid. D. The resistance of the solid. 3-19C4 What is the description of an optoisolator? A. An LED and a photosensitive device. B. A P-N junction that develops an excess positive charge when exposed to light. C. An LED and a capacitor. D. An LED and a lithium battery cell. 3-19C5 What happens to the conductivity of a photosensitive semiconductor junction when it is illuminated? A. The junction resistance is unchanged. B. The junction resistance decreases. C. The junction resistance becomes temperature dependent. D. The junction resistance increases 3-19C6 What is the description of an optocoupler? A. A resistor and a capacitor. B. Two light sources modulated onto a mirrored surface. C. An LED and a photosensitive device. D. An amplitude modulated beam encoder. Answer Key: 3-19C1: A 3-19C2: B 3-19C3: D 3-19C4: A 3-19C5: B 3-19C6: C 3-20C1 What factors determine the capacitance of a capacitor? A. Voltage on the plates and distance between the plates. B. Voltage on the plates and the dielectric constant of the material between the plates. C. Amount of charge on the plates and the dielectric constant of the material between the plates. D. Distance between the plates and the dielectric constant of the material between the plates. 3-20C2 In Figure 3C4, if a small variable capacitor were installed in place of the dashed line, it would? A. Increase gain. B. Increase parasitic oscillations. C. Decrease parasitic oscillations. D. Decrease crosstalk. 3-20C3 In Figure 3C4, which component (labeled 1 through 4) is used to provide a signal ground? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 3-20C4 In Figure 3C5, which capacitor (labeled 1 through 4) is being used as a bypass capacitor? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 3-20C5 In Figure 3C5, the 1 microfarad capacitor is connected to a potentiometer that is used to: A. Increase gain. B. Neutralize amplifier. C. Couple. D. Adjust tone. 3-20C6 What is the purpose of a coupling capacitor? A. It blocks direct current and passes alternating current. B. It blocks alternating current and passes direct current. C. It increases the resonant frequency of the circuit. D. It decreases the resonant frequency of the circuit. Answer Key: 3-20C1: D 3-20C2: C 3-20C3: B 3-20C4: C 3-20C5: D 3-20C6: A 3-21C1 A capacitor is sometimes placed in series with the primary of a power transformer to: A. Improve the power factor. B. Improve output voltage regulation. C. Rectify the primary windings. D. None of these. 3-21C2 A transformer used to step up its input voltage must have: A. More turns of wire on its primary than on its secondary. B. More turns of wire on its secondary than on its primary. C. Equal number of primary and secondary turns of wire. D. None of the above statements are correct. 3-21C3 A transformer primary of 2250 turns connected to 120 VAC will develop what voltage across a 500-turn secondary? A. 26.7 volts. B. 2300 volts. C. 1500 volts. D. 5.9 volts. 3-21C4 What is the ratio of the output frequency to the input frequency of a single-phase full-wave rectifier? A. 1:1. B. 1:2. C. 2:1. D. None of these. 3-21C5 A power transformer has a single primary winding and three secondary windings producing 5.0 volts, 12.6 volts, and 150 volts. Assuming similar wire sizes, which of the three secondary windings will have the highest measured DC resistance? A. The 12.6 volt winding. B. The 150 volt winding. C. The 5.0 volt winding. D. All will have equal resistance values. 3-21C6 A power transformer has a primary winding of 200 turns of #24 wire and a secondary winding consisting of 500 turns of the same size wire. When 20 volts are applied to the primary winding, the expected secondary voltage will be: A. 500 volts. B. 25 volts. C. 10 volts. D. 50 volts. Answer Key: 3-21C1: A 3-21C2: B 3-21C3: A 3-21C4: C 3-21C5: B 3-21C6: D 3-22C1 In a linear electronic voltage regulator: A. The output is a ramp voltage. B. The pass transistor switches from the “off” state to the “on”" state. C. The control device is switched on or off, with the duty cycle proportional to the line or load conditions. D. The conduction of a control element is varied in direct proportion to the line voltage or load current. 3-22C2 A switching electronic voltage regulator: A. Varies the conduction of a control element in direct proportion to the line voltage or load current. B. Provides more than one output voltage. C. Switches the control device on or off, with the duty cycle proportional to the line or load conditions. D. Gives a ramp voltage at its output. 3-22C3 What device is usually used as a stable reference voltage in a linear voltage regulator? A. Zener diode. B. Tunnel diode. C. SCR. D. Varactor diode. 3-22C4 In a regulated power supply, what type of component will most likely be used to establish a reference voltage? A. Tunnel Diode. B. Battery. C. Pass Transistor. D. Zener Diode. 3-22C5 A three-terminal regulator: A. Supplies three voltages with variable current. B. Supplies three voltages at a constant current. C. Contains a voltage reference, error amplifier, sensing resistors and transistors, and a pass element. D. Contains three error amplifiers and sensing transistors. 3-22C6 What is the range of voltage ratings available in Zener diodes? A. 1.2 volts to 7 volts. B. 2.4 volts to 200 volts and above. C. 3 volts to 2000 volts. D. 1.2 volts to 5.6 volts. Answer Key: 3-22C1: D 3-22C2: C 3-22C3: A 3-22C4: D 3-22C5: C 3-22C6: B 3-23C1 How might two similar SCRs be connected to safely distribute the power load of a circuit? A. In series. B. In parallel, same polarity. C. In parallel, reverse polarity. D. In a combination series and parallel configuration. 3-23C2 What are the three terminals of an SCR? A. Anode, cathode, and gate. B. Gate, source, and sink. C. Base, collector, and emitter. D. Gate, base 1, and base 2. 3-23C3 Which of the following devices acts as two SCRs connected back to back, but facing in opposite directions and sharing a common gate? A. JFET. B. Dual-gate MOSFET. C. DIAC. D. TRIAC. 3-23C4 What is the transistor called that is fabricated as two complementary SCRs in parallel with a common gate terminal? A. TRIAC. B. Bilateral SCR. C. Unijunction transistor. D. Field effect transistor. 3-23C5 What are the three terminals of a TRIAC? A. Emitter, base 1, and base 2. B. Base, emitter, and collector. C. Gate, source, and sink. D. Gate, anode 1, and anode 2. 3-23C6 What circuit might contain a SCR? A. Filament circuit of a tube radio receiver. B. A light-dimming circuit. C. Shunt across a transformer primary. D. Bypass capacitor circuit to ground. Answer Key: 3-23C1: C 3-23C2: A 3-23C3: D 3-23C4: A 3-23C5: D 3-23C6: B 3-24C1 What is one common use for PIN diodes? A. Constant current source. B. RF switch. C. Constant voltage source. D. RF rectifier. 3-24C2 What is a common use of a hot-carrier diode? A. Balanced inputs in SSB generation. B. Variable capacitance in an automatic frequency control circuit. C. Constant voltage reference in a power supply. D. VHF and UHF mixers and detectors. 3-24C3 Structurally, what are the two main categories of semiconductor diodes? A. Junction and point contact. B. Electrolytic and junction. C. Electrolytic and point contact. D. Vacuum and point contact. 3-24C4 What special type of diode is capable of both amplification and oscillation? A. Zener diodes. B. Point contact diodes. C. Tunnel diodes. D. Junction diodes. 3-24C5 What type of semiconductor diode varies its internal capacitance as the voltage applied to its terminals varies? A. Tunnel diode. B. Varactor diode. C. Silicon-controlled rectifier. D. Zener diode. 3-24C6 What is the principal characteristic of a tunnel diode? A. High forward resistance. B. Very high PIV(peak inverse voltage). C. Negative resistance region. D. High forward current rating. Answer Key: 3-24C1: B 3-24C2: D 3-24C3: A 3-24C4: C 3-24C5: B 3-24C6: C 3-25C1 What is the meaning of the term “alpha” with regard to bipolar transistors? The change of: A. Collector current with respect to base current. B. Base current with respect to collector current. C. Collector current with respect to gate current. D. Collector current with respect to emitter current. 3-25C2 What are the three terminals of a bipolar transistor? A. Cathode, plate and grid. B. Base, collector and emitter. C. Gate, source and sink. D. Input, output and ground. 3-25C3 What is the meaning of the term “beta” with regard to bipolar transistors? The change of: A. Base current with respect to emitter current. B. Collector current with respect to emitter current. C. Collector current with respect to base current. D. Base current with respect to gate current. 3-25C4 What are the elements of a unijunction transistor? A. Base 1, base 2, and emitter. B. Gate, cathode, and anode. C. Gate, base 1, and base 2. D. Gate, source, and sink. 3-25C5 The beta cutoff frequency of a bipolar transistor is the frequency at which: A. Base current gain has increased to 0.707 of maximum. B. Emitter current gain has decreased to 0.707 of maximum. C. Collector current gain has decreased to 0.707. D. Gate current gain has decreased to 0.707. 3-25C6 What does it mean for a transistor to be fully saturated? A. The collector current is at its maximum value. B. The collector current is at its minimum value. C. The transistor’s Alpha is at its maximum value. D. The transistor’s Beta is at its maximum value. Answer Key: 3-25C1: D 3-25C2: B 3-25C3: C 3-25C4: A 3-25C5: B 3-25C6: A 3-26C1 A common base amplifier has: A. More current gain than common emitter or common collector. B. More voltage gain than common emitter or common collector. C. More power gain than common emitter or common collector. D. Highest input impedance of the three amplifier configurations. 3-26C2 What does it mean for a transistor to be cut off? A. There is no base current. B. The transistor is at its Class A operating point. C. There is no current between emitter and collector. D. There is maximum current between emitter and collector. 3-26C3 An emitter-follower amplifier has: A. More voltage gain than common emitter or common base. B. More power gain than common emitter or common base. C. Lowest input impedance of the three amplifier configurations. D. More current gain than common emitter or common base. 3-26C4 What conditions exists when a transistor is operating in saturation? A. The base-emitter junction and collector-base junction are both forward biased. B. The base-emitter junction and collector-base junction are both reverse biased. C. The base-emitter junction is reverse biased and the collector-base junction is forward biased. D. The base-emitter junction is forward biased and the collector-base junction is reverse biased. 3-26C5 For current to flow in an NPN silicon transistor’s emitter-collector junction, the base must be: A. At least 0.4 volts positive with respect to the emitter. B. At a negative voltage with respect to the emitter. C. At least 0.7 volts positive with respect to the emitter. D. At least 0.7 volts negative with respect to the emitter. 3-26C6 When an NPN transistor is operating as a Class A amplifier, the base-emitter junction: A. And collector-base junction are both forward biased. B. And collector-base junction are both reverse biased. C. Is reverse biased and the collector-base junction is forward biased. D. Is forward biased and the collector-base junction is reverse biased. Answer Key: 3-26C1: B 3-26C2: C 3-26C3: D 3-26C4: A 3-26C5: C 3-26C6: D 3-27C1 What type of bias is required for an LED to produce luminescence? A. Reverse bias. B. Forward bias. C. Logic 0 (Lo) bias. D. Logic 1 (Hi) bias. 3-27C2 What determines the visible color radiated by an LED junction? A. The color of a lens in an eyepiece. B. The amount of voltage across the device. C. The amount of current through the device. D. The materials used to construct the device. 3-27C3 What is the approximate operating current of a light-emitting diode? A. 20 mA. B. 5 mA. C. 10 mA. D. 400 mA. 3-27C4 What would be the maximum current to safely illuminate a LED? A. 1 amp. B. 1 microamp. C. 500 milliamps. D. 20 mA. 3-27C5 An LED facing a photodiode in a light-tight enclosure is commonly known as a/an: A. Optoisolator. B. Seven segment LED. C. Optointerrupter. D. Infra-red (IR) detector. 3-27C6 What circuit component must be connected in series to protect an LED? A. Bypass capacitor to ground. B. Electrolytic capacitor. C. Series resistor. D. Shunt coil in series. Answer Key: 3-27C1: B 3-27C2: D 3-27C3: A 3-27C4: D 3-27C5: A 3-27C6: C 3-28C1 What describes a diode junction that is forward biased? A. It is a high impedance. B. It conducts very little current. C. It is a low impedance. D. It is an open circuit. 3-28C2 Why are special precautions necessary in handling FET and CMOS devices? A. They have fragile leads that may break off. B. They are susceptible to damage from static charges. C. They have micro-welded semiconductor junctions that are susceptible to breakage. D. They are light sensitive. 3-28C3 What do the initials CMOS stand for? A. Common mode oscillating system. B. Complementary mica-oxide silicon. C. Complementary metal-oxide semiconductor. D. Complementary metal-oxide substrate. 3-28C4 What is the piezoelectric effect? A. Mechanical vibration of a crystal by the application of a voltage. B. Mechanical deformation of a crystal by the application of a magnetic field. C. The generation of electrical energy by the application of light. D. Reversed conduction states when a P-N junction is exposed to light. 3-28C5 An electrical relay is a: A. Current limiting device. B. Device used for supplying 3 or more voltages to a circuit. C. Component used mainly with HF audio amplifiers. D. Remotely controlled switching device. 3-28C6 In which oscillator circuit would you find a quartz crystal? A. Hartley. B. Pierce C. Colpitts. D. All of the above. Answer Key: 3-28C1: C 3-28C2: B 3-28C3: C 3-28C4: A 3-28C5: D 3-28C6: B 3-29D1 What is the approximate magnitude of the impedance of a parallel R-L-C circuit at resonance? A. Approximately equal to the circuit resistance. B. Approximately equal to XL. C. Low, as compared to the circuit resistance. D. Approximately equal to XC. 3-29D2 What is the approximate magnitude of the impedance of a series R-L-C circuit at resonance? A. High, as compared to the circuit resistance. B. Approximately equal to the circuit resistance. C. Approximately equal to XL. D. Approximately equal to XC. 3-29D3 How could voltage be greater across reactances in series than the applied voltage? A. Resistance. B. Conductance. C. Capacitance. D. Resonance. 3-29D4 What is the characteristic of the current flow in a series R-L-C circuit at resonance? A. Maximum. B. Minimum. C. DC. D. Zero. 3-29D5 What is the characteristic of the current flow within the parallel elements in a parallel R-L-C circuit at resonance? A. Minimum. B. Maximum. C. DC. D. Zero. 3-29D6 What is the relationship between current through a resonant circuit and the voltage across the circuit? A. The current and voltage are 180 degrees out of phase. B. The current leads the voltage by 90 degrees. C. The voltage and current are in phase. D. The voltage leads the current by 90 degrees. Answer Key: 3-29D1: A 3-29D2: B 3-29D3: D 3-29D4: A 3-29D5: B 3-29D6: C 3-30D1 What is the main advantage of using an op-amp audio filter over a passive LC audio filter? A. Op-amps are largely immune to vibration and temperature change. B. Most LC filter manufacturers have retooled to make op-amp filters. C. Op-amps are readily available in a wide variety of operational voltages and frequency ranges. D. Op-amps exhibit gain rather than insertion loss. 3-30D2 What are the characteristics of an inverting operational amplifier (op-amp) circuit? A. It has input and output signals in phase. B. Input and output signals are 90 degrees out of phase. C. It has input and output signals 180 degrees out of phase. D. Input impedance is low while the output impedance is high. 3-30D3 Gain of a closed-loop op-amp circuit is determined by? A. The maximum operating frequency divided by the square root of the load impedance. B. The op-amp’s external feedback network. C. Supply voltage and slew rate. D. The op-amp’s internal feedback network. 3-30D4 Where is the external feedback network connected to control the gain of a closed-loop op-amp circuit? A. Between the differential inputs. B. From output to the non-inverting input. C. From output to the inverting input. D. Between the output and the differential inputs. 3-30D5 Which of the following op-amp circuits is operated open-loop? A. Non-inverting amp. B. Inverting amp. C. Active filter. D. Comparator. 3-30D6 In the op-amp oscillator circuit shown in Figure 3D6, what would be the most noticeable effect if the capacitance of C were suddenly doubled? A. Frequency would be lower. B. Frequency would be higher. C. There would be no change. The inputs are reversed, therefore the circuit cannot function. D. None of the above. Answer Key: 3-30D1: D 3-30D2: C 3-30D3: B 3-30D4: C 3-30D5: D 3-30D6: A 3-31D1 What frequency synthesizer circuit uses a phase comparator, look-up table, digital-to-analog converter, and a low-pass antialias filter? A. A direct digital synthesizer. B. Phase-locked-loop synthesizer. C. A diode-switching matrix synthesizer. D. A hybrid synthesizer. 3-31D2 A circuit that compares the output of a voltage-controlled oscillator (VCO) to a frequency standard and produces an error voltage that is then used to adjust the capacitance of a varactor diode used to control frequency in that same VCO is called what? A. Doubly balanced mixer. B. Phase-locked loop. C. Differential voltage amplifier. D. Variable frequency oscillator. 3-31D3 RF input to a mixer is 200 MHz and the local oscillator frequency is 150 MHz. What output would you expect to see at the IF output prior to any filtering? A. 50, 150, 200 and 350 MHz. B. 50 MHz. C. 350 MHz. D. 50 and 350 MHz. 3-31D4 What spectral impurity components might be generated by a phase-locked-loop synthesizer? A. Spurs at discrete frequencies. B. Random spurs which gradually drift up in frequency. C. Broadband noise. D. Digital conversion noise. 3-31D5 In a direct digital synthesizer, what are the unwanted components on its output? A. Broadband noise. B. Spurs at discrete frequencies. C. Digital conversion noise. D. Nyquist limit noise pulses. 3-31D6 What is the definition of a phase-locked loop (PLL) circuit? A. A servo loop consisting of a ratio detector, reactance modulator, and voltage-controlled oscillator. B. A circuit also known as a monostable multivibrator. C. A circuit consisting of a precision push-pull amplifier with a differential input. D. A servo loop consisting of a phase detector, a low-pass filter and voltage-controlled oscillator. Answer Key: 3-31D1: A 3-31D2: B 3-31D3: A 3-31D4: C 3-31D5: B 3-31D6: D 3-32D1 Given the combined DC input voltages, what would the output voltage be in the circuit shown in Figure 3D7? A. 150 mV B. 5.5 V C. -15 mv D. -5.5 V 3-32D2 Which lamps would be lit in the circuit shown in Figure 3D8? A. 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6. B. 5, 6, 8 and 9. C. 2, 3, 4, 7 and 8. D. 1, 3, 5, 7 and 8. 3-32D3 What will occur if an amplifier input signal coupling capacitor fails open? A. No amplification will occur, with DC within the circuit measuring normal. B. Improper biasing will occur within the amplifier stage. C. Oscillation and thermal runaway may occur. D. An AC hum will appear on the circuit output. 3-32D4 In Figure 3D9, determine if there is a problem with this regulated power supply and identify the problem. A. R1 value is too low which would cause excessive base current and instantly destroy TR 1. B. D1 and D2 are reversed. The power supply simply would not function. C. TR1 is shown as an NPN and must be changed to a PNP. D. There is no problem with the circuit. 3-32D5 In Figure 3D10 with a square wave input what would be the output? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 3-32D6 With a pure AC signal input to the circuit shown in Figure 3D11, what output wave form would you expect to see on an oscilloscope display? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 Answer Key: 3-32D1: D 3-32D2: C 3-32D3: A 3-32D4: D 3-32D5: C 3-32D6: B 3-33E1 What is the voltage range considered to be valid logic low input in a TTL device operating at 5 volts? A. 2.0 to 5.5 volts. B. -2.0 to -5.5 volts. C. Zero to 0.8 volts. D. 5.2 to 34.8 volts. 3-33E2 What is the voltage range considered to be a valid logic high input in a TTL device operating at 5.0 volts? A. 2.0 to 5.5 volts. B. 1.5 to 3.0 volts. C. 1.0 to 1.5 volts. D. 5.2 to 34.8 volts. 3-33E3 What is the common power supply voltage for TTL series integrated circuits? A. 12 volts. B. 13.6 volts. C. 1 volt. D. 5 volts. 3-33E4 TTL inputs left open develop what logic state? A. A high-logic state. B. A low-logic state. C. Open inputs on a TTL device are ignored. D. Random high- and low-logic states. 3-33E5 Which of the following instruments would be best for checking a TTL logic circuit? A. VOM. B. DMM. C. Continuity tester. D. Logic probe. 3-33E6 What do the initials TTL stand for? A. Resistor-transistor logic. B. Transistor-transistor logic. C. Diode-transistor logic. D. Emitter-coupled logic. Answer Key: 3-33E1: C 3-33E2: A 3-33E3: D 3-33E4: A 3-33E5: D 3-33E6: B 3-34E1 What is a characteristic of an AND gate? A. Produces a logic “0” at its output only if all inputs are logic “1”. B. Produces a logic “1” at its output only if all inputs are logic “1”. C. Produces a logic “1” at its output if only one input is a logic “1”. D. Produces a logic “1” at its output if all inputs are logic “0”. 3-34E2 What is a characteristic of a NAND gate? A. Produces a logic “0” at its output only when all inputs are logic “0”. B. Produces a logic “1” at its output only when all inputs are logic “1”. C. Produces a logic “0” at its output if some but not all of its inputs are logic “1”. D. Produces a logic “0” at its output only when all inputs are logic “1”. 3-34E3 What is a characteristic of an OR gate? A. Produces a logic “1” at its output if any input is logic “1”. B. Produces a logic “0” at its output if any input is logic “1”. C. Produces a logic “0” at its output if all inputs are logic “1”. D. Produces a logic “1” at its output if all inputs are logic “0”. 3-34E4 What is a characteristic of a NOR gate? A. Produces a logic “0” at its output only if all inputs are logic “0”. B. Produces a logic “1” at its output only if all inputs are logic “1”. C. Produces a logic “0” at its output if any or all inputs are logic “1”. D. Produces a logic “1” at its output if some but not all of its inputs are logic “1”. 3-34E5 What is a characteristic of a NOT gate? A. Does not allow data transmission when its input is high. B. Produces a logic “0” at its output when the input is logic “1” and vice versa. C. Allows data transmission only when its input is high. D. Produces a logic "1" at its output when the input is logic "1" and vice versa. 3-34E6 Which of the following logic gates will provide an active high out when both inputs are active high? A. NAND. B. NOR. C. AND. D. XOR. Answer Key: 3-34E1: B 3-34E2: D 3-34E3: A 3-34E4: C 3-34E5: B 3-34E6: C 3-35E1 In a negative-logic circuit, what level is used to represent a logic 0? A. Low level. B. Positive-transition level. C. Negative-transition level. D. High level. 3-35E2 For the logic input levels shown in Figure 3E12, what are the logic levels of test points A, B and C in this circuit? (Assume positive logic.) A. A is high, B is low and C is low. B. A is low, B is high and C is high. C. A is high, B is high and C is low. D. A is low, B is high and C is low. 3-35E3 For the logic input levels given in Figure 3E13, what are the logic levels of test points A, B and C in this circuit? (Assume positive logic.) A. A is low, B is low and C is high. B. A is low, B is high and C is low. C. A is high, B is high and C is high. D. A is high, B is low and C is low. 3-35E4 In a positive-logic circuit, what level is used to represent a logic 1? A. High level B. Low level C. Positive-transition level D. Negative-transition level 3-35E5 Given the input levels shown in Figure 3E14 and assuming positive logic devices, what would the output be? A. A is low, B is high and C is high. B. A is high, B is high and C is low. C. A is low, B is low and C is high. D. None of the above are correct. 3-35E6 What is a truth table? A. A list of input combinations and their corresponding outputs that characterizes a digital device’s function. B. A table of logic symbols that indicate the high logic states of an op-amp. C. A diagram showing logic states when the digital device’s output is true. D. A table of logic symbols that indicates the low logic states of an op-amp. Answer Key: 3-35E1: D 3-35E2: B 3-35E3: C 3-35E4: A 3-35E5: A 3-35E6: A 3-36E1 A flip-flop circuit is a binary logic element with how many stable states? A. 1 B. 2 C. 4 D. 8 3-36E2 What is a flip-flop circuit? A binary sequential logic element with ___stable states. A. 1 B. 4 C. 2 D. 8 3-36E3 How many flip-flops are required to divide a signal frequency by 4? A. 1 B. 4 C. 8 D. 2 3-36E4 How many bits of information can be stored in a single flip-flop circuit? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 3-36E5 How many R-S flip-flops would be required to construct an 8 bit storage register? A. 2 B. 4 C. 8 D. 16 3-36E6 An R-S flip-flop is capable of doing all of the following except: A. Accept data input into R-S inputs with CLK initiated. B. Accept data input into PRE and CLR inputs without CLK being initiated. C. Refuse to accept synchronous data if asynchronous data is being input at same time. D. Operate in toggle mode with R-S inputs held constant and CLK initiated. Answer Key: 3-36E1: B 3-36E2: C 3-36E3: D 3-36E4: A 3-36E5: C 3-36E6: D 3-37E1 The frequency of an AC signal can be divided electronically by what type of digital circuit? A. Free-running multivibrator. B. Bistable multivibrator. C. OR gate. D. Astable multivibrator. 3-37E2 What is an astable multivibrator? A. A circuit that alternates between two stable states. B. A circuit that alternates between a stable state and an unstable state. C. A circuit set to block either a 0 pulse or a 1 pulse and pass the other. D. A circuit that alternates between two unstable states. 3-37E3 What is a monostable multivibrator? A. A circuit that can be switched momentarily to the opposite binary state and then returns after a set time to its original state. B. A “clock” circuit that produces a continuous square wave oscillating between 1 and 0. C. A circuit designed to store one bit of data in either the 0 or the 1 configuration. D. A circuit that maintains a constant output voltage, regardless of variations in the input voltage. 3-37E4 What is a bistable multivibrator circuit commonly named? A. AND gate. B. OR gate. C. Clock. D. Flip-flop. 3-37E5 What is a bistable multivibrator circuit? A. Flip-flop. B. AND gate. C. OR gate. D. Clock. 3-37E6 What wave form would appear on the voltage outputs at the collectors of an astable, multivibrator, common-emitter stage? A. Sine wave. B. Sawtooth wave. C. Square wave. D. Half-wave pulses. Answer Key: 3-37E1: B 3-37E2: D 3-37E3: A 3-37E4: D 3-37E5: A 3-37E6: C 3-38E1 What is the name of the semiconductor memory IC whose digital data can be written or read, and whose memory word address can be accessed randomly? A. ROM – Read-Only Memory. B. PROM – Programmable Read-Only Memory. C. RAM – Random-Access Memory. D. EPROM – Electrically Programmable Read-Only Memory. 3-38E2 What is the name of the semiconductor IC that has a fixed pattern of digital data stored in its memory matrix? A. RAM – Random-Access Memory. B. ROM – Read-Only Memory. C. Register. D. Latch. 3-38E3 What does the term “IO” mean within a microprocessor system? A. Integrated oscillator. B. Integer operation. C. Input-output. D. Internal operation. 3-38E4 What is the name for a microprocessor’s sequence of commands and instructions? A. Program. B. Sequence. C. Data string. D. Data execution. 3-38E5 How many individual memory cells would be contained in a memory IC that has 4 data bus input/output pins and 4 address pins for connection to the address bus? A. 8 B. 16 C. 32 D. 64 3-38E6 What is the name of the random-accessed semiconductor memory IC that must be refreshed periodically to maintain reliable data storage in its memory matrix? A. ROM – Read-Only Memory. B. DRAM – Dynamic Random-Access Memory. C. PROM – Programmable Read-Only Memory. D. PRAM – Programmable Random-Access Memory. Answer Key: 3-38E1: C 3-38E2: B 3-38E3: C 3-38E4: A 3-38E5: D 3-38E6: B 3-39E1 In a microprocessor-controlled two-way radio, a “watchdog” timer: A. Verifies that the microprocessor is executing the program. B. Assures that the transmission is exactly on frequency. C. Prevents the transmitter from exceeding allowed power out. D. Connects to the system RADAR presentation. 3-39E2 What does the term “DAC” refer to in a microprocessor circuit? A. Dynamic access controller. B. Digital to analog converter. C. Digital access counter. D. Dial analog control. 3-39E3 Which of the following is not part of a MCU processor? A. RAM B. ROM C. I/O D. Voltage Regulator 3-39E4 What portion of a microprocessor circuit is the pulse generator? A. Clock B. RAM C. ROM D. PLL 3-39E5 In a microprocessor, what is the meaning of the term “ALU”? A. Automatic lock/unlock. B. Arithmetical logic unit. C. Auto latch undo. D. Answer local unit. 3-39E6 What circuit interconnects the microprocessor with the memory and input/output system? A. Control logic bus. B. PLL line. C. Data bus line. D. Directional coupler. Answer Key: 3-39E1: A 3-39E2: B 3-39E3: D 3-39E4: A 3-39E5: B 3-39E6: C 3-40E1 What is the purpose of a prescaler circuit? A. Converts the output of a JK flip-flop to that of an RS flip-flop. B. Multiplies an HF signal so a low-frequency counter can display the operating frequency. C. Prevents oscillation in a low frequency counter circuit. D. Divides an HF signal so that a low-frequency counter can display the operating frequency. 3-40E2 What does the term “BCD” mean? A. Binaural coded digit. B. Bit count decimal. C. Binary coded decimal. D. Broad course digit. 3-40E3 What is the function of a decade counter digital IC? A. Decode a decimal number for display on a seven-segment LED display. B. Produce one output pulse for every ten input pulses. C. Produce ten output pulses for every input pulse. D. Add two decimal numbers. 3-40E4 What integrated circuit device converts an analog signal to a digital signal? A. DAC B. DCC C. ADC D. CDC 3-40E5 What integrated circuit device converts digital signals to analog signals? A. ADC B. DCC C. CDC D. DAC 3-40E6 In binary numbers, how would you note the quantity TWO? A. 0010 B. 0002 C. 2000 D. 0020 Answer Key: 3-40E1: D 3-40E2: C 3-40E3: B 3-40E4: C 3-40E5: D 3-40E6: A 3-41F1 What is the limiting condition for sensitivity in a communications receiver? A. The noise floor of the receiver. B. The power supply output ripple. C. The two-tone intermodulation distortion. D. The input impedance to the detector. 3-41F2 What is the definition of the term “receiver desensitizing”? A. A burst of noise when the squelch is set too low. B. A reduction in receiver sensitivity because of a strong signal on a nearby frequency. C. A burst of noise when the squelch is set too high. D. A reduction in receiver sensitivity when the AF gain control is turned down. 3-41F3 What is the term used to refer to a reduction in receiver sensitivity caused by unwanted high-level adjacent channel signals? A. Desensitizing. B. Intermodulation distortion. C. Quieting. D. Overloading. 3-41F4 What is meant by the term noise figure of a communications receiver? A. The level of noise entering the receiver from the antenna. B. The relative strength of a received signal 3 kHz removed from the carrier frequency. C. The level of noise generated in the front end and succeeding stages of a receiver. D. The ability of a receiver to reject unwanted signals at frequencies close to the desired one. 3-41F5 Which stage of a receiver primarily establishes its noise figure? A. The audio stage. B. The RF stage. C. The IF strip. D. The local oscillator. 3-41F6 What is the term for the ratio between the largest tolerable receiver input signal and the minimum discernible signal? A. Intermodulation distortion. B. Noise floor. C. Noise figure. D. Dynamic range. Answer Key: 3-41F1: A 3-41F2: B 3-41F3: A 3-41F4: C 3-41F5: B 3-41F6: D 3-42F1 How can selectivity be achieved in the front-end circuitry of a communications receiver? A. By using an audio filter. B. By using an additional RF amplifier stage. C. By using an additional IF amplifier stage. D. By using a preselector. 3-42F2 What is the primary purpose of an RF amplifier in a receiver? A. To provide most of the receiver gain. B. To vary the receiver image rejection by utilizing the AGC. C. To improve the receiver’s noise figure. D. To develop the AGC voltage. 3-42F3 How much gain should be used in the RF amplifier stage of a receiver? A. Sufficient gain to allow weak signals to overcome noise generated in the first mixer stage. B. As much gain as possible short of self oscillation. C. Sufficient gain to keep weak signals below the noise of the first mixer stage. D. It depends on the amplification factor of the first IF stage. 3-42F4 Too much gain in a VHF receiver front end could result in this: A. Local signals become weaker. B. Difficult to match receiver impedances. C. Dramatic increase in receiver current. D. Susceptibility of intermodulation interference from nearby transmitters. 3-42F5 What is the advantage of a GaAsFET preamplifier in a modern VHF radio receiver? A. Increased selectivity and flat gain. B. Low gain but high selectivity. C. High gain and low noise floor. D. High gain with high noise floor. 3-42F6 In what stage of a VHF receiver would a low noise amplifier be most advantageous? A. IF stage. B. Front end RF stage. C. Audio stage. D. Power supply. Answer Key: 3-42F1: D 3-42F2: C 3-42F3: A 3-42F4: D 3-42F5: C 3-42F6: B 3-43F1 Why is the Colpitts oscillator circuit commonly used in a VFO (variable frequency oscillator)? A. It can be phase locked. B. It can be remotely tuned. C. It is stable. D. It has little or no effect on the crystal’s stability. 3-43F2 What is the oscillator stage called in a frequency synthesizer? A. VCO. B. Divider. C. Phase detector. D. Reference standard. 3-43F3 What are three major oscillator circuits found in radio equipment? A. Taft, Pierce, and negative feedback. B. Colpitts, Hartley, and Taft. C. Taft, Hartley, and Pierce. D. Colpitts, Hartley, and Pierce. 3-43F4 Which type of oscillator circuit is commonly used in a VFO (variable frequency oscillator)? A. Colpitts. B. Pierce. C. Hartley. D. Negative feedback. 3-43F5 What condition must exist for a circuit to oscillate? It must: A. Have a gain of less than 1. B. Be neutralized. C. Have sufficient negative feedback. D. Have sufficient positive feedback. 3-43F6 In Figure 3F15, which block diagram symbol (labeled 1 through 4) is used to represent a local oscillator? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 Answer Key: 3-43F1: C 3-43F2: A 3-43F3: D 3-43F4: A 3-43F5: D 3-43F6: B 3-44F1 What is the image frequency if the normal channel is 151.000 MHz, the IF is operating at 11.000 MHz, and the LO is at 140.000 MHz? A. 131.000 MHz. B. 129.000 MHz. C. 162.000 MHz. D. 150.000 MHz. 3-44F2 What is the mixing process in a radio receiver? A. The elimination of noise in a wideband receiver by phase comparison. B. The elimination of noise in a wideband receiver by phase differentiation. C. Distortion caused by auroral propagation. D. The combination of two signals to produce sum and difference frequencies. 3-44F3 In what radio stage is the image frequency normally rejected? A. RF. B. IF. C. LO. D. Detector. 3-44F4 What are the principal frequencies that appear at the output of a mixer circuit? A. Two and four times the original frequency. B. The sum, difference and square root of the input frequencies. C. The original frequencies and the sum and difference frequencies. D. 1.414 and 0.707 times the input frequency. 3-44F5 If a receiver mixes a 13.8 MHz VFO with a 14.255 MHz receive signal to produce a 455 kHz intermediate frequency signal, what type of interference will a 13.345 MHz signal produce in the receiver? A. Local oscillator interference. B. An image response. C. Mixer interference. D. Intermediate frequency interference. 3-44F6 What might occur in a receiver if excessive amounts of signal energy overdrive the mixer circuit? A. Automatic limiting occurs. B. Mixer blanking occurs. C. Spurious mixer products are generated. D. The mixer circuit becomes unstable and drifts. Answer Key: 3-44F1: B 3-44F2: D 3-44F3: A 3-44F4: C 3-44F5: B 3-44F6: C 3-45F1 What degree of selectivity is desirable in the IF circuitry of a wideband FM phone receiver? A. 1 kHz. B. 2.4 kHz. C. 4.2 kHz. D. 15 kHz. 3-45F2 Which one of these filters can be used in micro-miniature electronic circuits? A. High power transmitter cavity. B. Receiver SAW IF filter. C. Floppy disk controller. D. Internet DSL to telephone line filter. 3-45F3 A receiver selectivity of 2.4 kHz in the IF circuitry is optimum for what type of signals? A. CW. B. Double-sideband AM voice. C. SSB voice. D. FSK RTTY. 3-45F4 A receiver selectivity of 10 KHz in the IF circuitry is optimum for what type of signals? A. Double-sideband AM. B. SSB voice. C. CW. D. FSK RTTY. 3-45F5 What is an undesirable effect of using too wide a filter bandwidth in the IF section of a receiver? A. Output-offset overshoot. B. Undesired signals will reach the audio stage. C. Thermal-noise distortion. D. Filter ringing. 3-45F6 How should the filter bandwidth of a receiver IF section compare with the bandwidth of a received signal? A. Slightly greater than the received-signal bandwidth. B. Approximately half the received-signal bandwidth. C. Approximately two times the received-signal bandwidth. D. Approximately four times the received-signal bandwidth. Answer Key: 3-45F1: D 3-45F2: B 3-45F3: C 3-45F4: A 3-45F5: B 3-45F6: A 3-46F1 What is the primary purpose of the final IF amplifier stage in a receiver? A. Dynamic response. B. Gain. C. Noise figure performance. D. Bypass undesired signals. 3-46F2 What factors should be considered when selecting an intermediate frequency? A. Cross-modulation distortion and interference. B. Interference to other services. C. Image rejection and selectivity. D. Noise figure and distortion. 3-46F3 What is the primary purpose of the first IF amplifier stage in a receiver? A. Noise figure performance. B. Tune out cross-modulation distortion. C. Dynamic response. D. Selectivity. 3-46F4 What parameter must be selected when designing an audio filter using an op-amp? A. Bandpass characteristics. B. Desired current gain. C. Temperature coefficient. D. Output-offset overshoot. 3-46F5 What are the distinguishing features of a Chebyshev filter? A. It has a maximally flat response over its passband. B. It only requires inductors. C. It allows ripple in the passband. D. A filter whose product of the series- and shunt-element impedances is a constant for all frequencies. 3-46F6 When would it be more desirable to use an m-derived filter over a constant-k filter? A. When the response must be maximally flat at one frequency. B. When the number of components must be minimized. C. When high power levels must be filtered. D. When you need more attenuation at a certain frequency that is too close to the cut-off frequency for a constant-k filter. Answer Key: 3-46F1: B 3-46F2: C 3-46F3: D 3-46F4: A 3-46F5: C 3-46F6: D 3-47F1 A good crystal band-pass filter for a single-sideband phone would be? A. 5 KHz. B. 2.1 KHz. C. 500 Hz. D. 15 KHz. 3-47F2 Which statement is true regarding the filter output characteristics shown in Figure 3F16? A. C is a low pass curve and B is a band pass curve. B. B is a high pass curve and D is a low pass curve. C. A is a high pass curve and B is a low pass curve. D. A is a low pass curve and D is a band stop curve. 3-47F3 What are the three general groupings of filters? A. High-pass, low-pass and band-pass. B. Inductive, capacitive and resistive. C. Audio, radio and capacitive. D. Hartley, Colpitts and Pierce. 3-47F4 What is an m-derived filter? A. A filter whose input impedance varies widely over the design bandwidth. B. A filter whose product of the series- and shunt-element impedances is a constant for all frequencies. C. A filter whose schematic shape is the letter “M”. D. A filter that uses a trap to attenuate undesired frequencies too near cutoff for a constant-k filter. 3-47F5 What is an advantage of a constant-k filter? A. It has high attenuation of signals at frequencies far removed from the pass band. B. It can match impedances over a wide range of frequencies. C. It uses elliptic functions. D. The ratio of the cutoff frequency to the trap frequency can be varied. 3-47F6 What are the distinguishing features of a Butterworth filter? A. A filter whose product of the series- and shunt-element impedances is a constant for all frequencies. B. It only requires capacitors. C. It has a maximally flat response over its passband. D. It requires only inductors. Answer Key: 3-47F1: B 3-47F2: D 3-47F3: A 3-47F4: D 3-47F5: A 3-47F6: C 3-48F1 What is a product detector? A. It provides local oscillations for input to the mixer. B. It amplifies and narrows the band-pass frequencies. C. It uses a mixing process with a locally generated carrier. D. It is used to detect cross-modulation products. 3-48F2 Which circuit is used to detect FM-phone signals? A. Balanced modulator. B. Frequency discriminator. C. Product detector. D. Phase splitter. 3-48F3 What is the process of detection in a radio diode detector circuit? A. Breakdown of the Zener voltage. B. Mixing with noise in the transition region of the diode. C. Rectification and filtering of RF. D. The change of reactance in the diode with respect to frequency. 3-48F4 What is a frequency discriminator in a radio receiver? A. A circuit for detecting FM signals. B. A circuit for filtering two closely adjacent signals. C. An automatic band switching circuit. D. An FM generator. 3-48F5 In a CTCSS controlled FM receiver, the CTCSS tone is filtered out after the: A. IF stage but before the mixer. B. Mixer but before the IF. C. IF but before the discriminator. D. Discriminator but before the audio section. 3-48F6 What is the definition of detection in a radio receiver? A. The process of masking out the intelligence on a received carrier to make an S-meter operational. B. The recovery of intelligence from the modulated RF signal. C. The modulation of a carrier. D. The mixing of noise with the received signal. Answer Key: 3-48F1: C 3-48F2: B 3-48F3: C 3-48F4: A 3-48F5: D 3-48F6: B 3-49F1 What is the digital signal processing term for noise subtraction circuitry? A. Adaptive filtering and autocorrelation. B. Noise blanking. C. Noise limiting. D. Auto squelch noise reduction. 3-49F2 What is the purpose of de-emphasis in the receiver audio stage? A. When coupled with the transmitter pre-emphasis, flat audio is achieved. B. When coupled with the transmitter pre-emphasis, flat audio and noise reduction is received. C. No purpose is achieved. D. To conserve bandwidth by squelching no-audio periods in the transmission. 3-49F3 What makes a Digital Coded Squelch work? A. Noise. B. Tones. C. Absence of noise. D. Digital codes. 3-49F4 What causes a squelch circuit to function? A. Presence of noise. B. Absence of noise. C. Received tones. D. Received digital codes. 3-49F5 What makes a CTCSS squelch work? A. Noise. B. Tones. C. Absence of noise. D. Digital codes. 3-49F6 What radio circuit samples analog signals, records and processes them as numbers, then converts them back to analog signals? A. The pre-emphasis audio stage. B. The squelch gate circuit. C. The digital signal processing circuit. D. The voltage controlled oscillator circuit. Answer Key: 3-49F1: A 3-49F2: B 3-49F3: D 3-49F4: A 3-49F5: B 3-49F6: C 3-50F1 Where would you normally find a low-pass filter in a radio receiver? A. In the AVC circuit. B. In the Oscillator stage. C. In the Power Supply. D. A and C, but not B. 3-50F2 How can ferrite beads be used to suppress ignition noise? Install them: A. In the resistive high voltage cable every 2 years. B. Between the starter solenoid and the starter motor. C. Install them in the primary and secondary ignition leads. D. In the antenna lead. 3-50F3 What is the term used to refer to the condition where the signals from a very strong station are superimposed on other signals being received? A. Intermodulation distortion. B. Cross-modulation interference. C. Receiver quieting. D. Capture effect. 3-50F4 What is cross-modulation interference? A. Interference between two transmitters of different modulation type. B. Interference caused by audio rectification in the receiver preamp. C. Modulation from an unwanted signal heard in addition to the desired signal. D. Harmonic distortion of the transmitted signal. 3-50F5 In Figure 3F15 at what point in the circuit (labeled 1 through 4) could a DC voltmeter be used to monitor signal strength? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 3-50F6 Pulse type interference to automobile radio receivers that appears related to the speed of the engine can often be reduced by: A. Installing resistances in series with spark plug wires. B. Using heavy conductors between the starting battery and the starting motor. C. Connecting resistances in series with the battery. D. Grounding the negative side of the battery. Answer Key: 3-50F1: D 3-50F2: C 3-50F3: B 3-50F4: C 3-50F5: D 3-50F6: A 3-51G1 What class of amplifier is distinguished by the presence of output throughout the entire signal cycle and the input never goes into the cutoff region? A. Class A. B. Class B. C. Class C. D. Class D. 3-51G2 What is the distinguishing feature of a Class A amplifier? A. Output for less than 180 degrees of the signal cycle. B. Output for the entire 360 degrees of the signal cycle. C. Output for more than 180 degrees and less than 360 degrees of the signal cycle. D. Output for exactly 180 degrees of the input signal cycle. 3-51G3 Which class of amplifier has the highest linearity and least distortion? A. Class A. B. Class B. C. Class C. D. Class AB. 3-51G4 Which class of amplifier provides the highest efficiency? A. Class A. B. Class B. C. Class C. D. Class AB. 3-51G5 What class of amplifier is distinguished by the bias being set well beyond cutoff? A. Class A. B. Class C. C. Class B. D. Class AB. 3-51G6 Which class of amplifier has an operating angle of more than 180 degrees but less than 360 degrees when driven by a sine wave signal? A. Class A. B. Class B. C. Class C. D. Class AB. Answer Key: 3-51G1: A 3-51G2: B 3-51G3: A 3-51G4: C 3-51G5: B 3-51G6: D 3-52G1 The class B amplifier output is present for what portion of the input cycle? A. 360 degrees. B. Greater than 180 degrees and less than 360 degrees. C. Less than 180 degrees. D. 180 degrees. 3-52G2 What input-amplitude parameter is most valuable in evaluating the signal-handling capability of a Class A amplifier? A. Average voltage. B. RMS voltage. C. Peak voltage. D. Resting voltage. 3-52G3 The class C amplifier output is present for what portion of the input cycle? A. Less than 180 degrees. B. Exactly 180 degrees. C. 360 degrees. D. More than 180 but less than 360 degrees. 3-52G4 What is the approximate DC input power to a Class AB RF power amplifier stage in an unmodulated carrier transmitter when the PEP output power is 500 watts? A. 250 watts. B. 600 watts. C. 800 watts. D. 1000 watts. 3-52G5 The class AB amplifier output is present for what portion of the input cycle? A. Exactly 180 degrees. B. 360 degrees C. More than 180 but less than 360 degrees. D. Less than 180 degrees. 3-52G6 What class of amplifier is characterized by conduction for 180 degrees of the input wave? A. Class A. B. Class B. C. Class C. D. Class D. Answer Key: 3-52G1: D 3-52G2: C 3-52G3: A 3-52G4: D 3-52G5: C 3-52G6: B 3-53G1 What is the modulation index in an FM phone signal having a maximum frequency deviation of 3,000 Hz on either side of the carrier frequency when the modulating frequency is 1,000 Hz? A. 0.3 B. 3,000 C. 3 D. 1,000 3-53G2 What is the modulation index of a FM phone transmitter producing a maximum carrier deviation of 6 kHz when modulated with a 2 kHz modulating frequency? A. 3 B. 6,000 C. 2,000 D. 1 3-53G3 What is the total bandwidth of a FM phone transmission having a 5 kHz deviation and a 3 kHz modulating frequency? A. 3 kHz. B. 8 kHz. C. 5 kHz. D. 16 kHz. 3-53G4 How does the modulation index of a phase-modulated emission vary with RF carrier frequency? A. It does not depend on the RF carrier frequency. B. Modulation index increases as the RF carrier frequency increases. C. It varies with the square root of the RF carrier frequency. D. It decreases as the RF carrier frequency increases. 3-53G5 How can a single-sideband phone signal be generated? A. By driving a product detector with a DSB signal. B. By using a reactance modulator followed by a mixer. C. By using a loop modulator followed by a mixer. D. By using a balanced modulator followed by a filter. 3-53G6 What is a balanced modulator? A. An FM modulator that produces a balanced deviation. B. A modulator that produces a double sideband, suppressed carrier signal. C. A modulator that produces a single sideband, suppressed carrier signal. D. A modulator that produces a full carrier signal. Answer Key: 3-53G1: C 3-53G2: A 3-53G3: D 3-53G4: A 3-53G5: D 3-53G6: B 3-54G1 What is an L-network? A. A low power Wi-Fi RF network connection. B. A network consisting of an inductor and a capacitor. C. A “lossy” network. D. A network formed by joining two low pass filters. 3-54G2 What is a pi-network? A. A network consisting of a capacitor, resistor and inductor. B. The Phase inversion stage. C. An enhanced token ring network. D. A network consisting of one inductor and two capacitors or two inductors and one capacitor. 3-54G3 What is the resonant frequency in an electrical circuit? A. The frequency at which capacitive reactance equals inductive reactance. B. The highest frequency that will pass current. C. The lowest frequency that will pass current. D. The frequency at which power factor is at a minimum. 3-54G4 Which three network types are commonly used to match an amplifying device to a transmission line? A. Pi-C network, pi network and T network. B. T network, M network and Z network. C. L network, pi network and pi-L network. D. L network, pi network and C network. 3-54G5 What is a pi-L network? A. A Phase Inverter Load network. B. A network consisting of two inductors and two capacitors. C. A network with only three discrete parts. D. A matching network in which all components are isolated from ground. 3-54G6 Which network provides the greatest harmonic suppression? A. L network. B. Pi network. C. Pi-L network. D. Inverse L network. Answer Key: 3-54G1: B 3-54G2: D 3-54G3: A 3-54G4: C 3-54G5: B 3-54G6: C 3-55G1 What will occur when a non-linear amplifier is used with a single-sideband phone transmitter? A. Reduced amplifier efficiency. B. Increased intelligibility. C. Sideband inversion. D. Distortion. 3-55G2 To produce a single-sideband suppressed carrier transmission it is necessary to ____ the carrier and to ____ the unwanted sideband. A. Filter, filter. B. Cancel, filter. C. Filter, cancel. D. Cancel, cancel. 3-55G3 In a single-sideband phone signal, what determines the PEP-to-average power ratio? A. The frequency of the modulating signal. B. The degree of carrier suppression. C. The speech characteristics. D. The amplifier power. 3-55G4 What is the approximate ratio of peak envelope power to average power during normal voice modulation peak in a single-sideband phone signal? A. 2.5 to 1. B. 1 to 1. C. 25 to 1. D. 100 to 1. 3-55G5 What is the output peak envelope power from a transmitter as measured on an oscilloscope showing 200 volts peak-to-peak across a 50-ohm load resistor? A. 1,000 watts. B. 100 watts. C. 200 watts. D. 400 watts. 3-55G6 What would be the voltage across a 50-ohm dummy load dissipating 1,200 watts? A. 245 volts. B. 692 volts. C. 346 volts. D. 173 volts. Answer Key: 3-55G1: D 3-55G2: B 3-55G3: C 3-55G4: A 3-55G5: B 3-55G6: A 3-56G1 How can intermodulation interference between two transmitters in close proximity often be reduced or eliminated? A. By using a Class C final amplifier with high driving power. B. By installing a terminated circulator or ferrite isolator in the feed line to the transmitter and duplexer. C. By installing a band-pass filter in the antenna feed line. D. By installing a low-pass filter in the antenna feed line. 3-56G2 How can parasitic oscillations be eliminated in a power amplifier? A. By tuning for maximum SWR. B. By tuning for maximum power output. C. By neutralization. D. By tuning the output. 3-56G3 What is the name of the condition that occurs when the signals of two transmitters in close proximity mix together in one or both of their final amplifiers, and unwanted signals at the sum and difference frequencies of the original transmissions are generated? A. Amplifier desensitization. B. Neutralization. C. Adjacent channel interference. D. Intermodulation interference. 3-56G4 What term describes a wide-bandwidth communications system in which the RF carrier varies according to some pre-determined sequence? A. Spread-spectrum communication. B. AMTOR. C. SITOR. D. Time-domain frequency modulation. 3-56G5 How can even-order harmonics be reduced or prevented in transmitter amplifier design? A. By using a push-push amplifier. B. By operating class C. C. By using a push-pull amplifier. D. By operating class AB. 3-56G6 What is the modulation type that can be a frequency hopping of one carrier or multiple simultaneous carriers? A. SSB. B. FM. C. OFSK. D. Spread spectrum. Answer Key: 3-56G1: B 3-56G2: C 3-56G3: D 3-56G4: A 3-56G5: C 3-56G6: D 3-57H1 The deviation ratio is the: A. Audio modulating frequency to the center carrier frequency. B. Maximum carrier frequency deviation to the highest audio modulating frequency. C. Carrier center frequency to the audio modulating frequency. D. Highest audio modulating frequency to the average audio modulating frequency. 3-57H2 What is the deviation ratio for an FM phone signal having a maximum frequency deviation of plus or minus 5 kHz and accepting a maximum modulation rate of 3 kHz? A. 60 B. 0.16 C. 0.6 D. 1.66 3-57H3 What is the deviation ratio of an FM-phone signal having a maximum frequency swing of plus or minus 7.5 kHz and accepting a maximum modulation rate of 3.5 kHz? A. 2.14 B. 0.214 C. 0.47 D. 47 3-57H4 How can an FM-phone signal be produced in a transmitter? A. By modulating the supply voltage to a class-B amplifier. B. By modulating the supply voltage to a class-C amplifier. C. By using a balanced modulator. D. By feeding the audio directly to the oscillator. 3-57H5 What is meant by the term modulation index? A. The ratio between the deviation of a frequency modulated signal and the modulating frequency. B. The processor index. C. The FM signal-to-noise ratio. D. The ratio of the maximum carrier frequency deviation to the highest audio modulating frequency. 3-57H6 In an FM-phone signal, what is the term for the maximum deviation from the carrier frequency divided by the maximum audio modulating frequency? A. Deviation index. B. Modulation index. C. Deviation ratio. D. Modulation ratio. Answer Key: 3-57H1: B 3-57H2: D 3-57H3: A 3-57H4: D 3-57H5: A 3-57H6: C 3-58H1 In Figure 3H17, the block labeled 4 would indicate that this schematic is most likely a/an: A. Audio amplifier. B. Shipboard RADAR. C. SSB radio transmitter. D. Wireless LAN (local area network) computer. 3-58H2 In Figure 3H17, which block diagram symbol (labeled 1 through 4) represents where audio intelligence is inserted? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 3-58H3 What kind of input signal could be used to test the amplitude linearity of a single-sideband phone transmitter while viewing the output on an oscilloscope? A. Whistling in the microphone. B. An audio frequency sine wave. C. A two-tone audio-frequency sine wave. D. An audio frequency square wave. 3-58H4 What does a two-tone test illustrate on an oscilloscope? A. Linearity of a SSB transmitter. B. Frequency of the carrier phase shift. C. Percentage of frequency modulation. D. Sideband suppression. 3-58H5 How can a double-sideband phone signal be produced? A. By using a reactance modulator. B. By varying the voltage to the varactor in an oscillator circuit. C. By using a phase detector, oscillator, and filter in a feedback loop. D. By modulating the supply voltage to a class C amplifier. 3-58H6 What type of signals are used to conduct an SSB two-tone test? A. Two audio signals of the same frequency, but shifted 90 degrees in phase. B. Two non-harmonically related audio signals that are within the modulation band pass of the transmitter. C. Two different audio frequency square wave signals of equal amplitude. D. Any two audio frequencies as long as they are harmonically related. Answer Key: 3-58H1: C 3-58H2: B 3-58H3: C 3-58H4: A 3-58H5: D 3-58H6: B 3-59H1 What is an important factor in pulse-code modulation using time-division multiplex? A. Synchronization of transmit and receive clock pulse rates. B. Frequency separation. C. Overmodulation and undermodulation. D. Slight variations in power supply voltage. 3-59H2 In a pulse-width modulation system, what parameter does the modulating signal vary? A. Pulse frequency. B. Pulse duration. C. Pulse amplitude. D. Pulse intensity. 3-59H3 What is the name of the type of modulation in which the modulating signal varies the duration of the transmitted pulse? A. Amplitude modulation. B. Frequency modulation. C. Pulse-height modulation. D. Pulse-width modulation. 3-59H4 Which of the following best describes a pulse modulation system? A. The peak transmitter power is normally much greater than the average power. B. Pulse modulation is sometimes used in SSB voice transmitters. C. The average power is normally only slightly below the peak power. D. The peak power is normally twice as high as the average power. 3-59H5 In a pulse-position modulation system, what parameter does the modulating signal vary? A. The number of pulses per second. B. The time at which each pulse occurs. C. Both the frequency and amplitude of the pulses. D. The duration of the pulses. 3-59H6 What is one way that voice is transmitted in a pulse-width modulation system? A. A standard pulse is varied in amplitude by an amount depending on the voice waveform at that instant. B. The position of a standard pulse is varied by an amount depending on the voice waveform at that instant. C. A standard pulse is varied in duration by an amount depending on the voice waveform at that instant. D. The number of standard pulses per second varies depending on the voice waveform at that instant. Answer Key: 3-59H1: A 3-59H2: B 3-59H3: D 3-59H4: A 3-59H5: B 3-59H6: C 3-60I1 When a lead-acid storage battery is being charged, a harmful effect to humans is: A. Internal plate sulfation may occur under constant charging. B. Emission of oxygen. C. Emission of chlorine gas. D. Emission of hydrogen gas. 3-60I2 A battery with a terminal voltage of 12.5 volts is to be trickle-charged at a 0.5 A rate. What resistance should be connected in series with the battery to charge it from a 110-V DC line? A. 95 ohms. B. 300 ohms. C. 195 ohms. D. None of these. 3-60I3 What capacity in amperes does a storage battery need to be in order to operate a 50 watt transmitter for 6 hours? Assume a continuous transmitter load of 70% of the key-locked demand of 40 A, and an emergency light load of 1.5 A. A. 100 ampere-hours. B. 177 ampere-hours. C. 249 ampere-hours. D. None of these. 3-60I4 What is the total voltage when 12 Nickel-Cadmium batteries are connected in series? A. 12 volts. B. 12.6 volts. C. 15 volts. D. 72 volts. 3-60I5 The average fully-charged voltage of a lead-acid storage cell is: A. 1 volt. B. 1.2 volts. C. 1.56 volts. D. 2.06 volts. 3-60I6 A nickel-cadmium cell has an operating voltage of about: A. 1.25 volts. B. 1.4 volts. C. 1.5 volts. D. 2.1 volts. Answer Key: 3-60I1: D 3-60I2: C 3-60I3: B 3-60I4: C 3-60I5: D 3-60I6: A 3-61I1 When an emergency transmitter uses 325 watts and a receiver uses 50 watts, how many hours can a 12.6 volt, 55 ampere-hour battery supply full power to both units? A. 1.8 hours. B. 6 hours. C. 3 hours. D. 1.2 hours. 3-61I2 What current will flow in a 6 volt storage battery with an internal resistance of 0.01 ohms, when a 3-watt, 6-volt lamp is connected? A. 0.4885 amps. B. 0.4995 amps. C. 0.5566 amps. D. 0.5795 amps. 3-61I3 A ship RADAR unit uses 315 watts and a radio uses 50 watts. If the equipment is connected to a 50 ampere-hour battery rated at 12.6 volts, how long will the battery last? A. 1 hour 43 minutes. B. 28.97 hours. C. 29 minutes. D. 10 hours, 50 minutes. 3-61I4 If a marine radiotelephone receiver uses 75 watts of power and a transmitter uses 325 watts, how long can they both operate before discharging a 50 ampere-hour 12 volt battery? A. 40 minutes. B. 1 hour. C. 1 1/2 hours. D. 6 hours. 3-61I5 A 6 volt battery with 1.2 ohms internal resistance is connected across two light bulbs in parallel whose resistance is 12 ohms each. What is the current flow? A. 0.57 amps. B. 0.83 amps. C. 1.0 amps. D. 6.0 amps. 3-61I6 A 12.6 volt, 8 ampere-hour battery is supplying power to a receiver that uses 50 watts and a RADAR system that uses 300 watts. How long will the battery last? A. 100.8 hours. B. 27.7 hours. C. 1 hour. D. 17 minutes or 0.3 hours. Answer Key: 3-61I1: A 3-61I2: B 3-61I3: A 3-61I4: C 3-61I5: B 3-61I6: D 3-62I1 What occurs if the load is removed from an operating series DC motor? A. It will stop running. B. Speed will increase slightly. C. No change occurs. D. It will accelerate until it falls apart. 3-62I2 If a shunt motor running with a load has its shunt field opened, how would this affect the speed of the motor? A. It will slow down. B. It will stop suddenly. C. It will speed up. D. It will be unaffected. 3-62I3 The expression “voltage regulation” as it applies to a shunt-wound DC generator operating at a constant frequency refers to: A. Voltage fluctuations from load to no-load. B. Voltage output efficiency. C. Voltage in the secondary compared to the primary. D. Rotor winding voltage ratio 3-62I4 What is the line current of a 7 horsepower motor operating on 120 volts at full load, a power factor of 0.8, and 95% efficient? A. 4.72 amps. B. 13.03 amps. C. 56 amps. D. 57.2 amps. 3-62I5 A 3 horsepower, 100 V DC motor is 85% efficient when developing its rated output. What is the current? A. 8.545 amps. B. 20.345 amps. C. 26.300 amps. D. 25.000 amps. 3-62I6 The output of a separately-excited AC generator running at a constant speed can be controlled by: A. The armature. B. The amount of field current. C. The brushes. D. The exciter. Answer Key: 3-62I1: D 3-62I2: C 3-62I3: A 3-62I4: D 3-62I5: C 3-62I6: B 3-63J1 Which of the following could cause a high standing wave ratio on a transmission line? A. Excessive modulation. B. An increase in output power. C. A detuned antenna coupler. D. Low power from the transmitter. 3-63J2 Why is the value of the radiation resistance of an antenna important? A. Knowing the radiation resistance makes it possible to match impedances for maximum power transfer. B. Knowing the radiation resistance makes it possible to measure the near-field radiation density from transmitting antenna. C. The value of the radiation resistance represents the front-to-side ratio of the antenna. D. The value of the radiation resistance represents the front-to-back ratio of the antenna. 3-63J3 A radio frequency device that allows RF energy to pass through in one direction with very little loss but absorbs RF power in the opposite direction is a: A. Circulator. B. Wave trap. C. Multiplexer. D. Isolator. 3-63J4 What is an advantage of using a trap antenna? A. It may be used for multiband operation. B. It has high directivity in the high-frequency bands. C. It has high gain. D. It minimizes harmonic radiation. 3-63J5 What is meant by the term radiation resistance of an antenna? A. Losses in the antenna elements and feed line. B. The specific impedance of the antenna. C. The resistance in the trap coils to received signals. D. An equivalent resistance that would dissipate the same amount of power as that radiated from an antenna. 3-63J6 What is meant by the term antenna bandwidth? A. Antenna length divided by the number of elements. B. The frequency range over which an antenna can be expected to perform well. C. The angle between the half-power radiation points. D. The angle formed between two imaginary lines drawn through the ends of the elements. Answer Key: 3-63J1: C 3-63J2: A 3-63J3: D 3-63J4: A 3-63J5: D 3-63J6: B 3-64J1 What is the current flowing through a 52 ohm line with an input of 1,872 watts? A. 0.06 amps. B. 6 amps. C. 28.7 amps. D. 144 amps. 3-64J2 The voltage produced in a receiving antenna is: A. Out of phase with the current if connected properly. B. Out of phase with the current if cut to 1/3 wavelength. C. Variable depending on the station’s SWR. D. Always proportional to the received field strength. 3-64J3 Which of the following represents the best standing wave ratio (SWR)? A. 1:1. B. 1:1.5. C. 1:3. D. 1:4. 3-64J4 At the ends of a half-wave antenna, what values of current and voltage exist compared to the remainder of the antenna? A. Equal voltage and current. B. Minimum voltage and maximum current. C. Maximum voltage and minimum current. D. Minimum voltage and minimum current. 3-64J5 An antenna radiates a primary signal of 500 watts output. If there is a 2nd harmonic output of 0.5 watt, what attenuation of the 2nd harmonic has occurred? A. 10 dB. B. 30 dB. C. 40 dB. D. 50 dB. 3-64J6 There is an improper impedance match between a 30 watt transmitter and the antenna, with 5 watts reflected. How much power is actually radiated? A. 35 watts. B. 30 watts. C. 25 watts. D. 20 watts. Answer Key: 3-64J1: B 3-64J2: D 3-64J3: A 3-64J4: C 3-64J5: B 3-64J6: C 3-65J1 A vertical 1/4 wave antenna receives signals: A. In the microwave band. B. In one vertical direction. C. In one horizontal direction. D. Equally from all horizontal directions. 3-65J2 The resonant frequency of a Hertz antenna can be lowered by: A. Lowering the frequency of the transmitter. B. Placing an inductance in series with the antenna. C. Placing a condenser in series with the antenna. D. Placing a resistor in series with the antenna. 3-65J3 An excited 1/2 wavelength antenna produces: A. Residual fields. B. An electro-magnetic field only. C. Both electro-magnetic and electro-static fields. D. An electro-flux field sometimes. 3-65J4 To increase the resonant frequency of a 1/4 wavelength antenna: A. Add a capacitor in series. B. Lower capacitor value. C. Cut antenna. D. Add an inductor. 3-65J5 What happens to the bandwidth of an antenna as it is shortened through the use of loading coils? A. It is increased. B. It is decreased. C. No change occurs. D. It becomes flat. 3-65J6 To lengthen an antenna electrically, add a: A. Coil. B. Resistor. C. Battery. D. Conduit. Answer Key: 3-65J1: D 3-65J2: B 3-65J3: C 3-65J4: A 3-65J5: B 3-65J6: A 3-66J1 What is the meaning of the term velocity factor of a transmission line? A. The ratio of the characteristic impedance of the line to the terminating impedance. B. The velocity of the wave on the transmission line divided by the velocity of light in a vacuum. C. The velocity of the wave on the transmission line multiplied by the velocity of light in a vacuum. D. The index of shielding for coaxial cable. 3-66J2 What determines the velocity factor in a transmission line? A. The termination impedance. B. The line length. C. Dielectrics in the line. D. The center conductor resistivity. 3-66J3 Nitrogen is placed in transmission lines to: A. Improve the “skin-effect” of microwaves. B. Reduce arcing in the line. C. Reduce the standing wave ratio of the line. D. Prevent moisture from entering the line. 3-66J4 A perfect (no loss) coaxial cable has 7 dB of reflected power when the input is 5 watts. What is the output of the transmission line? A. 1 watt. B. 1.25 watts. C. 2.5 watts. D. 5 watts. 3-66J5 Referred to the fundamental frequency, a shorted stub line attached to the transmission line to absorb even harmonics could have a wavelength of: A. 1.41 wavelength. B. 1/2 wavelength. C. 1/4 wavelength. D. 1/6 wavelength. 3-66J6 If a transmission line has a power loss of 6 dB per 100 feet, what is the power at the feed point to the antenna at the end of a 200 foot transmission line fed by a 100 watt transmitter? A. 70 watts. B. 50 watts. C. 25 watts. D. 6 watts. Answer Key: 3-66J1: B 3-66J2: C 3-66J3: D 3-66J4: A 3-66J5: C 3-66J6: D 3-67J1 What is the effective radiated power of a repeater with 50 watts transmitter power output, 4 dB feedline loss, 3 dB duplexer and circulator loss, and 6 dB antenna gain? A. 158 watts. B. 39.7 watts. C. 251 watts. D. 69.9 watts. 3-67J2 What is the effective radiated power of a repeater with 75 watts transmitter power output, 4 dB feedline loss, 3 dB duplexer and circulator loss, and 10 dB antenna gain? A. 600 watts. B. 75 watts. C. 18.75 watts. D. 150 watts. 3-67J3 What is the effective radiated power of a repeater with 75 watts transmitter power output, 5 dB feedline loss, 4 dB duplexer and circulator loss, and 6 dB antenna gain? A. 37.6 watts. B. 237 watts. C. 150 watts. D. 23.7 watts. 3-67J4 What is the effective radiated power of a repeater with 100 watts transmitter power output, 4 dB feedline loss, 3 dB duplexer and circulator loss, and 7 dB antenna gain? A. 631 watts. B. 400 watts. C. 25 watts. D. 100 watts. 3-67J5 What is the effective radiated power of a repeater with 100 watts transmitter power output, 5 dB feedline loss, 4 dB duplexer and circulator loss, and 10 dB antenna gain? A. 126 watts. B. 800 watts. C. 12.5 watts. D. 1260 watts. 3-67J6 What is the effective radiated power of a repeater with 50 watts transmitter power output, 5 dB feedline loss, 4 dB duplexer and circulator loss, and 7 dB antenna gain? A. 300 watts. B. 315 watts. C. 31.5 watts. D. 69.9 watts. Answer Key: 3-67J1: B 3-67J2: D 3-67J3: A 3-67J4: D 3-67J5: A 3-67J6: C 3-68K1 What is the frequency range of the Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) used to indicate an aircraft’s slant range distance to a selected ground-based navigation station? A. 108.00 MHz to 117.95 MHz. B. 108.10 MHz to 111.95 MHz. C. 962 MHz to 1213 MHz. D. 329.15 MHz to 335.00 MHz. 3-68K2 The Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) measures the distance from the aircraft to the DME ground station. This is referred to as: A. DME bearing. B. The slant range. C. Glide Slope angle of approach. D. Localizer course width. 3-68K3 The Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) ground station has a built-in delay between reception of an interrogation and transmission of the reply to allow: A. Someone to answer the call. B. The VOR to make a mechanical hook-up. C. Operation at close range. D. Clear other traffic for a reply. 3-68K4 What is the main underlying operating principle of an aircraft’s Distance Measuring Equipment (DME)? A. A measurable amount of time is required to send and receive a radio signal through the Earth’s atmosphere. B. The difference between the peak values of two DC voltages may be used to determine an aircraft’s distance to another aircraft. C. A measurable frequency compression of an AC signal may be used to determine an aircraft’s altitude above the earth. D. A phase inversion between two AC voltages may be used to determine an aircraft’s distance to the exit ramp of an airport’s runway. 3-68K5 What radio navigation aid determines the distance from an aircraft to a selected VORTAC station by measuring the length of time the radio signal takes to travel to and from the station? A. RADAR. B. Loran C. C. Distance Marking (DM). D. Distance Measuring Equipment (DME). 3-68K6 The majority of airborne Distance Measuring Equipment systems automatically tune their transmitter and receiver frequencies to the paired __ / __ channel. A. VOR/marker beacon. B. VOR/LOC. C. Marker beacon/glideslope. D. LOC/glideslope. Answer Key: 3-68K1: C 3-68K2: B 3-68K3: C 3-68K4: A 3-68K5: D 3-68K6: B 3-69K1 All directions associated with a VOR station are related to: A. Magnetic north. B. North pole. C. North star. D. None of these. 3-69K2 The rate that the transmitted VOR variable signal rotates is equivalent to how many revolutions per second? A. 60 B. 30 C. 2400 D. 1800 3-69K3 What is the frequency range of the ground-based Very-high-frequency Omnidirectional Range (VOR) stations used for aircraft navigation? A. 108.00 kHz to 117.95 kHz. B. 329.15 MHz to 335.00 MHz. C. 329.15 kHz to 335.00 kHz. D. 108.00 MHz to 117.95 MHz. 3-69K4 Lines drawn from the VOR station in a particular magnetic direction are: A. Radials. B. Quadrants. C. Bearings. D. Headings. 3-69K5 The amplitude modulated variable phase signal and the frequency modulated reference phase signal of a Very-high-frequency Omnidirectional Range (VOR) station used for aircraft navigation are synchronized so that both signals are in phase with each other at ____________ of the VOR station. A. 180 degrees South, true bearing position. B. 360 degrees North, magnetic bearing position. C. 180 degrees South, magnetic bearing position. D. 0 degrees North, true bearing position. 3-69K6 What is the main underlying operating principle of the Very-high-frequency Omnidirectional Range (VOR) aircraft navigational system? A. A definite amount of time is required to send and receive a radio signal. B. The difference between the peak values of two DC voltages may be used to determine an aircraft’s altitude above a selected VOR station. C. A phase difference between two AC voltages may be used to determine an aircraft’s azimuth position in relation to a selected VOR station. D. A phase difference between two AC voltages may be used to determine an aircraft’s distance from a selected VOR station. Answer Key: 3-69K1: A 3-69K2: B 3-69K3: D 3-69K4: A 3-69K5: B 3-69K6: C 3-70K1 What is the frequency range of the localizer beam system used by aircraft to find the centerline of a runway during an Instrument Landing System (ILS) approach to an airport? A. 108.10 kHz to 111.95 kHz. B. 329.15 MHz to 335.00 MHz. C. 329.15 kHz to 335.00 kHz. D. 108.10 MHz to 111.95 MHz. 3-70K2 What is the frequency range of the marker beacon system used to indicate an aircraft's position during an Instrument Landing System (ILS) approach to an airport's runway? A. The outer, middle, and inner marker beacons’ UHF frequencies are unique for each ILS equipped airport to provide unambiguous frequency-protected reception areas in the 329.15 to 335.00 MHz range. B. The outer marker beacon’s carrier frequency is 400 MHz, the middle marker beacon’s carrier frequency is 1300 MHz, and the inner marker beacon’s carrier frequency is 3000 MHz. C. The outer, the middle, and the inner marker beacon’s carrier frequencies are all 75 MHz but the marker beacons are 95% tone-modulated at 400 Hz (outer), 1300 Hz (middle), and 3000 Hz (inner). D. The outer, marker beacon’s carrier frequency is 3000 kHz, the middle marker beacon’s carrier frequency is 1300 kHz, and the inner marker beacon’s carrier frequency is 400 kHz. 3-70K3 Which of the following is a required component of an Instrument Landing System (ILS)? A. Altimeter: shows aircraft height above sea-level. B. Localizer: shows aircraft deviation horizontally from center of runway. C. VHF Communications: provide communications to aircraft. D. Distance Measuring Equipment: shows aircraft distance to VORTAC station. 3-70K4 What type of antenna is used in an aircraft’s Instrument Landing System (ILS) glideslope installation? A. A vertically polarized antenna that radiates an omnidirectional antenna pattern. B. A balanced loop reception antenna. C. A folded dipole reception antenna. D. An electronically steerable phased-array antenna that radiates a directional antenna pattern. 3-70K5 Choose the only correct statement about the localizer beam system used by aircraft to find the centerline of a runway during an Instrument Landing System (ILS) approach to an airport. The localizer beam system: A. Operates within the assigned frequency range of 108.10 to 111.95 GHz. B. Produces two amplitude modulated antenna patterns; one pattern above and one pattern below the normal 2.5 degree approach glide path of the aircraft. C. Frequencies are automatically tuned-in when the proper glide slope frequency is selected on the aircraft’s Navigation and Communication (NAV/COMM) transceiver. D. Produces two amplitude modulated antenna patterns; one pattern with an audio frequency of 90 Hz and one pattern with an audio frequency of 150 Hz, one left of the runway centerline and one right of the runway centerline. 3-70K6 On runway approach, an ILS Localizer shows: A. Deviation left or right of runway center line. B. Deviation up and down from ground speed. C. Deviation percentage from authorized ground speed. D. Wind speed along runway. Answer Key: 3-70K1: D 3-70K2: C 3-70K3: B 3-70K4: C 3-70K5: D 3-70K6: A 3-71K1 What is the frequency range of an aircraft’s Automatic Direction Finding (ADF) equipment? A. 190 kHz to 1750 kHz. B. 190 MHz to 1750 MHz. C. 108.10 MHz to 111.95 MHz. D. 108.00 MHz to 117.95 MHz. 3-71K2 What is meant by the term “night effect” when using an aircraft’s Automatic Direction Finding (ADF) equipment? Night effect refers to the fact that: A. All Non Directional Beacon (NDB) transmitters are turned-off at dusk and turned-on at dawn. B. Non Directional Beacon (NDB) transmissions can bounce-off the Earth’s ionosphere at night and be received at almost any direction. C. An aircraft’s ADF transmissions will be slowed at night due to the increased density of the Earth’s atmosphere after sunset. D. An aircraft’s ADF antennas usually collect dew moisture after sunset which decreases their effective reception distance from an NDB transmitter. 3-71K3 What are the transmit and receive frequencies of an aircraft’s mode C transponder operating in the Air Traffic Control RADAR Beacon System (ATCRBS)? A. Transmit at 1090 MHz, and receive at 1030 MHz B. Transmit at 1030 kHz, and receive at 1090 kHz C. Transmit at 1090 kHz, and receive at 1030 kHz D. Transmit at 1030 MHz, and receive at 1090 MHz 3-71K4 In addition to duplicating the functions of a mode C transponder, an aircraft’s mode S transponder can also provide: A. Primary RADAR surveillance capabilities. B. Long range lightning detection. C. Mid-Air collision avoidance capabilities. D. Backup VHF voice communication abilities. 3-71K5 What type of encoding is used in an aircraft’s mode C transponder transmission to a ground station of the Air Traffic Control RADAR Beacon System (ATCRBS)? A. Differential phase shift keying. B. Pulse position modulation. C. Doppler effect compressional encryption. D. Amplitude modulation at 95%. 3-71K6 Choose the only correct statement about an aircraft’s Automatic Direction Finding (ADF) equipment. A. An aircraft’s ADF transmission exhibits primarily a line-of-sight range to the ground-based target station and will not follow the curvature of the Earth. B. Only a single omnidirectional sense antenna is required to receive an NDB transmission and process the signal to calculate the aircraft’s bearing to the selected ground station. C. All frequencies in the ADF’s operating range except the commercial standard broadcast stations (550 to 1660 kHz) can be utilized as a navigational Non Directional Beacon (NDB) signal. D. An aircraft’s ADF antennas can receive transmissions that are over the Earth’s horizon (sometimes several hundred miles away) since these signals will follow the curvature of the Earth. Answer Key: 3-71K1: A 3-71K2: B 3-71K3: A 3-71K4: C 3-71K5: B 3-71K6: D 3-72K1 What type of antenna pattern is radiated from a ground station phased-array directional antenna when transmitting the PPM pulses in a Mode S interrogation signal of an aircraft’s Traffic alert and Collision Avoidance System (TCAS) installation? A. 1090 MHz directional pattern. B. 1030 MHz omnidirectional pattern. C. 1090 MHz omnidirectional pattern. D. 1030 MHz directional pattern. 3-72K2 What type of antenna is used in an aircraft’s Instrument Landing System (ILS) marker beacon installation? A. An electronically steerable phased-array antenna that radiates a directional antenna pattern. B. A folded dipole reception antenna. C. A balanced loop reception antenna. D. A horizontally polarized antenna that radiates an omnidirectional antenna pattern. 3-72K3 What is the frequency range of an aircraft’s Very High Frequency (VHF) communications? A. 118.000 MHz to 136.975 MHz (worldwide up to 151.975 MHz). B. 108.00 MHz to 117.95 MHz. C. 329.15 MHz to 335.00 MHz. D. 2.000 MHz to 29.999 MHz. 3-72K4 Aircraft Emergency Locator Transmitters (ELT) operate on what frequencies? A. 121.5 MHz. B. 243 MHz. C. 121.5 and 243 MHz. D. 121.5, 243 and 406 MHz. 3-72K5 What is the frequency range of an aircraft’s radio altimeter? A. 962 MHz to 1213 MHz. B. 329.15 MHz to 335.00 MHz. C. 4250 MHz to 4350 MHz. D. 108.00 MHz to 117.95 MHz. 3-72K6 What type of antenna is attached to an aircraft’s Mode C transponder installation and used to receive 1030 MHz interrogation signals from the Air Traffic Control Radar Beacon System (ATCRBS)? A. An electronically steerable phased-array directional antenna. B. An L-band monopole blade-type omnidirectional antenna. C. A folded dipole reception antenna. D. An internally mounted, mechanically rotatable loop antenna. Answer Key: 3-72K1: D 3-72K2: C 3-72K3: A 3-72K4: D 3-72K5: C 3-72K6: B 3-73K1 Some aircraft and avionics equipment operates with a prime power line frequency of 400 Hz. What is the principle advantage of a higher line frequency? A. 400 Hz power supplies draw less current than 60 Hz supplies allowing more current available for other systems on the aircraft. B. A 400 Hz power supply generates less heat and operates much more efficiently than a 60 Hz power supply. C. The magnetic devices in a 400 Hz power supply such as transformers, chokes and filters are smaller and lighter than those used in 60 Hz power supplies. D. 400 Hz power supplies are much less expensive to produce than power supplies with lower line frequencies. 3-73K2 Aviation services use predominantly ____ microphones. A. Dynamic B. Carbon C. Condenser D. Piezoelectric crystal 3-73K3 Typical airborne HF transmitters usually provide a nominal RF power output to the antenna of ____ watts, compared with ____ watts RF output from a typical VHF transmitter. A. 10, 50 B. 50, 10 C. 20, 100 D. 100, 20 3-73K4 Before ground testing an aircraft RADAR, the operator should: A. Ensure that the area in front of the antenna is clear of other maintenance personnel to avoid radiation hazards. B. Be sure the receiver has been properly shielded and grounded. C. First test the transmitter connected to a matched load. D. Measure power supply voltages to prevent circuit damage. 3-73K5 What type of antenna is used in an aircraft’s Very High Frequency Omnidirectional Range (VOR) and Localizer (LOC) installations? A. Vertically polarized antenna that radiates an omnidirectional antenna pattern. B. Horizontally polarized omnidirection reception antenna. C. Balanced loop transmission antenna. D. Folded dipole reception antenna. 3-73K6 What is the function of a commercial aircraft’s SELCAL installation? SELCAL is a type of aircraft communications __________. A. Device that allows an aircraft’s receiver to be continuously calibrated for signal selectivity. B. System where a ground-based transmitter can call a selected aircraft or group of aircraft without the flight crew monitoring the ground-station frequency. C. Transmission that uses sequential logic algorithm encryption to prevent public “eavesdropping” of crucial aircraft flight data. D. System where an airborne transmitter can selectively calculate the line-of-sight distance to several ground-station receivers. Answer Key: 3-73K1: C 3-73K2: A 3-73K3: D 3-73K4: A 3-73K5: B 3-73K6: B 3-74L1 What is a 1/2 digit on a DMM? A. Smaller physical readout on the left side of the display. B. Partial extended accuracy on lower part of the range. C. Smaller physical readout on the right side. D. Does not apply to DMMs. 3-74L2 A 50 microampere meter movement has an internal resistance of 2,000 ohms. What applied voltage is required to indicate half-scale deflection? A. 0.01 volts B. 0.10 volts C. 0.005 volts. D. 0.05 volts. 3-74L3 What is the purpose of a series multiplier resistor used with a voltmeter? A. It is used to increase the voltage-indicating range of the voltmeter. B. A multiplier resistor is not used with a voltmeter. C. It is used to decrease the voltage-indicating range of the voltmeter. D. It is used to increase the current-indicating range of an ammeter, not a voltmeter. 3-74L4 What is the purpose of a shunt resistor used with an ammeter? A. A shunt resistor is not used with an ammeter. B. It is used to decrease the ampere indicating range of the ammeter. C. It is used to increase the ampere indicating range of the ammeter. D. It is used to increase the voltage indicating range of the voltmeter, not the ammeter. 3-74L5 What instrument is used to indicate high and low digital voltage states? A. Ohmmeter. B. Logic probe. C. Megger. D. Signal strength meter. 3-74L6 What instrument may be used to verify proper radio antenna functioning? A. Digital ohm meter. B. Hewlett-Packard frequency meter. C. An SWR meter. D. Different radio. Answer Key: 3-74L1: B 3-74L2: D 3-74L3: A 3-74L4: C 3-74L5: B 3-74L6: C 3-75L1 How is a frequency counter used? A. To provide reference points on an analog receiver dial thereby aiding in the alignment of the receiver. B. To heterodyne the frequency being measured with a known variable frequency oscillator until zero beat is achieved, thereby indicating the unknown frequency. C. To measure the deviation in an FM transmitter in order to determine the percentage of modulation. D. To measure the time between events, or the frequency, which is the reciprocal of the time. 3-75L2 What is a frequency standard? A. A well-known (standard) frequency used for transmitting certain messages. B. A device used to produce a highly accurate reference frequency. C. A device for accurately measuring frequency to within 1 Hz. D. A device used to generate wide-band random frequencies. 3-75L3 What equipment may be useful to track down EMI aboard a ship or aircraft? A. Fluke multimeter. B. An oscilloscope. C. Portable AM receiver. D. A logic probe. 3-75L4 On an analog wattmeter, what part of the scale is most accurate and how much does that accuracy extend to the rest of the reading scale? A. The accuracy is only at full scale, and that absolute number reading is carried through to the rest of the range. The upper 1/3 of the meter is the only truly calibrated part. B. The accuracy is constant throughout the entire range of the meter. C. The accuracy is only there at the upper 5% of the meter, and is not carried through at any other reading. D. The accuracy cannot be determined at any reading. 3-75L5 Which of the following frequency standards is used as a time base standard by field technicians? A. Quartz Crystal. B. Rubidium Standard. C. Cesium Beam Standard. D. LC Tank Oscillator. 3-75L6 Which of the following contains a multirange AF voltmeter calibrated in dB and a sharp, internal 1000 Hz bandstop filter, both used in conjunction with each other to perform quieting tests? A. SINAD meter. B. Reflectometer. C. Dip meter. D. Vector-impedance meter. Answer Key: 3-75L1: D 3-75L2: B 3-75L3: C 3-75L4: A 3-75L5: B 3-75L6: A 3-76L1 What is used to decrease circuit loading when using an oscilloscope? A. Dual input amplifiers. B. 10:1 divider probe. C. Inductive probe. D. Resistive probe. 3-76L2 How does a spectrum analyzer differ from a conventional oscilloscope? A. The oscilloscope is used to display electrical signals while the spectrum analyzer is used to measure ionospheric reflection. B. The oscilloscope is used to display electrical signals in the frequency domain while the spectrum analyzer is used to display electrical signals in the time domain. C. The oscilloscope is used to display electrical signals in the time domain while the spectrum analyzer is used to display electrical signals in the frequency domain. D. The oscilloscope is used for displaying audio frequencies and the spectrum analyzer is used for displaying radio frequencies. 3-76L3 What stage determines the maximum frequency response of an oscilloscope? A. Time base. B. Horizontal sweep. C. Power supply. D. Vertical amplifier. 3-76L4 What factors limit the accuracy, frequency response, and stability of an oscilloscope? A. Sweep oscillator quality and deflection amplifier bandwidth. B. Tube face voltage increments and deflection amplifier voltage. C. Sweep oscillator quality and tube face voltage increments. D. Deflection amplifier output impedance and tube face frequency increments. 3-76L5 An oscilloscope can be used to accomplish all of the following except: A. Measure electron flow with the aid of a resistor. B. Measure phase difference between two signals. C. Measure velocity of light with the aid of a light emitting diode. D. Measure electrical voltage. 3-76L6 What instrument is used to check the signal quality of a single-sideband radio transmission? A. Field strength meter. B. Signal level meter. C. Sidetone monitor. D. Oscilloscope. Answer Key: 3-76L1: B 3-76L2: C 3-76L3: D 3-76L4: A 3-76L5: C 3-76L6: D 3-77L1 A(n) ____ and ____ can be combined to measure the characteristics of transmission lines. Such an arrangement is known as a time-domain reflectometer (TDR). A. Frequency spectrum analyzer, RF generator. B. Oscilloscope, pulse generator. C. AC millivolt meter, AF generator. D. Frequency counter, linear detector. 3-77L2 What does the horizontal axis of a spectrum analyzer display? A. Amplitude. B. Voltage. C. Resonance. D. Frequency. 3-77L3 What does the vertical axis of a spectrum analyzer display? A. Amplitude. B. Duration. C. Frequency. D. Time. 3-77L4 What instrument is most accurate when checking antennas and transmission lines at the operating frequency of the antenna? A. Time domain reflectometer. B. Wattmeter. C. DMM. D. Frequency domain reflectometer. 3-77L5 What test instrument can be used to display spurious signals in the output of a radio transmitter? A. A spectrum analyzer. B. A wattmeter. C. A logic analyzer. D. A time domain reflectometer. 3-77L6 What instrument is commonly used by radio service technicians to monitor frequency, modulation, check receiver sensitivity, distortion, and to generate audio tones? A. Oscilloscope. B. Spectrum analyzer. C. Service monitor. D. DMM. Answer Key: 3-77L1: B 3-77L2: D 3-77L3: A 3-77L4: D 3-77L5: A 3-77L6: C 3-78L1 Can a P25 radio system be monitored with a scanner? A. Yes , regardless if it has P25 decoding or not. B. No. C. Yes, if the scanner has P25 decoding. D. Yes, but it must also have P26 decoding. 3-78L2 Which of the following answers is true? A. The RF Power reading on a CDMA (code division multiple access) radio will be very accurate on an analog power meter. B. The RF Power reading on a CDMA radio is not accurate on an analog power meter. C. Power cannot be measured using CDMA modulation. D. None of the above. 3-78L3 What is a common method used to program radios without using a “wired” connection? A. Banding. B. Using the ultraviolet from a programmed radio to repeat the programming in another. C. Infra-red communication. D. Having the radio maker send down a programming signal via satellite. 3-78L4 What is the common method for determining the exact sensitivity specification of a receiver? A. Measure the recovered audio for 12 dB of SINAD. B. Measure the recovered audio for 10 dB of quieting. C. Measure the recovered audio for 10 dB of SINAD. D. Measure the recovered audio for 25 dB of quieting. 3-78L5 A communications technician would perform a modulation-acceptance bandwidth test in order to: A. Ascertain the audio frequency response of the receiver. B. Determine whether the CTCSS in the receiver is operating correctly. C. Verify the results from a 12 dB SINAD test. D. Determine the effective bandwidth of a communications receiver. 3-78L6 What is the maximum FM deviation for voice operation of a normal wideband channel on VHF and UHF? A. 2.5 kHz B. 5.0 kHz C. 7.5 kHz D. 10 kHz Answer Key: 3-78L1: C 3-78L2: B 3-78L3: C 3-78L4: A 3-78L5: D 3-78L6: B 3-79L1 When soldering or working with CMOS electronics products or equipment, a wrist strap: A. Must have less than 100,000 ohms of resistance to prevent static electricity. B. Cannot be used when repairing TTL devices. C. Must be grounded to a water pipe. D. Does not work well in conjunction with anti-static floor mats. 3-79L2 Which of the following is the preferred method of cleaning solder from plated-through circuit-board holes? A. Use a dental pick. B. Use a vacuum device. C. Use a soldering iron tip that has a temperature above 900 degrees F. D. Use an air jet device. 3-79L3 What is the proper way to cut plastic wire ties? A. With scissors. B. With a knife. C. With semi-flush diagonal pliers. D. With flush-cut diagonal pliers and cut flush. 3-79L4 The ideal method of removing insulation from wire is: A. The thermal stripper. B. The pocket knife. C. A mechanical wire stripper. D. The scissor action stripping tool. 3-79L5 A “hot gas bonder” is used: A. To apply solder to the iron tip while it is heating the component. B. For non-contact melting of solder. C. To allow soldering both sides of the PC board simultaneously. D. To cure LCA adhesives. 3-79L6 When repairing circuit board assemblies it is most important to: A. Use a dental pick to clear plated-through holes. B. Bridge broken copper traces with solder. C. Wear safety glasses. D. Use a holding fixture. Answer Key: 3-79L1: A 3-79L2: B 3-79L3: D 3-79L4: A 3-79L5: B 3-79L6: C 3-80L1 What color is the binder for pairs 51-75 in a 100-pair cable? A. Red B. Blue C. Black D. Green 3-80L2 What is most important when routing cables in a mobile unit? A. That cables be cut to the exact length. B. Assuring accessibility of the radio for servicing from outside the vehicle. C. Assuring radio or electronics cables do not interfere with the normal operation of the vehicle. D. Assuring cables are concealed under floor mats or carpeting. 3-80L3 Why should you not use white or translucent plastic tie wraps on a radio tower? A. White tie wraps are not FAA approved. B. UV radiation from the Sun deteriorates the plastic very quickly. C. The white color attracts wasps D. The black tie wraps may cause electrolysis. 3-80L4 What is the 6th pair color code in a 25 pair switchboard cable as is found in building telecommunications interconnections? A. Blue/Green, Green/Blue. B. Red/Blue, White/Violet. C. Red/Blue, Blue/Red. D. White/Slate, Slate/White. 3-80L5 What tolerance off of plumb should a single base station radio rack be installed? A. No tolerance allowed. B. Just outside the bubble on a level. C. All the way to one end. D. Just inside the bubble on a level. 3-80L6 What type of wire would connect an SSB automatic tuner to an insulated backstay? A. GTO-15 high-voltage cable. B. RG8U. C. RG213. D. 16-gauge two-conductor. Answer Key: 3-80L1: D 3-80L2: C 3-80L3: B 3-80L4: C 3-80L5: D 3-80L6: A 3-81L1 On a 150 watt marine SSB HF transceiver, what would be indicated by a steady output of 75 watts when keying the transmitter on? A. There is probably a defect in the system causing the carrier to be transmitted. B. One of the sidebands is missing. C. Both sidebands are being transmitting. D. The operation is normal. 3-81L2 The tachometer of a building’s elevator circuit experiences interference caused by the radio system nearby. What is a common potential “fix” for the problem? A. Replace the tachometer of the elevator. B. Add a .01 microfarad capacitor across the motor/tachometer leads. C. Add a 200 microfarad capacity across the motor/tachometer leads. D. Add an isolating resistor in series with the motor leads. 3-81L3 A common method of programming portable or mobile radios is to use a: A. A laptop computer. B. Dummy load. C. A wattmeter. D. A signal generator. 3-81L4 In a software-defined transceiver, what would be the best way for a technician to make a quick overall evaluation of the radio’s operational condition? A. Set up a spectrum analyzer and service monitor and manually verify the manufacturer’s specifications. B. Use another radio on the same frequency to check the transmitter. C. Use the built-in self-test feature. D. Using on-board self-test routines are strictly prohibited by the FCC in commercial transmitters. Amateur Radio is the only service currently authorized to use them. 3-81L5 How might an installer verify correct GPS sentence to marine DSC VHF radio? A. Press and hold the red distress button. B. Look for latitude and longitude on the display. C. Look for GPS confirmation readout. D. Ask for VHF radio check position report. 3-81L6 What steps must be taken to activate the DSC emergency signaling function on a marine VHF? A. Separate 12 volts to the switch. B. Secondary DSC transmit antenna. C. GPS position input. D. Input of registered 9-digit MMSI. Answer Key: 3-81L1: A 3-81L2: B 3-81L3: A 3-81L4: C 3-81L5: B 3-81L6: D 3-82M1 What term describes a wide-bandwidth communications system in which the RF carrier frequency varies according to some predetermined sequence? A. Amplitude compandored single sideband. B. SITOR. C. Time-domain frequency modulation. D. Spread spectrum communication. 3-82M2 Name two types of spread spectrum systems used in most RF communications applications? A. AM and FM. B. QPSK or QAM. C. Direct Sequence and Frequency Hopping. D. Frequency Hopping and APSK. 3-82M3 What is the term used to describe a spread spectrum communications system where the center frequency of a conventional carrier is altered many times per second in accordance with a pseudo-random list of channels? A. Frequency hopping. B. Direct sequence. C. Time-domain frequency modulation. D. Frequency compandored spread spectrum. 3-82M4 A TDMA radio uses what to carry the multiple conversations sequentially? A. Separate frequencies. B. Separate pilot tones. C. Separate power levels. D. Separate time slots. 3-82M5 Which of the following statements about SSB voice transmissions is correct? A. They use A3E emission which are produced by modulating the final amplifier. B. They use F3E emission which is produced by phase shifting the carrier. C. They normally use J3E emissions, which consists of one sideband and a suppressed carrier. D. They may use A1A emission to suppress the carrier. 3-82M6 What are the two most-used PCS (Personal Communications Systems) coding techniques used to separate different calls? A. QPSK and QAM. B. CDMA and GSM. C. ABCD and SYZ. D. AM and Frequency Hopping. Answer Key: 3-82M1: D 3-82M2: C 3-82M3: A 3-82M4: D 3-82M5: C 3-82M6: B 3-83M1 What is a CODEC? A. A device to read Morse code. B. A computer operated digital encoding compandor. C. A coder/decoder IC or circuitry that converts a voice signal into a predetermined digital format for encrypted transmission. D. A voice amplitude compression chip. 3-83M2 The GSM (Global System for Mobile Communications) uses what type of CODEC for digital mobile radio system communications? A. Regular-Pulse Excited (RPE). B. Code-Excited Linear Predictive (CLEP). C. Multi-Pulse Excited (MPE). D. Linear Excited Code (LEC). 3-83M3 Which of the following codes has gained the widest acceptance for exchange of data from one computer to another? A. Gray. B. Baudot. C. Morse. D. ASCII. 3-83M4 The International Organization for Standardization has developed a seven-level reference model for a packet-radio communications structure. What level is responsible for the actual transmission of data and handshaking signals? A. The physical layer. B. The transport layer. C. The communications layer. D. The synchronization layer. 3-83M5 What CODEC is used in Phase 2 P25 radios? A. IWCE B. IMBC C. IMMM D. AMBE 3-83M6 The International Organization for Standardization has developed a seven-level reference model for a packet-radio communications structure. The _______ level arranges the bits into frames and controls data flow. A. Transport layer. B. Link layer. C. Communications layer. D. Synchronization layer. Answer Key: 3-83M1: C 3-83M2: A 3-83M3: D 3-83M4: A 3-83M5: D 3-83M6: B 3-84M1 What is a SDR? A. Software Deviation Ratio. B. Software Defined Radio. C. SWR Meter. D. Static Dynamic Ram. 3-84M2 What does the DSP not do in a modern DSP radio? A. Control frequency. B. Control modulation. C. Control detection. D. Control SWR. 3-84M3 Which statement best describes the code used for GMDSS-DSC transmissions? A. A 10 bit error correcting code starting with bits of data followed by a 3 bit error correcting code. B. A 10 bit error correcting code starting with a 3 bit error correcting code followed by 7 bits of data. C. An 8 bit code with 7 bits of data followed by a single parity bit. D. A 7 bit code that is transmitted twice for error correction. 3-84M4 Which is the code used for SITOR-A and -B transmissions? A. The 5 bit baudot telex code. B. Each character consists of 7 bits with 3 “zeros” and 4 “ones”. C. Each character consists of 7 bits with 4 “zeros” and 3 “ones”. D. Each character has 7 bits of data and 3 bits for error correction. 3-84M5 Which of the following statements is true? A. The Signal Repetition character (1001100) is used as a control signal in SITOR-ARQ. B. The Idle Signal (a) (0000111) is used for FEC Phasing Signal 1. C. The Idle Signal (b) (0011001) is used for FEC Phasing Signal 2. D. The Control Signal 1 (0101100) is used to determine the time displacement in SITOR-B. 3-84M6 What principle allows multiple conversations to be able to share one radio channel on a GSM channel? A. Frequency Division Multiplex. B. Double sideband. C. Time Division Multiplex. D. None of the above. Answer Key: 3-84M1: B 3-84M2: D 3-84M3: A 3-84M4: C 3-84M5: B 3-84M6: C 3-85N1 What is the channel spacing used for VHF marine radio? A. 10 kHz. B. 12.5 kHz. C. 20 kHz. D. 25 kHz. 3-85N2 What VHF channel is assigned for distress and calling? A. 70 B. 16 C. 21A D. 68 3-85N3 What VHF Channel is used for Digital Selective Calling and acknowledgement? A. 16 B. 21A C. 70 D. 68 3-85N4 Maximum allowable frequency deviation for VHF marine radios is: A. +/- 5 kHz. B. +/- 15 kHz. C. +/- 2.5 kHz. D. +/- 25 kHz. 3-85N5 What is the reason for the USA-INT control or function? A. It changes channels that are normally simplex channels into duplex channels. B. It changes some channels that are normally duplex channels into simplex channels. C. When the control is set to “INT” the range is increased. D. None of the above. 3-85N6 How might an installer verify correct GPS sentence to marine DSC VHF radio? A. Look for latitude and longitude, plus speed, on VHF display. B. Press and hold the red distress button. C. Look for GPS confirmation readout. D. Ask for VHF radio check position report. Answer Key: 3-85N1: D 3-85N2: B 3-85N3: C 3-85N4: A 3-85N5: B 3-85N6: A 3-86N1 What is a common occurrence when voice-testing an SSB aboard a boat? A. Ammeter fluctuates down with each spoken word. B. Voltage panel indicator lamps may glow with each syllable. C. Automatic tuner cycles on each syllable. D. Minimal voltage drop seen at power source. 3-86N2 What might contribute to apparent low voltage on marine SSB transmitting? A. Blown red fuse. B. Too much grounding. C. Blown black negative fuse. D. Antenna mismatch. 3-86N3 What type of wire connects an SSB automatic tuner to an insulated backstay? A. RG8U. B. RG213. C. 16-gauge two-conductor. D. GTO-15 high-voltage cable. 3-86N4 Which of the following statements concerning SITOR communications is true? A. ARQ message transmissions are made in data groups consisting of three-character blocks. B. ARQ transmissions are acknowledged by the Information Receiving Station only at the end of the message. C. ARQ communications rely upon error correction by time diversity transmission and reception. D. Forward error correction is an interactive mode. 3-86N5 The sequence ARQ, FEC, SFEC best corresponds to which of the following sequences? A. One-way communications to a single station, one-way communications to all stations, two-way communications. B. One-way communications to all stations, two-way communications, one-way communications to a single station. C. Two way communications, one-way communications to all stations, one-way communications to a single station. D. Two way communications, one-way communications to a single station, one-way communications to all stations. 3-86N6 Which of the following statements concerning SITOR communications is true? A. Communication is established on the working channel and answerbacks are exchanged before FEC broadcasts can be received. B. In the ARQ mode each character is transmitted twice. C. Weather broadcasts cannot be made in FEC because sending each character twice would cause the broadcast to be prohibitively long. D. Two-way communication with the coast radio station using FEC is not necessary to be able to receive the broadcasts. Answer Key: 3-86N1: B 3-86N2: C 3-86N3: D 3-86N4: A 3-86N5: C 3-86N6: D 3-87N1 What causes the SART to begin a transmission? A. When activated manually, it begins radiating immediately. B. After being activated the SART responds to RADAR interrogation. C. It is either manually or water activated before radiating. D. It begins radiating only when keyed by the operator. 3-87N2 How should the signal from a Search And Rescue RADAR Transponder appear on a RADAR display? A. A series of dashes. B. A series of spirals all originating from the range and bearing of the SART. C. A series of twenty dashes. D. A series of 12 equally spaced dots. 3-87N3 In which frequency band does a search and rescue transponder operate? A. 9 GHz B. 3 GHz C. S-band D. 406 MHz 3-87N4 Which piece of required GMDSS equipment is the primary source of transmitting locating signals? A. Radio Direction Finder (RDF). B. A SART transmitting on 406 MHz. C. Survival Craft Transceiver. D. An EPIRB transmitting on 406 MHz. 3-87N5 Which of the following statements concerning satellite EPIRBs is true? A. Once activated, these EPIRBs transmit a signal for use in identifying the vessel and for determining the position of the beacon. B. The coded signal identifies the nature of the distress situation. C. The coded signal only identifies the vessel’s name and port of registry. D. If the GMDSS Radio Operator does not program the EPIRB, it will transmit default information such as the follow-on communications frequency and mode. 3-87N6 What statement is true regarding 406 MHz EPIRB transmissions? A. Allows immediate voice communications with the RCC. B. Coding permits the SAR authorities to know if manually or automatically activated. C. Transmits a unique hexadecimal identification number. D. Radio Operator programs an I.D. into the SART immediately prior to activation. Answer Key: 3-87N1: B 3-87N2: D 3-87N3: A 3-87N4: D 3-87N5: A 3-87N6: C 3-88N1 What is facsimile? A. The transmission of still pictures by slow-scan television. B. The transmission of characters by radioteletype that form a picture when printed. C. The transmission of printed pictures for permanent display on paper. D. The transmission of video by television. 3-88N2 What is the standard scan rate for high-frequency 3 MHz - 23 MHz weather facsimile reception from shore stations? A. 240 lines per minute. B. 120 lines per minute. C. 150 lines per second. D. 60 lines per second. 3-88N3 What would be the bandwidth of a good crystal lattice band-pass filter for weather facsimile HF (high frequency) reception? A. 500 Hz at -6 dB. B. 6 kHz at -6 dB. C. 1 kHz at -6 dB. D. 15 kHz at -6 dB. 3-88N4 Which of the following statements about NAVTEX is true? A. Receives MSI broadcasts using SITOR-B or FEC mode. B. The ship station transmits on 518 kHz. C. The ship receives MSI broadcasts using SITOR-A or ARQ mode. D. NAVTEX is received on 2182 kHz using SSB. 3-88N5 Which of the following is the primary frequency that is used exclusively for NAVTEX broadcasts internationally? A. 2187.5 kHz. B. 4209.5 kHz. C. VHF channel 16. D. 518 kHz. 3-88N6 What determines whether a NAVTEX receiver does not print a particular type of message content? A. The message does not concern your vessel. B. The subject indicator matches that programmed for rejection by the operator. C. The transmitting station ID covering your area has not been programmed for rejection by the operator. D. All messages sent during each broadcast are printed. Answer Key: 3-88N1: C 3-88N2: B 3-88N3: C 3-88N4: A 3-88N5: D 3-88N6: B 3-89N1 What data language is bi-directional, multi-transmitter, multi-receiver network? A. NMEA 2000. B. NMEA 0181. C. NMEA 0182. D. NMEA 0183. 3-89N2 How should shielding be grounded on an NMEA 0183 data line? A. Unterminated at both ends. B. Terminated to ground at the talker and unterminated at the listener. C. Unterminated at the talker and terminated at the listener. D. Terminated at both the talker and listener. 3-89N3 What might occur in NMEA 2000 network topology if one device in line should fail? A. The system shuts down until the device is removed. B. Other electronics after the failed device will be inoperable. C. The main fuse on the backbone may open. D. There will be no interruption to all other devices. 3-89N4 In an NMEA 2000 device, a load equivalence number (LEN) of 1 is equivalent to how much current consumption? A. 50 mA B. 10 mA C. 25 mA D. 5 mA 3-89N5 An NMEA 2000 system with devices in a single location may be powered using this method: A. Dual mid-powered network. B. End-powered network. C. Individual devices individually powered. D. No 12 volts needed for NMEA 2000 devices. 3-89N6 What voltage drop at the end of the last segment will satisfy NMEA 2000 network cabling plans? A. 0.5 volts B. 2.0 volts C. 1.5 volts D. 3.0 volts Answer Key: 3-89N1: A 3-89N2: B 3-89N3: D 3-89N4: A 3-89N5: B 3-89N6: C 3-90O1 What is the normal range of pulse repetition rates? A. 2,000 to 4,000 pps. B. 1,000 to 3,000 pps. C. 500 to 1,000 pps. D. 500 to 2,000 pps. 3-90O2 The RADAR range in nautical miles to an object can be found by measuring the elapsed time during a RADAR pulse and dividing this quantity by: A. 0.87 seconds. B. 1.15 microseconds. C. 12.346 microseconds. D. 1.073 microseconds. 3-90O3 What is the normal range of pulse widths? A. .05 microseconds to 0.1 microseconds. B. .05 microseconds to 1.0 microseconds. C. 1.0 microseconds to 3.5 microseconds. D. 2.5 microseconds to 5.0 microseconds. 3-90O4 Shipboard RADAR is most commonly operated in what band? A. VHF. B. UHF. C. SHF. D. EHF. 3-90O5 The pulse repetition rate (prr) of a RADAR refers to the: A. Reciprocal of the duty cycle. B. Pulse rate of the local oscillator. C. Pulse rate of the klystron. D. Pulse rate of the magnetron. 3-90O6 If the elapsed time for a RADAR echo is 62 microseconds, what is the distance in nautical miles to the object? A. 5 nautical miles. B. 87 nautical miles. C. 37 nautical miles. D. 11.5 nautical miles. Answer Key: 3-90O1: D 3-90O2: C 3-90O3: B 3-90O4: C 3-90O5: D 3-90O6: A 3-91O1 The ATR box: A. Prevents the received signal from entering the transmitter. B. Protects the receiver from strong RADAR signals. C. Turns off the receiver when the transmitter is on. D. All of the above. 3-91O2 What is the purpose or function of the RADAR duplexer/circulator? It is a/an: A. Coupling device that is used in the transition from a rectangular waveguide to a circular waveguide. B. Electronic switch that allows the use of one antenna for both transmission and reception. C. Modified length of waveguide that is used to sample a portion of the transmitted energy for testing purposes. D. Dual section coupling device that allows the use of a magnetron as a transmitter. 3-91O3 What device can be used to determine the performance of a RADAR system at sea? A. Echo box. B. Klystron. C. Circulator. D. Digital signal processor. 3-91O4 What is the purpose of a synchro transmitter and receiver? A. Synchronizes the transmitted and received pulse trains. B. Prevents the receiver from operating during the period of the transmitted pulse. C. Transmits the angular position of the antenna to the indicator unit. D. Keeps the speed of the motor generator constant. 3-91O5 Digital signal processing (DSP) of RADAR signals (compared with analog) causes: A. Improved display graphics. B. Improved weak signal or target enhancement. C. Less interference with SONAR systems. D. Less interference with other radio communications equipment. 3-91O6 The component or circuit providing the transmitter output power for a RADAR system is the: A. Thyratron. B. SCR. C. Klystron. D. Magnetron. Answer Key: 3-91O1: A 3-91O2: B 3-91O3: A 3-91O4: C 3-91O5: B 3-91O6: D 3-92O1 When a RADAR is being operated on the 48 mile range setting, what is the most appropriate pulse width (PW) and pulse repetition rate (pps)? A. 1.0 microseconds PW and 2,000 pps. B. 0.05 microseconds PW and 2,000 pps. C. 2.5 microseconds PW and 2,500 pps. D. 1.0 microseconds PW and 500 pps. 3-92O2 When a RADAR is being operated on the 6 mile range setting what is the most appropriate pulse width and pulse repetition rate? A. 1.0 microseconds PW and 500 pps. B. 2.0 microseconds PW and 3,000 pps. C. 0.25 microseconds PW and 1,000 pps. D. 0.01 microseconds PW and 500 pps. 3-92O3 We are looking at a target 25 miles away. When a RADAR is being operated on the 25 mile range setting what is the most appropriate pulse width and pulse repetition rate? A. 1.0 microseconds PW and 500 pps. B. 0.25 microseconds PW and 1,000 pps. C. 0.01 microseconds PW and 500 pps. D. 0.05 microseconds PW and 2,000 pps. 3-92O4 What pulse width and repetition rate should you use at long ranges? A. Narrow pulse width and slow repetition rate. B. Narrow pulse width and fast repetition rate. C. Wide pulse width and fast repetition rate. D. Wide pulse width and slow repetition rate. 3-92O5 What pulse width and repetition rate should you use at short ranges? A. Wide pulse width and fast repetition rate. B. Narrow pulse width and slow repetition rate. C. Narrow pulse width and fast repetition rates. D. Wide pulse width and slow repetition rates. 3-92O6 When a RADAR is being operated on the 1.5 mile range setting, what is the most appropriate pulse width and pulse repetition rate? A. 0.25 microseconds PW and 1,000 pps. B. 0.05 microseconds PW and 2,000 pps. C. 1.0 microseconds PW and 500 pps. D. 2.5 microseconds PW and 2,500 pps. Answer Key: 3-92O1: D 3-92O2: C 3-92O3: A 3-92O4: D 3-92O5: C 3-92O6: B 3-93O1 How does the gain of a parabolic dish antenna change when the operating frequency is doubled? A. Gain does not change. B. Gain is multiplied by 0.707. C. Gain increases 6 dB. D. Gain increases 3 dB. 3-93O2 What type of antenna or pickup device is used to extract the RADAR signal from the wave guide? A. J-hook. B. K-hook. C. Folded dipole. D. Circulator. 3-93O3 What happens to the beamwidth of an antenna as the gain is increased? The beamwidth: A. Increases geometrically as the gain is increased. B. Increases arithmetically as the gain is increased. C. Is essentially unaffected by the gain of the antenna. D. Decreases as the gain is increased. 3-93O4 A common shipboard RADAR antenna is the: A. Slotted array. B. Dipole. C. Stacked Yagi. D. Vertical Marconi. 3-93O5 Conductance takes place in a waveguide: A. By interelectron delay. B. Through electrostatic field reluctance. C. In the same manner as a transmission line. D. Through electromagnetic and electrostatic fields in the walls of the waveguide. 3-93O6 To couple energy into and out of a waveguide use: A. Wide copper sheeting. B. A thin piece of wire as an antenna. C. An LC circuit. D. Capacitive coupling. Answer Key: 3-93O1: C 3-93O2: A 3-93O3: D 3-93O4: A 3-93O5: D 3-93O6: B 3-94O1 The permanent magnetic field that surrounds a traveling-wave tube (TWT) is intended to: A. Provide a means of coupling. B. Prevent the electron beam from spreading. C. Prevent oscillations. D. Prevent spurious oscillations. 3-94O2 Prior to testing any RADAR system, the operator should first: A. Check the system grounds. B. Assure the display unit is operating normally. C. Inform the airport control tower or ship’s master. D. Assure no personnel are in front of the antenna. 3-94O3 In the term “ARPA RADAR,” ARPA is the acronym for which of the following? A. Automatic RADAR Plotting Aid. B. Automatic RADAR Positioning Angle. C. American RADAR Programmers Association. D. Authorized RADAR Programmer and Administrator. 3-94O4 Which of the following is NOT a precaution that should be taken to ensure the magnetron is not weakened: A. Keep metal tools away from the magnet. B. Do not subject it to excessive heat. C. Keep the TR properly tuned. D. Do not subject it to shocks and blows. 3-94O5 Exposure to microwave energy from RADAR or other electronics devices is limited by U.S. Health Department regulations to _______ mW/centimeter. A. 0.005 B. 5.0 C. 0.05 D. 0.5 3-94O6 RADAR collision avoidance systems utilize inputs from each of the following except your ship’s: A. Gyrocompass. B. Navigation position receiver. C. Anemometer. D. Speed indicator. Answer Key: 3-94O1: B 3-94O2: D 3-94O3: A 3-94O4: C 3-94O5: B 3-94O6: C 3-95P1 What is the orbiting altitude of the Iridium satellite communications system? A. 22,184 miles. B. 11,492 miles. C. 4,686 miles. D. 485 miles. 3-95P2 What frequency band is used by the Iridium system for telephone and messaging? A. 965 - 985 MHz. B. 1616 -1626 MHz. C. 1855 -1895 MHz. D. 2415 - 2435 MHz. 3-95P3 What services are provided by the Iridium system? A. Analog voice and Data at 4.8 kbps. B. Digital voice and Data at 9.6 kbps. C. Digital voice and Data at 2.4 kbps. D. Analog voice and Data at 9.6 kbps. 3-95P4 Which of the following statements about the Iridium system is true? A. There are 48 spot beams per satellite with a footprint of 30 miles in diameter. B. There are 48 satellites in orbit in 4 orbital planes. C. The inclination of the orbital planes is 55 degrees. D. The orbital period is approximately 85 minutes. 3-95P5 What is the main function of the COSPAS-SARSAT satellite system? A. Monitor 121.5 MHz for voice distress calls. B. Monitor 406 MHz for distress calls from EPIRBs. C. Monitor 1635 MHz for coded distress calls. D. Monitor 2197.5 kHz for hexadecimal coded DSC distress messages. 3-95P6 How does the COSPAS-SARSAT satellite system determine the position of a ship in distress? A. By measuring the Doppler shift of the 406 MHz signal taken at several different points in its orbit. B. The EPIRB always transmits its position which is relayed by the satellite to the Local User Terminal. C. It takes two different satellites to establish an accurate position. D. None of the above. Answer Key: 3-95P1: D 3-95P2: B 3-95P3: C 3-95P4: A 3-95P5: B 3-95P6: A 3-96P1 What is the orbital altitude of INMARSAT Satellites? A. 16, 436 miles. B. 22,177 miles. C. 10, 450 miles. D. 26,435 miles. 3-96P2 Which of the following describes the INMARSAT Satellite system? A. AOR at 35 degrees W, POR-E at 165 degrees W, POR-W at 155 degrees E and IOR at 56.5 degrees E. B. AOR-E at 25 degrees W, AOR-W at 85 degrees W, POR at 175 degrees W and IOR at 56.5 degrees E. C. AOR-E at 15.5 degrees W, AOR-W at 54 degrees W, POR at 178 degrees E and IOR at 64.5 degrees E. D. AOR at 40 degrees W, POR at 178 degrees W, IOR-E at 109 degrees E and IOR-W at 46 degrees E. 3-96P3 What are the directional characteristics of the INMARSAT-C SES antenna? A. Highly directional parabolic antenna requiring stabilization. B. Wide beam width in a cardioid pattern off the front of the antenna. C. Very narrow beam width straight-up from the top of the antenna. D. Omnidirectional. 3-96P4 When engaging in voice communications via an INMARSAT-B terminal, what techniques are used? A. CODECs are used to digitize the voice signal. B. Noise-blanking must be selected by the operator. C. The voice signal must be compressed to fit into the allowed bandwidth. D. The voice signal will be expanded at the receiving terminal. 3-96P5 Which of the following statements concerning INMARSAT geostationary satellites is true? A. They are in a polar orbit, in order to provide true global coverage. B. They are in an equatorial orbit, in order to provide true global coverage. C. They provide coverage to vessels in nearly all of the world’s navigable waters. D. Vessels sailing in equatorial waters are able to use only one satellite, whereas other vessels are able to choose between at least two satellites. 3-96P6 Which of the following conditions can render INMARSAT -B communications impossible? A. An obstruction, such as a mast, causing disruption of the signal between the satellite and the SES antenna when the vessel is steering a certain course. B. A satellite whose signal is on a low elevation, below the horizon. C. Travel beyond the effective radius of the satellite. D. All of these. Answer Key: 3-96P1: B 3-96P2: C 3-96P3: D 3-96P4: A 3-96P5: C 3-96P6: D 3-97P1 What is the best description for the INMARSAT-C system? A. It provides slow speed telex and voice service. B. It is a store-and-forward system that provides routine and distress communications. C. It is a real-time telex system. D. It provides world-wide coverage. 3-97P2 The INMARSAT mini-M system is a: A. Marine SONAR system. B. Marine global satellite system. C. Marine depth finder. D. Satellite system utilizing spot beams to provide for small craft communications. 3-97P3 What statement best describes the INMARSAT-B services? A. Voice at 16 kbps, Fax at 14.4 kbps and high-speed Data at 64/54. B. Store and forward high speed data at 36/48 kbps. C. Voice at 3 kHz, Fax at 9.6 kbps and Data at 4.8 kbps. D. Service is available only in areas served by highly directional spot beam antennas. 3-97P4 Which INMARSAT systems offer High Speed Data at 64/54 kbps? A. C. B. B and C. C. Mini-M. D. B, M4 and Fleet. 3-97P5 When INMARSAT-B and INMARSAT-C terminals are compared: A. INMARSAT-C antennas are small and omni-directional, while INMARSAT-B antennas are larger and directional. B. INMARSAT-B antennas are bulkier but omni-directional, while INMARSAT-C antennas are smaller and parabolic, for aiming at the satellite. C. INMARSAT-B antennas are parabolic and smaller for higher gain, while INMARSAT-C antennas are larger but omni-directional. D. INMARSAT-C antennas are smaller but omni-directional, while INMARSAT-B antennas are parabolic for lower gain. 3-97P6 What services are provided by the INMARSAT-M service? A. Data and Fax at 4.8 kbps plus e-mail. B. Voice at 3 kHz, Fax at 9.6 kbps and Data at 4.8 kbps. C. Voice at 6.2 kbps, Data at 2.4 kbps, Fax at 2.4 kbps and e-mail. D. Data at 4.8 kbps and Fax at 9.6 kbps plus e-mail. Answer Key: 3-97P1: B 3-97P2: D 3-97P3: A 3-97P4: D 3-97P5: A 3-97P6: C 3-98P1 Global Positioning Service (GPS) satellite orbiting altitude is: A. 4,686 miles. B. 24,184 miles. C. 12,554 miles. D. 247 miles. 3-98P2 The GPS transmitted frequencies are: A. 1626.5 MHz and 1644.5 MHz. B. 1227.6 MHz and 1575.4 MHz. C. 2245.4 and 2635.4 MHz. D. 946.2 MHz and 1226.6 MHz. 3-98P3 How many GPS satellites are normally in operation? A. 8 B. 18 C. 24 D. 36 3-98P4 What best describes the GPS Satellites orbits? A. They are in six orbital planes equally spaced and inclined about 55 degrees to the equator. B. They are in four orbital planes spaced 90 degrees in a polar orbit. C. They are in a geosynchronous orbit equally spaced around the equator. D. They are in eight orbital planes at an altitude of approximately 1,000 miles. 3-98P5 How many satellites must be received to provide complete position and time? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 3-98P6 What is DGPS? A. Digital Ground Position System. B. A system to provide additional correction factors to improve position accuracy. C. Correction signals transmitted by satellite. D. A system for providing altitude corrections for aircraft. Answer Key: 3-98P1: C 3-98P2: B 3-98P3: C 3-98P4: A 3-98P5: D 3-98P6: B 3-99Q1 Compliance with MPE, or Maximum Permissible Exposure to RF levels (as defined in FCC Part 1, OET Bulletin 65) for “controlled” environments, are averaged over _______ minutes, while “uncontrolled” RF environments are averaged over ______ minutes. A. 6, 30. B. 30, 6. C. 1, 15. D. 15, 1. 3-99Q2 Sites having multiple transmitting antennas must include antennas with more than _______% of the maximum permissible power density exposure limit when evaluating RF site exposure. A. Any B. 5 C. 1 D. 12.5 3-99Q3 RF exposure from portable radio transceivers may be harmful to the eyes because: A. Magnetic fields blur vision. B. RF heating polarizes the eye lens. C. The magnetic field may attract metal particles to the eye. D. RF heating may cause cataracts. 3-99Q4 At what aggregate power level is an MPE (Maximum Permissible Exposure) study required? A. 1000 Watts ERP. B. 500 Watts ERP. C. 100 Watts ERP. D. Not required. 3-99Q5 Why must you never look directly into a fiber optic cable? A. High power light waves can burn the skin surrounding the eye. B. An active fiber signal may burn the retina and infra-red light cannot be seen. C. The end is easy to break. D. The signal is red and you can see it. 3-99Q6 If the MPE (Maximum Permissible Exposure) power is present, how often must the personnel accessing the affected area be trained and certified? A. Weekly. B. Monthly. C. Yearly. D. Not at all. Answer Key: 3-99Q1: A 3-99Q2: B 3-99Q3: D 3-99Q4: A 3-99Q5: B 3-99Q6: C 3-100Q1 What device can protect a transmitting station from a direct lightning hit? A. Lightning protector. B. Grounded cabinet. C. Short lead in. D. There is no device to protect a station from a direct hit from lightning. 3-100Q2 What is the purpose of not putting sharp corners on the ground leads within a building? A. No reason. B. It is easier to install. C. Lightning will jump off of the ground lead because it is not able to make sharp bends. D. Ground leads should always be made to look good in an installation, including the use of sharp bends in the corners. 3-100Q3 Should you use a power drill without eye protection? A. Yes. B. No. C. It’s okay as long as you keep your face away from the drill bit. D. Only in an extreme emergency. 3-100Q4 What class of fire is one that is caused by an electrical short circuit and what is the preferred substance used to extinguish that type of fire? A. FE28. B. FE29. C. FE30. D. FE31. 3-100Q5 Do shorted-stub lightning protectors work at all frequencies? A. Yes. B. No, the short also kills the radio signals. C. No, the short enhances the radio signal at the tuned band. D. No, only at the tuned frequency band. 3-100Q6 What is a GFI electrical socket used for? A. To prevent electrical shock by sensing ground path current and shutting the circuit down. B. As a gold plated socket. C. To prevent children from sticking objects in the socket. D. To increase the current capacity of the socket. Answer Key: 3-100Q1: D 3-100Q2: C 3-100Q3: B 3-100Q4: C 3-100Q5: D 3-100Q6: A share/E8.txt0000664000175000017500000022126714621245435011367 0ustar jtnjtn8-1A1 Choose the most correct statement containing the parameters which control the size of the target echo. A. Transmitted power, antenna effective area, transmit and receive losses, RADAR cross section of the target, range to target. B. Height of antenna, power radiated, size of target, receiver gain, pulse width. C. Power radiated, antenna gain, size of target, shape of target, pulse width, receiver gain. D. Magnetron gain, antenna gain, size of target, range to target, wave-guide loss. 8-1A2 Which of the following has NO effect on the maximum range capability? A. Carrier frequency. B. Recovery time. C. Pulse repetition frequency. D. Receiver sensitivity. 8-1A3 What type of transmitter power is measured over a period of time? A. Average. B. Peak. C. Reciprocal. D. Return. 8-1A4 What RADAR component controls timing throughout the system? A. Power supply. B. Indicator. C. Synchronizer. D. Receiver. 8-1A5 Which of the following components allows the use of a single antenna for both transmitting and receiving? A. Mixer. B. Duplexer. C. Synchronizer. D. Modulator. 8-1A6 The sweep frequency of a RADAR indicator is determined by what parameter? A. Carrier frequency. B. Pulse width. C. Duty cycle. D. Pulse repetition frequency. Answer Key: 8-1A1: A 8-1A2: B 8-1A3: A 8-1A4: C 8-1A5: B 8-1A6: D 8-2A1 A radio wave will travel a distance of three nautical miles in: A. 6.17 microseconds. B. 37.0 microseconds. C. 22.76 microseconds. D. 18.51 microseconds. 8-2A2 One RADAR mile is how many microseconds? A. 6.2 B. 528.0 C. 12.34 D. 0.186 8-2A3 RADAR range is measured by the constant: A. 150 meters per microsecond. B. 150 yards per microsecond. C. 300 yards per microsecond. D. 18.6 miles per microsecond. 8-2A4 If a target is 5 miles away, how long does it take for the RADAR echo to be received back at the antenna? A. 51.4 microseconds. B. 123 microseconds. C. 30.75 microseconds. D. 61.7 microseconds. 8-2A5 How long would it take for a RADAR pulse to travel to a target 10 nautical miles away and return to the RADAR receiver? A. 12.34 microseconds. B. 1.234 microseconds. C. 123.4 microseconds. D. 10 microseconds. 8-2A6 What is the distance in nautical miles to a target if it takes 308.5 microseconds for the RADAR pulse to travel from the RADAR antenna to the target and back. A. 12.5 nautical miles. B. 25 nautical miles. C. 50 nautical miles. D. 2.5 nautical miles. Answer Key: 8-2A1: D 8-2A2: C 8-2A3: A 8-2A4: D 8-2A5: C 8-2A6: B 8-3A1 Frequencies generally used for marine RADAR are in the ___ part of the radio spectrum. A. UHF B. EHF C. SHF D. VHF 8-3A2 Practical RADAR operation requires the use of microwave frequencies so that: A. Stronger target echoes will be produced. B. Ground clutter interference will be minimized. C. Interference to other communication systems will be eliminated. D. Non-directional antennas can be used for both transmitting and receiving. 8-3A3 An S-band RADAR operates in which frequency band? A. 1 - 2 GHz. B. 4 - 8 GHz. C. 8 - 12 GHz. D. 2 - 4 GHz. 8-3A4 A RADAR operating at a frequency of 3 GHz has a wavelength of approximately: A. 1 centimeter. B. 10 centimeters. C. 3 centimeters. D. 30 centimeters. 8-3A5 The major advantage of an S-band RADAR over an X-band RADAR is: A. It is less affected by weather conditions. B. It has greater bearing resolution. C. It is mechanically less complex. D. It has greater power output. 8-3A6 An X band RADAR operates in which frequency band? A. 1 - 2 GHz. B. 2 - 4 GHz. C. 4 - 8 GHz. D. 8 - 12 GHz. Answer Key: 8-3A1: C 8-3A2: A 8-3A3: D 8-3A4: B 8-3A5: A 8-3A6: D 8-4A1 A pulse RADAR has a pulse repetition frequency (PRF) of 400 Hz, a pulse width of 1 microsecond, and a peak power of 100 kilowatts. The average power of the RADAR transmitter is: A. 25 watts. B. 40 watts. C. 250 watts. D. 400 watts. 8-4A2 A shipboard RADAR transmitter has a pulse repetition frequency (PRF) of 1,000 Hz, a pulse width of 0.5 microseconds, peak power of 150 KW, and a minimum range of 75 meters. Its duty cycle is: A. 0.5 B. 0.05 C. 0.005 D. 0.0005 8-4A3 A pulse RADAR transmits a 0.5 microsecond RF pulse with a peak power of 100 kilowatts every 1600 microseconds. This RADAR has: A. An average power of 31.25 watts. B. A PRF of 3,200. C. A maximum range of 480 kilometers. D. A duty cycle of 3.125 percent. 8-4A4 If a RADAR transmitter has a pulse repetition frequency (PRF) of 900 Hz, a pulse width of 0.5 microseconds and a peak power of 15 kilowatts, what is its average power output? A. 15 kilowatts. B. 13.5 watts. C. 6.75 watts. D. 166.67 watts. 8-4A5 What is the average power if the RADAR set has a PRF of 1000 Hz, a pulse width of 1 microsecond, and a peak power rating of 100 kilowatts? A. 10 watts. B. 100 watts. C. 1,000 watts. D. None of these. 8-4A6 A search RADAR has a pulse width of 1.0 microsecond, a pulse repetition frequency (PRF) of 900 Hz, and an average power of 18 watts. The unit’s peak power is: A. 200 kilowatts. B. 180 kilowatts. C. 20 kilowatts. D. 2 kilowatts. Answer Key: 8-4A1: B 8-4A2: D 8-4A3: A 8-4A4: C 8-4A5: B 8-4A6: C 8-5A1 For a range of 5 nautical miles, the RADAR pulse repetition frequency should be: A. 16.2 Hz or more. B. 16.2 MHz or less. C. 1.62 kHz or more. D. 16.2 kHz or less. 8-5A2 For a range of 100 nautical miles, the RADAR pulse repetition frequency should be: A. 8.1 kHz or less. B. 810 Hz or less. C. 8.1 kHz or more. D. 81 kHz or more. 8-5A3 The minimum range of a RADAR is determined by: A. The frequency of the RADAR transmitter. B. The pulse repetition rate. C. The transmitted pulse width. D. The pulse repetition frequency. 8-5A4 Short range RADARs would most likely transmit: A. Narrow pulses at a fast rate. B. Narrow pulses at a slow rate. C. Wide pulses at a fast rate. D. Wide pulses at a slow rate. 8-5A5 For a range of 30 nautical miles, the RADAR pulse repetition frequency should be: A. 0.27 kHz or less. B. 2.7 kHz or less. C. 27 kHz or more. D. 2.7 Hz or more. 8-5A6 For a range of 10 nautical miles, the RADAR pulse repetition frequency (PRF) should be: A. Approximately 8.1 kHz or less. B. 900 Hz. C. 18.1 kHz or more. D. 120.3 microseconds. Answer Key: 8-5A1: D 8-5A2: B 8-5A3: C 8-5A4: A 8-5A5: B 8-5A6: A 8-6A1 If the PRF is 2500 Hz, what is the PRI? A. 40 microseconds. B. 400 microseconds. C. 250 microseconds. D. 800 microseconds. 8-6A2 If the pulse repetition frequency (PRF) is 2000 Hz, what is the pulse repetition interval (PRI)? A. 0.05 seconds. B. 0.005 seconds. C. 0.0005 seconds. D. 0.00005 seconds. 8-6A3 The pulse repetition rate (PRR) refers to: A. The reciprocal of the duty cycle. B. The pulse rate of the local oscillator tube. C. The pulse rate of the klystron. D. The pulse rate of the magnetron. 8-6A4 If the RADAR unit has a pulse repetition frequency (PRF) of 2000 Hz and a pulse width of 0.05 microseconds, what is the duty cycle? A. 0.0001 B. 0.0005 C. 0.05 D. 0.001 8-6A5 Small targets are best detected by: A. Short pulses transmitted at a fast rate. B. Using J band frequencies. C. Using a long pulse width with high output power. D. All of these answers are correct. 8-6A6 What is the relationship between pulse repetition rate and pulse width? A. Higher PRR with wider pulse width. B. The pulse repetition rate does not change with the pulse width. C. The pulse width does not change with the pulse repetition rate. D. Lower PRR with wider pulse width. Answer Key: 8-6A1: B 8-6A2: C 8-6A3: D 8-6A4: A 8-6A5: C 8-6A6: D 8-7A1 What component of a RADAR receiver is represented by block 46 in Fig. 8A1? A. The ATR box. B. The TR box. C. The RF Attenuator. D. The Crystal Detector. 8-7A2 A basic sample-and-hold circuit contains: A. An analog switch and an amplifier. B. An analog switch, a capacitor, and an amplifier. C. An analog multiplexer and a capacitor. D. An analog switch, a capacitor, amplifiers and input and output buffers. 8-7A3 When comparing a TTL and a CMOS NAND gate: A. Both have active pull-up characteristics. B. Both have three output states. C. Both have comparable input power sourcing. D. Both employ Schmitt diodes for increased speed capabilities. 8-7A4 Silicon crystals: A. Are very sensitive to static electric charges. B. Should be wrapped in lead foil for storage. C. Tolerate very low currents. D. All of these. 8-7A5 Which is typical current for a silicon crystal used in a RADAR mixer or detector circuit? A. 3 mA B. 15 mA C. 50 mA D. 100 mA 8-7A6 What component of a RADAR receiver is represented by block 47 in Fig. 8A1? A. The ATR box. B. The TR box. C. The RF Attenuator. D. The Crystal Detector. Answer Key: 8-7A1: B 8-7A2: D 8-7A3: A 8-7A4: D 8-7A5: A 8-7A6: C 8-8A1 The basic frequency determining element in a Gunn oscillator is: A. The power supply voltage. B. The type of semiconductor used. C. The resonant cavity. D. The loading of the oscillator by the mixer. 8-8A2 Which of the following is not a method of analog-to-digital conversion? A. Delta-sigma conversion. B. Dynamic-range conversion. C. Switched-capacitor conversion. D. Dual-slope integration. 8-8A3 When comparing TTL and CMOS logic families, which of the following is true: A. CMOS logic requires a supply voltage of 5 volts +/- 20%, whereas TTL logic requires 5 volts +/- 5%. B. Unused inputs should be tied high or low as necessary especially in the CMOS family. C. At higher operating frequencies, CMOS circuits consume almost as much power as TTL circuits. D. When a CMOS input is held low, it sources current into whatever it drives. 8-8A4 The primary operating frequency of a reflex klystron is controlled by the: A. Dimensions of the resonant cavity. B. Level of voltage on the control grid. C. Voltage applied to the cavity grids. D. Voltage applied to the repeller plate. 8-8A5 A Gunn diode oscillator takes advantage of what effect? A. Negative resistance. B. Avalanche transit time. C. Bulk-effect. D. Negative resistance and bulk-effect. 8-8A6 Fine adjustments of a reflex klystron are accomplished by: A. Adjusting the flexible wall of the cavity. B. Varying the repeller voltage. C. Adjusting the AFC control system. D. Varying the cavity grid potential. Answer Key: 8-8A1: C 8-8A2: B 8-8A3: C 8-8A4: A 8-8A5: D 8-8A6: B 8-9A1 Blocking oscillators operate on the formula of: A. T = R x C. B. I = E/R. C. By using the receiver’s AGC. D. None of the above are correct. 8-9A2 The block diagram of a typical RADAR system microprocessor is shown in Fig. 8A2. Choose the most correct statement regarding this system. A. The ALU is used for address decoding. B. The Memory and I/O communicate with peripherals. C. The control unit executes arithmetic manipulations. D. The internal bus is used simultaneously by all units. 8-9A3 The phantastron circuit is capable of: A. Stabilizing the magnetron. B. Preventing saturation of the RADAR receiver. C. Being used to control repeller voltage in the AFC system. D. Developing a linear ramp voltage when triggered by an external source. 8-9A4 The block diagram of a typical RADAR system microprocessor is shown in Fig. 8A2. Choose the most correct statement regarding this system. A. The ALU executes arithmetic manipulations. B. The ALU is used for address decoding. C. General registers are used for arithmetic manipulations. D. Address pointers are contained in the control unit. 8-9A5 In the Line-Driver/Coax/Line-receiver circuit shown in Fig. 8A3, what component is represented by the blank box marked "X"? A. 25-ohm resistor. B. 51-ohm resistor. C. 10-microhm inductor. D. 20-microhm inductor. 8-9A6 Choose the most correct statement: A. The magnetron anode is a low voltage circuit. B. The anode of the magnetron carries high voltage. C. The filament of the magnetron carries dangerous voltages. D. The magnetron filament is a low voltage circuit. Answer Key: 8-9A1: A 8-9A2: B 8-9A3: D 8-9A4: A 8-9A5: B 8-9A6: C 8-10A1 In the circuit shown in Fig. 8A4, U5 pins 1 and 4 are high and both are in the reset state. Assume one clock cycle occurs of Clk A followed by one cycle of Clk B. What are the output states of the two D-type flip flops? A. Pin 5 low, Pin 9 low. B. Pin 5 high, Pin 9 low. C. Pin 5 low, Pin 9 high. D. Pin 5 high, Pin 9 high. 8-10A2 If more light strikes the photodiode in Fig. 8A5, there will be: A. Less diode current. B. No change in diode current. C. More diode current. D. There is wrong polarity on the diode. 8-10A3 In the circuit shown in Fig. 8A6, which of the following is true? A. With A and B high, Q1 is saturated and Q2 is off. B. With either A or B low, Q1 is saturated and Q2 is off. C. With A and B low, Q2 is on and Q4 is off. D. With either A or B low, Q1 is off and Q2 is on. 8-10A4 What is the correct value of RS in Fig. 8A7, if the voltage across the LED is 1.9 Volts with 5 Volts applied and If max equals 40 milliamps? A. 4,700 ohms. B. 155 ohms. C. 77 ohms. D. 10,000 ohms. 8-10A5 The block diagram of a typical RADAR system microprocessor is shown in Fig. 8A2. Choose the most correct statement regarding this system. A. The ALU is used for address decoding. B. General registers are used for arithmetic manipulations. C. The control unit executes arithmetic manipulations. D. Address pointers are contained in the general registers. 8-10A6 You are troubleshooting a component on a printed circuit board in a RADAR system while referencing the Truth Table in Fig. 8A8. What kind of integrated circuit is the component? A. D-type Flip-Flop, 3-State, Inverting. B. Q-type Flip-Flop, Non-Inverting. C. Q-type Directional Shift Register, Dual. D. D to Q Convertor, 2-State. Answer Key: 8-10A1: D 8-10A2: C 8-10A3: B 8-10A4: C 8-10A5: D 8-10A6: A 8-11B1 The magnetron is used to: A. Generate the output signal at the proper operating frequency. B. Determine the shape and width of the transmitted pulses. C. Modulate the pulse signal. D. Determine the pulse repetition rate. 8-11B2 The purpose of the modulator is to: A. Transmit the high voltage pulses to the antenna. B. Provide high voltage pulses of the proper shape and width to the magnetron. C. Adjust the pulse repetition rate. D. Tune the Magnetron to the proper frequency. 8-11B3 Which of the following statements about most modern RADAR transmitter power supplies is false? A. High voltage supplies may produce voltages in excess of 5,000 volts AC. B. There are usually separate low voltage and high voltage supplies. C. Low voltage supplies use switching circuits to deliver multiple voltages. D. Low voltage supplies may supply both AC and DC voltages. 8-11B4 The purpose of the Pulse Forming Network is to: A. Act as a low pass filter. B. Act as a high pass filter. C. Produce a pulse of the correct width. D. Regulate the pulse repetition rate. 8-11B5 The purpose of the Synchronizer is to: A. Generate the modulating pulse to the magnetron. B. Generate a timing signal that establishes the pulse repetition rate. C. Insure that the TR tube conducts at the proper time. D. Control the pulse width. 8-11B6 Which of the following is not part of the transmitting system? A. Magnetron. B. Modulator. C. Pulse Forming Network. D. Klystron. Answer Key: 8-11B1: A 8-11B2: B 8-11B3: A 8-11B4: C 8-11B5: B 8-11B6: D 8-12B1 High voltage is applied to what element of the magnetron? A. The waveguide. B. The anode. C. The plate cap. D. The cathode. 8-12B2 The characteristic of the magnetron output pulse that relates to accurate range measurement is its: A. Amplitude. B. Decay time. C. Rise time. D. Duration. 8-12B3 What device is used as a transmitter in a marine RADAR system? A. Magnetron. B. Klystron. C. Beam-powered pentode. D. Thyratron. 8-12B4 The magnetron is: A. A type of diode that requires an internal magnetic field. B. A triode that requires an external magnetic field. C. Used as the local oscillator in the RADAR unit. D. A type of diode that requires an external magnetic field. 8-12B5 A negative voltage is commonly applied to the magnetron cathode rather than a positive voltage to the magnetron anode because: A. The cathode must be made neutral to force electrons into the drift area. B. A positive voltage would tend to nullify or weaken the magnetic field. C. The anode can be operated at ground potential for safety reasons. D. The cavities might not be shock-excited into oscillation by a positive voltage. 8-12B6 The anode of a magnetron is normally maintained at ground potential: A. Because it operates more efficiently that way. B. For safety purposes. C. Never. It must be highly positive to attract the electrons. D. Because greater peak-power ratings can be achieved. Answer Key: 8-12B1: D 8-12B2: C 8-12B3: A 8-12B4: D 8-12B5: C 8-12B6: B 8-13B1 In a solid-state RADAR modulator, the duration of the transmitted pulse is determined by: A. The thyratron. B. The magnetron voltage. C. The pulse forming network. D. The trigger pulse. 8-13B2 The modulation frequency of most RADAR systems is between: A. 60 and 500 Hz. B. 3000 and 6000 Hz. C. 1500 and 7500 Hz. D. 1000 and 3000 Hz. 8-13B3 A shipboard RADAR uses a PFN driving a magnetron cathode through a step-up transformer. This results in which type of modulation? A. Frequency modulation. B. Amplitude modulation. C. Continuous Wave (CW) modulation. D. Pulse modulation. 8-13B4 In a pulse modulated magnetron what device determines the shape and width of the pulse? A. Pulse Forming Network. B. Thyratron. C. LC parallel circuit. D. Dimensions of the magnetron cavity. 8-13B5 What device(s) may act as the modulator of a RADAR system? A. Magnetron. B. Klystron. C. Video amplifier. D. Thyratron or a silicon-controlled rectifier (SCR). 8-13B6 The purpose of a modulator in the transmitter section of a RADAR is to: A. Improve bearing resolution. B. Provide the correct waveform to the transmitter. C. Prevent sea return. D. Control magnetron power output. Answer Key: 8-13B1: C 8-13B2: A 8-13B3: D 8-13B4: A 8-13B5: D 8-13B6: B 8-14B1 The pulse developed by the modulator may have an amplitude greater than the supply voltage. This is possible by: A. Using a voltage multiplier circuit. B. Employing a resonant charging choke. C. Discharging a capacitor through an inductor. D. Discharging two capacitors in series and combining their charges. 8-14B2 Pulse transformers and pulse-forming networks are commonly used to shape the microwave energy burst RADAR transmitter. The switching devices most often used in such pulse-forming circuits are: A. Power MOSFETS and Triacs. B. Switching transistors. C. Thyratrons and BJT’s. D. SCR’s and Thyratrons. 8-14B3 The purpose of the pulse-forming network is to: A. Determine the width of the modulating pulses. B. Determine the pulse repetition rate. C. Act as a high pass filter. D. Act as a log pass filter. 8-14B4 The shape and duration of the high-voltage pulse delivered to the magnetron is established by: A. An RC network in the keyer stage. B. The duration of the modulator input trigger. C. An artificial delay line. D. The time required to saturate the pulse transformer. 8-14B5 Pulse-forming networks are usually composed of the following: A. Series capacitors and shunt inductors. B. Series inductors and shunt capacitors. C. Resonant circuit with an inductor and capacitor. D. None of the above. 8-14B6 An artificial transmission line is used for: A. The transmission of RADAR pulses. B. Testing the RADAR unit, when actual targets are not available. C. Determining the shape and duration of pulses. D. Testing the delay time for artificial targets. Answer Key: 8-14B1: B 8-14B2: D 8-14B3: A 8-14B4: C 8-14B5: B 8-14B6: C 8-15B1 The ferrite material in a circulator is used as a(an): A. Electric switch. B. Saturated reactor. C. Loading element. D. Phase shifter. 8-15B2 In a circular resonant cavity with flat ends, the E-field and the H-field form with specific relationships. The: A. E-lines are parallel to the top and bottom walls. B. E-lines are perpendicular to the end walls. C. H-lines are perpendicular to the side walls. D. H-lines are circular to the end walls. 8-15B3 A ferrite circulator is most commonly used in what portion of a RADAR system? A. The antenna. B. The modulator. C. The duplexer. D. The receiver. 8-15B4 A circulator provides what function in the RF section of a RADAR system? A. It replaces the TR cell and functions as a duplexer. B. It cools the magnetron by forcing a flow of circulating air. C. It permits tests to be made to the thyristors while in use. D. It transmits antenna position to the indicator during operation. 8-15B5 A directional coupler has an attenuation of -30 db. A measurement of 100 milliwatts at the coupler indicates the power of the line is: A. 10 watts. B. 100 watts. C. 1,000 watts. D. 10,000 watts. 8-15B6 What is the purpose or function of the RADAR duplexer/circulator? A. An electronic switch that allows the use of one antenna for both transmission and reception. B. A coupling device that is used in the transition from a rectangular waveguide to a circular waveguide. C. A modified length of waveguide used to sample a portion of the transmitted energy for testing purposes. D. A dual section coupling device that allows the use of a magnetron as a transmitter. Answer Key: 8-15B1: D 8-15B2: B 8-15B3: C 8-15B4: A 8-15B5: B 8-15B6: A 8-16B1 The ATR box: A. Protects the receiver from strong RADAR signals. B. Prevents the received signal from entering the transmitter. C. Turns off the receiver when the transmitter is on. D. All of the above. 8-16B2 When a pulse RADAR is radiating, which elements in the TR box are energized? A. The TR tube only. B. The ATR tube only. C. Both the TR and ATR tubes. D. Neither the TR nor ATR tubes. 8-16B3 The TR box: A. Prevents the received signal from entering the transmitter. B. Protects the receiver from the strong RADAR pulses. C. Turns off the receiver when the transmitter is on. D. Protects the receiver from the strong RADAR pulses and mutes the receiver when the transmitter is on. 8-16B4 What device is located between the magnetron and the mixer and prevents received signals from entering the magnetron? A. The ATR tube. B. The TR tube. C. The RF Attenuator. D. A resonant cavity. 8-16B5 A keep-alive voltage is applied to: A. The crystal detector. B. The ATR tube. C. The TR tube. D. The magnetron. 8-16B6 A DC keep-alive potential: A. Is applied to a TR tube to make it more sensitive. B. Partially ionizes the gas in a TR tube, making it very sensitive to transmitter pulses. C. Fully ionizes the gas in a TR tube. D. Is applied to a TR tube to make it more sensitive and partially ionizes the gas in a TR tube. Answer Key: 8-16B1: B 8-16B2: C 8-16B3: D 8-16B4: A 8-16B5: C 8-16B6: D 8-17B1 What RADAR circuit determines the pulse repetition rate (PRR)? A. Discriminator. B. Timer (synchronizer circuit). C. Artificial transmission line. D. Pulse-rate-indicator circuit. 8-17B2 The triggering section is also known as the: A. PFN. B. Timer circuit. C. Blocking oscillator. D. Synchronizer. 8-17B3 Operation of any RADAR system begins in the: A. Triggering section. B. Magnetron. C. AFC. D. PFN. 8-17B4 The timer circuit: A. Determines the pulse repetition rate (PRR). B. Determines range markers. C. Provides blanking and unblanking signals for the CRT. D. All of the above 8-17B5 Pulse RADARs require precise timing for their operation. Which type circuit below might best be used to provide these accurate timing pulses? A. Single-swing blocking oscillator. B. AFC controlled sinewave oscillator. C. Non-symmetrical astable multivibrator. D. Triggered flip-flop type multivibrator. 8-17B6 Unblanking pulses are produced by the timer circuit. Where are they sent? A. IF amplifiers. B. Mixer. C. CRT. D. Discriminator. Answer Key: 8-17B1: B 8-17B2: D 8-17B3: A 8-17B4: D 8-17B5: A 8-17B6: C 8-18B1 An advantage of resonant charging is that it: A. Eliminates the need for a reverse current diode. B. Guarantees perfectly square output pulses. C. Reduces the high-voltage power supply requirements. D. Maintains a constant magnetron output frequency. 8-18B2 The characteristics of a field-effect transistor (FET) used in a modern RADAR switching power supply can be compared as follows: A. “On” state compares to a bipolar transistor. “Off” state compares to a 1-Megohm resistor. B. “On” state compares to a pure resistor. “Off” state compares to a mechanical relay. C. “On” state compares to an low resistance inductor. “Off” state compares to a 10-Megohm resistor. D. “On” state compares to a resistor. “Off” state compares to a capacitor. 8-18B3 A pulse-width modulator in a switching power supply is used to: A. Provide the reference voltage for the regulator. B. Vary the frequency of the switching regulator to control the output voltage. C. Vary the duty cycle of the regulator switch to control the output voltage. D. Compare the reference voltage with the output voltage sample and produce an error voltage. 8-18B4 In a fixed-frequency switching power supply, the pulse width of the switching circuit will increase when: A. The load impedance decreases. B. The load current decreases. C. The output voltage increases. D. The input voltage increases. 8-18B5 A major consideration for the use of a switching regulator power supply over a linear regulator is: A. The switching regulator has better regulation. B. The linear regulator does not require a transformer to step down AC line voltages to a usable level. C. The switching regulator can be used in nearly all applications requiring regulated voltage. D. The overall efficiency of a switching regulator is much higher than a linear power supply. 8-18B6 Which of the following characteristics are true of a power MOSFET used in a RADAR switching supply? A. Low input impedance; failure mode can be gate punch-through. B. High input impedance; failure mode can be gate punch-through. C. High input impedance; failure mode can be thermal runaway. D. Low input impedance; failure mode can be gate breakdown. Answer Key: 8-18B1: C 8-18B2: B 8-18B3: C 8-18B4: A 8-18B5: D 8-18B6: B 8-19C1 Which of the following statements is true? A. The front end of the receiver does not provide any amplification to the RADAR signal. B. The mixer provides a gain of at least 6 db. C. The I.F. amplifier is always a high gain, narrow bandwidth amplifier. D. None of the above. 8-19C2 Logarithmic receivers: A. Can’t be damaged. B. Can’t be saturated. C. Should not be used in RADAR systems. D. Have low sensitivity. 8-19C3 RADAR receivers are similar to: A. FM receivers. B. HF receivers. C. T.V. receivers. D. Microwave receivers. 8-19C4 What section of the receiving system sends signals to the display system? A. Video amplifier. B. Audio amplifier. C. I.F. Amplifier. D. Resolver. 8-19C5 What is the main difference between an analog and a digital receiver? A. Special amplification circuitry. B. The presence of decision circuitry to distinguish between “on” and “off” signal levels. C. An AGC stage is not required in a digital receiver. D. Digital receivers produce no distortion. 8-19C6 In a RADAR receiver, the RF power amplifier: A. Is high gain. B. Is low gain. C. Does not exist. D. Requires wide bandwidth. Answer Key: 8-19C1: A 8-19C2: B 8-19C3: D 8-19C4: A 8-19C5: B 8-19C6: C 8-20C1 The diagram in Fig. 8C9 shows a simplified RADAR mixer circuit using a crystal diode as the first detector. What is the output of the circuit when no echoes are being received? A. 60 MHz CW. B. 4095 MHz CW. C. 4155 MHz CW. D. No output is developed. 8-20C2 In the receive mode, frequency conversion is generally accomplished by a: A. Tunable wave-guide section. B. Pentagrid converter. C. Crystal diode. D. Ferrite device. 8-20C3 An RF mixer has what purpose in a RADAR system? A. Mixes the CW transmitter output to form pulsed waves. B. Converts a low-level signal to a different frequency. C. Prevents microwave oscillations from reaching the antenna. D. Combines audio tones with RF to produce the RADAR signal. 8-20C4 In a RADAR unit, the mixer uses a: A. Pentagrid converter tube. B. Field-effect transistor. C. Silicon crystal or PIN diode. D. Microwave transistor. 8-20C5 What component of a RADAR receiver is represented by block 49 in Fig. 8A1? A. Discriminator. B. IF amplifier. C. Klystron. D. Crystal detector (the mixer). 8-20C6 In a RADAR unit, the mixer uses: A. PIN diodes and silicon crystals. B. PIN diodes. C. Boettcher crystals. D. Silicon crystals. Answer Key: 8-20C1: D 8-20C2: C 8-20C3: B 8-20C4: C 8-20C5: D 8-20C6: A 8-21C1 The error voltage from the discriminator is applied to the: A. Repeller (reflector) of the klystron. B. Grids of the IF amplifier. C. Grids of the RF amplifiers. D. Magnetron. 8-21C2 In a RADAR unit, the local oscillator is a: A. Hydrogen Thyratron. B. Klystron. C. Pentagrid converter tube. D. Reactance tube modulator. 8-21C3 What component of a RADAR receiver is represented by block 48 in Fig. 8A1? A. Klystron (local oscillator). B. Discriminator. C. IF amplifier. D. Crystal detector. 8-21C4 What device(s) could be used as the local oscillator in a RADAR receiver? A. Thyratron B. Klystron C. Klystron and a Gunn Diode D. Gunn diode 8-21C5 The klystron local oscillator is constantly kept on frequency by: A. Constant manual adjustments. B. The Automatic Frequency Control circuit. C. A feedback loop from the crystal detector. D. A feedback loop from the TR box. 8-21C6 How may the frequency of the klystron be varied? A. Small changes can be made by adjusting the anode voltage. B. Large changes can be made by adjusting the frequency. C. By changing the phasing of the buncher grids D. Small changes can be made by adjusting the repeller voltage and large changes can be made by adjusting the size of the resonant cavity. Answer Key: 8-21C1: A 8-21C2: B 8-21C3: A 8-21C4: C 8-21C5: B 8-21C6: D 8-22C1 Overcoupling in a RADAR receiver will cause? A. Improved target returns. B. Increase the range of the IAGC. C. Decrease noise. D. Oscillations. 8-22C2 The usual intermediate frequency of a shipboard RADAR unit is: A. 455 kHz. B. 10.7 MHz. C. 30 or 60 MHz. D. 120 MHz. 8-22C3 The I.F. Amplifier bandwidth is: A. Wide for short ranges and narrow for long ranges. B. Wide for long ranges and narrow for short ranges. C. Constant for all ranges. D. Adjustable from the control panel. 8-22C4 A logarithmic IF amplifier is preferable to a linear IF amplifier in a RADAR receiver because it: A. Has higher gain. B. Is more easily aligned. C. Has a lower noise figure. D. Has a greater dynamic range. 8-22C5 The high-gain IF amplifiers in a RADAR receiver may amplify a 2 microvolt input signal to an output level of 2 volts. This amount of amplification represents a gain of: A. 60 db. B. 100 db. C. 120 db. D. 1,000 db. 8-22C6 In a RADAR receiver AGC and IAGC can vary between: A. 10 and 15 db. B. 20 and 40 db. C. 30 and 60 db. D. 5 and 30 db. Answer Key: 8-22C1: D 8-22C2: C 8-22C3: A 8-22C4: D 8-22C5: C 8-22C6: B 8-23C1 Which of the following statements is correct? A. The video amplifier is located between the mixer and the I.F. amplifier. B. The video amplifier operates between 60 MHz and 120 Mhz. C. The video amplifier is located between the I.F. amplifier and the display system. D. The video amplifier is located between the local oscillator and the mixer. 8-23C2 Video amplifiers in pulse RADAR receivers must have a broad bandwidth because: A. Weak pulses must be amplified. B. High frequency sine waves must be amplified. C. The RADARs operate at PRFs above 100. D. The pulses produced are normally too wide for video amplification. 8-23C3 In video amplifiers, compensation for the input and output stage capacitances must be accomplished to prevent distorting the video pulses. This compensation is normally accomplished by connecting: A. Inductors in parallel with both the input and output capacitances. B. Resistances in parallel with both the input and output capacitances. C. An inductor in parallel with the input capacitance and an inductor in series with the output capacitance. D. An inductor in series with the input capacitance and an inductor in parallel with the output capacitance. 8-23C4 Which of the following signals is not usually an input to the video amplifier? A. Resolver. B. Range. C. Brilliance. D. Contrast. 8-23C5 Which of the following signals are usually an input to the video amplifier? A. Range. B. Brilliance. C. Contrast. D. All of the above. 8-23C6 The video (second) detector in a pulse modulated RADAR system would most likely use a/an: A. Discriminator detector. B. Diode detector. C. Ratio detector. D. Infinite impedance detector. Answer Key: 8-23C1: C 8-23C2: A 8-23C3: D 8-23C4: A 8-23C5: D 8-23C6: B 8-24C1 The AFC system is used to: A. Control the frequency of the magnetron. B. Control the frequency of the klystron. C. Control the receiver gain. D. Control the frequency of the incoming pulses. 8-24C2 A circuit used to develop AFC voltage in a RADAR receiver is called the: A. Peak detector. B. Crystal mixer. C. Second detector. D. Discriminator. 8-24C3 In the AFC system, the discriminator compares the frequencies of the: A. Magnetron and klystron. B. PRR generator and magnetron. C. Magnetron and crystal detector. D. Magnetron and video amplifier. 8-24C4 An AFC system keeps the receiver tuned to the transmitted signal by varying the frequency of the: A. Magnetron. B. IF amplifier stage. C. Local oscillator. D. Cavity duplexer. 8-24C5 A RADAR transmitter is operating on 3.0 GHz and the reflex klystron local oscillator, operating at 3.060 GHz, develops a 60 MHz IF. If the magnetron drifts higher in frequency, the AFC system must cause the klystron repeller plate to become: A. More positive. B. More negative. C. Less positive. D. Less negative. 8-24C6 What component is block 50 in Fig. 8A1? A. IF amplifier. B. AFC amplifier. C. Discriminator. D. Crystal detector. Answer Key: 8-24C1: B 8-24C2: D 8-24C3: A 8-24C4: C 8-24C5: B 8-24C6: C 8-25C1 The STC circuit is used to: A. Increase receiver stability. B. Increase receiver sensitivity. C. Increase receiver selectivity. D. Decrease sea return on a RADAR receiver. 8-25C2 The STC circuit: A. Increases the sensitivity of the receiver for close targets. B. Decreases sea return on the PPI scope. C. Helps to increase the bearing resolution of targets. D. Increases sea return on the PPI scope. 8-25C3 Sea return is: A. Sea water that gets into the antenna system. B. The return echo from a target at sea. C. The reflection of RADAR signals from nearby waves. D. None of the above. 8-25C4 Sea clutter on the RADAR scope cannot be effectively reduced using front panel controls. What circuit would you suspect is faulty? A. Sensitivity Time Control (STC) circuit. B. False Target Eliminator (FTE) circuit. C. Fast Time Constant (FTC) circuit. D. Intermediate Frequency (IF) circuit. 8-25C5 What circuit controls the suppression of sea clutter? A. EBL circuit. B. STC circuit. C. Local oscillator. D. Audio amplifier. 8-25C6 The sensitivity time control (STC) circuit: A. Decreases the sensitivity of the receiver for close objects. B. Increases the sensitivity of the receiver for close objects. C. Increases the sensitivity of the receiver for distant objects. D. Decreases the sensitivity of the transmitter for close objects. Answer Key: 8-25C1: D 8-25C2: B 8-25C3: C 8-25C4: A 8-25C5: B 8-25C6: A 8-26C1 Prior to making “power-on” measurements on a switching power supply, you should be familiar with the supply because of the following: A. You need to know where the filter capacitors are so they can be discharged. B. If it does not use a line isolation transformer you may destroy the supply with grounded test equipment. C. It is not possible to cause a component failure by using ungrounded test equipment. D. So that measurements can be made without referring to the schematic. 8-26C2 A constant frequency switching power supply regulator with an input voltage of 165 volts DC, and a switching frequency of 20 kHz, has an “ON” time of 27 microseconds when supplying 1 ampere to its load. What is the output voltage across the load? A. It cannot be determined with the information given. B. 305.55 volts DC. C. 89.1 volts DC. D. 165 volts DC. 8-26C3 The circuit shown in Fig. 8C10 is the output of a switching power supply. Measuring from the junction of CR6, CR7 and L1 to ground with an oscilloscope, what waveform would you expect to see? A. Filtered DC. B. Pulsating DC at line frequency. C. AC at line frequency. D. Pulsating DC much higher than line frequency. 8-26C4 With regard to the comparator shown in Fig. 8C11, the input is a sinusoid. Nominal high level output of the comparator is 4.5 volts. Choose the most correct statement regarding the input and output. A. The leading edge of the output waveform occurs 180 degrees after positive zero crossing of the input waveform. B. The rising edge of the output waveform trails the positive zero crossing of the input waveform by 45 degrees. C. The rising edge of the output waveform trails the negative zero crossing of the input waveform by 45 degrees. D. The rising edge of the output waveform trails the positive peak of the input waveform by 45 degrees. 8-26C5 When monitoring the gate voltage of a power MOSFET in the switching power supply of a modern RADAR, you would expect to see the gate voltage change from “low” to “high” by how much? A. 1 volt to 2 volts. B. 300 microvolts to 700 microvolts. C. Greater than 2 volts. D. 1.0 volt to 20.0 volts. 8-26C6 The nominal output high of the comparator shown in Fig. 8C11 is 4.5 volts. Choose the most correct statement which describes the trip points. A. Upper trip point is 4.5 volts. Lower trip point is approximately 0 volts. B. Upper trip point is 2.5 volts. Lower trip point is approximately 2.0 volts. C. Upper trip point is 900 microvolts. Lower trip point is approximately 0 volts. D. Upper trip point is +1.285 volts. Lower trip point is -1.285 volts. Answer Key: 8-26C1: B 8-26C2: C 8-26C3: D 8-26C4: A 8-26C5: C 8-26C6: D 8-27C1 One of the best methods of reducing noise in a RADAR receiver is? A. Changing the frequency. B. Isolation. C. Replacing the resonant cavity. D. Changing the IF strip. 8-27C2 The primary cause of noise in a RADAR receiver can be attributed to: A. Electrical causes. B. Atmospheric changes. C. Poor grounding. D. Thermal noise caused by RADAR receiver components. 8-27C3 Noise can appear on the LCD as: A. Erratic video and sharp changes in intensity. B. Black spots on the screen. C. Changes in bearings. D. None of the above. 8-27C4 RADAR interference on a communications receiver appears as: A. A varying tone. B. Static. C. A hissing tone. D. A steady tone. 8-27C5 In a RADAR receiver the most common types of interference are? A. Weather and sea return. B. Sea return and thermal. C. Weather and electrical. D. Jamming and electrical. 8-27C6 Noise can: A. Mask larger targets. B. Change bearings. C. Mask small targets. D. Increase RADAR transmitter interference. Answer Key: 8-27C1: B 8-27C2: D 8-27C3: A 8-27C4: D 8-27C5: A 8-27C6: C 8-28C1 The purpose of the discriminator circuit in a RADAR set is to: A. Discriminate against nearby objects. B. Discriminate against two objects with very similar bearings. C. Generate a corrective voltage for controlling the frequency of the klystron local oscillator. D. Demodulate or remove the intelligence from the FM signal. 8-28C2 The MTI circuit: A. Acts as a mixer in a RADAR receiver. B. Is a filter, which blocks out stationary targets, allowing only moving targets to be detected. C. Is used to monitor transmitter interference. D. Will pick up targets, which are not in motion. 8-28C3 Where is a RF attenuator used in a RADAR unit? A. Between the antenna and the receiver. B. Between the magnetron and the antenna. C. Between the magnetron and the AFC section of the receiver. D. Between the AFC section and the klystron. 8-28C4 The condition known as “glint” refers to a shifting of clutter with each RADAR pulse and can be caused by a: A. Improperly functioning MTI filter. B. Memory failure. C. Low AFC voltage. D. Interference from electrical equipment. 8-28C5 An ion discharge (TR) cell is used to: A. Protect the transmitter from high SWRs. B. Lower the noise figure of the receiver. C. Tune the local oscillator of the RADAR receiver. D. Protect the receiver mixer during the transmit pulse. 8-28C6 When the receiver employs an MTI circuit: A. The receiver gain increases with time. B. Only moving targets will be displayed. C. The receiver AGC circuits are disabled. D. Ground clutter will be free of “rabbits.” Answer Key: 8-28C1: C 8-28C2: B 8-28C3: C 8-28C4: A 8-28C5: D 8-28C6: B 8-29D1 Modern liquid crystal displays have a pixel count of: A. Greater than 200 pixels per inch. B. Greater than 50 pixels per inch. C. Can have no more than 125 pixels per inch. D. Can implement 1,000 pixels per inch. 8-29D2 Voltages used in CRT anode circuits are in what range of value? A. 0.5-10 mV. B. 10-50 kV. C. 20-50 mV. D. 200-1000 V. 8-29D3 The purpose of the aquadag coating on the CRT is: A. To protect the electrons from strong electric fields. B. To act as a second anode. C. To attract secondary emissions from the CRT screen. D. All of the above 8-29D4 LCD patterns are formed when: A. Current passes through the crystal causing them to align. B. When voltage is reduced to the raster scan display. C. When the deflection coils are resonant. D. When the ships antenna’s bearing is true North. 8-29D5 In a raster-type display, the electron beam is scanned: A. From the center of the display to the outer edges. B. Horizontally and vertically across the CRT face. C. In a rotating pattern which follows the antenna position. D. From one specified X-Y coordinate to the next. 8-29D6 Select the statement, which is most correct regarding a raster scan display. A. Raster displays are the same as conventional T.V. receivers. B. The scan rate for a RADAR system is 30 frames per second. C. Raster scanning is controlled by clock pulses and requires an address bus. D. Raster scanning is not used in RADAR systems. Answer Key: 8-29D1: A 8-29D2: B 8-29D3: D 8-29D4: A 8-29D5: B 8-29D6: C 8-30D1 What are the usual input signals to the video amplifier? A. Low level video. B. Fixed range rings. C. Variable range rings. D. All of the above. 8-30D2 Which of the following would not normally be an input to the video amplifier? A. Fixed range rings. B. Variable range rings. C. Resolver signal. D. Low level video. 8-30D3 The purpose of the sweep amplifier is to: A. Increase the power of the video amplifier. B. Drive the CRT deflection coils. C. Drive the resolver coils. D. All of the above. 8-30D4 How many deflection coils are driven by the sweep amplifier? A. 4 B. 3 C. 2 D. 1 8-30D5 The main purpose of the sweep generator is to provide: A. Antenna information. B. Range rings. C. Composite video to the cathode of the CRT. D. The drive signal to the sweep amplifier. 8-30D6 The main purpose of the video amplifier is to provide: A. Composite video to the cathode of the CRT. B. Resolver signals C. Antenna X and Y signals. D. Provide the drive signal to the sweep amplifier. Answer Key: 8-30D1: D 8-30D2: C 8-30D3: B 8-30D4: C 8-30D5: D 8-30D6: A 8-31D1 Timing circuits are used to provide what function? A. Develop synchronizing pulses for the transmitter system. B. Synchronize the antenna and display system. C. Adjust the sea return. D. Control the North Up presentation. 8-31D2 The circuit that develops timing signals is called the: A. Resolver. B. Synchronizer. C. Pulse forming network. D. Video amplifier. 8-31D3 Which of the following functions is not affected by the timing circuit? A. Resolver output. B. Pulse repetition frequency. C. Sweep drive. D. Modulation. 8-31D4 The synchronizer primarily affects the following circuit or function: A. Mixer. B. Receiver. C. Modulator. D. I.F. Amplifier. 8-31D5 The output from the synchronizer usually consists of a: A. Sine wave. B. Pulse or square wave. C. Triangle wave. D. None of the above. 8-31D6 The sweep drive is initiated by what circuit? A. Resolver. B. Sweep amplifier. C. Video amplifier. D. Synchronizer. Answer Key: 8-31D1: A 8-31D2: B 8-31D3: A 8-31D4: C 8-31D5: B 8-31D6: D 8-32D1 Accurate range markers must be developed using very narrow pulses. A circuit that could be used to provide these high-quality pulses for the CRT is a: A. Ringing oscillator. B. Monostable multivibrator. C. Triggered bi-stable multivibrator. D. Blocking oscillator. 8-32D2 Range markers are determined by: A. The CRT. B. The magnetron. C. The timer. D. The video amplifier. 8-32D3 A gated LC oscillator, operating at 27 kHz, is being used to develop range markers. If each cycle is converted to a range mark, the range between markers will be: A. 3 nautical miles. B. 6 nautical miles. C. 8 nautical miles. D. 12 nautical miles. 8-32D4 What would be the frequency of a range ring marker oscillator generating range rings at 10 nautical miles intervals? A. 24 kHz B. 16 kHz C. 12 kHz D. 8 kHz 8-32D5 What is the distance between range markers if the controlling oscillator is operating at 20 kHz? A. 1 nautical miles. B. 2 nautical miles. C. 4 nautical miles. D. 8 nautical miles. 8-32D6 What would be the frequency of a range ring marker oscillator generating range rings at intervals of 0.25 nautical miles? A. 161 kHz B. 322 kHz C. 644 kHz D. 1288 kHz Answer Key: 8-32D1: D 8-32D2: C 8-32D3: A 8-32D4: D 8-32D5: C 8-32D6: B 8-33D1 The variable range marker signal is normally fed to the input of the: A. Sweep amplifier. B. Low voltage power supply regulator. C. Video amplifier. D. Range ring oscillator. 8-33D2 The purpose of the variable range marker is to: A. Provide an accurate means of determining the range of a moving target. B. Provide a bearing line between own ship and a moving target. C. Indicate the distance between two different targets. D. Provide a means of calibrating the fixed range rings. 8-33D3 How is the variable range marker usually adjusted for accuracy? A. Adjusting the frequency of the VRM oscillator at the maximum range. B. Adjusting the frequency of the VRM oscillator at the minimum range. C. Adjusting the readout to match at the median range ring. D. The minimum and maximum ranges are aligned with the matching fixed range ring. 8-33D4 The panel control for the variable range marker is normally a: A. Variable resistor. B. Variable inductance. C. Variable capacitance. D. Variable resolver. 8-33D5 An important component of the VRM system is the: A. Resolver. B. Interference rejection circuit. C. STC sensitivity control. D. Shift register. 8-33D6 Which of the following statements about the Variable Range Marker system is correct? A. The VRM is an auxiliary output of the fixed range marker oscillator. B. The VRM system develops a single adjustable range ring. C. The VRM system is calibrated using a frequency counter. D. The VRM system is controlled by a crystal oscillator. Answer Key: 8-33D1: C 8-33D2: A 8-33D3: D 8-33D4: A 8-33D5: D 8-33D6: B 8-34D1 The purpose of the Electronic Bearing Line is to: A. Indicate your own vessel’s heading. B. Measure the bearing of a specific target. C. Indicate True North. D. Display the range of a specific target. 8-34D2 The Electronic Bearing Line is: A. The ships heading line. B. A line indicating True North. C. Used to mark a target to obtain the distance. D. A line from your own vessel to a specific target. 8-34D3 Which of the following inputs is required to indicate azimuth? A. Gyro signals. B. Synchronizer C. Resolver. D. Range rings. 8-34D4 Bearing information from the gyro is used to provide the following: A. The heading of the nearest target. B. Range and bearing to the nearest target. C. Vessel’s own heading. D. The range of a selected target. 8-34D5 Which of the following statements about “true bearing” is correct? A. The ship’s heading flasher is at the top of the screen. B. True North is at the top of the screen and the heading flasher indicates the vessel’s course. C. The true bearing of the nearest target is indicated. D. The relative bearing of the nearest target is indicated. 8-34D6 A true bearing presentation appears as follows: A. The bow of the vessel always points up. B. The course of the five closest targets is displayed. C. North is at the top of the display and the ship’s heading flasher indicates the vessel’s course. D. The course and distance of the closest target is displayed. Answer Key: 8-34D1: B 8-34D2: D 8-34D3: A 8-34D4: C 8-34D5: B 8-34D6: C 8-35D1 In a digitized RADAR, the 360 degree sweep is divided into how many digitized segments? A. 16 B. 64 C. 255 D. 4,096 8-35D2 While troubleshooting a memory problem in a raster scan RADAR, you discover that the “REFRESH” cycle is not operating correctly. What type of memory circuit are you working on? A. SRAM B. DRAM C. ROM D. PROM 8-35D3 The term DRAM stands for: A. Digital refresh access memory. B. Digital recording access memory. C. Dynamic random access memory. D. Digital response area motion. 8-35D4 How does the dual memory function reduce sea clutter? A. Successive sweeps are digitized and compared. Only signals appearing in both sweeps are displayed. B. The dual memory system makes the desired targets larger. C. It reduces receiver gain for closer signals. D. It increases receiver gain for real targets. 8-35D5 How many sequential memory cells with target returns are required to display the target? A. 1 B. 2 C. 4 D. 8 8-35D6 What is the primary purpose of display system memory? A. Eliminate fluctuating targets such as sea return. B. Display stationary targets. C. Display the last available targets prior to a power dropout. D. Store target bearings. Answer Key: 8-35D1: D 8-35D2: B 8-35D3: C 8-35D4: A 8-35D5: B 8-35D6: A 8-36D1 The ship’s speed indication on the ARPA display can be set manually, but does not change with changes in the vessel’s speed. What other indication would point to a related equipment failure? A. “GYRO OUT” is displayed on the ARPA indicator. B. “LOG OUT” is displayed on the ARPA indicator. C. “TARGET LOST” is displayed on the ARPA indicator. D. “NORTH UP” is displayed on the ARPA indicator. 8-36D2 What does the term ARPA/CAS refer to? A. The basic RADAR system in operation. B. The device which displays the optional U.S.C.G. Acquisition and Search RADAR information on a CRT display. C. The device which acquires and tracks targets that are displayed on the RADAR indicator’s CRT. D. The device which allows the ship to automatically steer around potential hazards. 8-36D3 Which of the following would not be considered an input to the computer of a collision avoidance system? A. Own ship’s exact position from navigation satellite receiver. B. Own ship’s gyrocompass heading. C. Own ship’s speed from Doppler log. D. Own ship’s wind velocity from an anemometer. 8-36D4 Which answer best describes a line on the display which indicates a target’s position. The speed is shown by the length of the line and the course by the direction of the line. A. Vector. B. Electronic Bearing Line. C. Range Marker. D. Heading Marker. 8-36D5 What is the purpose or function of the “Trial Mode” used in most ARPA equipment? A. It selects trial dots for targets’ recent past positions. B. It is used to display target position and your own ship’s data such as TCPA, CPA, etc. C. It is used to allow results of proposed maneuvers to be assessed. D. None of these. 8-36D6 The ARPA term CPA refers to: A. The furthest point a ship or target will get to your own ship’s bow. B. Direction of target relative to your own ship’s direction. C. The combined detection and processing of targets. D. The closest point a ship or target will approach your own ship. Answer Key: 8-36D1: B 8-36D2: C 8-36D3: D 8-36D4: A 8-36D5: C 8-36D6: D 8-37D1 The display power supply provides the following: A. +18 volts DC for the pulse forming network. B. 5 volts DC for logic circuits and +/- 12 volts DC for analog and sweep circuits. C. 80 volts AC for the antenna resolver circuits. D. All of the above 8-37D2 The display power supply provides the following: A. 5 volts DC for logic circuits. B. +/- 12 volts DC for analog and sweep circuits. C. 17kV DC for the CRT HV anode. D. All of the above 8-37D3 In a display system power supply what is the purpose of the chopper? A. It acts as an electronic switch between the raw DC output and the inverter. B. It interrupts the AC supply line at a varying rate depending on the load demands. C. It regulates the 5 volt DC output. D. It pre-regulates the AC input. 8-37D4 In a display system power supply, what is the purpose of the inverter? A. Inverts the polarity of the DC voltage applied to the voltage regulators. B. Provides the dual polarity 12 volt DC supply. C. Acts as the voltage regulator for the 5 volt DC supply. D. Produces the pulsed DC input voltage to the power transformer. 8-37D5 What would be a common switching frequency for a display system power supply? A. 18 kHz B. 120 Hz C. 60 kHz D. 120 kHz 8-37D6 What display system power supply output would use a tripler circuit? A. The logic circuit supply. B. The sweep circuit supply. C. The HV supply for the CRT anode. D. The resolver drive Answer Key: 8-37D1: B 8-37D2: D 8-37D3: A 8-37D4: D 8-37D5: A 8-37D6: C 8-38D1 The heading flash is a momentary intensification of the sweep line on the PPI presentation. Its function is to: A. Alert the operator when a target is within range. B. Alert the operator when shallow water is near. C. Inform the operator of the dead-ahead position on the PPI scope. D. Inform the operator when the antenna is pointed to the rear of the ship. 8-38D2 The major advantage of digitally processing a RADAR signal is: A. Digital readouts appear on the RADAR display. B. Enhancement of weak target returns. C. An improved operator interface. D. Rectangular display geometry is far easier to read on the CRT. 8-38D3 In order to ensure that a practical filter is able to remove undesired components from the output of an analog-to-digital converter, the sampling frequency should be: A. The same as the lowest component of the analog frequency. B. Two times the highest component of the analog frequency. C. Greater than two times the highest component of the sampled frequency. D. The same as the highest component of the sampled frequency. 8-38D4 Bearing resolution is: A. The ability to distinguish two adjacent targets of equal distance. B. The ability to distinguish two targets of different distances. C. The ability to distinguish two targets of different elevations. D. The ability to distinguish two targets of different size. 8-38D5 The output of an RC integrator, when driven by a square wave with a period of much less than one time constant is a: A. Sawtooth wave. B. Sine wave. C. Series of narrow spikes. D. Triangle wave. 8-38D6 How do you eliminate stationary objects such as trees, buildings, bridges, etc., from the PPI presentation? A. Remove the discriminator from the unit. B. Use a discriminator as a second detector. C. Calibrate the IF circuit. D. Calibrate the local oscillator. Answer Key: 8-38D1: C 8-38D2: B 8-38D3: C 8-38D4: A 8-38D5: D 8-38D6: B 8-39E1 Slotted waveguide arrays, when fed from one end exhibit: A. Frequency scan. B. High VSWR. C. Poor performance in rain. D. A narrow elevation beam. 8-39E2 A typical shipboard RADAR antenna is a: A. Rotary parabolic transducer. B. Slotted waveguide array. C. Phased planar array. D. Dipole. 8-39E3 Good bearing resolution largely depends upon: A. A high transmitter output reading. B. A high duty cycle. C. A narrow antenna beam in the vertical plane. D. A narrow antenna beam in the horizontal plane. 8-39E4 The center of the transmitted lobe from a slotted waveguide array is: A. Several degrees offset from a line perpendicular to the antenna. B. Perpendicular to the antenna. C. Maximum at the right hand end. D. Maximum at the left hand end. 8-39E5 How does antenna length affect the horizontal beamwidth of the transmitted signal? A. The longer the antenna the wider the horizontal beamwidth. B. The longer the antenna the narrower the horizontal beamwidth. C. The horizontal beamwidth is not affected by the antenna length. D. None of the above. 8-39E6 What is the most common type of RADAR antenna used aboard commercial maritime vessels? A. Parabolic. B. Truncated parabolic. C. Slotted waveguide array. D. Multi-element Yagi array. Answer Key: 8-39E1: A 8-39E2: B 8-39E3: D 8-39E4: A 8-39E5: B 8-39E6: C 8-40E1 The VSWR of a microwave transmission line device might be measured using: A. A dual directional coupler and a power meter. B. A network analyzer. C. A spectrum analyzer. D. A dual directional coupler, a power meter, and a network analyzer. 8-40E2 The impedance total (ZO) of a transmission line can be calculated by ZO = sqrt(L/C) when L and C are known. When a section of transmission line contains 250 microhenries of L and 1000 picofarads of C, its impedance total (ZO) will be: A. 50 ohms. B. 250 ohms. C. 500 ohms. D. 1,000 ohms. 8-40E3 If long-length transmission lines are not properly shielded and terminated: A. The silicon crystals can be damaged. B. Communications receiver interference might result. C. Overmodulation might result. D. Minimal RF loss can result. 8-40E4 A certain length of transmission line has a characteristic impedance of 72 ohms. If the line is cut at its center, each half of the transmission line will have a ZO of: A. 36 ohms. B. 144 ohms. C. 72 ohms. D. The exact length must be known to determine Zo. 8-40E5 Standing waves on a transmission line may be an indication that: A. All energy is being delivered to the load. B. Source and surge impedances are equal to ZO and ZL. C. The line is terminated in impedance equal to ZO. D. Some of the energy is not absorbed by the load. 8-40E6 What precautions should be taken with horizontal waveguide runs? A. They should be sloped slightly downwards at the elbow and a small drain hole drilled in the elbow. B. They should be absolutely level. C. They should not exceed 10 feet in length. D. None of the above. Answer Key: 8-40E1: D 8-40E2: C 8-40E3: B 8-40E4: C 8-40E5: D 8-40E6: A 8-41E1 The position of the PPI scope sweep must indicate the position of the antenna. The sweep and antenna positions are frequently kept in synchronization by the use of: A. Synchro systems. B. Servo systems. C. DC positioning motors. D. Differential amplifiers. 8-41E2 On a basic synchro system, the angular information is carried on the: A. DC feedback signal. B. Stator lines. C. Deflection coils. D. Rotor lines. 8-41E3 What is the most common type of antenna position indicating device used in modern RADARs? A. Resolvers. B. Servo systems. C. Synchro transmitters. D. Step motors. 8-41E4 Which of the following statements about antenna resolvers is correct? A. Most resolvers contain a rotor winding and a delta stator winding. B. Resolvers consist of a two rotor windings and two stator windings that are 90 degrees apart. C. The basic resolver contains a rotor winding and two stator windings that are 90 degrees apart. D. Resolvers consist of a "Y" connected rotor winding and a delta connected stator winding. 8-41E5 An antenna synchro transmitter is composed of the following: A. Three rotor and two stator windings. B. Two rotor and three stator windings. C. Three rotor and three stator windings. D. A single rotor and 3 stator windings. 8-41E6 RADAR antenna direction must be sent to the display in all ARPAs or RADAR systems. How is this accomplished? A. 3-phase synchros. B. 2-phase resolvers. C. Optical encoders. D. Any of the above. Answer Key: 8-41E1: A 8-41E2: B 8-41E3: A 8-41E4: C 8-41E5: B 8-41E6: D 8-42E1 Waveguides can be constructed from: A. Brass. B. Aluminum. C. Copper. D. All of the above. 8-42E2 A microwave transmission line constructed of a center conductor suspended between parallel conductive ground planes is called: A. Microstrip. B. Coax. C. Stripline. D. Waveguide. 8-42E3 Waveguide theory is based upon: A. The movement of an electromagnetic field. B. Current flow through conductive wires. C. Inductance. D. Resonant charging. 8-42E4 A waveguide is used at RADAR microwave frequencies because: A. It is easier to install than other feedline types. B. It is more rugged than other feedline types. C. It is less expensive than other feedline types. D. It has lower transmission losses than other feedline types. 8-42E5 Waveguide theory is based on the principals of: A. Ohm’s Law. B. High standing waves. C. Skin effect and use of 1/4 wave stubs. D. None of the above. 8-42E6 How is the signal removed from a waveguide or magnetron? A. With a thin wire called a T-hook. B. With a thin wire called a J-Hook. C. With a coaxial connector. D. With a waveguide flange joint. Answer Key: 8-42E1: D 8-42E2: C 8-42E3: A 8-42E4: D 8-42E5: C 8-42E6: B 8-43E1 A rotary joint is used to: A. Couple two waveguides together at right angles. B. Act as a switch between two waveguide runs. C. Connect a stationary waveguide to the antenna array. D. Maintain pressurization at the end of the waveguide. 8-43E2 Resistive losses in a waveguide are very small because: A. The inner surface of the waveguide is large. B. The inner surface of the waveguide is small. C. The waveguide does not require a ground connection. D. The heat remains in the waveguide and cannot dissipate. 8-43E3 A right-angle bend in an X-band waveguide must have a radius greater than: A. Three inches. B. Six inches. C. One inch. D. Two inches. 8-43E4 To insert RF energy into or extract RF energy from a waveguide, which of the following would not be used? A. Coupling capacitance. B. Current loop. C. Aperture window. D. Voltage probe. 8-43E5 The following is true concerning waveguides: A. Conduction is accomplished by the polarization of electromagnetic and electrostatic fields. B. Ancillary deflection is employed. C. The magnetic field is strongest at the center of the waveguide. D. The magnetic field is strongest at the edges of the waveguide. 8-43E6 At microwave frequencies, waveguides are used instead of conventional coaxial transmission lines because: A. They are smaller and easier to handle. B. They have considerably less loss. C. They are lighter since they have hollow centers. D. Moisture is never a problem with them. Answer Key: 8-43E1: C 8-43E2: A 8-43E3: D 8-43E4: A 8-43E5: D 8-43E6: B 8-44F1 When you examine the RADAR you notice that there is no target video in the center of the CRT. The blank spot gets smaller in diameter as you increase the range scale. What operator front panel control could be misadjusted? A. TUNE. B. Sensitivity Time Control (STC). C. Anti-Clutter Rain (ACR). D. False Target Elimination (FTE). 8-44F2 Range rings on the PPI indicator are oval in shape. Which circuit would you suspect is faulty? A. Timing circuit. B. Video amplifier circuit. C. Range marker circuit. D. Sweep generation circuit. 8-44F3 What would be the most likely defective area when there is no target video in the center of the CRT and the blank spot gets smaller in diameter as your range scale is increased? A. The TR (TRL) Cell. B. The local oscillator is misadjusted. C. Video amplifier circuit. D. The IF amplifier circuit. 8-44F4 While the vessel is docked the presentation of the pier is distorted near the center of the PPI with the pier appearing to bend in a concave fashion. This is a primary indication of what? A. The deflection coils need adjusting. B. The centering magnets at the CRT neck need adjusting. C. The waveguide compensation delay line needs adjusting. D. The CRT filaments are weakening. 8-44F5 In a RADAR using digital video processing, a bright, wide ring appears at a fixed distance from the center of the display on all digital ranges. The transmitter is operating normally. What receiver circuit would you suspect is causing the problem? A. VRM circuit. B. Video storage RAM or shift register. C. Range ring generator. D. EBL circuit. 8-44F6 The raster scan RADAR display has missing video in a rectangular block on the screen. Where is the most likely problem area? A. Horizontal sweep circuit. B. Power supply. C. Memory area failure. D. Vertical blanking pulse. Answer Key: 8-44F1: B 8-44F2: D 8-44F3: A 8-44F4: C 8-44F5: B 8-44F6: C 8-45F1 A circuit card in a RADAR system has just been replaced with a spare card. You notice the voltage level at point E in Fig. 8F12 is negative 4.75 volts when the inputs are all at 5 volts. The problem is: A. The 25 K resistor is open. B. The 100 K resistor has been mistakenly replaced with a 50 K resistor. C. The op amp is at the rail voltage. D. The 50 K resistor has been mistakenly replaced with a 25 K resistor. 8-45F2 A defective crystal in the AFC section will cause: A. No serious problems. B. Bright flashing pie sections on the PPI. C. Spiking on the PPI. D. Vertical spikes that constantly move across the screen. 8-45F3 The RADAR display has sectors of solid video (spoking). What would be the first thing to check? A. Antenna information circuits failure. B. Frequency of raster scan. C. For interference from nearby ships. D. Constant velocity of antenna rotation. 8-45F4 In the circuit contained in Fig. 8F12, there are 5 volts present at points B and C, and there are zero volts present at points A and D. What is the voltage at point E? A. -1.5 Volts. B. 3.75 Volts. C. 23.75 Volts. D. 4.5 Volts. 8-45F5 If the TR tube malfunctions: A. The transmitter might be damaged. B. The receiver might be damaged. C. The klystron might be damaged. D. Magnetron current will increase. 8-45F6 The indicated distance from your own vessel to a lighthouse is found to be in error. What circuit would you suspect? A. Range ring oscillator. B. Video amplifier. C. STC circuit. D. FTC circuit. Answer Key: 8-45F1: D 8-45F2: B 8-45F3: C 8-45F4: A 8-45F5: B 8-45F6: A 8-46F1 Silicon crystals are used in RADAR mixer and detector stages. Using an ohmmeter, how might a crystal be checked to determine if it is functional? A. Its resistance should be the same in both directions. B. Its resistance should be low in one direction and high in the opposite direction. C. Its resistance cannot be checked with a dc ohmmeter because the crystal acts as a rectifier. D. It would be more appropriate to use a VTVM and measure the voltage drop across the crystal. 8-46F2 In a RADAR unit, if the crystal mixer becomes defective, replace the: A. Crystal only. B. The crystal and the ATR tube. C. The crystal and the TR tube. D. The crystal and the klystron. 8-46F3 An increase in magnetron current that coincides with a decrease in power output is an indication of what? A. The pulse length decreasing. B. A high SWR. C. A high magnetron heater voltage. D. The external magnet weakening. 8-46F4 It is reported that the RADAR is not receiving small targets. The most likely causes are: A. Magnetron, IF amplifier, or receiver tuning. B. PFN, crystals, or processor memory. C. Crystals, local oscillator tuning, or power supply. D. Fuse blown, IF amp, or video processor. 8-46F5 A high magnetron current indicates a/an: A. Defective AFC crystal. B. Increase in duty cycle. C. Defective external magnetic field. D. High standing wave ratio (SWR). 8-46F6 Low or no mixer current could be caused by: A. Local oscillator frequency misadjustment. B. TR cell failure. C. Mixer diode degradation. D. All of the above. Answer Key: 8-46F1: B 8-46F2: C 8-46F3: D 8-46F4: A 8-46F5: C 8-46F6: D 8-47F1 If the magnetron is allowed to operate without the magnetic field in place: A. Its output will be somewhat distorted. B. It will quickly destroy itself from excessive current flow. C. Its frequency will change slightly. D. Nothing serious will happen. 8-47F2 Targets displayed on the RADAR display are not on the same bearing as their visual bearing. What should you first suspect? A. A bad reed relay in the antenna pedestal. B. A sweep length misadjustment. C. One phase of the yoke assembly is open. D. Incorrect antenna position information. 8-47F3 Loss of distant targets during and immediately after wet weather indicates: A. A leak in waveguide or rotary joint. B. High atmospheric absorption. C. Dirt or soot on the rotary joint. D. High humidity in the transmitter causing power supply loading. 8-47F4 In a marine RADAR set, a high VSWR is indicated at the magnetron output. The waveguide and rotary joint appear to be functioning properly. What component may be malfunctioning? A. The magnetron B. The waveform generator C. The STC circuit D. The waveguide array termination 8-47F5 On a vessel with two RADARs, one has a different range indication on a specific target than the other. How would you determine which RADAR is incorrect? A. Check the sweep and timing circuits of both indicators for correct readings. B. Triangulate target using the GPS and visual bearings. C. Check antenna parallax. D. Use the average of the two indications and adjust both for that amount. 8-47F6 An increase in the deflection on the magnetron current meter could likely be caused by: A. Insufficient pulse amplitude from the modulator. B. Too high a B1 level on the magnetron. C. A decrease of the magnetic field strength. D. A lower duty cycle, as from 0.0003 to 0.0002. Answer Key: 8-47F1: B 8-47F2: D 8-47F3: A 8-47F4: D 8-47F5: A 8-47F6: C 8-48F1 A thick layer of rust and corrosion on the surface of the parabolic dish will have what effect? A. No noticeable effect. B. Scatter and absorption of RADAR waves. C. Decrease in performance, especially for weak targets. D. Slightly out of focus PPI scope. 8-48F2 The echo box is used for: A. Testing the wavelength of the incoming echo signal. B. Testing and tuning of the RADAR unit by providing artificial targets. C. Amplification of the echo signal. D. Detection of the echo pulses. 8-48F3 What should be done to the interior surface of a waveguide in order to minimize signal loss? A. Fill it with nitrogen gas. B. Paint it with nonconductive paint to prevent rust. C. Keep it as clean as possible. D. Fill it with a high-grade electrical oil. 8-48F4 Which of the following is the most useful instrument for RADAR servicing? A. Oscilloscope. B. Frequency Counter. C. R. F. Wattmeter. D. Audio generator. 8-48F5 A non-magnetic screwdriver should always be used when replacing what component? A. TR tube. B. Mixer. C. Video amplifier. D. Magnetron. 8-48F6 What kind of display would indicate water in the waveguide? A. Spoking. B. Large circular rings near the center. C. Loss of range rings. D. Wider than normal targets. Answer Key: 8-48F1: C 8-48F2: B 8-48F3: C 8-48F4: A 8-48F5: D 8-48F6: B 8-49F1 Why is coaxial cable often used for S-band installations instead of a waveguide? A. Losses can be kept reasonable at S-band frequencies and the installation cost is lower. B. A waveguide will not support the power density required for modern S-band RADAR transmitters. C. S-band waveguide flanges show too much leakage and are unsafe for use near personnel. D. Dimensions for S-band waveguide do not permit a rugged enough installation for use by ships at sea. 8-49F2 RADAR interference to a communications receiver is eliminated by: A. Not operating other devices when RADAR is in use. B. Properly grounding, bonding, and shielding all units. C. Using a high pass filter on the power line. D. Using a link coupling. 8-49F3 Why should long horizontal runs of waveguide be avoided? A. They must be insulated to prevent electric shock. B. To prevent damage from shipboard personnel. C. To minimize reception of horizontally polarized returns. D. To prevent accumulation of condensation. 8-49F4 Long horizontal sections of waveguides are not desirable because: A. Moisture can accumulate in the waveguide. B. The waveguide can sag, causing loss of signal. C. Excessive standing waves can occur. D. The polarization of the signal might shift. 8-49F5 In a RADAR system, waveguides should be installed: A. Slightly bent for maximum gain. B. As straight as possible to reduce distortion. C. At 90 degree angles to improve resonance. D. As long as possible for system flexibility. 8-49F6 What is the most important factor to consider in locating the antenna? A. Allow the shortest cable/waveguide run. B. Maximum height for best long range operation. C. The antenna is in a location that is not shadowed by other structures. D. Easy access for maintenance. Answer Key: 8-49F1: A 8-49F2: B 8-49F3: D 8-49F4: A 8-49F5: B 8-49F6: C 8-50F1 Choose the most correct statement with respect to component damage from electrostatic discharge: A. ESD damage occurs primarily in passive components which are easily identified and replaced. B. ESD damage occurs primarily in active components which are easily identified and replaced. C. The technician will feel a small static shock and recognize that ESD damage has occurred to the circuit. D. ESD damage may cause immediate circuit failures, but may also cause failures much later at times when the RADAR set is critically needed. 8-50F2 Before testing a RADAR transmitter, it would be a good idea to: A. Make sure no one is on the deck. B. Make sure the magnetron’s magnetic field is far away from the magnetron. C. Make sure there are no explosives or flammable cargo being loaded. D. Make sure the Coast Guard has been notified. 8-50F3 While making repairs or adjustments to RADAR units: A. Wear fire-retardant clothing. B. Discharge all high-voltage capacitors to ground. C. Maintain the filament voltage. D. Reduce the magnetron voltage. 8-50F4 While removing a CRT from its operating casing, it is a good idea to: A. Discharge the first anode. B. Test the second anode with your fingertip. C. Wear gloves and goggles. D. Set it down on a hard surface. 8-50F5 If a CRT is dropped: A. Most likely nothing will happen because they are built with durability in mind. B. It might go out of calibration. C. The phosphor might break loose. D. It might implode, causing damage to workers and equipment. 8-50F6 Prior to removing, servicing or making measurements on any solid state circuit boards from the RADAR set, the operator should ensure that: A. The proper work surfaces and ESD grounding straps are in place to prevent damage to the boards from electrostatic discharge. B. The waveguide is detached from the antenna to prevent radiation. C. The magnetic field is present to prevent over-current damage or overheating from occurring in the magnetron. D. Only non-conductive tools and devices are used. Answer Key: 8-50F1: D 8-50F2: C 8-50F3: B 8-50F4: C 8-50F5: D 8-50F6: A share/E3.html0000664000175000017500000110452314624200522011472 0ustar jtnjtn

share/E7R.txt0000664000175000017500000033113714621252314011500 0ustar jtnjtn1A1 What is the fundamental concept of the GMDSS? A. GMDSS utilizes automated systems and satellite technology to improve emergency communications for the world’s shipping industry. B. It is intended to automate and improve existing digital selective calling procedures and techniques. C. It is intended to provide more effective but lower cost commercial communications. D. It is intended to provide compulsory vessels with a collision avoidance system when they are operating in waters that are also occupied by non-compulsory vessels. 1A2 The primary purpose of the GMDSS is: A. Allow more effective control of SAR situations by vessels. B. Automate and improve emergency communications for the world's shipping industry. C. Provide additional shipboard systems for more effective company communications. D. Effective and inexpensive communications. 1A3 What is the basic concept of GMDSS? A. Shoreside authorities will rely on reports from nearby vessels to become aware of Distress alerts. B. Shoreside authorities and vessels can assist in a coordinated SAR operation only after the correct chain of DSC relays takes place. C. SAR authorities ashore can be alerted to a Distress situation & shipping in the vicinity can be requested to participate in SAR operations. D. SAR authorities ashore wait to have EPIRB Distress alerts confirmed by satellite follow-on communications. 1A4 GMDSS is primarily a system based on: A. Ship-to-ship Distress communications using MF or HF radiotelephony. B. VHF digital selective calling from ship to shore. C. Distress, Urgency and Safety communications carried out by the use of narrow-band direct printing telegraphy. D. The linking of search and rescue authorities ashore with shipping in the immediate vicinity of a ship in Distress or in need of assistance. 1A5 What is the responsibility of compulsory GMDSS vessels? A. Every vessel must be able to perform communications functions essential for its own safety and the safety of other vessels. B. Vessels must transmit a DSC distress relay upon receipt of a DSC distress alert. C. Only the vessels closest to a Distress incident must render assistance. D. Vessels must immediately acknowledge all DSC distress alerts. 1A6 GMDSS is required for which of the following? A. All vessels capable of international voyages. B. SOLAS Convention ships of 300 gross tonnage or more. C. Vessels operating outside of the range of VHF coast radio stations. D. Coastal vessels of less than 300 gross tons. Answers: 1A1 - A 1A2 - B 1A3 - C 1A4 - D 1A5 - A 1A6 - B 2A1 Which GMDSS system utilizes terrestrial radio techniques? A. F-77 B. Inmarsat-C C. GPS D. VHF-MF-HF-DSC 2A2 What equipment utilizes satellite communications? A. Inmarsat-C B. VHF-MF-HF C. NAVTEX D. SART 2A3 What equipment is used in or near the survival craft? A. NAVTEX B. EPIRB C. Fathometer D. COSPAS-SARSAT 2A4 What equipment is programmed to initiate transmission of Distress alerts and calls to individual stations? A. NAVTEX B. GPS C. DSC Controller D. DSC Scanning Watch Receiver 2A5 What system provides accurate vessel position information to the GMDSS equipment? A. COSPAS-SARSAT B. EPIRB C. GPS D. Inmarsat-B 2A6 Which of these can be used to receive MSI? A. SART B. EPIRB C. Inmarsat-B D. NAVTEX Answers: 2A1 - D 2A2 - A 2A3 - B 2A4 - C 2A5 - C 2A6 - D 3A1 The Sea Area you are in is determined by: A. The vessel’s distance from shore. B. The types of maintenance available to your vessel. C. Whether the ship station is in range of a VHF-DSC, MF-DSC, HF-DSC Coast Station or Inmarsat coverage. D. Whether the ship only makes domestic/coastal voyages or it goes international. 3A2 If a vessel is on a voyage from Miami, Florida to Houston, Texas what Sea Areas may it transit through? A. Sea area A3 if it is beyond range of a MF-DSC equipped coast station. B. Sea area A2 or A3 if it is not within range of a VHF-DSC equipped coast station. C. Sea area A1 only if within range of a VHF-DSC equipped coast station. D. All of these answers may be correct depending on coast station DSC coverage. 3A3 If a vessel is engaged in local trade and at no point in its voyage travels outside the range of a VHF shore station with continuous DSC alerting then the vessel is operating in what area? A. Sea area A1 B. Coastal and international zones C. Inland and coastal waters D. Sea areas A1 and A2 3A4 For a vessel to be in GMDSS Sea Area A-1: A. The vessel must be within VHF range of a Public Correspondence Station. B. The vessel must be within range of a coast station equipped with continuous VHF-DSC capability. C. The vessel must be within VHF range of a U. S. C. G. communication station. D. The vessel must be within VHF range of either a U. S. C. G. or a Public Correspondence Station. 3A5 A vessel is on a coastwise voyage that results in a distance off shore of 10 to 40 nm and therefore: A. The vessel must be able to communicate with a coast station on Ch-16 to be within Sea Area A-1. B. To be within Sea Area A-1 the vessel must continuously be within range of a coast station with VHF-DSC capability. C. The vessel will always be in Sea Area A-1because all coastal voyages have A-1 DSC coverage. D. To be within Sea Area A-1 the vessel must continuously be within range of a coast station with MF-DSC capability. 3A6 What is defined as the area within the radiotelephone coverage area of at least one VHF coast station in which continuous DSC alerting is available as defined by the IMO regulation for GMDSS? A. Ocean Area Regions AOR-E, AOR-W, POR or IOR B. Sea Area A2 C. Sea Area A1 D. Coastal and Inland Waters Answers: 3A1 - C 3A2 - D 3A3 - A 3A4 - B 3A5 - B 3A6 - C 4A1 Which of the following is a functional or carriage requirement for compulsory vessels? A. A compulsory vessel must carry at least two (2) FCC licensed GMDSS Radio Operators in all sea areas as well as a GMDSS Maintainer in sea areas A3 & A4. B. A compulsory vessel must satisfy certain equipment carriage requirements based on the intended sea area of operation. C. A compulsory vessel must be able to transmit and respond to Distress alerts and carry only one (1) FCC licensed GMDSS Radio Operator in sea areas A1 & A2. D. None of these answers are correct. 4A2 Which GMDSS communication functions must all compulsory vessels be capable of performing to meet International Maritime Organization requirements? A. Distress alerting and receipt of Maritime Safety Information via Inmarsat for all vessels intending to operate in Sea Area A4. B. Distress alerting and receipt of MSI in Sea Areas A1, A2, A3, and A4 regardless of the vessel's intended area of operation. C. Distress alerting, general communications and receipt of Maritime Safety Information in the vessel's intended area of operation. D. General communications via Inmarsat and receipt of Maritime Safety Information via Enhanced Group Calling in Sea Area A4. 4A3 GMDSS-equipped ships will be required to perform which of the following communications functions? A. Distress alerting, MSI, SAR and on-scene communications & receipt of satellite alerts from other vessels. B. SAR and on-scene communications, Bridge-to-Bridge and general radio communications, MSI and relay of satellite alerts from other vessels. C. Bridge-to-Bridge and general radio communications, RDF of EPIRB homing signals, Distress alerting and MSI. D. Transmit distress alerts, SAR and on-scene communications, MSI, Bridge-to-Bridge and general radio communications. 4A4 What equipment can be used to receive Maritime Safety Information? A. NAVTEX, EGC receiver or HF SITOR (NBDP). B. EGC receiver, Inmarsat B or F77 terminal. C. HF SITOR (NBDP), Inmarsat B or NAVTEX. D. All of these answers are correct. 4A5 Which of the following are required GMDSS functions? A. Bridge-to-Bridge communications, reception of weather map facsimile broadcasts, SAR communications. B. Reception of weather map facsimile broadcasts, receiving company email, On-scene communications. C. Reception of VHF weather channels, On-scene communications, general communications. D. Bridge-to-Bridge communications, general communications, SAR communications. 4A6 Which of the following are required GMDSS functions for vessels? A. Transmit and receive locating signals, general communications and SAR communications. B. Transmit and receive general communications, transmit Distress Alerts by at least one means, MSI. C. Transmit and receive locating signals, send MSI to other ships via EGC, Bridge-to-Bridge communications. D. Transmit and receive SAR communications, transmit Distress Alerts by at least one means, Bridge-to-Bridge communications. Answers: 4A1 - B 4A2 - C 4A3 - D 4A4 - A 4A5 - D 4A6 - A 5A1 Which statement is true regarding a vessel equipped with GMDSS equipment that will remain in Sea Area A1 at all times? A. The vessel must be provided with a radio installation capable of initiating the transmission of ship-to-shore Distress alerting from the position from which the ship is normally navigated. B. VHF DSC alerting may be the sole means of Distress alerting. C. HF or MF DSC may satisfy the equipment requirement. D. HF SSB with 2182 kHz automatic alarm generator may satisfy the equipment requirement. 5A2 What statement is true regarding the additional equipment carriage requirement imposed for the survival craft of vessels over 500 gross tons? A. Additional carriage of two radio equipped lifeboats aft. B. A second radar transponder is required. C. Four additional portable VHF radios are required. D. The ability to communicate in all modes with any shore station. 5A3 All passenger vessels must have what additional equipment? A. Inmarsat-B terminal B. Inmarsat-C terminal C. Aircraft Transceiver with 121.5 MHz D. MF-HF SSB Transceiver 5A4 Within a single sea area, what is the primary reason GMDSS imposes carriage requirements for different radio subsystems? A. Redundancy in duplicating all operational functions in the event of a system failure. B. Different subsystems are required to meet the specific equipment carriage requirements of national authorities. C. GMDSS vessels must be equipped to communicate in all modes with coast radio stations. D. The combined capabilities of redundant subsystems mitigate the risk of a single point of failure. 5A5 If operating within Ocean Area A1, and outside of NAVTEX coverage, a GMDSS-equipped vessel must carry: A. Equipment capable of reception of Maritime Safety Information by the Inmarsat enhanced group call system, or HF SITOR (NBDP). B. A GPS receiver. C. Equipment capable of maintaining a continuous DSC watch on 2187.5 kHz. D. An Inmarsat-B terminal. 5A6 What is the equipment carriage requirement for survival craft under GMDSS? A. At least three SCT units and two SARTs on every cargo ship between 300-500 gross tons and the same on all passenger ships regardless of tonnage. B. At least three SCT units and two SARTs on every passenger ship and cargo ships of 500 gross tons and upwards. C. At least two radar transponders must be carried on every cargo ship of 300-500 gross tons and two radar transponders (one for each side) of every passenger ship regardless of tonnage. D. All cargo vessels above 300 gross tons and every passenger ship regardless of tonnage must carry three SCT units and two SARTs. Answers: 5A1 - A 5A2 - B 5A3 - C 5A4 - D 5A5 - A 5A6 - B 6A1 Which of the following statements concerning maintenance requirements is false? A. Compulsory vessels sailing in Sea Areas A1 and A2 must provide any one of the three maintenance options which are duplication of equipment, shore-based, or at-sea maintenance capability. B. Compulsory vessels sailing in Sea Areas A3 and A4 must provide any two of the three maintenance options which are duplication of equipment, shore-based, or at-sea maintenance capability. C. Equipment warranties do not satisfy GMDSS maintenance requirements. D. If shore-based maintenance is used, maintenance services do not have to be completed or performance verified unless the vessel will be sailing to a non-US port. 6A2 Which of the following statements concerning GMDSS maintenance requirements is true? A. The options are duplication of equipment, at-sea maintenance, and shore-based maintenance. B. Compulsory vessels between 300-500 gross tons are required only to provide one maintenance option, while compulsory vessels larger than 500 gross tons and all passenger vessels are required to provide any two of the three maintenance options. C. The "at-sea" maintenance may be waived if the compulsory vessel carries at least three licensed GMDSS Radio Operators. D. Compulsory vessels operating in Sea Area A4 are required to carry at least one licensed GMDSS Radio Maintainer. 6A3 Which of the following is a GMDSS requirement for all vessels over 300 gross tons operating within range of a MF-DSC equipped shore station? A. Ship's Master or radio officer must be on watch at all times. B. Only one of the three maintenance options is required. C. MF communications must be handled by the holder of a General Radiotelephone Operator’s License. D. Only FCC required spare parts and a maintenance kit for repairs are required. 6A4 What statement is correct regarding the maintenance requirements for A3 ships under GMDSS? A. If the vessel selects at-sea maintenance no additional parts and spares are required. B. On-board maintenance provided by a person holding a GMDSS Maintainer's license will fully meet the requirements. C. Redundancy of functions of certain equipment and on-board maintenance provided by a person holding a GMDSS Maintainer's license will partially meet this requirement. D. Shoreside maintenance and scheduled tests and inspections will not partially meet this requirement. 6A5 A ship operating exclusively in sea area A-1 must have the following provisions for maintenance: A. Carry an on-board maintainer plus duplication of equipment. B. Shore maintenance may not be selected. C. Only one option for maintenance is required. D. Must always select duplication of equipment to maximize safety. 6A6 A ship operating in sea area A-1 must have the following provisions for maintenance: A. Shore maintenance. B. Duplication of equipment. C. At Sea Maintenance. D. Any one of these is sufficient. Answers: 6A1 - D 6A2 - A 6A3 - B 6A4 - C 6A5 - C 6A6 - D 7A1 What is the frequency range for Medium Frequency? A. 10-30 MHz B. 1,000-10,000 kHz C. 300-3,000 kHz D. 30-300 kHz 7A2 What is the frequency range for High Frequency? A. 300-3,000 kHz B. 30-300 MHz C. 10-30 MHz D. 3-30 MHz 7A3 What is the frequency range for Very High Frequency? A. 30-300 MHz B. 3-30 MHz C. 300-3,000 kHz D. 10-30 MHz 7A4 What is the frequency range for Ultra High Frequency? A. 3-30 MHz B. 300-3,000 MHz C. 30-300 MHz D. 10-30 MHz 7A5 What is the frequency range for Super High Frequency? A. 30-300 GHz B. 3-30 GHz C. 300-3,000 MHz D. 30-300 MHz 7A6 What is the frequency range for Maritime VHF operations? A. 3-30 MHz B. 88-108 MHz C. 156-164 MHz D. 540-1640 kHz Answers: 7A1 - C 7A2 - D 7A3 - A 7A4 - B 7A5 - B 7A6 - C 8B1 How often must a compulsory vessel's GMDSS radio station be inspected? A. Annually, by the U.S. Coast Guard. B. Annually, by the FCC or designated authority. C. Annually, by the FCC, and every six months if the vessel sails outside of Sea Areas A1 and A2. D. The FCC's annual inspection may be waived if and only if monthly inspections are performed by the vessel's on-board GMDSS Radio Maintainer. 8B2 What periodic inspection is required in order to remain in compliance with the regulations regarding GMDSS ship radio station inspections? A. U.S. Coast Guard annual inspection. B. FCC inspection every five years. C. An inspection at least once every 12 months by the FCC or a holder of a GMDSS Maintainers license. D. Periodic inspections not required if on board maintainers perform routine preventive maintenance. 8B3 Which statement is false regarding a GMDSS-equipped ship? A. A conditional or partial exemption may be granted, in exceptional circumstances, for a single voyage outside the sea area for which the vessel is equipped. B. The regulations apply to all passenger ships regardless of size and cargo ships of 300 gross tons and upwards. C. Ships must carry at least two persons holding a GMDSS Radio Operator's license for Distress and Safety radio-communications purposes. D. Ships must have the required equipment inspected at least once every five years. 8B4 Which statement is false regarding a GMDSS equipped ship? A. A conditional or partial exemption may not be granted, in exceptional circumstances, for a single voyage outside the sea area for which the ship is equipped. B. Ships must have the required equipment inspected at least once every 12 months. C. The regulations apply to all passenger ships regardless of size and cargo ships of 300 gross tons and upwards. D. Ships must carry at least two persons holding a GMDSS Radio Operator's license for Distress and Safety radio-communications purposes. 8B5 During an annual GMDSS station inspection: A. Licensed GMDSS operators may not be required to demonstrate equipment competencies but all required equipment must be fully operational. B. All required equipment must be fully operational and any required publications that are not current must be on order. C. GMDSS operators may be required to demonstrate equipment competencies and any of required equipment that is not fully operational can be repaired at the next port of call as long as there is functional duplication. D. All required documents and publications might have to be produced and GMDSS operators may be required to demonstrate equipment competencies. 8B6 Which situation is least likely to result in an inspection of the radio installation by foreign governments or administrations? A. When a ship visits a port for the first time. B. When the ship's station license cannot be produced without delay. C. When operational irregularities are observed. D. When compulsory equipment is found to be inoperative. Answers: 8B1 - B 8B2 - C 8B3 - D 8B4 - A 8B5 - D 8B6 - A 9B1 Which of the following references should be consulted for information on the proper setup and use of GMDSS equipment? A. The manufacturer's operating manuals. B. 47 CFR Part 80 Subpart W. C. Instructions are available through the Maritime Safety Information (MSI) system. D. ITU List of Equipment Operations. 9B2 Where can GMDSS regulations pertaining specifically to U.S.-flag vessels be found? A. These are located in CCIR #476. B. These are located in 47 CFR Part 80. C. These are located in FCC Part 83. D. These are published only by the U.S. Coast Guard. 9B3 What publications should the GMDSS Radio Operator consult to review the proper procedures to be followed in Distress situations under GMDSS? A. The manufacturer’s technical manuals. B. The manufacturer's operator manuals. C. 47 CFR Part 80 Subpart W. D. 47 CFR Part 90 Subpart V. 9B4 Which of the following documents or publications are required by the FCC for GMDSS vessels on international voyages (other than the Great Lakes)? A. IMO master plan of shore-based facilities (or substitute), station logs, appropriate operator licenses, Inmarsat handbook for GMDSS. B. NGA Pub. 117 (or substitute), station logs, appropriate operator licenses, IAMSAR manual volume III. C. Part 80 FCC rules, station logs, station licenses, ITU publications, IMO manual for Maritime Mobile stations. D. Part 80 FCC rules, station logs, station licenses, ITU publications, ITU manual for Maritime Mobile stations. 9B5 Which of the following documents or publications are required by Part 80 of the FCC rules for vessels on international voyages (other than the Great Lakes)? A. ITU List IV & List V, Appropriate Safety Convention Certificate & ITU manual for Maritime Mobile stations. B. Appropriate Safety Convention Certificate, ITU Master Plan of GMDSS Coast stations, and ITU manual for Maritime Mobile stations. C. ITU Master Plan of GMDSS Coast stations, ITU manual for Maritime Mobile stations, ITU List IV & List V. D. ITU List IV & List V, Appropriate Safety Convention Certificate & IMO manual for Maritime Mobile stations. 9B6 Which of the following references should be consulted to identify the name of a vessel based on its Maritime Mobile Service Identity? A. ITU list of Coast Stations. B. ITU List of Ship Stations and Maritime Mobile Service Identity Assignments. C. ITU List of Radio-determination and Ship Stations. D. ITU Master Plan of Shore-Based Facilities. Answers: 9B1 - A 9B2 - B 9B3 - C 9B4 - D 9B5 - A 9B6 - B 10B1 Which of the following maintenance functions is not the responsibility of the GMDSS Radio Operator? A. Visual inspection of equipment, including the antenna and associated components. B. Perform on-the-air verification checks. C. Perform scheduled testing of the battery's charged condition. D. Aligning the power output stage for maximum power. 10B2 When may a compulsory vessel not be allowed to leave port? A. When the vessel has replaced a required piece of GMDSS-related equipment but its performance has not been verified or logged. B. When the vessel is in an over-carriage condition. C. When the vessel has arranged for both duplication of equipment and shore-based maintenance. D. When the vessel is carrying only two licensed GMDSS Radio Operators and is capable of performing all required functions. 10B3 Which statement is false regarding the maintenance of GMDSS equipment at sea? A. Ships must carry at least one person who qualifies as a GMDSS maintainer for the maintenance and repair of equipment if the at-sea maintenance option is selected. B. The GMDSS maintainer may not be the person designated to have primary responsibility for radiocommunications during Distress incidents even if licensed as an operator. C. All at-sea maintenance and repairs must be performed by, or under the supervision of a person holding a GMDSS Maintainer license. D. The GMDSS maintainer may be the person responsible for ensuring that the watches are properly maintained and that the proper guard channels and the vessel's position are entered into the DSC equipment. 10B4 Which of the following service or maintenance functions may NOT be performed by the holder of a GMDSS Radio Operator License? A. Reset tripped circuit breakers or replace defective fuses. B. Routine battery maintenance if used as part of the GMDSS station. C. Any adjustments or maintenance that may affect the proper operation of the station. D. Replacement of consumable items such as paper, ribbons, etc. 10B5 What are the conditions, under GMDSS, whereby a ship is NOT allowed to depart from any port? A. The vessel is carrying more than the required number of qualified GMDSS radio operators. B. The vessel has a temporary waiver of its radio license and Safety Certificate. C. The vessel is not capable of performing all required Distress and Safety functions. D. The vessel is not carrying a GMDSS radio maintainer, but has provided for shoreside maintenance plus duplication of equipment if required. 10B6 What determines the spares and maintenance materials requirements for the VHF-DSC equipment under GMDSS? A. 47 CFR Part 80 B. IMO Circular "Equipment Spares". C. The GMDSS Maintainer's requirements. D. The recommendations of the manufacturer. Answers: 10B1 - D 10B2 - A 10B3 - B 10B4 - C 10B5 - C 10B6 - D 11B1 Which FCC license meets the requirement to serve as a GMDSS operator? A. General Radiotelephone Operator’s License. B. Marine Radio Operator’s Permit. C. GMDSS Radio Operator’s License D. GMDSS Radio Maintainer’s License. 11B2 Which of the following statements concerning GMDSS Radio Operator requirements is false? A. Each compulsory vessel must carry at least two licensed GMDSS Radio Operators at all times while at sea. B. Each compulsory vessel must carry at least two licensed GMDSS Radio Operators at all times while at sea and may elect to carry a GMDSS Radio Maintainer as well. C. While at sea, adjustments to, and the maintaining of, GMDSS equipment may be performed by the GMDSS Radio Operator as long as the work is supervised by an on-board licensed GMDSS Radio Maintainer. D. All communications involving Safety of life at sea must be logged as long as the compulsory vessel was not involved in such communications. 11B3 Which FCC license meets the requirements to perform or supervise the performance of at-sea adjustments, servicing, or maintenance which may affect the proper operation of the GMDSS station? A. GMDSS Operator’s/Maintainer’s license or GMDSS Maintainer’s license. B. General Radiotelephone Operator’s License with Shipboard RADAR endorsement. C. Marine Radio Operator’s Permit or GMDSS Maintainer’s license. D. GMDSS Radio Operator’s license or Marine Radio Operator’s Permit. 11B4 Which statement is false regarding the radio operator requirements for a GMDSS-equipped ship station? A. One of the qualified GMDSS radio operators must be designated to have primary responsibility for radiocommunications during Distress incidents. B. Maintaining a record of all incidents connected with the radio-communications service that appear to be of importance to Safety of life at sea is not required. C. A qualified GMDSS radio operator, and a qualified backup, must be designated to perform Distress, Urgency and Safety communications. D. While at sea, all adjustments or radio installations, servicing or maintenance of such installations that may affect the proper operation of the GMDSS station must be performed by, or under the supervision of, a qualified GMDSS radio maintainer. 11B5 Which of the following are personnel, functional, or equipment FCC requirements of the GMDSS? A. One FCC licensed GMDSS radio operator in sea areas A1 & A2, two FCC licensed GMDSS radio operators in sea areas A3 & A4 and equipment carriage based on intended sea area of operations. B. Equipment carriage based on intended sea area of operations, distress alerting and response and two FCC licensed GMDSS radio operators. C. Distress alerting and response, two USCG STCW GMDSS watchstanders, equipment carriage based on intended sea area of operations. D. Equipment carriage reduced for sea areas A3 & A4, Distress alerting and response and two FCC licensed GMDSS radio operators. 11B6 How many GMDSS radio maintainers must be carried aboard a compulsory vessel if the At-Sea maintenance method is used? A. Two in Sea Areas A3 and A4. B. Two in Sea Area A1. C. One regardless of sea area of operation. D. None of these answers are correct. Answers: 11B1 - C 11B2 - D 11B3 - A 11B4 - B 11B5 - B 11B6 - C 12B1 Under GMDSS, a compulsory VHF-DSC radiotelephone installation must be tested at what minimum intervals at sea? A. Annually, by a representative of the FCC. B. Daily C. At the annual SOLAS inspection. D. Monthly 12B2 What is the meaning of “Reserve Source of Energy”? A. High caloric value items for lifeboat, per SOLAS regulations. B. Diesel fuel stored for the purpose of operating the powered survival craft for a period equal to or exceeding the U.S.C.G. and SOLAS requirements. C. Power to operate the radio installation and conduct Distress and Safety communications in the event of failure of the ship's main and emergency sources of electrical power. D. The diesel fueled emergency generator that supplies AC to the vessel’s Emergency power bus. 12B3 Which term describes the source of energy required to supply the GMDSS console with power if the ship’s source of main or emergency energy fails? A. Emergency power B. Ship's emergency diesel generator C. Ship's standby generator D. Reserve Source of Energy 12B4 What is the requirement for emergency and reserve power in GMDSS radio installations? A. Compulsory ships must have emergency and reserve power sources for radio communications. B. An emergency power source for radio communications is not required if a vessel has proper reserve power (batteries). C. A reserve power source is not required for radio communications. D. Only one of the above is required if a vessel is equipped with a second 406 EPIRB as a backup means of sending a Distress alert. 12B5 While underway, how frequently is the DSC controller required to be tested? A. Once a month B. Twice a week C. Once a week D. Once a day 12B6 At sea, all required equipment (other than Survival Craft Equipment) must be proven operational by: A. Daily testing or daily successful use of the equipment. B. Testing at least every 48 hours. C. Weekly testing of all S.C.E. and other compulsory equipment. D. Daily testing of the S.C.E. and weekly tests of the other equipment. Answers: 12B1 - B 12B2 - C 12B3 - D 12B4 - A 12B5 - D 12B6 - A 13B1 Proper watchkeeping includes the following: A. After silencing an alarm all displays and/or printouts are read, monitoring all required frequencies in the proper mode, notifying the Master of any Distress alerts. B. Monitoring all required frequencies in the proper mode, setting the DSC scanner to 2 MHz, 4 MHZ and 8 MHz for ships in the vicinity, notifying the Master of any Distress alerts. C. Notifying the Master of any Distress alerts, setting the DSC scanner to 2 MHz, 4 MHZ and 8 MHz for ships in the vicinity, monitoring all required frequencies in the proper mode. D. Setting the DSC scanner only to the mandatory 2 MHz & 8 MHz, maintain continuous watch on 2182.0 kHz or 4125.0 kHz, notify the Master of any Distress traffic heard. 13B2 Proper watchkeeping includes the following: A. Understanding normal operational indicators, setting the DSC scanner frequencies to minimize alarms, maintaining a proper log. B. Maintaining a proper GMDSS radio station log, understanding normal operational indicators, responding to and comprehending alarms. C. Responding to and comprehending alarms, logging out of Inmarsat-C terminals while at sea, maintaining a proper GMDSS radio station log. D. Maintaining a proper GMDSS radio station log, setting the DSC scanner frequencies to minimize alarms, logging out of Inmarsat-C terminals while at sea. 13B3 Which is true concerning a required watch on VHF Ch-16? A. When a vessel is in an A1 sea area and subject to the Bridge-to-Bridge act and in a VTS system, a watch is required on Ch-16 in addition to both Ch-13 and the VTS channel. B. It is not compulsory at all times while at sea until further notice, unless the vessel is in a VTS system. C. When a vessel is in an A1 sea area and subject to the Bridge-to-Bridge act and in a VTS system, a watch is not required on Ch-16 provided the vessel monitors both Ch-13 and the VTS channel. D. It is not always compulsory in sea areas A2, A3 and A4. 13B4 Which of the following statements meets requirements for 47 CFR 80 Subpart-W? A. GMDSS Radio Logs may not be retained aboard compulsory vessels in an electronic file (e.g., word processing) format. B. GMDSS Radio Logs must be retained aboard compulsory vessels for a period of at least 90 days in their original form. C. Entries in the GMDSS Radio Log are only required for communications within the vessel's intended Sea Area of operation. D. GMDSS Radio Logs must contain entries of all Distress and Urgency communications affecting your own ship. 13B5 How long must the radio log be retained on board before sending it to the shoreside licensee? A. At least 30 days after the last entry. B. At least one year after the last entry. C. At least two years after the last entry. D. At least 90 days after the last entry. 13B6 Which statement concerning radio log archival by the station licensee is false? A. Retain for two years if there are no Distress entries. B. Retain for one year unless there are Distress or Urgency entries. C. Logs related to an investigation may not be destroyed without specific authorization. D. Retain for three years if there are Distress entries. Answers: 13B1 - A 13B2 - B 13B3 - C 13B4 - D 13B5 - A 13B6 - B 14C1 What is the MID? A. Mobile Identification Number B. Marine Indemnity Directory C. Mobile Interference Digits D. Maritime Identification Digits 14C2 How many digits are in the MID (Maritime Identification Digits)? A. 3 B. 7 C. 9 D. 10 14C3 What does the MID (Maritime Identification Digits) signify? A. Port of registry B. Nationality C. Gross tonnage D. Passenger vessel 14C4 Which of the following numbers indicates a U.S. flag ship station? A. 036627934 B. 243537672 C. 338426791 D. 003382315 14C5 Which of the following MMSI numbers indicates a U.S. flag ship station? A. 430326890 B. 033609991 C. 303236824 D. 257326819 14C6 Which of the following numbers indicates a ship station MMSI? A. 003372694 B. 030356328 C. 3384672 D. 623944326 Answers: 14C1 - D 14C2 - A 14C3 - B 14C4 - C 14C5 - C 14C6 - D 15C1 A DSC call is received from a station with a MMSI number of 003669991. What type of station made the call? A. A vessel operating in Sea Area A3. B. A group ship station C. A U.S. coast station D. An Intercoastal vessel 15C2 A valid MMSI number for a DSC call to a specific group of vessels is: A. 003664523 B. 338462941 C. 003036483 D. 030327931 15C3 A MMSI 030346239 indicates what? A. Group MMSI B. Inmarsat-C I.D. number C. Coast station D. Ship station 15C4 Which of the following statements concerning MMSI is true? A. Coast station MMSI numbers have 9 digits starting with 4. B. All MMSI numbers are 9 digits and contain an MID. C. Ship station MMSI numbers can be 7 digits or 9 digits depending on the Inmarsat terminal. D. Group MMSI numbers must begin with 2 zeros. 15C5 Which of the following statements concerning MMSI is false? A. All Coast Station MMSI must begin with 2 zeros. B. All Coast Station MMSI must begin with the MID then 2 zeros. C. A group call must begin with a single zero followed by the MID. D. The first 3 digits of a ship MMSI comprise the MID. 15C6 Which of the following statements concerning MMSI is true? A. All ship station MMSI must begin with a single zero and include the MID. B. All group station MMSI must begin with the MID. C. None of these answers are correct. D. All Coast Station MMSI must be 9 digits and begin with the MID and then two zeros. Answers: 15C1 - C 15C2 - D 15C3 - A 15C4 - B 15C5 - B 15C6 - C 16C1 When making a routine DSC call to another vessel what information should be included? A. Time of transmission. B. Proposed working channel. C. Your own vessel’s position. D. Subject matter of the call. 16C2 A VHF “Distress Hot Key” alert will always include what information? A. The nature of Distress and vessel position. B. The vessel’s current position, course and speed from the GPS. C. The vessel’s programmed MMSI number and code for Distress priority. D. The follow-on frequency required for Distress voice communications. 16C3 When sending a DSC call: A. Vessel’s position will automatically be sent with DSC calls specifying an alternate frequency. B. Vessel's MMSI will indicate its ocean region and vessel position. C. Vessel’s MMSI and position will automatically be sent for all types of DSC calls. D. Vessel's position will automatically be sent if the vessel is sending a “Distress Hot Key” alert. 16C4 A "Distress Hot Key" VHF DSC Distress alert: A. Always goes out on the DSC frequency of Ch-70 to alert other stations. B. Must go out on Ch-16 and Ch-70 to indicate “MAYDAY” traffic will follow. C. Must go out on Ch-16 to alert the nearest vessels and coast stations of imminent “MAYDAY” traffic. D. May go out on Ch-70 or Ch-16 depending on the manufacturer. 16C5 Which statement is true regarding vessel position when sending a “Distress Hot Key” alert? A. The operator must choose to include the position. B. The vessel’s position will always be correct if taken from the connected GPS. C. A connected GPS is always required to ensure the Distress position is accurate. D. The position will either be taken from the connected GPS or the updated manual position. 16C6 A “Distress Hot Key” alert will always include what information? A. Distress priority, vessel’s position if available and the vessel’s MMSI number. B. The vessel’s current position, course and speed from the GPS. C. The vessel’s MMSI number and category of Distress. D. Distress priority, frequency for voice Distress communications and vessel position. Answers: 16C1 - B 16C2 - C 16C3 - D 16C4 - A 16C5 - D 16C6 - A 17C1 A Ch-70 DSC Distress alert is received. What action should be taken? A. Silence the alarm, review the message and set up watch on Ch-16 to listen for Mayday communications. B. Silence the alarm and immediately call the master for further instructions. C. Review the incoming message information but take no action unless requested to do so by the RCC. D. Use DSC to immediately notify the vessel their Distress has been received. 17C2 Which of the following statements on DSC acknowledgement and relay of DSC Distress alerts is true? A. Operators cannot initiate acknowledgements or relays. B. Most equipment was designed to allow for DSC acknowledgements and ALL SHIPS DSC relays but this should only be done per current regulations. C. The equipment was designed to allow for DSC acknowledgements and relays and the operator should follow the software menu structure accordingly. D. DSC acknowledgements and relays are automatically transmitted by the unit to ensure the RCC receives the Distress. 17C3 What does the DSC control unit do if the GMDSS Radio Operator fails to insert updated information when initiating a DSC Distress alert? A. It will abort the transmission and set off an audible alarm that must be manually reset. B. It will initiate the DSC Distress alert but, as no information will be transmitted, rescue personnel will not be able to identify the vessel, its position, or its situation. C. It will initiate the DSC Distress alert and default information will automatically be transmitted. D. It will initiate the DSC Distress alert, but any station receiving it will have to establish contact with the distressed vessel to determine its identity, position, and situation. 17C4 A DSC Distress alert is received. What action should be taken? A. Transmit a DSC acknowledgement. B. Call the nearest Coast Guard Station. C. No action is necessary. D. Advise the Master and monitor Ch-16. 17C5 What is the quickest method of transmitting a DSC Distress alert? A. Press the “Distress Hot Key”. B. Make a “MAYDAY” call on Ch-70. C. Make a “MAYDAY” call on Ch-16. D. Select “Distress” priority from the menu. 17C6 DSC relays of Distress alerts by vessels: A. Should be done for all Distress alerts received aboard the ship. B. Should be avoided; unless an acknowledgement has not been heard. C. Should be transmitted to all ships involved in Distress traffic. D. Are the best means to provide for a retransmission of Distress communications. Answers: 17C1 - A 17C2 - B 17C3 - C 17C4 - D 17C5 - A 17C6 - B 18C1 A VHF-DSC “Distress Hot Key” alert always transmits what information if connected to GPS? A. Distress designation and follow on communications channel. B. A “Nature of Distress” category and Distress priority specifier code. C. Position, UTC time of position update and Ch-70 for voice follow-on. D. Position, time of position update, MMSI number programmed and Distress priority specifier. 18C2 Which of the following statements is true regarding Distress alerting under GMDSS? A. The Distress alert must identify the station in Distress and its position and may additionally include information regarding the nature of the Distress. B. Ship to shore Distress alerts are used to alert other ships in port of navigational hazards. C. Ship-to-ship Distress alerts are used to alert other ships in the vicinity of navigational hazards and bad weather. D. The vessel nearest to the emergency must notify the Coast Guard before leaving the vicinity. 18C3 If a GMDSS Radio Operator initiates a DSC Distress transmission but does not insert a message, what happens? A. The transmission is aborted and an alarm sounds to indicate this data must be provided by the operator. B. The transmission will be made with "default" information provided automatically. C. The transmission is not initiated and "ERROR" is indicated on the display readout. D. The receiving station will poll the DSC unit of the vessel in Distress to download the necessary information. 18C4 Repetition of a DSC Distress call is normally automatic if not acknowledged after a delay of: A. 2 - 5 minutes B. 10-15 minutes C. 3.5 - 4.5 minutes D. 1 - 2 minutes 18C5 A VHF-DSC Distress alert call: A. Using the "Distress Button" or "Distress Hot Key" ensures that all information pertinent to a Distress will be transmitted. B. Contains information on the vessel’s course and speed. C. Can include the nature of the distress if time permits and operator selects it D. Will always contain accurate positions from GPS units and correct MMSI numbers. 18C6 A VHF-DSC Distress alert will always be transmitted on what channel? A. Ch-16 B. Ch-22A C. Ch-6 D. Ch-70 Answers: 18C1 - D 18C2 - A 18C3 - B 18C4 - C 18C5 - C 18C6 - D 19D1 If a VHF-DSC Distress alert is transmitted what channel is used for follow-on voice transmission? A. Ch-12 B. Ch-70 C. Ch-16 D. Ch-13 19D2 Why should you always follow on with a voice transmission after sending a DSC Distress alert? A. A voice follow on transmission is always necessary in a genuine Distress. B. To provide more information than is contained in the DSC message. C. To confirm for coast stations and other mariners that the Distress is genuine. D. All of these answers are correct. 19D3 You receive a VHF-DSC Distress alert. What Channel should you monitor for further information? A. Ch-16 B. Ch-06 C. Ch-22A D. Ch-70 19D4 What is the proper format for a Distress follow on voice transmission? (3x is three times), A. All Ships 3x, this is Ship's Name/Call Sign 3x, Ship's position, nature of distress and assistance requested. B. Mayday 3x, this is Ship's Name/Call Sign 3x, Ship's position, nature of distress and assistance requested. C. Mayday 3x, this is Ship's Name/Call Sign once, Ship's position, nature of distress and assistance requested. D. All Stations 3x, this is Ship's Name/Call Sign 3x, Ship's position, nature of distress and assistance requested. 19D5 What information should be included in a Distress follow on voice transmission after a DSC Alert? A. Ship's Name and Call Sign, MMSI number, DSC frequency used and any other information that might facilitate rescue. B. Ship's Name and Call Sign, MMSI number & position, the nature of distress and assistance requested. C. Ship's position, Ship’s IMN, the nature of distress and assistance requested. D. Ship’s Name and Call sign, repeat IMN, provide any other information that might facilitate rescue. 19D6 What information is not vital in a Distress follow on voice transmission after a DSC Alert? A. Ship's position, nature of distress and assistance requested. B. Ship's Name, Call Sign and MMSI number. C. Company emergency contact information. D. Physical description of the vessel and number of POB. Answers: 19D1 - C 19D2 - D 19D3 - A 19D4 - B 19D5 - B 19D6 - C 20D1 Which statement is true regarding the receipt and acknowledgement of Distress alerts by ship stations? A. Ship stations in receipt of a Distress alert should acknowledge it immediately to assist the coast station in responding to the Distress alert. B. A ship station that receives a Distress alert must, as soon as possible, inform the Master or person responsible for the ship of the contents of the Distress alert. C. Ship stations that receive a Distress alert from a vessel in their vicinity must immediately send a DSC relay to inform the RCC. D. Alerts concerning navigational hazards are second only to Safety traffic. 20D2 What is meant by the acronym “EOS" in a DSC message? A. Error Of Sequence B. End Of Signals C. End Of Sequence D. Equal Operating Signals 20D3 What is the proper procedure to be followed upon receipt of a Distress alert transmitted by use of Digital Selective Calling techniques? A. Set watch on the DSC alerting frequency in the band of frequencies the alert was received. B. Set a continuous watch on VHF-FM Channel 13, 16 and DSC on Channel 70. C. Ship stations equipped with narrow-band direct-printing equipment should respond to the Distress alert as soon as practicable by this means. D. Set watch on the radiotelephone Distress and Safety frequency associated with the Distress and Safety calling frequency on which the Distress alert was received. 20D4 What is meant by the acronym “ECC" in a DSC message? A. Error Check Character B. Every Cipher Counted C. Error Cannot Confirm D. Even Characters Counted 20D5 What action should be taken on receipt of a VHF Distress alert? A. Read the display screen and/or printout and call the Master to verify if the Distress is genuine. B. Silence the alarm, examine the display screen and acknowledge the DSC alert via DSC. C. Silence the alarm and listen for any follow on voice transmission on Ch-70. D. Silence the alarm and set up watch on Ch-16 to determine if the Distress is genuine. 20D6 What precautions should be taken when viewing an incoming DSC Distress alert message? A. Be careful not to activate a DSC acknowledgement or relay. B. If the message is not clear make a DSC call to all ships requesting clarification. C. No precautions are necessary -- the unit will auto-acknowledge an incoming DSC Distress alert. D. If there are errors in the call the unit didn’t auto-acknowledge via DSC and the watch officer must do so instead. Answers: 20D1 - B 20D2 - C 20D3 - D 20D4 - A 20D5 - D 20D6 - A 21D1 A DSC Distress Relay should always be made under the following circumstances: A. When a DSC response to a Distress alert from a Coast/Ship Station hasn’t been received and the Master approves. B. When the MMSI of the vessel in Distress cannot be determined. C. After there is an acknowledgement from a coast station. D. DSC Distress Relays do not need to be made if your vessel is too far away to assist. 21D2 Your ship received a Distress relay from a coast station on DSC VHF channel 70. What action should the watch officer take? A. Retransmit the DSC call on Ch-70 to other vessels in the vicinity. B. Monitor Ch-16 to determine if there are any genuine Distress communications. C. Monitor Ch-06 to determine if there are any genuine Distress communications. D. Transmit a voice “Mayday Relay” call on Ch-13. 21D3 Under what condition would you not relay a DSC Distress alert? A. If the mobile unit in Distress is incapable of further Distress alert communications. B. If no Coast Station/Mobile Unit acknowledgement of the alert is observed. C. A coast station DSC acknowledgment of the original Distress alert was received by your vessel. D. No distress traffic has been heard and the DSC alert is unacknowledged via DSC. 21D4 The relay of DSC Distress alerts: A. Was not originally an intended function of the GMDSS system but now is the preferred method to notify an RCC. B. Remains the preferred method for passing Distress message traffic to an RCC or Coast Station. C. Should always be done immediately to ensure a Coast Station receives the DSC Distress Alert. D. Can quickly overburden the GMDSS systems in the vicinity with improperly transmitted or inappropriately relayed DSC calls. 21D5 Transmission of a Distress alert by a station on behalf of another vessel actually in Distress should not occur: A. When communications between the Distress vessel and a Coast station are already in progress. B. When the mobile unit actually in Distress is not itself in a position to transmit the Distress alert. C. When the Master or responsible person on the mobile unit not in Distress so decides. D. When the responsible person at the Coast Station determines further help is necessary. 21D6 You are in voice communication on Ch-16 with a vessel in Distress that advises you they are unable to contact a Coast Station. What action would you take? A. Send a DSC Distress Relay transmission on Ch-16. B. Attempt to contact a Coast Station using voice on Ch-16 with a Mayday Relay. C. Make an all ships call with Urgency priority. D. Call the Coast Station on Ch-70 with Distress priority giving the other vessel’s position. Answers: 21D1 - A 21D2 - B 21D3 - C 21D4 - D 21D5 - A 21D6 - B 22D1 What action should you take after sending a false Distress alert on VHF? A. Send a DSC cancellation message on Ch-70. B. Make a voice announcement to cancel the alert on Ch-13. C. Make a voice announcement to cancel the alert on Ch-22A. D. Make a voice announcement to cancel the alert on Ch-16. 22D2 A crewmember has accidentally transmitted a VHF-DSC Distress alert. What action should be taken? A. Stop the radio from repeating the alert then make an all stations call on Ch-16 canceling the inadvertent alert. B. Send a DSC call canceling the Distress alert. C. No specific action is necessary. D. Turn off the power and make a voice announcement to cancel the alert on Ch-70. 22D3 What action is not applicable in preventing transmissions of false Distress alerts? A. Proper watch officer instruction and training. B. Disabling the unit’s ability to perform DSC Relays & acknowledgments. C. Ensure that the protective cover over the “Distress Hot Key” is secure. D. Ensure that all officers read the operating manuals and are familiar with the menus. 22D4 The EPIRB on the bridge wing is observed with the strobe light flashing and the control switch in the “ON” position. What action(s) should be taken? A. Disabling the EPIRB is all that is necessary. B. Contact the nearest USCG Coast Station and request that they send the alert reset signal. C. Contact the nearest coast station or RCC to cancel the distress alert and subsequently disable the EPIRB. D. Disable the EPIRB and wait for the USCG to advise that the transmission has stopped. 22D5 You have been monitoring your 3-cm radar screen and a series of 12 concentric circles suddenly appears centered on the screen. What is the most likely cause of this situation? A. There is a survival craft within 3 nm distance. B. There is a fault in the radar. C. Your own vessel’s SART has been activated. D. Your own vessel’s EPIRB homing beacon has been activated. 22D6 The EPIRB on the bridge wing is observed with the strobe light flashing and the control switch in the “OFF” position. What action should be taken? A. Place the control switch in the "OFF” position. B. No action is needed – the strobe light indicates the automatic monthly self test is in progress. C. Wait for the USCG or NOAA to confirm that the unit is actually transmitting. D. Assume the unit is transmitting and follow the recommended procedures to properly cancel a false distress alert being broadcast from an EPIRB. Answers: 22D1 - D 22D2 - A 22D3 - B 22D4 - C 22D5 - C 22D6 - D 23D1 What is the fundamental purpose for imposing radio silence? A. To ensure that interference to proprietary communications is minimized. B. To ensure that only voice communications can be effected on the Distress frequency or channel. C. To mitigate the risk of interference on a frequency or channel being used for emergency communications. D. To ensure that a Distressed vessel will have a "window" twice each hour for transmitting routine messages. 23D2 When can routine communications be resumed when radio silence has been imposed? A. After determining that the frequency or channel appears to be no longer in use. B. After determining that geographic distance from the Distress situation will prohibit any other signal from interfering with emergency communications. C. If, in the master's opinion, communications on that frequency will interfere with emergency communications. D. Routine communications can resume after the Rescue Coordination Center transmits a message on the frequency or channel being used for emergency communications stating that such traffic has concluded. 23D3 What is meant by the term “Seelonce Mayday"? A. Stations not directly involved with the on-going Distress communications may not transmit on the Distress frequency or channel. B. Stations remaining off the air to safeguard proprietary information. C. Two three-minute silent periods, at 15 and 45 minutes after the hour, that provide a transmitting "window" for distressed vessels to transmit Distress alerts using J3E. D. Communications on a Distress frequency or channel is banned for 24 hours following the cessation of the Distress traffic. 23D4 How is "radio silence" imposed? A. By the Land Earth Station (LES) controlling the Distress communications on that frequency. B. By the On Scene Coordinator (OSC) or the RCC chosen by the SAR Mission Coordinator. C. By the nearest Public Correspondence Coast Station. D. By the vessel first responding to the Distress call. 23D5 What is the reason for imposing radio silence? A. To keep a clear channel open for Safety broadcasts. B. To prevent interference to Distress communications. C. To allow individual vessels to carry out direct communications. D. To listen periodically for other vessels sending Distress alerts on Ch-70. 23D6 How are normal working conditions restored after radio silence has been imposed? A. All of these answers are correct. B. The Land Earth Station (LES) that imposed the radio silence must transmit a voice message on the Distress frequency stating "SILENCE FINI". C. The Rescue Coordination Center (RCC) that imposed the radio silence must transmit a voice message on the Distress frequency stating "SEELONCE FEENEE". D. The Public Correspondence Station (PCS) that imposed the radio silence must transmit a voice message on the Distress frequency stating "SILENCE FINI". Answers: 23D1 - C 23D2 - D 23D3 - A 23D4 - B 23D5 - B 23D6 - C 24D1 The Radiotelephone Urgency signal is: A. Mayday B. Pan Pan C. Securite D. Seelonce Feenee 24D2 Which of the following situations would normally use the Urgency priority? A. A crewmember falling over the side. B. A serious medical situation involving a crewmember with potential loss of life. C. A cargo shift or weather situation considered to be of greater hazard than would justify a Safety priority designation. D. An important meteorological warning concerning hazardous weather. 24D3 Which of the following situations would not properly use the Urgency priority? A. Treatment of a crewmember breaking a leg in a cargo hold. B. Leaking oil from a minor tank fracture requiring a mandatory pollution report. C. An unexpected deviation in the forecast track line of a typhoon. D. Abandoning the vessel just before sinking. 24D4 Which of the following situations would normally use the Urgency priority? A. A serious medical situation involving a crewmember. B. A collision with the ship taking on water. C. Important company communications related to an itinerary change. D. Scenarios concerning the Safety of navigation or important meteorological warnings. 24D5 The Urgency Priority should be used for: A. Messages concerning the Safety of Life At Sea (SOLAS). B. Messages detailing important navigational warnings. C. Messages concerning On-scene communications. D. Messages containing information concerning the Safety of a mobile unit or person. 24D6 If the Watch Officer hears "PAN PAN" spoken 3 times it means: A. None of these answers is correct. B. A navigation or important meteorological warning should follow. C. The station is preparing to transmit a Safety message possibly concerning the safety of a mobile unit or person. D. A mobile unit is in need of immediate assistance. Answers: 24D1 - B 24D2 - C 24D3 - D 24D4 - A 24D5 - D 24D6 - A 25D1 When the GMDSS Radio Operator on watch hears "Securite" spoken three times, he can expect to receive the following information: A. A message concerning the Safety of navigation. B. The safety of vessel or person is in jeopardy. C. A vessel is in need of immediate assistance. D. A Coast Station sending an important traffic list. 25D2 Which of the following situations would normally use the Voice designation "Securite"? A. Messages concerning the Safety of Life At Sea (SOLAS). B. Messages detailing important navigational warnings. C. Messages containing information concerning the Safety of a mobile unit or person. D. Messages concerning On-scene communications. 25D3 Which of the following situations would normally use the Safety priority? A. Treatment of a crewmember with a broken leg that is not life-threatening. B. Treatment of a crewmember with a serious cardiac emergency. C. Loss of 5 containers with lashing gear over the side. D. A fire in the generator flat/spaces. 25D4 Which of the following situations would normally use the Safety priority? A. A serious medical situation involving a crewmember. B. An unanticipated warning related to piracy or terrorism. C. Grounding in a way that could lead to imminent danger to the ship’s crew. D. Important navigational or meteorological warnings. 25D5 The Radiotelephone Safety signal is: A. "Securite" repeated 3 times B. "Safety Safety Safety" C. "Pan Pan" repeated 3 times D. "Securite Securite" repeated 3 times 25D6 Which of the following situations would normally use the Safety priority? A. A serious medical situation involving a crewmember. B. A scenario concerning an important navigational or meteorological warning. C. A crewmember falling over the side. D. Important company communications involving weather routing. Answers: 25D1 - A 25D2 - B 25D3 - C 25D4 - D 25D5 - A 25D6 - B 26D1 Which of the following steps should be taken, if possible, when the vessel must be abandoned because of a Distress situation? A. Alert the U.S. Coast Guard by using the survival craft's portable Inmarsat unit. B. Program the SART and EPIRB to transmit the vessel's location and situation. C. No additional steps are needed as the SART and EPIRB will both automatically float free and operate properly. D. Secure the EPIRB to the survival craft and mount the SART in a position to maximize its elevation. 26D2 If your vessel has suffered a casualty severe enough to disable both ship’s power and the GMDSS console RSE you should: A. Activate the EPIRB and/or use the SCT to make a “Mayday” call on Ch-16. B. Use UHF Transceivers to contact other vessels. C. Activate the EPIRB and/or use the SCT to make a “Mayday” call on Ch-70. D. Make a “Mayday” call on Ch-70 and Ch-06 using the Survival Craft Transceiver. 26D3 DSC is used primarily to: A. Receive weather warnings, navigational notices and other Maritime Safety Information. B. Transmit and receive Distress, Urgency and Safety alerts and routine calls to and from other ships and coast radio stations. C. Provide routine communications with the ship owner. D. Report ship's position to search-and-rescue authorities via satellite. 26D4 The vessel’s GMDSS operator fails to properly record the particulars of an incoming DSC Distress alert. Which statement is true? A. The details of the DSC alert are obtainable from the DSC address book. B. The details of the DSC Distress alert are irrevocably lost. C. The details of the DSC alert should be obtainable by accessing the DSC call data directory. D. The details of the DSC Distress alert are never stored for later review. 26D5 What action(s) should be taken when abandoning ship? A. Send a VHF-DSC Distress alert on Ch-16 before going to the boats. B. Activate the EPIRB and leave it secured to the mounting bracket. C. Take EPIRB, SART and SCT units to the survival craft and use as circumstances dictate. D. Once in the survival craft – activate the EPIRB and send a VHF-DSC Distress alert on Ch-16 26D6 What is the best method of determining whether a Distress situation is genuine? A. Check your 3-cm radar for a SART signal from the Distress vessel. B. Monitor the 406 MHz EPIRB signal to locate the vessel in Distress. C. Check the NAVTEX for U.S.C.G. confirmation of the Distress from the RCC. D. Monitor the follow on frequency for actual voice Distress communications. Answers: 26D1 - D 26D2 - A 26D3 - B 26D4 - C 26D5 - C 26D6 - D 27E1 What indication is given to the personnel in a survival craft of the approach of SAR craft? A. The Satellite EPIRB will change its strobe light pattern to indicate radar interrogation. B. The SART informs survivors when the SART switches to the "standby" mode. C. The SART may provide a visual or audible indication of interrogation by a 3-cm radar. D. The AIS SART will alarm to indicate that SAR craft with radars are getting close. 27E2 Which of the following would most likely not prevent a SART's signal from being detected? A. The rescue personnel were monitoring the 3-CM radar and the SART was mounted improperly in the lifeboat. B. The SART was mounted improperly in the survival craft and rescue personnel were monitoring the 10-CM radar. C. The rescue personnel were monitoring the 10-CM radar and the SART was properly mounted in the lifeboat. D. The SART was properly mounted in the lifeboat and rescue personnel were monitoring the 3-CM radar. 27E3 How can a SART's detection and effective range be maximized? A. The SART should be held or mounted as high as possible and in a vertical position. B. The SART should be placed in water immediately so it will begin transmitting. C. Switch the SART into the "high" power position. D. If possible, the SART should be mounted horizontally so that its signal matches that of the searching radar signal. 27E4 Which statement is NOT true regarding the SART? A. Responds to interrogations by a vessel's X-Band radar and transmits a signal. B. This is a 6 GHz transponder capable of being received by a vessel's X-band navigational radar system. C. This is a 9 GHz transponder capable of being received by a vessel's X-band navigational radar system. D. Transmits a distinctive 12-blip signal for easy recognition. 27E5 At what point does a SART begin transmitting? A. It immediately begins radiating when placed in the "on" position. B. If it has been placed in the "on" position, it will respond when it has been interrogated by a 9-GHz radar signal. C. It must be manually activated or water activated before radiating. D. If it has been placed in the "on" position, it will begin transmitting immediately upon detecting that it is in water. 27E6 A SART's signal cannot be detected: A. In poor visibility, or at night. B. In heavy seas. C. By a search vessel's 10 cm Radar. D. By a search vessel's 3 cm Radar. Answers: 27E1 - C 27E2 - D 27E3 - A 27E4 - B 27E5 - B 27E6 - C 28E1 How does the searching vessel's radar interrogate a survival craft SART? A. Activate the IFF interrogation system. B. The SART responds automatically and transmits the 12-blip signal when it detects the search craft or other vessels' X-Band radar signal. C. Maintains watch on VHF-FM Ch-70 for the SART's unique identifier. D. The SART responds automatically when it detects the search craft or other vessel's 10-cm radar signal. 28E2 What radar display changes indicate the correct approach to a SART and what care should be taken in a SAR situation? A. The line of dots indicate the SART's position, the dots become increasing arcs as the distance to the SART lessens, rescuing vessels should increase speed to reach Distress more quickly. B. A line of dots on a radar screen rotates to indicate the SART's position along its line of bearing; rescuing vessels should steer for the center of the line of dots. C. The line of dots indicate the SART's position, the dots become increasing arcs as the distance to the SART lessens, rescuing vessels should reduce speed as the arcs get greater in degree. D. The line of dots indicate the SART's position, the dots become decreasing arcs as the distance to the SART lessens, rescuing vessels should reduce speed as the arcs lessen in degree. 28E3 How can rescue personnel detect that a SART is transmitting in the immediate vicinity? A. The DSC unit will react to the SART's signal and respond with the two-tone auto alarm. B. The SART can provide an approximate location to within a two nautical mile radius, per IMO standards. C. The SART signal appears as a target which comes and goes; the effect of heavy swells on a SART. D. The SART's dots on the PPI will become arcs and then eventually become concentric circles. 28E4 What signal is detected as originating from an AIS SART and how is the signal displayed? A. An AIS SART signal is shown on any AIS receiver as a special MMSI-like coded symbol. B. The 3-cm radar reflections are converted to AIS signals and displayed on ECDIS/ARPA screens. C. An AIS SART transmits on AIS frequencies and the signals are converted to 3-cm radar targets for display on 3-cm radars. D. An AIS SART transmits on 9 GHz so that a 3-cm radar can display the signals. 28E5 How can vessel personnel detect the operation of a SART in its vicinity? A. A unique two-tone "warbling" signal heard on VHF-FM Ch-70. B. It will activate an AIS new signal alarm on the AIS receiver. C. The SART signal appears as a target that comes and goes -- due to the effect of heavy swells on a SART. D. A unique 3-cm signal consisting of a 12-dot pattern radiating outward from a SART's position along its line of bearing. 28E6 What is not an advantage of an AIS SART signal when compared to a radar-based SART signal? A. The AIS SART can be detected much farther away than radar SART models. B. Not every AIS transmission needs to be received to achieve an accurate presentation of the location. C. The AIS SART position has GPS accuracy and transmits on AIS VHF frequencies. D. AIS SART units may be easier to find in poor radar target conditions. Answers: 28E1 - B 28E2 - C 28E3 - D 28E4 - A 28E5 - D 28E6 - A 29E1 Which of the following statements concerning testing and maintenance of SARTs is true? A. Testing a SART should be done in a consistent manner & location to ensure a baseline history of proper results. B. Testing of the SART should never be done in port to prevent interference to other vessel’s radars. C. A SART's battery must be replaced within ninety (90) days after the expiration date imprinted on the unit. D. An at-sea GMDSS maintainer is not able to test a SART because it is hermetically sealed. 29E2 Why is it important to limit the duration of testing a SART? A. Excessive testing causes "burn in" on the vessel's radar display. B. Testing in port or even at sea may cause interference to other radars or a test signal may be misinterpreted as a genuine Distress situation. C. To prevent overheating, a SART requires sufficient ventilation that is significantly reduced when the SART is being tested. D. If another SART is testing at the same time, the two signals will cause damage to the unit that transmitted them. 29E3 What statement is true regarding tests and maintenance that could be provided for the SART? A. Full verification within manufacturer's specifications by the on-board maintainer would be a requirement for all vessels in the A3 & A4 sea areas using measuring equipment to generate 9 GHz signals. B. Battery should be replaced within the 90 day grace period following the manufacturer's expiration date shown on the SART and the SART should only be tested at-sea to reduce interference to other vessels. C. Extreme care should be exercised because testing of the SART may be received by other vessels, may be interpreted as a Distress condition, or it may interfere with other vessels' safe navigation. D. Battery should be replaced with a new one before the manufacturer's expiration date shown on the SART and the SART should only be tested in port to reduce interference to other vessels. 29E4 Why should functional testing of a SART be minimized? A. Potential interference with safe navigation, notifying other vessels of an actual Distress and minimize power consumption. B. Minimize power consumption of the battery and only test at sea to reduce potential interference or confusion. C. Possibility of misinterpretation by other vessels as a Distress situation and only test in port to prevent potential interference with safe navigation or at-sea vessels. D. Potential interference with safe navigation, possible misinterpretation of an actual Distress, minimizes draining the battery. 29E5 Which is NOT a valid maintenance and testing function for a SART? A. Operational test with several vessels to determine effective transmitting range. B. Inspection of container for apparent damage. C. Inspect battery expiration date and the lanyard condition. D. Brief operational test utilizing own ship's radar. 29E6 The SART is required to have sufficient battery capacity to operate in the stand-by mode for what period of time? A. Three days B. Four days C. Eight hours D. Forty-eight hours Answers: 29E1 - A 29E2 - B 29E3 - C 29E4 - D 29E5 - A 29E6 - B 30E1 Which is not a function of a satellite under COSPAS-SARSAT using satellite EPIRBs? A. Relayed satellite message includes the EPIRB ID number which provides a reference for retrieval of vessel information from the shore database. B. Doppler shift of EPIRB signal is measured and the EPIRB’s position is calculated. C. Information received from EPIRBs is time-tagged and transmitted to any Local User Terminal in the satellite's view. D. After the EPIRB’s position is calculated using the Doppler shift COSPAS-SARSAT satellites provide follow-on SAR communications. 30E2 Which of the following satellite systems is of particular & dedicated importance to search and rescue missions under GMDSS? A. COSPAS/SARSAT B. Inmarsat C. GPS D. Iridium 30E3 Which of the following statements concerning COSPAS-SARSAT is false? A. 406 MHz EPIRBs are units that are used as alerting devices. B. Doppler frequency measurements provide more precise locations than GPIRB signals. C. The Doppler frequency measurement concept is used to determine the EPIRB's location. D. Satellites in a low-earth polar orbit detect EPIRB beacons on 406 MHz and relay the information to a Local User Terminal (LUT). 30E4 Which of the following statements concerning COSPAS-SARSAT is false? A. EPIRBs, ELTs, and PLBs use the system primarily for Distress alerting. B. These satellites monitor 406 MHz for EPIRB signals. C. After initiating a call request and selecting the LES, these satellites may be used for commercial messages. D. These satellites use Doppler shift measurement to determine the location of the beacons. 30E5 Which of the following statements concerning the EPIRB system is true? A. GOES weather satellites will provide alerting with complete worldwide coverage. B. COSPAS-SARSAT satellites always provides an alert and position report within 10 minutes of reception. C. The Inmarsat system will not provide alerts and position report for 406 MHz EPIRBs equipped with GPS receivers. D. The GPS satellite system will relay an alert and position report within 20 minutes of reception. 30E6 Which of the following statements concerning satellite EPIRBs is true? A. The coded EPIRB signal identifies the nature of the Distress situation. B. The coded EPIRB signal only identifies the vessel's name and port of registry. C. If the GMDSS Radio Operator does not program the EPIRB, it will transmit default information such as the follow-on communications frequency and mode. D. Once activated, these EPIRBs transmit a signal for use in identifying the vessel and for determining the position of the beacon. Answers: 30E1 - D 30E2 - A 30E3 - B 30E4 - C 30E5 - C 30E6 - D 31E1 What features may be found on GMDSS satellite EPIRB units? A. Strobe light, Distress homing transmission on 406 MHz, float-free release bracket. B. Emergency transmission on 406 MHz, hydrostatic release, AIS homing frequency. C. Float-free release bracket, strobe light & Distress alert transmission on 406 MHz. D. Hydrostatic release, Distress alert transmission on 121.5 MHz, strobe light. 31E2 What feature is not a component of a 406 MHz satellite EPIRB? A. 121.5 MHz emergency homing transmitter. B. Emergency transmission on 406.025 MHz. C. Float-free release bracket. D. Aural locator signal. 31E3 What statement is true regarding 406 MHz EPIRB transmissions? A. Transmits a unique hexadecimal identification number. B. Allows immediate voice communications with the RCC. C. Coding permits the SAR authorities to know if manually or automatically activated. D. GMDSS Radio Operator programs an I.D. into the SART immediately prior to activation. 31E4 Which of the following is normally part of 406 MHz satellite EPIRBs? A. A strobe light, automatic float-free bracket, 1-watt 406-MHz alert beacon. B. A 5-watt 406-MHz alert beacon, Automatic Hydrostatic Release (ARM), strobe light. C. Automatic float-free bracket, 5-watt 121.5 MHz homing beacon, strobe light. D. Automatic Hydrostatic Release (ARM), 1-watt 121.5 MHz alerting beacon, strobe light. 31E5 Which of the following statements concerning EPIRBs is false? A. The COSPAS-SARSAT system may take a full hour or more to provide an alert. B. The Inmarsat system provides worldwide coverage for Distress alerts. C. The GOES weather satellites are in a geostationary orbit. D. 406 MHz EPIRB units may be equipped with GPS receivers. 31E6 Which of the following EPIRBs is most likely to be used to transmit a Distress alert signal? A. S-Band EPIRBs B. X-Band EPIRBs C. 406 MHz EPIRBs D. 121.5/243 MHz EPIRBs Answers: 31E1 - C 31E2 - D 31E3 - A 31E4 - B 31E5 - B 31E6 - C 32E1 Which of the following would best be used for visual detection of a distressed vessel? A. A 9-GHz SART's beacon. B. An EPIRB's strobe light. C. A 121.5-MHz EPIRB beacon. D. A 406-MHz EPIRB beacon. 32E2 Which piece of required GMDSS equipment is the primary source of transmitting locating signals? A. Radio Direction Finder (RDF). B. Survival Craft Transceiver. C. An EPIRB transmitting on 406 MHz. D. A SART transmitting on 406 MHz. 32E3 What may be used as a homing signal by the search and rescue vessels in the immediate vicinity of the ship in Distress? A. Flare gun B. Strobe Light C. 406 MHz signal from a satellite EPIRB. D. A 121.5 MHz emergency transmitter in a satellite EPIRB. 32E4 What part of a satellite EPIRB may function as a visual aid to rescue vessels? A. Strobe light B. A 121.5 MHz emergency transmitter in a satellite EPIRB. C. 406 MHz signal from a satellite EPIRB. D. Loud beeping tone emitted by the unit, once activated. 32E5 What is an example of a locating signal? A. SSB phone traffic B. Ship to shore transmissions C. Loran C D. A float-free EPIRB 32E6 Which device provides the best method to locate a ship in Distress or survival craft in the GMDSS? A. Satellite EPIRBs B. Radio Direction Finder C. MF/HF DSC D. VHF homing device Answers: 32E1 - B 32E2 - C 32E3 - D 32E4 - A 32E5 - D 32E6 - A 33E1 With what other stations may portable survival craft transceivers not communicate? A. Communication between the ship and survival craft transceivers ashore. B. Communication between the ship and its survival craft. C. Communication between rescue units and survival craft. D. Communication between multiple survival craft and with aircraft. 33E2 Equipment for radiotelephony use in survival craft stations under GMDSS must have what capability? A. Operation on 457.525 MHz. B. Operation on Ch-16. C. Operation on 121.5 MHz. D. Operation on Ch-70. 33E3 Equipment for radiotelephony use in survival craft stations under GMDSS must have what characteristic(s)? A. Permanently-affixed antenna, watertight, power 1W or 25W. B. Watertight, power a minimum of 1W, operation on CH-16, Ch-13 & Ch-70. C. Operation on Ch-16, watertight, permanently-affixed antenna. D. Operation on Ch-16, Ch-13 & Ch-70, power 1W, permanently-affixed antenna. 33E4 Which statement is NOT true regarding the requirements of survival craft portable two-way VHF radiotelephone equipment? A. Operation on Ch-16 B. Antenna must be permanently-affixed. C. Simplex (single frequency) voice communications only. D. Effective radiated power should be a minimum of 2.0 Watts. 33E5 Which statement is NOT true regarding the requirements of VHF Survival Craft Transceivers? A. Operation on Ch-13 is mandatory. B. Effective radiated power should be a minimum of 0.25 Watts. C. Simplex (single frequency) voice communications only. D. Operation on Ch-16 is mandatory. 33E6 Which statement is NOT true regarding the requirements of survival craft portable two-way VHF radiotelephone equipment? A. Watertight to a depth of 1 meter for 5 minutes. B. Operates simplex on Ch-70 and at least one other channel. C. Effective radiated power should be a minimum of 0.25 Watts. D. The antenna is fixed and non-removable. Answers: 33E1 - A 33E2 - B 33E3 - C 33E4 - D 33E5 - A 33E6 - B 34E1 The “On Scene Coordinator” may be which of the following? A. The vessel in Distress will always be the “On Scene Coordinator” for itself. B. The first search vessel to arrive on the scene is always designated as the OSC. C. Only shore authorities, Coast Station or RCC’s can be the “On Scene Coordinator.” D. Any involved vessel so designated by the Search and Rescue Mission Coordinator. 34E2 Which of the following channels is designated as the VHF follow-on communications channel and is required in all portable survival craft equipment? A. Ch-16 B. Ch-6 C. Ch-13 D. Ch-70 34E3 The determination that the Distress traffic is over is usually made by whom? A. The vessel in Distress. B. The “On Scene Coordinator” and/or the RCC controlling the Distress traffic. C. The first Coast Station to receive the DSC Distress alert. D. Other vessels after nothing has been heard for some time. 34E4 On Scene communications are usually initiated using what equipment? A. EPIRB on 121.5 MHz B. SART on 9 GHz C. VHF on Ch-16 D. VHF on Ch-70 34E5 On Scene communications should be conducted on which of the following channels? A. 406 MHz B. VHF Ch-22A C. VHF Ch-16/06 D. VHF Ch-70 34E6 Passenger vessel “On Scene” communications should be conducted with aircraft on which of the following channels or frequencies? A. 9 GHz B. VHF Ch-13 C. VHF Ch-26 D. VHF 121.5 MHz Answers: 34E1 - D 34E2 - A 34E3 - B 34E4 - C 34E5 - C 34E6 - D 35E1 Which action should the GMDSS radio operator take in a Distress situation when embarking in survival craft? A. EPIRB and SART switched on manually prior to embarking; remain aboard vessel in Distress. B. Notify RCC (Rescue Coordination Center) through VHF DSC in portable equipment. C. Switch on EPIRB and SART immediately and leave on. D. Communicate via Inmarsat-C from the survival craft. 35E2 Which of these would be vital to a GMDSS SAR situation in polar regions? A. GOES satellites to receive Distress Alerts and HF Voice for follow-on and SAR activity. B. GOES satellites to receive Distress Alerts and Inmarsat Voice for follow-on and SAR activity. C. Inmarsat satellites to receive Distress Alerts and HF Voice for follow-on and SAR activity. D. COSPAS/SARSAT satellites to receive Distress Alerts and VHF-HF Voice for follow-on and SAR activity. 35E3 Which statement is NOT true regarding the COSPAS-SARSAT system? A. The position of the EPRIB is always transmitted in the outgoing transmission (unless the unit is a GPIRB). B. Signals received by low altitude, near-polar orbiting satellites are relayed to a ground receiving station (LUT). C. Doppler shift is used to locate the position of the EPIRB. D. EPIRBs are satellite beacons used as alerting & homing devices. 35E4 Which statement is NOT true regarding the COSPAS-SARSAT system? A. EPIRBs are satellite beacons used as alerting/locating devices. B. May be used to transmit public correspondence. C. Locates Distress beacons transmitting on 406 MHz. D. Doppler shift is used to locate the beacons. 35E5 What information is transmitted by a 406 MHz EPIRB alert? A. Vessel position and nature of Distress. B. A unique Hexadecimal I.D. number. C. Vessel name and identification. D. Vessel MMSI number and position. 35E6 Which statement is false regarding the COSPAS-SARSAT system and EPIRB operations? A. The EPIRB’s position is calculated by the system and passed to the MCC. B. The EPIRB transmits a unique Hex I.D. and vessel position that may be passed to the RCC. C. The EPIRB’s position and Hex I.D. is passed instantaneously to the RCC. D. The EPIRB transmits a unique Hex I.D. that is passed to the RCC if it cannot be determined to be inadvertent by the MCC. Answers: 35E1 - C 35E2 - D 35E3 - A 35E4 - B 35E5 - B 35E6 - C 36E1 What actions should the GMDSS radio operator take prior to any potential Distress situation? A. Create a table or chart of all the DSC coast stations that might be used during the vessel’s itinerary. B. All of these answers are good operational practice and should be consistently done. C. Prepare a detailed Distress message file on both satellite & MF-HF SITOR (NBDP) equipment containing all information needed in a Distress so it will be available for last-minute editing. D. Ensure all LES choices are correct and then updated properly as the vessel transits different SAR jurisdictions. 36E2 What information should be contained in a detailed Distress message that was not transmitted by an initial Distress “hot-key” alert? A. Vessel position, course & speed and the nature of Distress. B. The distress vessel’s IMN and position at the time of alert. C. Vessel name & call sign, POB and all potential means to communicate with the vessel. D. Vessel name & call sign, distress vessel’s IMN & vessel position. 36E3 Which GMDSS equipment is best suited to simultaneous long-range communications with an RCC/coast station and OSC vessels or SAR aircraft? A. MF-HF SITOR (NBDP) transmitters using telex follow on frequencies. B. Inmarsat Signals routed via the RCC to the SAR vessels & aircraft under their control. C. VHF transmitters to reach SAR aircraft and OSC vessels as well as the RCC/coast station. D. MF-HF SSB transmitters using voice follow-on frequencies. 36E4 Which statement is NOT true regarding an Inmarsat Distress Alert? A. USCG coast stations will receive the alert and immediately notify the correct RCC. B. The operator selection of LES will determine which associated RCC will receive the alert. C. If the operator selects an invalid or inoperative LES code the NCS for that service will intercept the call and reroute the alert. D. If the LES choice is not updated properly the Distress Alert might be routed to a non-optimum RCC, introducing delays and confusion into the Distress situation. 36E5 What are the best resources for researching and planning equipment setups and updates prior to any potential Distress situation? A. NGA Pub. 117, Inmarsat handbook or manufacturer’s equipment manuals. B. Inmarsat handbook, FCC Part 80 or ITU List of Coast stations. C. ITU List of Coast stations, IMO GMDSS handbook, FCC Part 80. D. Inmarsat handbook, NGA Pub. 117 or ITU List of Coast stations. 36E6 Which statement is true regarding Inmarsat “hot-key” Distress Alerts? A. The LES programmed by the watch officers into the Distress Alert Update menu determines which RCC will receive your initial Distress Alert. B. The vessel’s position is checked against the SAR jurisdictions and the proper LES updated as the vessel changes NAVAREAS. C. The GPS position updates the Distress Alert Update menu to the correct LES choice to ensure proper communications with an RCC. D. The Distress Alert defaults are set correctly by the manufacturer and then automatically updated. Answers: 36E1 - B 36E2 - C 36E3 - D 36E4 - A 36E5 - D 36E6 - A 37F1 How is mutual interference on 518 kHz among NAVTEX stations avoided? A. Transmissions scheduled on a time-sharing basis, power limited and station assignment codes are geographically separated. B. All stations transmit at the same time but stations are limited to daytime operation only to reduce the radius of propagation. C. Transmitter power is limited, station assignment codes are not shared by other NAVAREAS and stations alternate between daytime and nighttime operations. D. Station codes are not shared by other NAVAREAS, transmissions scheduled on a time-sharing basis and power is limited. 37F2 When do NAVTEX broadcasts typically achieve maximum transmitting range? A. Local noontime B. Middle of the night C. Afternoon D. Sunset 37F3 What should a GMDSS Radio Operator do if a NAVTEX warning message is received but it contains too many errors to be usable? A. Contact the NAVAREA coordinator and request a repeat broadcast. B. Initiate a request for Category A, B, L and D messages. C. Do nothing. Vital NAVTEX messages will be repeated on the next scheduled broadcast. D. Listen to appropriate VHF weather channel for repeat warnings. 37F4 Which of these cannot happen when a paper model NAVTEX receiver runs out of paper? A. The unit is unable to print messages and all subsequent MSI broadcasts may be missed until the paper is replaced. B. It may give off either an audible and/or visual alarm. C. MSI messages may be missed because the unit cannot print them out. D. The system will automatically change from receiving MSI by NAVTEX to receiving it by SafetyNETTM so that no messages will be lost. 37F5 Which of the following is the primary frequency that is used exclusively for NAVTEX broadcasts internationally? A. 518 kHz B. 2187.5 kHz C. 4209.5 kHz D. VHF channel 16 when the vessel is sailing in Sea Area A1, and 2187.5 kHz when in Sea Area A2. 37F6 What is the transmitting range of most NAVTEX stations? A. Typically 50-100 nautical miles (90-180 km) from shore. B. Typically 200-400 nautical miles (360-720 km). C. Typically upwards of 1000 nautical miles (1800 km) during the daytime. D. It is limited to line-of-sight or about 30 nautical miles (54 km). Answers: 37F1 - A 37F2 - B 37F3 - C 37F4 - D 37F5 - A 37F6 - B 38F1 How is a NAVTEX receiver programmed to reject certain messages? A. The transmitting station's two-digit identification can be entered to de-select reception of its broadcasts. B. By entering the SELCAL of the NAVTEX transmitting station. C. By pressing "00" in the transmitter's ID block. D. By choosing a message category's single letter (A-Z) identifier and then deselecting or deactivating. 38F2 How can reception of certain NAVTEX broadcasts be prevented? A. The receiver can be programmed to reject certain stations and message categories. B. Stations are limited to daytime operation only. C. Coordinating reception with published broadcast schedules. D. Automatic receiver desensitization during night hours. 38F3 Which of the following statements is true? A. No NAVTEX receiver can be programmed to reject category A, B, D and L messages since they are mandatory to be received via NAVTEX. B. A GMDSS Radio Operator may choose to program certain NAVTEX receivers to reject category A, B, D and L messages if they are being received by another MSI system. C. Upon entering a new NAVTEX station's broadcast range, the GMDSS Radio Operator enters the station's SELCAL number. D. The GMDSS Radio Operator can select the "None" option in the message category menu. 38F4 What means are used to prevent the reception of unwanted broadcasts by vessels utilizing the NAVTEX system? A. Operating the receiver only during daytime hours. B. Coordinating reception with published broadcast schedules. C. Programming the receiver to reject certain stations and message categories. D. Automatic receiver de-sensitization during night hours. 38F5 What statement is true regarding the control the operator can exercise over the NAVTEX receiver's operation? A. The operator can set the unit to automatically reject any and all categories of messages if the ship desires to not receive them. B. Upon entering a coastal area for the first time, the operator enters code KK to indicate "ready to receive NAVTEX". C. The operator can set most units to reject all messages except navigation, meteorological warnings, and search and rescue messages. If the unit will reject such messages it may be unsafe to do so. D. To reduce the number of messages, the operator can select code 00 to indicate "not in coastal passage". 38F6 Which messages are mandatory to be received and should not typically be rejected or disabled by the operator of a NAVTEX receiver? A. Meteorological warnings, SAR information, Pilot Service Messages. B. Meteorological warnings, meteorological forecasts, navigational warnings. C. SAR information, navigational warnings, ice reports. D. Navigational warnings, meteorological warnings, SAR information. Answers: 38F1 - D 38F2 - A 38F3 - B 38F4 - C 38F5 - C 38F6 - D 39F1 The NAVTEX message header contains the following? A. A two-digit number (01-99) indicates the NAVTEX message category. B. Message numbers include a date/time group, along with the transmitting station's numerical ID. C. The first letter (from A to Z) indicates the NAVTEX transmitting station. D. None of these answers is correct. 39F2 If the Inmarsat-C terminal is inoperative but the vessel remains within NAVTEX coverage -- which of the following message categories should not be disabled by the GMDSS Radio Operator? A. Navigational warnings, meteorological warnings and metrological forecasts. B. Search and Rescue information, navigational warnings and other electronic navaid messages. C. Search and Rescue information, Meteorological warnings and ice reports. D. Meteorological warnings, Search and Rescue information and Navigational warnings. 39F3 How are NAVTEX broadcasts transmitted? A. Using FEC techniques. B. NAVTEX is transmitted by commercial coast radio stations following their traffic lists. C. NAVTEX is transmitted only when an Urgency or Distress broadcast is warranted. D. No more often than every two hours and should immediately follow the radiotelephone silent periods. 39F4 What determines whether a NAVTEX receiver prints a particular type of message content from a programmed NAVTEX station? A. The serial number and type of message have already been received but additional printouts are generated to ensure receipt aboard the vessel. B. The serial number and type of message has not been previously received or the subject indicator has not been programmed for rejection. C. The subject indicator has been programmed for rejection by the operator but the message contains a priority override print command. D. The transmitting station ID covering your area has been programmed for rejection by the operator or has not been previously received. 39F5 Which information determines if a NAVTEX message is to be rejected? A. Transmitter identity (numerals from 1 to 26 identifying transmitting station within the NAVAREA). B. The second letter (from A to Z) in the header indicating the type of message. C. The Answerback of the receiving station has not been entered in the NAVTEX receiver. D. Only messages having a serial number 00 are rejected. 39F6 NAVTEX broadcasts are sent: A. Immediately following traffic lists. B. On request of maritime mobile stations. C. In categories of messages indicated by a single letter or identifier. D. Regularly, after the radiotelephone silent periods. Answers: 39F1 - C 39F2 - D 39F3 - A 39F4 - B 39F5 - B 39F6 - C 40F1 Where NAVTEX cannot be feasibly established, what system can be implemented to provide an automated service in coastal waters to receive MSI? A. AMVER B. SafetyNETTM C. VHF DSC D. ARQ SITOR (NBDP) 40F2 What action should a GMDSS Radio Operator take when SafetyNETTM Distress or Urgency messages are received by the vessel's EGC receiver? A. No immediate action is required, as an audible tone will be generated at the beginning and end of the transmission and a paper printout of the message will be generated. B. No immediate action is required by the operator, since the transmission will be automatically acknowledged by the receiving vessel. C. Aural and/or visual alarms are activated and require manual deactivation. D. A periodic alarm tone will be heard until the radio operator prints the message from the unit's memory. 40F3 What system can provide an automated service in coastal waters where it may not be feasible to establish the NAVTEX service or where shipping density is too low to warrant its implementation? A. AMVER B. VHF DSC C. ARQ SITOR (NBDP) D. SafetyNETTM 40F4 Aboard ship, SafetyNETTM messages can be received by which equipment/methods? A. EGC receiver of the vessel's Inmarsat-C SES. B. VHF DSC on the weather channels. C. NAVTEX Receiver on 518 kHz or the Tropical Navtex frequency D. HF SITOR (NBDP) MSI frequencies. 40F5 SafetyNETTM messages can be received by which of the following shipboard equipment? A. NAVTEX B. MF and HF SITOR (NBDP) C. Inmarsat F77 EGC receiver D. Inmarsat-C EGC receiver 40F6 Maritime Safety Information is promulgated via satellite through which system? A. SafetyNETTM B. AMVER C. NAVTEX D. Inmarsat-M SES Answers: 40F1 - B 40F2 - C 40F3 - D 40F4 - A 40F5 - D 40F6 - A 41F1 SafetyNETTM promulgates what type of information? A. MSI B. Traffic Lists C. News advisories D. MARAD 41F2 What kind(s) of broadcasts are not available through SafetyNETTM? A. MSI and messages to specific geographic areas. B. Vessel traffic lists C. Storm warnings D. Distress and Urgency bulletins 41F3 Which satellite system promulgates Maritime Safety Information? A. AMVER B. NAVTEX C. Inmarsat-C SafetyNETTM D. Inmarsat-M SES 41F4 What information is promulgated by the international SafetyNETTM? A. Traffic Lists B. Priority Messages C. MARAD D. MSI 41F5 To receive all mandatory MSI using the SafetyNETTM system the vessel must: A. Log-in and ensure the position is accurate to receive MSI for the NAVAREA the vessel is currently within. B. Notify the NAVAREA coordinator you are using SafetyNETTM for the receipt of MSI (Maritime Safety Information). C. Set the receiver to your destination Inmarsat Ocean Region. D. Notify the NAVAREA coordinator you are using SafetyNETTM for the receipt of MSI (Maritime Safety Information) and set the receiver to your destination Ocean Region. 41F6 In using SafetyNETTM for the receipt of MSI (Maritime Safety Information): A. Only unscheduled Urgency and Distress messages will be received if the Inmarsat-C SES is not logged in. B. All of these answers are correct. C. Both scheduled MSI and unscheduled Urgency and Distress messages will be received if the Inmarsat-C SES is logged in. D. The Inmarsat-C SES must have Enhanced Group Calling (EGC) capability to receive MSI. Answers: 41F1 - A 41F2 - B 41F3 - C 41F4 - D 41F5 - A 41F6 - B 42F1 Over what system are Enhanced Group Calls transmitted? A. COSPAS satellite B. HF SITOR (NBDP) shore stations C. NAVTEX shore stations D. Inmarsat satellite 42F2 What is the purpose of the dedicated EGC receiver for A-1 area GMDSS Vessels? A. To ensure receipt of MSI in areas without NAVTEX coverage. B. To allow monitoring of the vessels location for AMVER tracking. C. Simultaneous receipt and transmission of vessel SafetyNETTM messages. D. To track which NAVAREA the vessel is currently in for receipt of MSI. 42F3 Which of the following provides a unique automated system capable of addressing messages to predetermined groups of ships or all vessels in both fixed and variable geographic areas? A. NAVTEX B. EGC C. AFRTS D. NAVAREAs 42F4 What system may be useful for messages, such as local storm warnings or a shore-to-ship Distress alert, for which it is inappropriate to alert all ships in the satellite coverage area? A. NAVTEX B. AMVER C. EGC D. DSC 42F5 What services are available through Enhanced Group Calls? A. Maritime Safety Information and vessel traffic lists. B. Hourly NOAA weather broadcasts from the NWS. C. Maritime Safety Information and messages to pre-defined groups of subscribers. D. Coastal weather broadcasts. 42F6 What messages originate from registered information providers anywhere in the world and are broadcast to the appropriate ocean region via a LES? A. AMVER broadcasts B. Urgency messages C. NAVTEX broadcasts D. SafetyNETTM messages Answers: 42F1 - D 42F2 - A 42F3 - B 42F4 - C 42F5 - C 42F6 - D 43G1 Adjusting the volume control has the following results: A. The higher the volume control is set the greater the sensitivity. B. The volume control sets the threshold for receiving signals. C. Adjusting the volume control has no effect on the sensitivity. D. The lower the volume control is set the greater the sensitivity. 43G2 The Dual Watch (DW) function is used to: A. Listen to Ch-70 at the same time while monitoring Ch-16. B. Sequentially monitor 4 different channels. C. None of the above D. Listening on any selected channel while periodically monitoring Ch-16. 43G3 Setting the squelch control to just beyond the point where the background noise disappears results in: A. Maximum sensitivity without background noise. B. Reduced sensitivity without background noise. C. Minimum background noise with reduced sensitivity. D. Greater bandwidth without background noise. 43G4 The “Scan” function is used to: A. Monitor Ch-16 continuously and switching to either Ch-70 or Ch-13 every 5 seconds. B. Sequentially scan all or selected channels. C. Scan Ch-70 for Distress alerts. D. None of the above. 43G5 Setting the squelch control to the end of its range without any noise being heard results in: A. Less background noise B. Minimum sensitivity C. Maximum sensitivity D. Does not have any effect on the sensitivity. 43G6 Proper and legal VHF operations require all of these except? A. The channel must be designated as valid for the nature or type of communications desired. B. Simplex, duplex and alpha channel modes must be correctly selected. C. The correct bandwidth must be selected by the operator. D. The power level must be appropriately chosen by the operator. Answers: 43G1 - C 43G2 - D 43G3 - A 43G4 - B 43G5 - B 43G6 - C 44G1 Which of the following control selections may result in limited receiving range? A. Setting the squelch control to its minimum level. B. Setting the squelch control to its maximum level. C. The power switch is set to the "high" output position, resulting in receiver overloading. D. Setting the channel selection switch midway between channels 6 and 16. 44G2 While conducting routine communications using the wheelhouse VHF with a station 1 mile distant, your recommended power setting would be: A. 25 watts after dark. B. 25 watts during a clear sunny day. C. 1 watt, day or night. D. 1 watt using DSC at night. 44G3 Which of the following factors does not normally affect the range of VHF transmissions? A. Salt water ingress into the antenna coaxial cable. B. Power level setting. C. Vessel antenna height. D. Ionospheric refraction. 44G4 Much longer than normal VHF transmissions are typically caused by: A. Atmospheric ducting or tropospheric propagation. B. Changing power from 1W to 25 W. C. Skywave reflections from the D layer. D. Ionospheric activity in layers F1/F2. 44G5 Describing VHF transmissions as "line of sight" does not mean: A. Vessel antenna height will not affect the radius of propagation. B. The normal transmission range to a coast station is approximately is 10 NM. C. Coast station antenna height has no effect on the radius of transmission. D. VHF communications are effective only with nearby stations within visual range of the bridge. 44G6 The effectiveness of VHF communications is maximized by: A. Appropriate setting of the transmitter power, selecting an appropriate channel & adjustment of squelch for maximum receiver sensitivity. B. The adjustment of squelch for maximum receiver sensitivity, setting transmitter power to 1W & selecting an appropriate channel. C. Selecting an appropriate channel, adjustment of squelch for minimum receiver sensitivity & setting transmitter power to 1W. D. Selecting an appropriate channel, adjustment of squelch for minimum receiver sensitivity, setting transmitter power to 25W. Answers: 44G1 - B 44G2 - C 44G3 - D 44G4 - A 44G5 - D 44G6 - A 45G1 Which channel would most likely be used for routine ship-to-ship voice traffic? A. Ch-08 B. Ch-16 C. Ch-70 D. Ch-22A 45G2 Which channel is utilized for the required Bridge-to-Bridge watch? A. DSC on Ch-70 B. VHF-FM on Ch-13 in most areas of the continental United States. C. VHF-FM on Ch-16 D. The vessel's VHF working frequency. 45G3 What channel would you use for routine communications with the U.S.C.G.? A. Ch-16 B. Ch-80 C. Ch-22A D. Ch-13 45G4 What channel would you use to place a call to a shore telephone? A. Ch-16 B. Ch-70 C. Ch-06 D. Ch-28 45G5 What channel is always being continuously monitored? A. Ch-70 B. Ch-28 C. Ch-80 D. Ch-16 45G6 Which of the following channels may be used for duplex communications? A. Ch-70 B. Ch-26 C. Ch-5A D. Ch-22A Answers: 45G1 - A 45G2 - B 45G3 - C 45G4 - D 45G5 - A 45G6 - B 46G1 The nearest Coast Guard station is being called by a vessel on Ch-22. That vessel’s USA-INT switch is set to INT. What will be the results? A. There should be no problem carrying on communications. B. The Coast Guard station will not hear the call due to listening on a duplex receiving frequency. C. Neither station will hear the other’s calls. D. The Coast Guard station will probably hear the call and respond but the vessel called will not hear the response. 46G2 What is the reason for the USA-INT control or function? A. It changes some channels that are normally duplex INT channels into simplex USA channels. B. It changes some channels that are normally simplex INT channels into duplex USA channels. C. When the control is set to “INT” the range is increased. D. It changes duplex USA channels to simplex for International use. 46G3 Which of the following statements is true? A. You should always use the “INT” setting for calling a Public Correspondence station. B. Using the “USA” setting changes certain channels from duplex to simplex operation. C. You should use Ch-22 when calling the U. S. Coast Guard. D. Using the “INT” setting will prevent proper Ch-13 Bridge-to-Bridge operations. 46G4 The USA-INT control on VHF units: A. Selects duplex operations for U.S. coastal waters and simplex operations in non-U.S. waters, on the "alpha" channels. B. Ensures that the “alpha” channels are correctly set to duplex for use in U.S. waters & on VTS channels. C. Changes selected international duplex channels to simplex channels for use in U.S. waters, on the "alpha" channels. D. Changes selected international simplex channels to duplex channels for use in U.S. waters, on the "alpha" channels. 46G5 The USA-INT control on VHF units: A. Was made necessary by a desire for more duplex channels in the U.S. B. Correctly set, will result in duplex operations in U.S. Coastal waters on the "alpha" channels. C. Correctly set, will result in simplex operations in U.S. Coastal waters on the "alpha" channels. D. Was made necessary by a desire to convert simplex international channels to duplex channels in the U.S. 46G6 What would happen if your VHF is set to “INT” and you called a VTS that operates on an “alpha” channel? A. The coast station should hear your call and respond and you will be able to receive VTS instructions. B. The coast station will not hear your call but you will hear their responses to other vessels in the VTS area. C. You will be able to hear the coast station calling you but will not be able to hear other vessels in the VTS area. D. The coast station should hear your call and respond but you will not hear their response. Answers: 46G1 - D 46G2 - A 46G3 - B 46G4 - C 46G5 - C 46G6 - D 47G1 The quickest way to transmit a DSC Distress alert is: A. Select “Distress” priority from the menu and transmit an “all ships” call. B. Transmit a “MAYDAY” call on Ch-16. C. Press the “Distress Hot Key” as specified by the equipment manufacturer. D. Select “Distress Relay Select” from the menu and transmit the call. 47G2 A DSC Urgency priority call is usually set up in the following manner: A. Such calls are sent first to all coast stations and then later to all ship stations. B. Such calls are sent to an individual coast station. C. Such calls are sent to an individual ship station. D. Such calls are sent simultaneously to “all stations”. 47G3 A DSC Safety call might be used under the following conditions: A. Navigation Hazard B. Man overboard C. Distress situation D. Serious medical request 47G4 To send a Distress alert use the following procedure: A. Initiate a menu call to select Ch-16 for voice communications. B. Use the “Distress Hot Key” in an appropriate manner. C. Always insert the nature of the Distress first. D. Make a voice Mayday call on Ch-16 before any other action. 47G5 DSC Urgency priority calls may be sent using the “Distress Hot Key” under the following circumstances: A. If no additional information is required to be transmitted. B. Under NO circumstances. C. Only if the position information is correct. D. The “Distress Hot Key” can be programmed for either Urgency or Distress as required. 47G6 A DSC Safety priority call might be used under the following circumstances: A. A crew member is missing and presumed lost overboard. B. There is a fire in the engine room. C. A lifeboat has been lost over the side in heavy weather and is adrift. D. A medical situation that did not present an imminent danger of loss of life. Answers: 47G1 - C 47G2 - D 47G3 - A 47G4 - B 47G5 - B 47G6 - C 48G1 How are Routine calls usually formatted/initiated? A. By pressing the “Distress Hot Key”. B. By making the appropriate key strokes to select the appropriate menu choices. C. By pressing the “Alarm” button and then selecting from various options. D. Using Ch-70 to make Routine priority DSC calls is not permitted. 48G2 What would be the appropriate menu choice when calling another ship station? A. Ch-28 B. Duplex C. Simplex D. Ch-22 48G3 What would be the appropriate channel selection for follow-on voice communications for a Routine priority call to another vessel? A. Ch-70 B. Ch-16 C. Ch-22 D. Ch-08 48G4 If the vessel you wish to call is not listed in your VHF address book, what action would not resolve the problem? A. Look in the DSC Distress call data directory for the MMSI number of the other vessel. B. The vessel’s MMSI number could be manually entered during the call setup. C. The vessel’s name and MMSI number may be entered in the address book for use. D. Look the number up in the ITU books and manually call the vessel. 48G5 What conditions must exist for a completely automatic DSC acknowledgement of a Routine call and change to suggested working channel? A. Both stations must be monitoring Ch-16 or the sending station must be set up for automatic DSC response. B. The receiving station must be monitoring the suggested working frequency. C. All routine priority DSC calls must be manually acknowledged by the watch officer. D. The receiving station must be set up for automatic DSC response. 48G6 What actions will take place upon receipt of a Routine call from another vessel if both vessels are programmed for automatic response and the ECC is no good? A. Some portion of the call particulars will appear on the screen and the channel will not change. B. The ECC alarm will sound and the watch officer should call back to determine the working frequency. C. The ECC alarm will sound and the channel will change but the watch officer should ensure it is legal. D. The channel will not change because the working frequency requested is illegal. Answers: 48G1 - B 48G2 - C 48G3 - D 48G4 - A 48G5 - D 48G6 - A 49G1 The DSC received call directory usually sorts and stores incoming calls in what manner? A. Received calls are typically divided into two directories distinguished by priority. B. All received calls are saved in a single category. C. Received calls are always divided into Distress and Urgency categories. D. Only received Distress calls are saved. 49G2 Why would you want to access your MMSI number? A. To call another vessel. B. To determine that the number is correct. C. To change it. D. There is no reason to access your MMSI number. 49G3 What precautions should be taken when reviewing previously transmitted messages? A. Press the “Call” key when finished. B. Always save the message. C. Take steps not to accidentally send the message again. D. No precautions are necessary. 49G4 How many times is it possible to change your own MMSI number in a VHF unit? A. It is not possible. B. It may be changed by the operator up to 4 times. C. MMSI numbers can only be changed by the manufacturer. D. On some units it can be changed at will if the password is known. 49G5 What precautions should be taken when reviewing received Distress messages? A. Take steps not to accidentally send a DSC acknowledgement or relay. B. Press the “Call” key when finished. C. Always save the message. D. No precautions are necessary. 49G6 Which of the following is not true regarding vessel position information? A. The position is normally provided from GPS input. B. The time of the updated position should be UTC or the correct local zone time. C. If the position is not automatically updated it must be manually updated every 4 hours. D. The position information must be periodically checked to ensure that it remains current and accurate. Answers: 49G1 - A 49G2 - B 49G3 - C 49G4 - D 49G5 - A 49G6 - B 50G1 What information is normally entered in the address book? A. The vessel’s IMN. B. The vessel’s call sign and name. C. The vessel’s IMO number. D. Vessel’s name and MMSI number. 50G2 Which of the following statements is not true concerning the DSC call data directory? A. All DSC units typically store all of the Transmitted and Received DSC calls in a single directory. B. Some DSC units have both a Transmit and Receive message directory or database. C. Some DSC units have different directories for received calls and sort them by priority. D. Calls in the directory should not be deleted – they are necessary for inspections & logkeeping. 50G3 Which of the following statements on address book entries is not correct? A. Shore based telephone numbers may be entered for automatic telephone calls ashore. B. Address book entries can only be used to call shore stations. C. Public Correspondence Stations may be entered. D. A vessel’s name and MMSI number may be entered. 50G4 The VHF-DSC self-test function (if available) usually performs the following: A. Transmits a very weak DSC signal which is picked up by the Ch-70 receiver. B. Transmits a weak voice signal which is picked up on Ch-16. C. Makes a diagnostic test of the system without actually transmitting a signal. D. Does a check sum of the memory chips. 50G5 What can the operator do to adjust the audible alarm? A. The operator can choose to disable the audible alarm. B. VHF DSC units only have visual alarms. C. The alarm cannot be disabled for Distress and Urgency messages. D. The audible alarm control has the same indication for all four message priorities. 50G6 When initiating a DSC call through the menu system what is the most likely information that will be displayed after making the first correct keystroke? A. The Telecom-1 menu. B. The particulars of the previous call. C. The priority menu. D. The call setup menu. Answers: 50G1 - D 50G2 - A 50G3 - B 50G4 - C 50G5 - C 50G6 - D share/README0000664000175000017500000000220714624175503011222 0ustar jtnjtnfccexam is the top-level script. It chooses a question and uses ask.awk to present each question and interpret the response. The question pools were downloaded from https://www.fcc.gov/wireless/bureau-divisions/mobility-division/commercial-radio-operator-license-program/examinations copy & pasted to plain text and then split apart into a separate file for each question using the split.awk script. The question pools are stored in the E* directories. The question files will need to be updated when the pools expire or are modified. The E3.html and E8.html files contain the diagrams for elements 3 and 8. They were extracted from the .doc files using LibreOffice to save to HTML, and then stripping out text and duplicate figures. Several manual edits were required to correct minor typographical and formatting errors, and to remove non-ASCII characters. Some of the answers/distractors in the question pools appear to contain uncorrected typographical errors. The questions for elements 7, 7R, & 9 have "7-", "7R-", & "9-" prepended, so that the questions file prefix matches the element. # Copyright (C) 2012-2024 John Nogatch share/E1.txt0000664000175000017500000014117714621164333011356 0ustar jtnjtn1-1A1 What is a requirement of all marine transmitting apparatus used aboard United States vessels? A. Only equipment that has been certified by the FCC for Part 80 operations is authorized. B. Equipment must be type-accepted by the U.S. Coast Guard for maritime mobile use. C. Certification is required by the International Maritime Organization (IMO). D. Programming of all maritime channels must be performed by a licensed Marine Radio Operator. 1-1A2 What transmitting equipment is authorized for use by a station in the maritime services? A. Transmitters that have been certified by the manufacturer for maritime use. B. Unless specifically excepted, only transmitters certified by the Federal Communications Commission for Part 80 operations. C. Equipment that has been inspected and approved by the U.S. Coast Guard. D. Transceivers and transmitters that meet all ITU specifications for use in maritime mobile service. 1-1A3 Small passenger vessels that sail 20 to 150 nautical miles from the nearest land must have what additional equipment? A. Inmarsat-B terminal. B. Inmarsat-C terminal. C. Aircraft Transceiver with 121.5 MHz. D. MF-HF SSB Transceiver. 1-1A4 What equipment is programmed to initiate transmission of distress alerts and calls to individual stations? A. NAVTEX. B. GPS. C. DSC controller. D. Scanning Watch Receiver. 1-1A5 What is the minimum transmitter power level required by the FCC for a medium-frequency transmitter aboard a compulsorily fitted vessel? A. At least 100 watts, single-sideband, suppressed-carrier power. B. At least 60 watts PEP. C. The power predictably needed to communicate with the nearest public coast station operating on 2182 kHz. D. At least 25 watts delivered into 50 ohms effective resistance when operated with a primary voltage of 13.6 volts DC. 1-1A6 Shipboard transmitters using F3E emission (FM voice) may not exceed what carrier power? A. 500 watts. B. 250 watts. C. 100 watts. D. 25 watts. Answer Key: 1-1A1: A 1-1A2: B 1-1A3: D 1-1A4: C 1-1A5: B 1-1A6: D 1-2A1 Which commercial radio operator license is required to operate a fixed-tuned ship RADAR station with external controls? A. A radio operator certificate containing a Ship RADAR Endorsement. B. A Marine Radio Operator Permit or higher. C. Either a First or Second Class Radiotelegraph certificate or a General Radiotelephone Operator License. D. No radio operator authorization is required. 1-2A2 When is a Marine Radio Operator Permit or higher license required for aircraft communications? A. When operating on frequencies below 30 MHz allocated exclusively to aeronautical mobile services. B. When operating on frequencies above 30 MHz allocated exclusively to aeronautical mobile services. C. When operating on frequencies below 30 MHz not allocated exclusively to aeronautical mobile services. D. When operating on frequencies above 30 MHz not assigned for international use. 1-2A3 Which of the following persons are ineligible to be issued a commercial radio operator license? A. Individuals who are unable to send and receive correctly by telephone spoken messages in English. B. Handicapped persons with uncorrected disabilities which affect their ability to perform all duties required of commercial radio operators. C. Foreign maritime radio operators unless they are certified by the International Maritime Organization (IMO). D. U.S. Military radio operators who are still on active duty. 1-2A4 What are the radio operator requirements of a passenger ship equipped with a GMDSS installation? A. The operator must hold a General Radiotelephone Operator License or higher-class license. B. The operator must hold a Restricted Radiotelephone Operator Permit or higher-class license. C. The operator must hold a Marine Radio Operator Permit or higher-class license. D. Two operators on board must hold a GMDSS Radio Operator License or a Restricted GMDSS Radio Operator License, depending on the ship’s operating areas. 1-2A5 What is the minimum radio operator requirement for ships subject to the Great Lakes Radio Agreement? A. Third Class Radiotelegraph Operator’s Certificate. B. General Radiotelephone Operator License. C. Marine Radio Operator Permit. D. Restricted Radiotelephone Operator Permit. 1-2A6 What is a requirement of every commercial operator on duty and in charge of a transmitting system? A. A copy of the Proof-of-Passing Certificate (PPC) must be in the station’s records. B. The original license or a photocopy must be posted or in the operator’s personal possession and available for inspection. C. The FCC Form 605 certifying the operator’s qualifications must be readily available at the transmitting system site. D. A copy of the operator’s license must be supplied to the radio station’s supervisor as evidence of technical qualification. Answer Key: 1-2A1: D 1-2A2: C 1-2A3: A 1-2A4: D 1-2A5: C 1-2A6: B 1-3A1 Radio watches for compulsory radiotelephone stations will include the following: A. VHF channel 22a continuous watch at sea. B. 121.5 MHz continuous watch at sea. C. VHF channel 16 continuous watch. D. 500 kHz. 1-3A2 All compulsory equipped cargo ships (except those operating under GMDSS regulations or in a VTS) while being navigated outside of a harbor or port, shall keep a continuous radiotelephone watch on: A. 2182 kHz and Ch-16. B. 2182 kHz. C. Ch-16. D. Cargo ships are exempt from radio watch regulations. 1-3A3 What channel must all compulsory, non-GMDSS vessels monitor at all times in the open sea? A. Channel 8. B. Channel 70. C. Channel 6. D. Channel 16. 1-3A4 When a watch is required on 2182 kHz, at how many minutes past the hour must a 3 minute silent period be observed? A. 00, 30. B. 15, 45. C. 10, 40. D. 05, 35. 1-3A5 Which is true concerning a required watch on VHF Ch-16? A. It is compulsory at all times while at sea until further notice, unless the vessel is in a VTS system. B. When a vessel is in an A1 sea area and subject to the Bridge-to-Bridge act and in a VTS system, a watch is not required on Ch-16, provided the vessel monitors both Ch-13 and VTS channel. C. It is always compulsory in sea areas A2, A3 and A4. D. All of the above. 1-3A6 What are the mandatory DSC watchkeeping bands/channels? A. VHF Ch-70, 2 MHz MF DSC, 6 MHz DSC and 1 other HF DSC. B. 8 MHz HF DSC, 1 other HF DSC, 2 MHz MF DSC and VHF Ch-70. C. 2 MHz MF DSC, 8 MHz DSC, VHF Ch-16 and 1 other HF DSC. D. None of the above. Answer Key: 1-3A1: C 1-3A2: A 1-3A3 D 1-3A4: A 1-3A5: D 1-3A6: B 1-4A1 Who is required to make entries in a required service or maintenance log? A. The licensed operator or a person whom he or she designates. B. The operator responsible for the station operation or maintenance. C. Any commercial radio operator holding at least a Restricted Radiotelephone Operator Permit. D. The technician who actually makes the adjustments to the equipment. 1-4A2 Who is responsible for the proper maintenance of station logs? A. The station licensee. B. The commercially-licensed radio operator in charge of the station. C. The ship’s master and the station licensee. D. The station licensee and the radio operator in charge of the station. 1-4A3 Where must ship station logs be kept during a voyage? A. At the principal radiotelephone operating position. B. They must be secured in the vessel’s strongbox for safekeeping. C. In the personal custody of the licensed commercial radio operator. D. All logs are turned over to the ship’s master when the radio operator goes off duty. 1-4A4 What is the proper procedure for making a correction in the station log? A. The ship’s master must be notified, approve and initial all changes to the station log. B. The mistake may be erased and the correction made and initialized only by the radio operator making the original error. C. The original person making the entry must strike out the error, initial the correction and indicate the date of the correction. D. Rewrite the new entry in its entirety directly below the incorrect notation and initial the change. 1-4A5 How long should station logs be retained when there are entries relating to distress or disaster situations? A. Until authorized by the Commission in writing to destroy them. B. For a period of three years from the last date of entry, unless notified by the FCC. C. Indefinitely, or until destruction is specifically authorized by the U.S. Coast Guard. D. For a period of one year from the last date of entry. 1-4A6 How long should station logs be retained when there are no entries relating to distress or disaster situations? A. For a period of three years from the last date of entry, unless notified by the FCC. B. Until authorized by the Commission in writing to destroy them. C. For a period of two years from the last date of entry. D. Indefinitely, or until destruction is specifically authorized by the U.S. Coast Guard. Answer Key: 1-4A1: B 1-4A2: D 1-4A3: A 1-4A4: C 1-4A5: B 1-4A6: C 1-5A1 Radiotelephone stations required to keep logs of their transmissions must include: A. Station, date and time. B. Name of operator on duty. C. Station call signs with which communication took place. D. All of these. 1-5A2 Which of the following is true? A. Battery test must be logged daily. B. EPIRB tests are normally logged monthly. C. Radiotelephone tests are normally logged weekly. D. None of the above. 1-5A3 Where should the GMDSS radio log be kept on board ship? A. Captain’s office. B. Sea cabin. C. At the GMDSS operating position. D. Anywhere on board the vessel. 1-5A4 Which of the following statements is true? A. Key letters or abbreviations may be used in GMDSS Radio Logbooks if their meaning is noted in the log. B. Key letters or abbreviations may not be used in GMDSS Radio Logbooks under any circumstances. C. All Urgency communications must be entered in the logbook. D. None of the above. 1-5A5 Which of the following logkeeping statements is true? A. Entries relating to pre-voyage, pre-departure and daily tests are required. B. Both a) and c) C. A summary of all required Distress communications heard and Urgency communications affecting the station’s own ship. Also, all Safety communications (other than VHF) affecting the station’s own ship must be logged. D. Routine daily MF-HF and Inmarsat-C transmissions do not have to be logged. 1-5A6 Which of the following statements concerning log entries is false? A. All Safety communications received on VHF must be logged. B. All required equipment tests must be logged. C. The radio operator must log on and off watch. D. The vessels daily position must be entered in the log. Answer Key: 1-5A1: D 1-5A2: B 1-5A3: C 1-5A4: A 1-5A5: B 1-5A6: A 1-6A1 What regulations govern the use and operation of FCC-licensed ship stations in international waters? A. The regulations of the International Maritime Organization (IMO) and Radio Officers Union. B. Part 80 of the FCC Rules plus the international Radio Regulations and agreements to which the United States is a party. C. The Maritime Mobile Directives of the International Telecommunication Union. D. Those of the FCC’s Wireless Telecommunications Bureau, Maritime Mobile Service, Washington, DC 20554. 1-6A2 When may the operator of a ship radio station allow an unlicensed person to speak over the transmitter? A. At no time. Only commercially-licensed radio operators may modulate the transmitting apparatus. B. When the station power does not exceed 200 watts peak envelope power. C. When under the supervision of the licensed operator. D. During the hours that the radio officer is normally off duty. 1-6A3 Where do you make an application for inspection of a ship GMDSS radio station? A. To a Commercial Operator Licensing Examination Manager (COLE Manager). B. To the Federal Communications Commission, Washington, DC 20554. C. To the Engineer-in-Charge of the FCC District Office nearest the proposed place of inspection. D. To an FCC-licensed technician holding a GMDSS Radio Maintainer’s License. 1-6A4 Who has ultimate control of service at a ship’s radio station? A. The master of the ship. B. A holder of a First Class Radiotelegraph Certificate with a six months’ service endorsement. C. The Radio Officer-in-Charge authorized by the captain of the vessel. D. An appointed licensed radio operator who agrees to comply with all Radio Regulations in force. 1-6A5 Where must the principal radiotelephone operating position be installed in a ship station? A. At the principal radio operating position of the vessel. B. In the chart room, master’s quarters or wheel house. C. In the room or an adjoining room from which the ship is normally steered while at sea. D. At the level of the main wheel house or at least one deck above the ship’s main deck. 1-6A6 By international agreement, which ships must carry radio equipment for the safety of life at sea? A. All ships traveling more than 100 miles out to sea. B. Cargo ships of more than 100 gross tons and passenger vessels on international deep-sea voyages. C. All cargo ships of more than 100 gross tons. D. Cargo ships of more than 300 gross tons and vessels carrying more than 12 passengers. Answer Key: 1-6A1: B 1-6A2: C 1-6A3: C 1-6A4: A 1-6A5: C 1-6A6: D 1-7B1 What traffic management service is operated by the U.S. Coast Guard in certain designated water areas to prevent ship collisions, groundings and environmental harm? A. Water Safety Management Bureau (WSMB). B. Vessel Traffic Service (VTS). C. Ship Movement and Safety Agency (SMSA). D. Interdepartmental Harbor and Port Patrol (IHPP). 1-7B2 What is a bridge-to-bridge station? A. An internal communications system linking the wheel house with the ship’s primary radio operating position and other integral ship control points. B. An inland waterways and coastal radio station serving ship stations operating within the United States. C. A portable ship station necessary to eliminate frequent application to operate a ship station on board different vessels. D. A VHF radio station located on a ship’s navigational bridge or main control station that is used only for navigational communications. 1-7B3 When may a bridge-to-bridge transmission be more than 1 watt? A. When broadcasting a distress message and rounding a bend in a river or traveling in a blind spot. B. When broadcasting a distress message. C. When rounding a bend in a river or traveling in a blind spot. D. When calling the Coast Guard. 1-7B4 When is it legal to transmit high power on Channel 13? A. Failure of vessel being called to respond. B. In a blind situation such as rounding a bend in a river. C. During an emergency. D. All of these. 1-7B5 A ship station using VHF bridge-to-bridge Channel 13: A. May be identified by the name of the ship in lieu of call sign. B. May be identified by call sign and country of origin. C. Must be identified by call sign and name of vessel. D. Does not need to identify itself within 100 miles from shore. 1-7B6 The primary purpose of bridge-to-bridge communications is: A. Search and rescue emergency calls only. B. All short-range transmission aboard ship. C. Navigational communications. D. Transmission of Captain's orders from the bridge. Answer Key: 1-7B1: B 1-7B2: D 1-7B3: A 1-7B4: D 1-7B5: A 1-7B6: C 1-8B1 What is the best way for a radio operator to minimize or prevent interference to other stations? A. By using an omni-directional antenna pointed away from other stations. B. Reducing power to a level that will not affect other on-frequency communications. C. Determine that a frequency is not in use by monitoring the frequency before transmitting. D. By changing frequency when notified that a radiocommunication causes interference. 1-8B2 Under what circumstances may a coast station using telephony transmit a general call to a group of vessels? A. Under no circumstances. B. When announcing or preceding the transmission of Distress, Urgency, Safety or other important messages. C. When the vessels are located in international waters beyond 12 miles. D. When identical traffic is destined for multiple mobile stations within range. 1-8B3 Who determines when a ship station may transmit routine traffic destined for a coast or government station in the maritime mobile service? A. Shipboard radio officers may transmit traffic when it will not interfere with ongoing radiocommunications. B. The order and time of transmission and permissible type of message traffic is decided by the licensed on-duty operator. C. Ship stations must comply with instructions given by the coast or government station. D. The precedence of conventional radiocommunications is determined by FCC and international regulation. 1-8B4 What is required of a ship station which has established initial contact with another station on 2182 kHz or Ch-16? A. The stations must change to an authorized working frequency for the transmission of messages. B. The stations must check the radio channel for Distress, Urgency and Safety calls at least once every ten minutes. C. Radiated power must be minimized so as not to interfere with other stations needing to use the channel. D. To expedite safety communications, the vessels must observe radio silence for two out of every fifteen minutes. 1-8B5 How does a coast station notify a ship that it has a message for the ship? A. By making a directed transmission on 2182 kHz or 156.800 MHz. B. The coast station changes to the vessel’s known working frequency. C. By establishing communications using the eight-digit maritime mobile service identification. D. The coast station may transmit, at intervals, lists of call signs in alphabetical order for which they have traffic. 1-8B6 What is the priority of communications? A. Safety, Distress, Urgency and radio direction-finding. B. Distress, Urgency and Safety. C. Distress, Safety, radio direction-finding, search and rescue. D. Radio direction-finding, Distress and Safety. Answer Key: 1-8B1: C 1-8B2: B 1-8B3: C 1-8B4: A 1-8B5: D 1-8B6: B 1-9B1 Under what circumstances may a ship or aircraft station interfere with a public coast station? A. In cases of distress. B. Under no circumstances during on-going radiocommunications. C. During periods of government priority traffic handling. D. When it is necessary to transmit a message concerning the safety of navigation or important meteorological warnings. 1-9B2 Ordinarily, how often would a station using a telephony emission identify? A. At least every 10 minutes. B. At the beginning and end of each transmission and at 15-minute intervals. C. At 15-minute intervals, unless public correspondence is in progress. D. At 20-minute intervals. 1-9B3 When using a SSB station on 2182 kHz or VHF-FM on channel 16: A. Preliminary call must not exceed 30 seconds. B. If contact is not made, you must wait at least 2 minutes before repeating the call. C. Once contact is established, you must switch to a working frequency. D. All of these. 1-9B4 What should a station operator do before making a transmission? A. Except for the transmission of distress calls, determine that the frequency is not in use by monitoring the frequency before transmitting. B. Transmit a general notification that the operator wishes to utilize the channel. C. Check transmitting equipment to be certain it is properly calibrated. D. Ask if the frequency is in use. 1-9B5 On what frequency should a ship station normally call a coast station when using a radiotelephony emission? A. On a vacant radio channel determined by the licensed radio officer. B. Calls should be initiated on the appropriate ship-to-shore working frequency of the coast station. C. On any calling frequency internationally approved for use within ITU Region 2. D. On 2182 kHz or Ch-16 at any time. 1-9B6 In the International Phonetic Alphabet, the letters E, M, and S are represented by the words: A. Echo, Michigan, Sonar. B. Equator, Mike, Sonar. C. Echo, Mike, Sierra D. Element, Mister, Scooter Answer Key: 1-9B1: A 1-9B2: B 1-9B3: D 1-9B4: A 1-9B5: B 1-9B6: C 1-10B1 What information must be included in a Distress message? A. Name of vessel. B. Location. C. Type of distress and specifics of help requested. D. All of the above. 1-10B2 What are the highest priority communications from ships at sea? A. All critical message traffic authorized by the ship’s master. B. Navigation and meteorological warnings. C. Distress calls are highest and then communications preceded by Urgency and then Safety signals. D. Authorized government communications for which priority right has been claimed. 1-10B3 What is a Distress communication? A. Communications indicating that the calling station has a very urgent message concerning safety. B. An internationally recognized communication indicating that the sender is threatened by grave and imminent danger and requests immediate assistance. C. Radio communications which, if delayed, will adversely affect the safety of life or property. D. An official radio communication notification of approaching navigational or meteorological hazards. 1-10B4 What is the order of priority of radiotelephone communications in the maritime services? A. Alarm and health and welfare communications. B. Navigation hazards, meteorological warnings, priority traffic. C. Distress calls and signals, followed by communications preceded by Urgency and Safety signals and all other communications. D. Government precedence, messages concerning safety of life and protection of property, and traffic concerning grave and imminent danger. 1-10B5 The radiotelephone Distress call and message consists of: A. MAYDAY spoken three times, followed by the name of the vessel and the call sign in phonetics spoken three times. B. Particulars of its position, latitude and longitude, and other information which might facilitate rescue, such as length, color and type of vessel, and number of persons on board. C. Nature of distress and kind of assistance required. D. All of the above. 1-10B6 What is Distress traffic? A. All messages relative to the immediate assistance required by a ship, aircraft or other vehicle threatened by grave or imminent danger, such as life and safety of persons on board, or man overboard. B. In radiotelephony, the speaking of the word, “Mayday.” C. Health and welfare messages concerning property and the safety of a vessel. D. Internationally recognized communications relating to important situations. Answer Key: 1-10B1: D 1-10B2: C 1-10B3: B 1-10B4: C 1-10B5: D 1-10B6 A 1-11B1 What is a typical Urgency transmission? A. A request for medical assistance that does not rise to the level of a Distress or a critical weather transmission higher than Safety. B. A radio Distress transmission affecting the security of humans or property. C. Health and welfare traffic which impacts the protection of on-board personnel. D. A communications alert that important personal messages must be transmitted. 1-11B2 What is the internationally recognized Urgency signal? A. The letters “TTT” transmitted three times by radiotelegraphy. B. The words “PAN PAN” spoken three times before the Urgency call. C. Three oral repetitions of the word “Safety” sent before the call. D. The pronouncement of the word “Mayday.” 1-11B3 What is a Safety transmission? A. A communications transmission which indicates that a station is preparing to transmit an important navigation or weather warning. B. A radiotelephony warning preceded by the words “PAN PAN.” C. Health and welfare traffic concerning the protection of human life. D. A voice call proceeded by the words “Safety Alert.” 1-11B4 The Urgency signal concerning the safety of a ship, aircraft or person shall be sent only on the authority of: A. Master of ship. B. Person responsible for mobile station. C. Either Master of ship or person responsible for mobile station. D. An FCC-licensed operator. 1-11B5 The Urgency signal has lower priority than: A. Ship-to-ship routine calls. B. Distress. C. Safety. D. Security. 1-11B6 What safety signal call word is spoken three times, followed by the station call letters spoken three times, to announce a storm warning, danger to navigation, or special aid to navigation? A. PAN PAN. B. MAYDAY. C. SAFETY. D. SECURITE. Answer Key: 1-11B1: A 1-11B2: B 1-11B3: A 1-11B4: C 1-11B5: B 1-11B6: D 1-12B1 What is the fundamental concept of the GMDSS? A. It is intended to automate and improve existing digital selective calling procedures and techniques. B. It is intended to provide more effective but lower cost commercial communications. C. It is intended to provide compulsory vessels with a collision avoidance system when they are operating in waters that are also occupied by non-compulsory vessels. D. It is intended to automate and improve emergency communications in the maritime industry. 1-12B2 The primary purpose of the GMDSS is to: A. Allow more effective control of SAR situations by vessels. B. Provide additional shipboard systems for more effective company communications. C. Automate and improve emergency communications for the world’s shipping industry. D. Provide effective and inexpensive communications. 1-12B3 What is the basic concept of GMDSS? A. Shoreside authorities and vessels can assist in a coordinated SAR operation with minimum delay. B. Search and rescue authorities ashore can be alerted to a Distress situation. C. Shipping in the immediate vicinity of a ship in Distress will be rapidly alerted. D. All of these. 1-12B4 GMDSS is primarily a system based on? A. Ship-to-ship Distress communications using MF or HF radiotelephony. B. VHF digital selective calling from ship to shore. C. Distress, Urgency and Safety communications carried out by the use of narrow-band direct printing telegraphy. D. The linking of search and rescue authorities ashore with shipping in the immediate vicinity of a ship in Distress or in need of assistance. 1-12B5 What is the responsibility of vessels under GMDSS? A. Vessels over 300 gross tons may be required to render assistance if such assistance does not adversely affect their port schedule. B. Only that vessel, regardless of size, closest to a vessel in Distress, is required to render assistance. C. Every ship is able to perform those communications functions that are essential for the Safety of the ship itself and of other ships. D. Vessels operating under GMDSS, outside of areas effectively serviced by shoreside authorities, operating in sea areas A2, and A4 may be required to render assistance in Distress situations. 1-12B6 GMDSS is required for which of the following? A. All vessels capable of international voyages. B. SOLAS Convention ships of 300 gross tonnage or more. C. Vessels operating outside of the range of VHF coastal radio stations. D. Coastal vessels of less than 300 gross tons. Answer Key: 1-12B1: D 1-12B2: C 1-12B3: D 1-12B4: D 1-12B5: C 1-12B6: B 1-13C1 What is the purpose of the INT-USA control settings on a VHF? A. To change all VTS frequencies to Duplex so all vessels can receive maneuvering orders. B. To change all VHF channels from Duplex to Simplex while in U.S. waters. C. To change certain International Duplex channel assignments to simplex in the U.S. for VTS and other purposes. D. To change to NOAA weather channels and receive weather broadcasts while in the U.S. 1-13C2 VHF ship station transmitters must have the capability of reducing carrier power to: A. 1 watt. B. 10 watts. C. 25 watts. D. 50 watts. 1-13C3 The Dual Watch (DW) function is used to: A. Listen to Ch-70 at the same time while monitoring Ch-16. B. Sequentially monitor 4 different channels. C. Sequentially monitoring all VHF channels. D. Listen on any selected channel while periodically monitoring Ch-16. 1-13C4 Which of the following statements best describes the correct setting for manual adjustment of the squelch control? A. Adjust squelch control to the minimum level necessary to barely suppress any background noise. B. Always adjust squelch control to its maximum level. C. Always adjust squelch control to its minimum level. D. Adjust squelch control to approximately twice the minimum level necessary to barely suppress any background noise. 1-13C5 The “Scan” function is used to: A. Monitor Ch-16 continuously and switching to either Ch-70 or Ch-13 every 5 seconds. B. Scan Ch-16 for Distress calls. C. Scan Ch-70 for Distress alerts. D. Sequentially scan all or selected channels. 1-13C6 Why must all VHF Distress, Urgency and Safety communications (as well as VTS traffic calls) be performed in Simplex operating mode? A. To minimize interference from vessels engaged in routine communications. B. To ensure that vessels not directly participating in the communications can hear both sides of the radio exchange. C. To enable an RCC or Coast station to only hear communications from the vessel actually in distress. D. To allow an RCC or Coast station to determine which transmissions are from other vessels and which transmissions are from the vessel actually in distress. Answer Key: 1-13C1: C 1-13C2: A 1-13C3: D 1-13C4: A 1-13C5: D 1-13C6: B 1-14C1 What channel must VHF-FM-equipped vessels monitor at all times when the vessel is at sea? A. Channel 8. B. Channel 16. C. Channel 5A. D. Channel 1A. 1-14C2 What is the aircraft frequency and emission used for distress communications? A. 243.000 MHz - F3E. B. 121.500 MHz - F3E. C. 156.525 MHz - F1B. D. 121.500 MHz - A3E. 1-14C3 Which VHF channel is used only for digital selective calling? A. Channel 70. B. Channel 16. C. Channel 22A. D. Channel 6. 1-14C4 Which channel is utilized for the required bridge-to-bridge watch? A. DSC on Ch-70. B. VHF-FM on Ch-16. C. VHF-FM on Ch-13 in most areas of the continental United States. D. The vessel’s VHF working frequency. 1-14C5 Which channel would most likely be used for routine ship-to-ship voice traffic? A. Ch-16. B. Ch-08. C. Ch-70. D. Ch-22A. 1-14C6 What channel would you use to place a call to a shore telephone? A. Ch-16. B. Ch-70. C. Ch-28. D. Ch-06. Answer Key: 1-14C1: B 1-14C2: D 1-14C3: A 1-14C4: C 1-14C5: B 1-14C6: C 1-15C1 Which modes could be selected to receive vessel traffic lists from high seas shore stations? A. AM and VHF-FM. B. ARQ and FEC. C. VHF-FM and SSB. D. SSB and FEC. 1-15C2 Why must all MF-HF Distress, Urgency and Safety communications take place solely on the 6 assigned frequencies and in the simplex operating mode? A. For non-GMDSS ships, to maximize the chances for other vessels to receive those communications. B. Answers a) and c) are both correct. C. For GMDSS or DSC-equipped ships, to maximize the chances for other vessels to receive those communications following the transmission of a DSC call of the correct priority. D. To enable an RCC or Coast station to only hear communications from the vessel actually in distress. 1-15C3 To set-up the MF/HF transceiver for a voice call to a coast station, the operator must: A. Select J3E mode for proper SITOR operations. B. Select F1B mode or J2B mode, depending on the equipment manufacturer. C. Select J3E mode for proper voice operations. D. Select F1B/J2B modes or J3E mode, depending on whether FEC or ARQ is preferred. 1-15C4 MF/HF transceiver power levels should be set: A. To the lowest level necessary for effective communications. B. To the level necessary to maximize the propagation radius. C. To the highest level possible so as to ensure other stations cannot “break-in” on the channel during use. D. Both a) and c) are correct. 1-15C5 To set-up the MF/HF transceiver for a TELEX call to a coast station, the operator must: A. Select J3E mode for proper SITOR operations. B. Select F1B mode or J2B mode, depending on the equipment manufacturer. C. Select F1B/J2B modes or J3E mode, depending on whether ARQ or FEC is preferred. D. None of the above. 1-15C6 What is the purpose of the Receiver Incremental Tuning (RIT) or “Clarifier” control? A. It acts as a “fine-tune” control on the receive frequency. B. It acts as a “fine-tune” control on the transmitted frequency. C. It acts as a “fine-tune” control on both the receive and transmitted frequencies. D. None of the above. Answer Key: 1-15C1: D 1-15C2: B 1-15C3: C 1-15C4: A 1-15C5: B 1-15C6: A 1-16C1 On what frequency would a vessel normally call another ship station when using a radiotelephony emission? A. Only on 2182 kHz in ITU Region 2. B. On 2182 kHz or Ch-16, unless the station knows that the called vessel maintains a simultaneous watch on another intership working frequency. C. On the appropriate calling channel of the ship station at 15 minutes past the hour. D. On the vessel’s unique working radio channel assigned by the Federal Communications Commission. 1-16C2 What is the MF radiotelephony calling and Distress frequency? A. 2670 kHz. B. Ch-06 VHF. C. 2182 kHz. D. Ch-22 VHF. 1-16C3 For general communications purposes, paired frequencies are: A. Normally used with private coast stations. B. Normally used between ship stations. C. Normally used between private coast and ship stations. D. Normally used with public coast stations. 1-16C4 What emission must be used when operating on the MF distress and calling voice frequency? A. J3E – Single sideband telephony. B. A1A – On-off keying without modulation by an audio frequency. C. F3E – Frequency modulation telephony. D. A3E – Amplitude modulation telephony, double sideband. 1-16C5 Which of the following defines high frequency “ITU Channel 1212”? A. Ch-12 in the 16 MHz band. B. Ch-1216 in the MF band. C. The 12th channel in the 12 MHz band. D. This would indicate the 1st channel in the 12 MHz band. 1-16C6 For general communications purposes, simplex frequencies are: A. Normally used between ship stations and private coast stations. B. Normally used with public coast stations. C. Normally used between ship stations. D. Both a) and c) are correct. Answer Key: 1-16C1: B 1-16C2: C 1-16C3: D 1-16C4: A 1-16C5: C 1-16C6: D 1-17C1 What is the proper procedure for testing a radiotelephone installation? A. A dummy antenna must be used to insure the test will not interfere with ongoing communications. B. Transmit the station’s call sign, followed by the word “test” on the frequency being used for the test. C. Permission for the voice test must be requested and received from the nearest public coast station. D. Short tests must be confined to a single frequency and must never be conducted in port. 1-17C2 When testing is conducted on 2182 kHz or Ch-16, testing should not continue for more than ______ in any 5-minute period. A. 2 minutes. B. 1 minute. C. 30 seconds. D. 10 seconds. 1-17C3 Under GMDSS, a compulsory VHF-DSC radiotelephone installation must be tested at what minimum intervals at sea? A. Daily. B. Annually, by a representative of the FCC. C. Weekly. D. Monthly. 1-17C4 The best way to test the MF-HF NBDP system is? A. Make a radiotelephone call to a coast station. B. Initiate an ARQ call to demonstrate that the transmitter and antenna are working. C. Initiate an FEC call to demonstrate that the transmitter and antenna are working. D. Initiate an ARQ call to a Coast Station and wait for the automatic exchange of answerbacks. 1-17C5 The best way to test the Inmarsat-C terminal is? A. Compose and send a brief message to your own Inmarsat-C terminal. B. Send a message to a shore terminal and wait for confirmation. C. Send a message to another ship terminal. D. If the “Send” light flashes, proper operation has been confirmed. 1-17C6 When may you test a radiotelephone transmitter on the air? A. Between midnight and 6:00 AM local time. B. Only when authorized by the Commission. C. At any time (except during silent periods) as necessary to assure proper operation. D. After reducing transmitter power to 1 watt. Answer Key: 1-17C1: B 1-17C2: D 1-17C3: A 1-17C4: D 1-17C5: A 1-17C6: C 1-18C1 Under normal circumstances, what do you do if the transmitter aboard your ship is operating off-frequency, overmodulating or distorting? A. Reduce to low power. B. Reduce audio volume level. C. Stop transmitting. D. Make a notation in station operating log. 1-18C2 Which would be an indication of proper operation of a SSB transmitter rated at 60 watt PEP output? A. In SSB (J3E) voice mode, with the transmitter keyed but without speaking into the microphone, power output is indicated. B. In SITOR communications, the power meter can be seen fluctuating regularly from zero to the 60 watt relative output reading. C. In SSB (J3E) mode, speaking into the microphone causes power meter to fluctuate slightly around the 60 watt reading. D. A steady indication of transmitted energy on an RF Power meter with no fluctuations when speaking into the microphone. 1-18C3 If a ship radio transmitter signal becomes distorted: A. Reduce transmitter power. B. Use minimum modulation. C. Cease operations. D. Reduce audio amplitude. 1-18C4 What would be an indication of a malfunction on a GMDSS station with a 24 VDC battery system? A. A constant 30 volt reading on the GMDSS console voltmeter. B. After testing the station on battery power, the ammeter reading indicates a high rate of charge that then declines. C. After testing the station on battery power, a voltmeter reading of 30 volts for brief period followed by a steady 26 volt reading. D. None of the above. 1-18C5 Your antenna tuner becomes totally inoperative. What would you do to obtain operation on both the 8 MHz and 22 MHz frequency bands? A. Without an operating antenna tuner, transmission is impossible. B. It is impossible to obtain operation on 2 different HF bands, without an operating antenna tuner. C. Bypass the antenna tuner and shorten the whip to 15 ft. D. Bypass the antenna tuner. Use a straight whip or wire antenna approximately 30 ft long. 1-18C6 Which of the following conditions would be a symptom of malfunction in a 2182 kHz radiotelephone system that must be reported to the Master, then logged appropriately. A. Much higher noise level observed during daytime operation. B. No indication of power output when speaking into the microphone. C. When testing a radiotelephone alarm on 2182 kHz into an artificial antenna, the Distress frequency watch receiver becomes unmuted, an improper testing procedure. D. Failure to contact a shore station 600 nautical miles distant during daytime operation. Answer Key: 1-18C1: C 1-18C2: B 1-18C3: C 1-18C4: A 1-18C5: D 1-18C6: B 1-19D1 What are the antenna requirements of a VHF telephony coast, maritime utility or ship station? A. The shore or on-board antenna must be vertically polarized. B. The antenna array must be type-accepted for 30-200 MHz operation by the FCC. C. The horizontally-polarized antenna must be positioned so as not to cause excessive interference to other stations. D. The antenna must be capable of being energized by an output in excess of 100 watts. 1-19D2 What is the antenna requirement of a radiotelephone installation aboard a passenger vessel? A. The antenna must be located a minimum of 15 meters from the radiotelegraph antenna. B. The antenna must be vertically polarized and as non-directional and efficient as is practicable for the transmission and reception of ground waves over seawater. C. An emergency reserve antenna system must be provided for communications on 156.800 MHz. D. All antennas must be tested and the operational results logged at least once during each voyage. 1-19D3 What is the most common type of antenna for GMDSS VHF? A. Horizontally polarized circular antenna. B. Long wire antenna. C. Both of the above. D. None of the above. 1-19D4 What is the purpose of the antenna tuner? A. It alters the electrical characteristics of the antenna to match the frequency in use. B. It physically alters the length of the antenna to match the frequency in use. C. It makes the antenna look like a half-wave antenna at the frequency in use. D. None of the above. 1-19D5 What advantage does a vertical whip have over a long wire? A. It radiates more signal fore and aft. B. It radiates equally well in all directions. C. It radiates a strong signal vertically. D. None of the above. 1-19D6 A vertical whip antenna has a radiation pattern best described by? A. A figure eight. B. A cardioid. C. A circle. D. An ellipse. Answer Key: 1-19D1: A 1-19D2: B 1-19D3: D 1-19D4: A 1-19D5: B 1-19D6: C 1-20D1 For a small passenger vessel inspection, reserve power batteries must be tested: A. At intervals not exceeding every 3 months. B. At intervals not exceeding every 6 months C. Before any new voyage D. At intervals not exceeding 12 months, or during the inspection. 1-20D2 What are the characteristics of the Reserve Source of Energy under GMDSS? A. Supplies independent HF and MF installations at the same time. B. Cannot be independent of the propelling power of the ship. C. Must be independent of the ship’s electrical system when the RSE is needed to supply power to the GMDSS equipment. D. Must be incorporated into the ship’s electrical system. 1-20D3 Which of the following terms is defined as a back-up power source that provides power to radio installations for the purpose of conducting Distress and Safety communications when the vessel’s main and emergency generators cannot? A. Emergency Diesel Generator. B. Reserve Source of Energy. C. Reserve Source of Diesel Power. D. Emergency Back-up Generator. 1-20D4 In the event of failure of the main and emergency sources of electrical power, what is the term for the source required to supply the GMDSS console with power for conducting distress and other radio communications? A. Emergency power. B. Ship’s emergency diesel generator. C. Reserve source of energy. D. Ship’s standby generator 1-20D5 What is the requirement for emergency and reserve power in GMDSS radio installations? A. An emergency power source for radio communications is not required if a vessel has proper reserve power (batteries). B. A reserve power source is not required for radio communications. C. Only one of the above is required if a vessel is equipped with a second 406 EPIRB as a backup means of sending a distress alert. D. All newly constructed ships under GMDSS must have both emergency and reserve power sources for radio communications. 1-20D6 What is the meaning of “Reserve Source of Energy”? A. The supply of electrical energy sufficient to operate the radio installations for the purpose of conducting Distress and Safety communications in the event of failure of the ship’s main and emergency sources of electrical power. B. High caloric value items for lifeboat, per SOLAS regulations. C. Diesel fuel stored for the purpose of operating the powered survival craft for a period equal to or exceeding the U.S.C.G. and SOLAS requirements. D. None of these. Answer Key: 1-20D1: D 1-20D2: C 1-20D3: B 1-20D4: C 1-20D5: D 1-20D6: A 1-21D1 What is an EPIRB? A. A battery-operated emergency position-indicating radio beacon that floats free of a sinking ship. B. An alerting device notifying mariners of imminent danger. C. A satellite-based maritime distress and safety alerting system. D. A high-efficiency audio amplifier. 1-21D2 When are EPIRB batteries changed? A. After emergency use; after battery life expires. B. After emergency use or within the month and year replacement date printed on the EPIRB. C. After emergency use; every 12 months when not used. D. Whenever voltage drops to less than 20% of full charge. 1-21D3 If a ship sinks, what device is designed to float free of the mother ship, is turned on automatically and transmits a distress signal? A. An emergency position indicating radio beacon. B. EPIRB on 2182 kHz and 405.025 kHz. C. Bridge-to-bridge transmitter on 2182 kHz. D. Auto alarm keyer on any frequency. 1-21D4 How do you cancel a false EPIRB distress alert? A. Transmit a DSC distress alert cancellation. B. Transmit a broadcast message to “all stations” canceling the distress message. C. Notify the Coast Guard or rescue coordination center at once. D. Make a radiotelephony “distress cancellation” transmission on 2182 kHz. 1-21D5 What is the COSPAS-SARSAT system? A. A global satellite communications system for users in the maritime, land and aeronautical mobile services. B. An international satellite-based search and rescue system. C. A broadband military satellite communications network. D. A Wide Area Geostationary Satellite program (WAGS). 1-21D6 What is an advantage of a 406 MHz satellite EPIRB? A. It is compatible with the COSPAS-SARSAT Satellites and Global Maritime Distress Safety System (GMDSS) regulations. B. Provides a fast, accurate method for the Coast Guard to locating and rescuing persons in distress. C. Includes a digitally encoded message containing the ship’s identity and nationality. D. All of the above. Answer Key: 1-21D1: A 1-21D2: B 1-21D3: A 1-21D4: C 1-21D5: B 1-21D6: D 1-22D1 In which frequency band does a search and rescue transponder operate? A. 3 GHz. B. S-band. C. 406 MHz. D. 9 GHz. 1-22D2 How should the signal from a Search And Rescue Radar Transponder appear on a RADAR display? A. A series of dashes. B. A series of spirals all originating from the range and bearing of the SART. C. A series of 12 equally spaced dots. D. A series of twenty dashes. 1-22D3 What is the purpose of the SART’s audible tone alarm? A. It informs survivors that assistance may be nearby. B. It informs survivors when the battery’s charge condition has weakened. C. It informs survivors when the SART switches to the “standby” mode. D. It informs survivors that a nearby vessel is signaling on DSC. 1-22D4 Which statement is true regarding the SART? A. This is a performance monitor attached to at least one S-band navigational RADAR system. B. This is a 9 GHz transponder capable of being received by another vessel’s S-band navigational RADAR system. C. This is a performance monitor attached to at least one X-band navigational RADAR system. D. This is a 9 GHz transponder capable of being received by vessel’s X-band navigational RADAR system. 1-22D5 At what point does a SART begin transmitting? A. It immediately begins radiating when placed in the “on” position. B. It must be manually activated. C. If it has been placed in the “on” position, it will respond when it has been interrogated by a 9-GHz RADAR signal. D. If it has been placed in the “on” position, it will begin transmitting immediately upon detecting that it is in water. 1-22D6 How can a SART’s effective range be maximized? A. The SART should be placed in water immediately upon activation. B. The SART should be held as high as possible. C. Switch the SART into the “high” power position. D. If possible, the SART should be mounted horizontally so that its signal matches that of the searching RADAR signal. Answer Key: 1-22D1: D 1-22D2: C 1-22D3: A 1-22D4: D 1-22D5: C 1-22D6: B 1-23D1 Which statement is NOT true regarding the requirements of survival craft portable two-way VHF radiotelephone equipment? A. Watertight to a depth of 1 meter for 5 minutes. B. Effective radiated power should be a minimum of 0.25 watts. C. Operates simplex on Ch-70 and at least one other channel. D. The antenna is fixed and non-removable. 1-23D2 Which statement is NOT true regarding the requirements of survival craft portable two-way VHF radiotelephone equipment? A. Operation on Ch-13. B. Effective radiated power should be a minimum of 0.25 Watts. C. Simplex voice communications only. D. Operation on Ch-16. 1-23D3 With what other stations may portable survival craft transceivers communicate? A. Communication is permitted between survival craft. B. Communication is permitted between survival craft and ship. C. Communication is permitted between survival craft and rescue unit. D. All of the above. 1-23D4 Equipment for radiotelephony use in survival craft stations under GMDSS must have what capability? A. Operation on Ch-16. B. Operation on 457.525 MHz. C. Operation on 121.5 MHz. D. Any one of these. 1-23D5 Equipment for radiotelephony use in survival craft stations under GMDSS must have what characteristic(s)? A. Operation on Ch-16. B. Watertight. C. Permanently-affixed antenna. D. All of these. 1-23D6 What is the minimum power of the SCT A. Five watts. B. One watt. C. 1/4 watt. D. None of the above. Answer Key: 1-23D1: C 1-23D2: A 1-23D3: D 1-23D4: A 1-23D5: D 1-23D6: B 1-24D1 NAVTEX broadcasts are sent: A. Immediately following traffic lists. B. In categories of messages indicated by a single letter or identifier. C. On request of maritime mobile stations. D. Regularly, after the radiotelephone silent periods. 1-24D2 MSI can be obtained by one (or more) of the following: A. NAVTEX. B. SafetyNET. C. HF NBDP. D. All of the above. 1-24D3 Which of the following is the primary frequency that is used exclusively for NAVTEX broadcasts internationally? A. 518 kHz. B. 2187.5 kHz. C. 4209.5 kHz. D. VHF channel 16 when the vessel is sailing in Sea Area A1, and 2187.5 kHz when in Sea Area A2. 1-24D4 What means are used to prevent the reception of unwanted broadcasts by vessels utilizing the NAVTEX system? A. Operating the receiver only during daytime hours. B. Coordinating reception with published broadcast schedules. C. Programming the receiver to reject unwanted broadcasts. D. Automatic receiver de-sensitization during night hours. 1-24D5 When do NAVTEX broadcasts typically achieve maximum transmitting range? A. Local noontime. B. Middle of the night. C. Sunset. D. Post sunrise. 1-24D6 What is the transmitting range of most NAVTEX stations? A. Typically 50-100 nautical miles (90-180 km) from shore. B. Typically upwards of 1000 nautical miles (1800 km) during the daytime. C. Typically 200-400 nautical miles (360-720 km). D. It is limited to line-of-sight or about 30 nautical miles (54 km). Answer Key: 1-24D1: B 1-24D2: D 1-24D3: A 1-24D4: C 1-24D5: B 1-24D6: C